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UPSC- TEST BOOKLET

IAS 2019 Prelims GS Paper1

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www.globalias.in PRELIMS 2019 - General Studies-1

1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) , Consider the following Statements :

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.

2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB .

3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct : It has 97 approved members worldwide.[ https://www.aiib.org/en/about-aiib/index.html] Statement 2 is not correct : China has the single largest voting share at 26.6 percent.[ https://www.aiib.org/en/about-aiib/governance/members-of-bank/index.html] Statement 3 is not correct : It has various non-Asian countires as well its members.[ https://www.aiib.org/en/about-aiib/governance/members-of-bank/index.html]

2. What was the purpose of Inter- Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial

institutions recently ?

(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit

(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and state Governments

(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more

(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs.50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Explanation:

Banks and Financial Institutions have signed Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) aimed at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending. It is part of the “Sashakt” plan approved by the government to address the problem of resolving bad loans. [https://currentaffairs.gktoday.in/tags/inter-creditor-agreement]

3. The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the

(a) Banks Board Bureau

(b) Reserve Bank of India

(c) Union Ministry of Finance

(d) Management of concerned bank

Explanation: Self explanatory.[ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banks_Board_Bureau] 4. Consider the following statements :

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the

Government of India .

2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas

3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct : The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. But it was not the first one.[ http://www.pngrb.gov.in/pdf/Act/ACT_PNGRB.pdf]

Statement 2 is correct: The board protects the interest of consumers by fostering fair trade and competition amongst the entities;This is one of the functions of the board. [http://www.pngrb.gov.in/pdf/Act/ACT_PNGRB.pdf]

Statement 3 is correct: Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Appellate Tribunal established under section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act and the said Appellate Tribunal shall exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on it by or under this Act.[ http://www.pngrb.gov.in/pdf/Act/ACT_PNGRB.pdf]

5. With reference to communication technologies, what is /are the difference/ differences between LTE (Long –

Term Evolution ) and VoLTE (Voice over Long Term Evolution) ?

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.

2. LTE is data – only technology and VoLTE is voice –only technology.

Select the correct answer the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct : LTE stands for Long Term Evolution or 3G while 4G means the fourth generation of data technology for mobile networks or VoLTE.

Statement 2 is not correct: Through LTE, we can only surf the web i.e., use the data. So, all the other services like voice calls, SMS messages will not be served through the LTE network (they use 2G/3G technologies instead). The VoLTE on the other hand stands for Voice Over LTE. It means that unlike the 4G LTE, even the calls, SMS and web browsing will be served through the 4G VoLTE technology.

6. Which of the following statements Is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit ( Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.

2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.

3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation: Correct option is C

Statement 1 in incorrect and Statement 3 is correct: ‘‘Provided that the maximum period entitled to

maternity benefit by a woman having two or more than two surviving children shall be twelve weeks of which not more than six weeks shall precede the date of her expected delivery;’’ [https://www.prsindia.org/sites/default/files/The%20Maternity%20Benefit%20%28Amendment%29%20Act%2C%202017.pdf]

Statement 2 is incorrect: “Provided that the employer shall allow four visits a day to the creche by the woman, which shall also include the interval for rest allowed to her” [https://www.prsindia.org/sites/default/files/The%20Maternity%20Benefit%20%28Amendment%29%20Act%2C%202017.pdf]

7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of doing Business Indext?

a) Maintenance of law and order

b) Paying taxes

c) Registering property

d) Dealing with construction permits

Explanation:

Self explanatory.[ http://www.doingbusiness.org/en/methodology]

8. In India extended producer responsibility was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

a) The Bio- medical Waste ( management and Handling) Rules, 1998.

b) The Recycled plastic ( Manufacturing and Usage ) Rules, 1999.

c) The e- Waste ( Management and handling) Rules, 2011.

d) The Food safety and Standard Regulations, 2011.

Explanation:

Self explanatory.[ http://iced.cag.gov.in/wp-content/uploads/C-05%20PPT%20SADIA.pdf]

9. The economic cost of food grains to the food corporation of Inda is Minimum Support price and bonus ( If

any) paid to the farmers plus.

a) Transportation cost only

b) Interest cost only

c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost.

d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns.

Explanation:

Option C is correct;[ https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/es2004-05/chapt2005/chap513.pdf] 10. In the context of any country which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

a) The proportion of literates in the population.

b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines

c) The size of population in the working age group

d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society. Explanation: Social capital is defined by the OECD as “networks together with shared norms, values and understandings that facilitate co-operation within or among groups”. In this definition, we can think of networks as real-world links between groups or individuals. Think of networks of

friends, family networks, networks of former colleagues, and so on. Our shared norms, values and understandings are less concrete than our social networks.Put together, these networks and understandings engender trust and so enable people to work together. [https://www.oecd.org/insights/37966934.pdf]

11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the Purview of

(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme

(b) Lead Bank Scheme

(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

(d) National Skill Development Mission

Explanation: The Service Area Approach (SAA) introduced in April 1989 for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas was applicable to all scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks. Under SAA, each bank branch in rural and semi-urban area was designated to serve an area of 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit of its service area. The primary objective of SAA was to increase productive lending and forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity and increase in income levels. The SAA scheme was reviewed from time to time and appropriate changes were made in the scheme to make it more effective. [ https://rbi.org.in/scripts/BS_ViewMasCirculardetails.aspx?id=9853#8]

12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India , consider the following statements

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral ’ according to the prevailing law in the country .

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers

regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government .

3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: “minor minerals” means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes, and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 15 of the MMDR Act- The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules for, regulating the grant of [quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions] in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Statement 3 is correct:Section 23C of the MMDR Act- The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals and for the purposes connected therewith. [https://mines.gov.in/writereaddata/UploadFile/MMDR%20Act,1957.pdf]

13. Consider the following statements :

1. Most of India’s external debt is owned by Governmental entities .

2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

Explanation;

Statement 1 incorrect: Commercial borrowings continued to be the largest component of external debt with a share of 37.4 per cent, followed by NRI deposits (24.1 per cent) and short term trade credit (19.9 per cent).

Statement 2 is incorrect: US dollar denominated debt continued to be the largest component of India’s external debt with a share of 45.9 percent at end December 2018, followed by the Indian rupee (24.8 percent), SDR (5.1 percent), yen (4.9 percent) and euro (3.1 percent).

[https://dea.gov.in/sites/default/files/India%27s%20External%20Debt%20as%20at%20the%20end%20December%202018.pdf]

14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India ?

(a) Advances

(b) Deposits

(c) Investments

(d) Money at call and short notice

Explanation:

Deposits are not included under the assets of a commercial bank.

15. In the Context of India , which the following factors is /are contributor / contributors to reducing the risk of a

currency crisis ?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s ; IT sector

2. Increasing the government expenditure

3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

A currency crisis is brought on by a decline in the value of a country's currency. This decline in value negatively affects an economy by creating instabilities in exchange rates, meaning that one unit of a certain currency no longer buys as much as it used to in another currency. [ https://www.investopedia.com/articles/economics/08/currency-crises.asp]

Statement 1 and 3 are correct: as foreign currency earnings will improve the value of India’s currency.

Statement 2 is not correct: as government expenditure will decline the value of currency.

16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the

state and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in

the recent past?

a) First administrative Reforms commission (1966)

b) Rajamannar committee (1969)

c) Sarkaria commission ( 1983)

d) National commission to review the working of the Constitution (2000)

Explanation:

[http://interstatecouncil.nic.in/wp-content/uploads/2015/06/CHAPTERIV.pdf]- Recommendations. 17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to

be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

a) Certificate of Deposit

b) Commercial paper

c) Promisssory Note

d) Participatory Note

Explanation:

Participatory notes also referred to as P-Notes, or PNs, are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

[ https://www.investopedia.com/terms/p/participatorynotes.asp] 18. Consider the following statements;

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and planning Authority exists at both

National and state levels.

2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the

Compensatory Afforestatation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: [http://www.ukcampa.org.in/Docs/CAMPA%20Act%202016.pdf]

Statement 2 is not correct: people’s participation is not mandatory.

19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications,

insurance, electricity etc.?

1. Ad Hoc committees set up by the Parliament

2. Parliamentary Department Related standing commitees.

3. Finance commission

4. Financcial sector Legislative Reforms commission.

5. NITI Aayog.

Select the correct answer using the code given below;

a) 1 and 2

b) 1,3 and 4

c) 3,4 and 5

d) 2 and 5

Explanation: Statement 1 and 2 are correct: In India, parliamentary scrutiny of the regulators can take place through the following means: (i) question hour; (ii) discussions in Parliament; (iii) parliamentary committees(either Ad hoc or DRSCs).

Statements 3, 4 and 5 are not correct:

Role of Finance Commission is related to fiscal federalism.

NITI Aayog plays the role in cooperative Federalism.

The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission was a recommendory commission that has recommended revamping the legislative framework governing the financial sector by a non-sectoral, principle-based approach and restructuring existing regulatory agencies and creating new agencies wherever needed.

20. With reference to india’s Five – year plans, which of the following statements is / are correct?

1. From the Second five year plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital

good industries.

2. The fourth five year plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased

concentration of wealth and economic power.

3. In the fifth five year plan for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct : The Second Five Year Plan Rapid industrialisation with special emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries. [ http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/india-2/five-year-plan/five-year-plans-with-objectives-and-achievements/65106] Statement 2 is correct: The Fourth Plan provided necessary corrective to the earlier trend which helped particularly the stronger sections in agriculture as well as in industry to enable them rapidly to enlarge and diversify the production base.

21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements :

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid .

2. An amendment to the constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

Explanation:

Self explanatory:Part 3 of constitution.

22. Consider the following statements :

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of

goods and services in different countries .

2. In terms of PPP dollars , India is the sixth largest economy in the world .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In purchasing power parity (PPP) exchange rate — the rate at which the currency of one country would have to be converted into that of another country to buy the same amount of goods and services in each country.

Statement 2 is not correct: India is the third largest economy when PPP dollars are used to measure the economy.

[http://statisticstimes.com/economy/countries-by-gdp-ppp.php]

23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements

:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest .

2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds .

3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane .

4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Self explanatory.

24. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest

imports in terms of value in the last five years ?

(a) Spices

(b) Fresh fruits

(c) Pulses

(d) Vegetable oils

Explanation:

Data based question no explanation required.

25. In the context of polity , which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition

of liberity ?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Explanation:

Concept of Liberty has two dimensions: Positive and Negative Dimension. Thus, the term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. The second dimension is positive conception of liberty that is broad and includes the first meaning.

[ http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/essay/liberty-definition-features-types-and-essential-safeguards-of-liberty/40364]

26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/ RBI takes to stop the slide of

Indian rupee?

a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods promoting exports.

b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds.

c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing

d) Following an expansionary monetary policy.

Explanation:

Expansionary policy will lead to increase in money supply which in turn will lead to inflation which further weakens the rupee.

27. “Consider the following statements”:

The Reserver Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of payment system provider that

1. They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system

only in India.

2. They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.

3. They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

by the end of the calendar year.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Full explanation-- https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=11244 28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizen known as ‘ General

Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implemtation of it form 25 th May, 2018.

a) Australia

b) Canada

c) The European Union

d) The united states of America

Explanation:

Self explanatory-- https://eur-lex.europa.eu/eli/reg/2016/679/oj 29. Recently India signed a deal known as ‘ Action Plan for prioritization and Implementation of

Cooperation Areas in the Nuclier field’ with which of the following countries?

a) Japan

b) Russia

c) The United Kingdom

d) The United states of America

Explanation:

Factual-- http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1548726

30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio

b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio.

d) Increase in the population of the country.

Explanation:

A key tenet of Keynesian economic theory is the notion that economic activity can be influenced by changes in aggregate demand. On a macro level, the multiplier effect measures the impact that a change in aggregate demand will have on final economic output. Here, the multiplier would be the change in real GDP divided by the change in injections. Injections can include government spending, private investments, exports, lowering or raising tax and/or interest rates.

Statement 1 and 3 are not correct as due to both of these options the deposit capacity of banking system will fall.

Statement 4 is not correct: population can not determine the money multiplier.

[https://www.investopedia.com/terms/m/multipliereffect.asp] 31. Consider the following statements about particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India :

1. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one Union Territory .

2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status .

3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far .

4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribe are included in the list of PVTGs .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 , 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d 1, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Statement 3 is not correct : There are only 75 PVTGs officially notified so far.

Other Details- https://tribal.nic.in/pvtg.aspx

32. With reference to the constitution of India , prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws

cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142 It could mean which one

of the following ?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be

challenged in any court in any court of law .

(b) The supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the

Parliament .

(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country , the President of India can declare Financial

Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union

Legislature

Explanation:

Article 142: Enforcement of decreases and orders of Supreme Court and unless as to

discovery, etc

( 1 ) The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such

order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it,

and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of

India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and,

until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order

prescribe

(2) Subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by Parliament, the Supreme

Court shall, as respects the whole of the territory of India, have all and every power to make

any order for the purpose of securing the attendance of any person, the discovery or

production of any documents, or the investigation or punishment of any contempt of itself.

[https://indiankanoon.org/doc/500307/]

33. With references to the Legislative Assembly of a state in India , consider the following statements :

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first

session of the year

2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter , it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that

matter

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d Neither 1 Nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: refer Art176 of Indian constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: refer Art208 of Indian constitution.

34. Consider the following statements:

1. The united Nations convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a protocol against the Smuggling of Migrast

by Land, Sea and Air.

2. The UNCAC is the ever first legally binding global anti- corruption instrument.

3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organised Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion

of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken

illicity.

4. The united Nations office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assits in the

implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2,3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct as UNTOC has this protocol.

Statement 3 is not correct as UNCAC has this provision.

[https://www.unodc.org/southasia/en/frontpage/2011/may/indian-govt-ratifies-two-un-conventions.html]

35. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian forest Act, 1927, forest dweller have the right to fell the

bamboos grown on forest areas.

2. As per the scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers ( Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,

bamboo is a minor forest produce.

3. the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers ( Recognition of Forest rights) Act, 2006 allows

ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct/

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation: Correct answer is B

Satement 1 is not correct: This act was amended in 2018. Details- https://www.prsindia.org/billtrack/indian-forest-amendment-bill-2017

Statement 2 and 3 are correct. https://indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/2070/1/A2007-02.pdf 36. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

a) Aritcle 19

b) Article 21

c) Article 25 d) Article 29 Explanation: SC judgement- https://www.livelaw.in/right-choose-life-partner-fundamental-right-consent-family-

community-clan-not-necessary-marriage-two-adults-sc-read-judgment/

37. Consider the following statements :

1. According to the Indian Patents Act , a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India

2. In India , there is no Intellectual property Appellate Board

3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct/

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation: Correct answer is C

Statement 1 is no correct and 3 is correct : Plants and animals in whole or any part thereof other than microorganisms but including seeds, varieties and species and essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plants and animals are not patentable in India.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) was constituted on September 15, 2003 by the Indian Government to hear and resolve the appeals against the decisions of the registrar under the Indian Trademarks Act, 1999 and the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.

[http://www.ipindia.nic.in/writereaddata/Portal/IPOAct/1_31_1_patent-act-1970-11march2015.pdf]

[https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/agriculture/was-there-a-victory-for-monsanto-in-india-s-supreme-court-on-a-patent-matter--62800 ]

38. Consider the following statements :

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection , and the

procedure and manner in which it is sought

2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct/

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: EPA,1986 does not contain any provision related to public participation.

Statement 2 is correct: Section 6 authorizes central government regarding pollution norms.

[https://aerb.gov.in/images/PDF/1.24-Environmental_Protection_Act_1986.pdf ]

39. As per the solid Waste Management Rules , 2016 in India , which one of the following

statements is correct ?

(a) Waste generator has to segregrate waste into five categories

(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies , notified towns and all industrial townships only

(c) The rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste

processing facilities

(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be

moved to another district

Explanation:

Statement (a) is not correct: The Solid Waste Management rules 2016 have mandated the source

segregation of waste into three streams- wet, dry and Domestic Hazardous waste.

Statement (b) is not correct: The SWM rules are applicable beyond municipal areas and have

included urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships, areas under the control

of Indian Railways, airports, special economic zones, places of pilgrimage, religious and historical

importance, and State and Central Government organisations in their ambit.

Statement (c) is correct: Elaborate criteria for landfill includes -- for census towns with a population

below 1 million or for all local bodies having a population of 0.5 million or more, common, or stand-

alone sanitary landfills will have to be set up in three years time. Also, common, or regional sanitary

landfills to be set up by all local bodies and census towns with a population under 0.5 million will

have to be completed in three years.

Statement (d) in not correct: The responsibility of CPCB includes to provide guidance to States or

Union territories on inter-state movement of waste.

[http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=138591]

40. Consider the following statements :

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders ) Central (Amendment ) Rulesa, 2018

1. if rules for fixed- term employment are implemented , it becomes easier for the firms?companiesw to

layoff workers

2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct/

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 Nor 2

Explanation: correct answer is C

Both statements are correct. [https://labour.gov.in/sites/default/files/FTE%20Final%20Notification.pdf]

41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements.

1. In Augmented Reality (AR) a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut

out.

2. In virtual Reality ( VR) images generated from a computer are projected onto real- life objects or

surroundings.

3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-

phone or PC.

4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4

c) 1,2 and 3

d) 4 only

Explanation:

Complete details regarding AR and VR - https://www.fi.edu/difference-between-ar-vr-and-mr 42. The word Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

a) Fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

b) and early human species

c) a cave system found in North – East India.

d) A geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

Explanation:

Factual- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denisovan

43. With reference to the recent developments in science which one of the following statements is not

correct?

a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species

b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.

c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a

laboratory.

d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

Explanation:

Statement (a) is not correct: Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken

from cells of different species.

Statement (b) Artificial gene synthesis.

Statement (c) Cloning.

Statement (d) Tissue culture technology.

44. Consider the following statements: A

digitial signature is

1. An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it.

2. Used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on internet.

3. An electronic method of signing an electronic method of signing an electronic document and

ensuring that the original content is unchanged.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: A digital signature certificate , not digital signature itself, is essentially a bit of information that says the Web server is trusted by an independent source known as a Certificate

Authority.

[https://computer.howstuffworks.com/digital-signature.htm ] 45. In the context of wearable technology, Which of the following tasks is/ are accomplished by wearable

devices?

1. Location identification of a person

2. Sleep monitoring of a person

3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Wearable technology, wearables, fashion technology, tech togs, or fashion electronics are smart electronic devices (electronic device with micro-controllers) that can be incorporated into clothing or worn on the body as implants or accessories.

[https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wearable_technology ]

46. ‘RNA Interference ( RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last fe years. Why?

1. It is used in developing genosilencing therapies.

2. It can be used in developing therapies for treatment of cancer.

3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.

4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 4

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: RNA interference (RNAi) or Post-Transcriptional Gene Silencing (PTGS) is a conserved biological response to double-stranded RNA that mediates resistance to both endogenous parasitic and exogenous pathogenic nucleic acids, and regulates the expression of protein-coding genes.

Statement 2 and 4 are correct: Multiple technological advancements and precision in gene targeting have allowed a plethora of potential applications, ranging from targeting infections in crop plants to improving health in human patients. The use of RNAi is not limited to the determination of mammalian gene function, and also could be used for treating viral infections and cancer.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Hormone replacement therapy is used to help balance estrogen and progesterone in women around the time of menopause. It is different from the RNAi technology.

[https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/probe/docs/techrnai/] 47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘ blackholes’ billions of light years away from the earth.

What is the significance of this observation?

a) Higgs boson particles were detected.

b) Gravitational waves were detected .

c) Possibility of inter- galactic space travel through ‘ wormhole, was confirmed.

d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘ singularity.’

Explanation:

Read: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_observation_of_gravitational_waves

48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens

in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people

2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure disease.

3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.

Select the correct answer using the code give below.

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 3 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4 Explanation: Correct answer is D Statement 1 is not correct: Microbial resistance not genetic in nature and thus no one is born with microbial resistance. Statement 2 is correct: Incorrectly prescribed antibiotics also contribute to the promotion of resistant bacteria. Statement 3 is correct: Numerous cases of antimicrobial resistance in humans have been traced to resistant microbes suspected of originating in livestock. Increased use of antibiotics in livestock leads to their anti microbe resistance. This resistance is transferred from livestock to the humans. Transmission of resistant bacteria from livestock to humans can occur through the consumption of meat, direct contact with colonized animals or manure spread in the environment. Statement 4 is correct: No one can completely avoid the risk of resistant infections, but some people are at greater risk than others (for example, people with chronic illnesses). [https://www.niaid.nih.gov/research/antimicrobial-resistance-causes]

49. What is cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

c) A gene that makes plants pest resistant.

d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops.

Explanation:

Read briefly: https://www.broadinstitute.org/what-broad/areas-focus/project-spotlight/questions-and-answers-about-crispr

50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

c) globally, the number of the people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than

those infected with HIV.

d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Explanation: Read: https://www.hiv.gov/hiv-basics/staying-in-hiv-care/other-related-health-issues/hepatitis-b-and-c

51. With reference to Mughal Indian, what is / are the difference / differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were

holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.

2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: In return of all the privileges and superior rights, the zamindars were supposed to perform certain duties. Their main function naturally was the collection and deposition of the land revenue into the royal treasury. Besides this, the zamindars were expected to maintain law and order in their jurisdictions. They also helped the state officials in curbing the refractory and rebellions elements. The troops maintained by the zamindars were to be placed at the disposal of the state officials whenever the need arose.

Statement 2 is not correct: Jaggirdari was neither permannet nor hereditary.

[https://www.owlgen.com/question/what-is-the-difference-between-jagirdar-and-zamindar] 52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) the ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to al l the landless.

c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.

d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Explanation:

Option (A) is incorrect and (B) is correct. Equity in agriculture called for land reforms which primarily refer to change in the ownership of landholdings. Just a year after independence, steps were taken to abolish intermediaries and to make the tillers the owners of land. The idea behind this move was that ownership of land would give incentives to the tillers to invest in making improvements provided sufficient capital was made available to them. Land ceiling was another policy to promote equity in the agricultural sector. This means fixing the maximum size of land which could be owned by an individual.

Option (C) is incorrect: The policy resulted in fragmentation of land holdings. As a result, cultivation of cash crops became difficult.

Option (D) is incorrect: One of the major reasons for the failure of land ceiling laws was a number of exemptions that they came with. For example, categories of lands under tea, rubber, coffee plantations etc. were exempted from ceiling limitations

53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

a) International Monetary Fund

b) United Nations conference on Trade and Development.

c) World Economic forum

d) World Bank.

Explanation:

Factual. 54. Consider the following statements about the Charter Act of 1813.

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.

2. It asserted the soverignity of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the company.

3. The revenue of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 3 is not correct: From 1853 ,the revenues of India were controlled by the British Parliament.

[https://www.gktoday.in/gk/charter-act-of-1813_25/]

55. With reference to swadeshi movement , consider the following statements :

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries

2. The National Council of education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement

Which of the statements given above are correct.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: During Swadeshi Movement It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries like Business ventures by P. C. Roy (Father of Indian Pharmaceuticals), Constructive work in Village by Rabindranath Tagore.

Statement 2 is correct: In 1906, the National Council of Education, Bengal was constituted. There were 96 Founder members in the Council:Bipin Chandra Pal, P. Mitter, Surendranath Banerji, Gagendranath Tagore, Rabindranath Tagore, Chittaranjan Das, Arabinda Ghose, Satish Chandra Mukherjee, A. Rasul, Aswini Kumar Dutt, Radha Kumud Mukherjee and other eminent personalities.

[https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swadeshi_movement] 56. Consider the following Pairs :

Movement / Organization Leader

1. All India Anti – Untouchability : Mahatma Gandhi

League

2. All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

3. Self – Respect Movement : E.V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched ?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Factual. 57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site ?

(a) Chanhudaro

(b) Kot Diji

(c) Sohgaura

(d) Desalpur

Explanation:

Sohgaura Copper Plat is a Mauryan record that mentions famine relief efforts. It is one of the very few pre Ashoka Brahmi inscriptions in India.

[https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sohgaura_copper_plate_inscription]

58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka ‘ (King Ashoka ) mentioned along with the

stone portrait of Ashoka ?

(a) Kanganahalli

(b) Sanchi

(c) Shahbazgarhi

(d) Sohgaura

Explanation:

Factual.[ https://www.telegraphindia.com/india/asoka-the-great-with-nameplate/cid/928351] 59. Consider the following :

1. Defication of the Buddha

2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas

3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is / are the feature / features of Mahayana Buddhism ?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Read: https://www2.kenyon.edu/Depts/Religion/Fac/Adler/Reln260/Mahayana.htm 60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the gupta period , which one of the

following statements is correct ?

(a) It was considered a source of income for the state , a sort of tax paid by the people

(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire

(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages

(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer

Explanation:

During the Gupta period land taxes increased in number, and those on trade and commerce decreased. Probably the king collected taxes varying from one-fourth to one-sixth of the produce. In addition, whenever the royal army passed through the countryside, the local people had to feed it. The peasants had also to supply animals, food grains, furniture, etc., for the maintenance of royal officers on duty in rural areas. In central and western India, the villagers were also subjected to forced labour called vishti by the royal army and officials.

[http://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/system-of-administration-during-gupta-age/2243] 61. Which one of the following groups of plans was domesticated in the ‘Nes World’ and introduced into the ‘

Old world?

a) Tabacco, Cocoa and rubber

b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber

c) Cotton, Coffee and sugarcane

d) Rubber, coffee and wheat.

Explanation:

Read: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Columbian_exchange

62. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiantic lion is naturally found in India only.

2. Double- humped camel is naturally found in India only.

3. One- horned rhinopceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion.

Statement 2 is not correct: Bactrian camels have two humps. It is found in Central Asia. In India, they are found exclusively in Ladakh.[ https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/specials/india-interior/two-humps-one-job-in-nubra-valley/article7900544.ece]

Statement 3 is not correct: One horned rhino is also found in Nepal.

[ https://www.worldwildlife.org/species/greater-one-horned-rhino] 63. Consider the following pairs:

Famous place River

Pandharpur Chandrabhaga

Tiruchairapalli Cauvery

Hampi Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3 Explanation:

Hampi is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in the eastern part of central Karnataka near the state border with Andhra Pradesh.

64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some states than in others because/

a) Poverty rates vary from state to state.

b) Price levels vary from state to state.

c) Gross state products varies from state to state

d) Quality of public distribution varies from state to state.

Explanation:

These poverty lines would vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials.

[http://planningcommission.nic.in/news/pre_pov2307.pdf] 65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique

and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions

b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones.

c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

d) Reducing the global warming.

Explanation:

Read: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/a-cocktail-geo-engineering-approach-to-reversing-global-warming-4805937/

66. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘ pyrolysis and plasma gasification’

mentioned?

a) Extraction of rare earth elements

b) Natural gas extraction technologies

c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

d) Waste – to Energy technologies.

Explanation:

Read: https://cleantechsolutions.wordpress.com/2011/09/24/comparison-of-different-waste-to-energy-processes/

67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney wildlife Sanctuaries, and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.

b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wild life sanctuaries and silent valley National Part.

c) Kaudinya Gundle Brahmeswaram and Papikonda wildlife sanctuaries and Mukurthi national park.

d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara wildlife Sanctuaries and Nagajunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve.

Explanation:

It is composed of Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney wildlife Sanctuaries and their adjoining areas of Achencoil,Thenmala, Konni, Punalur, Thiruvananthapuram Divisions and Agasthyavanam Special Division in Kerala.Inclusion of adjoining areas of Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu has been

approved. The reserve now covers parts of Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari Districts in Tamil Nadu and Thiruvananthapuram, Kollam and Pathanamthitta Districts in Kerala.

[https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Agasthyamala_Biosphere_Reserve]

68. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores

2. Some species of Fish are herbivores

3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores

4. Some species of snakes are viviparous

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 , 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2 ,3 and 4

Explanation: Correct answer is D.

Statement 1 is correct: Herbivorous turtle ants obtain essential nutrients from a conserved nitrogen-recycling gut microbiome.

Statement 2 is correct: Herbivorous fishes are fishes that eat plant material.Surgeonfish and parrotfish are two familiar examples, often seen browsing and scraping on reef algae.

Statement 3 is correct: Manatees and Dugongs, often called sea cows, are herbivores. They are marine mammals.

Statement 4 is correct: Viviparous is when there is no egg at all. Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles. Boa constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any stage of development

69. Consider the following pairs :

Wildlife Naturally found in

1. Blue- finned Mahseer : Cauvery River

2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River

3. Rusty- spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 2 is not correct: Irrawady doplhin are cited in Chilika, Gahirmatha and Balasore area of Orissa in India.

70. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads ‘ that are released into environment ?

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems

(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children

(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields

(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants

Explanation:

Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water. In the US, the Microbead-Free Waters Act 2015 phases out microbeads in rinse-off cosmetics by July 2017.Several other countries have also banned microbeads from rinse-off cosmetics, including Canada, France, New Zealand, Sweden, Taiwan and the United Kingdom.

[https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microbead] 71. Building ‘ Kalyaana mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

a) Chalukya

b) Chandela

c) Rashtrakuta

d) Vijayanagara

Explanation: Correct answer is D.

Kalyana mandapa – Hall meant for celebrations. 72. Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘ Amil’.

2. the Iqta system of Sultans of delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.

3. The office of ‘ Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct/

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Correct answer is A.

[http://www.historydiscussion.net/history-of-india/administration-of-india-under-the-delhi-sultanate/2710]

Statement 2 is not correct: Iqta was not indigenous system.

Statement 3 is not correct: Mir Bakshi was under Mughels.

73. Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.

2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Correct answer is D.

Statement 1 is not coorect : Saint Nibarka (11-13th century ) was not a contemporary of Akbar ( 16th century).

Statement 2 is not correct : Kabir died in 1519 and Sarhindi was born in 1564. So Kabir can never be influenced by him.

74. With reference to the British colonial rule in Indian, consider the following statements.

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘ indentured labour’.

2. In Lord chelmsford’s ‘War conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting

Indians for World War.

3. Consequently upon the breaking of salt law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was

declared illegal by the colonial ruler.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 2 is not correct: Gandhi supported the resolution. http://www.columbia.edu/itc/mealac/pritchett/00litlinks/gandhi/part5/526chapter.html

75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs. Person

Position held

1. Sir Tej Bahadur President All India

Sapru Liberal federation

2. K.C Neogy Member the Constituent Assembly 3. P.C Joshi General Secretary

Communist party of India,

Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched.

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

Factual. 76. With reference to Main Tansen , which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar

(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses

(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons

(d) Tansen invented many Ragas

Explanation:

Tansen was the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandavagarh (Rewa).

https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/music/the-legend-of-mian-tansen/article22893454.ece

77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and

individual portrait ?

(a) Humayun

(b) Akbar

(c) Jahangir

(d) Shah Jahan

Explanation:

Factual.

78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine Zone ?

(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(c) Neora Valley National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

(a) Department of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Labour and Employment

(c) NITI Aayog

(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Explanation:

Factual: https://niti.gov.in/content/atal-innovation-mission-aim

80. On 21 st June , the Sun

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(c) Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

(d) Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Explanation:

Factual: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Summer_solstice 81. Consider the following Statements

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment

2. Cattle release ammonia into environment

3. Poultry, industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Correct answer is D.

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Nitrogen Assessment reports that agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010.

Statement 2 is correct: Ruminant animals do not efficiently utilize dietary nitrogen. Excess nitrogen fed in the form of feed proteins is excreted in manure (urine + feces).

Statement 3 is correct: The poultry industry in India growing at 6 per cent per year emitted N to the tune of 0.415 Mt in 2016, which will increase to 1.089 Mt by 2030.

[https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece]

82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

a) Recently discovered uranium deposits.

b) Tropical rain forests

c) Underground cave systems

d) Water reservoirs

Explanation: Correct answer is D.

Factual: http://agricoop.nic.in/sites/default/files/CWWG%20Data%20as%20on%2019.01.2018.pdf

83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen- enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public

transport, consider the following statements.

1. the main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.

2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emission.

3. Hydrogen up to one- fifith by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.

4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 4 only

d) 1, 2 3, and 4

Explanation: Correct answer is B.

Statement 1 is not correct: HCNG reduces emissions of CO up to 70%. 84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

a) Clouds absorbs the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights

d) Clouds deflects the blowing wind to ground level.

Explanation:

https://www.lordgrey.org.uk/~f014/usefulresources/aric/Resources/Teaching_Packs/Key_Stage_4/Weather_Climate/05.html

85. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of Indian Introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime

Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India Struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being

violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The 39th Amendment Act (1975) kept the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts.

Statement 2 is correct. SC held that “The expectation from the judiciary, to safeguard the rights of the citizens of this country, can only be ensured, by keeping it absolutely insulated and independent, from the other organs of governance.” Thus, the Bench in a majority of 4:1 rejected the NJAC Act and the Constitutional Amendment as “unconstitutional and void” for violation of independence of the judiciary. [https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-verdict-on-njac-and-collegium-system/article7769266.ece]

86. Consider the following statements:

1. the motion to impeach a judge of the supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha as per the judges (inquiry) Act, 1968.

2. the constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes incapacity and proved

misbehaviour’ of the judge of the Supreme Court of India.

3. the details of the process of impechement of the judges of the supreme Court of Indai are given in the

judges ( Inquiry) Act . 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting the law requires the motion to be

backed by each House of the parliament and supported by majority of total membership of that House and by

not less than two – thirds of total members if that house present and voting

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect and 3 is correct. The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment: It says, the Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it. Statement 2 is incorrect. A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the President. The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity. But, the words are not defined in the Article 124. Statement 4 is correct. A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the President. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (i.e., a majority of the total membership of that House and majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). [https://www.business-standard.com/article/current-affairs/impeachment-explainer-and-options-before-oppn-if-chairman-rejects-motion-118042000800_1.html]

87. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the constitution of India during the prime Ministership of

a) Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

c) Indira Gandhi

d) Morarji Desai

Explanation:

The First Amendment in 1951 marked the addition of the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution. 88. Consider the following statement:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.

2. Now, Coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.

3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-

sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The nationalisation was done in two phases, the first with the coking coal mines in 1971-72 (the Coking Coal Mines (Emergency Provisions) Act, 1971) and then with the non-coking coal

mines in 1973(the Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973). Statement 2 is not correct: Under the provisions of the Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015, auction of coal mines is conducted in an electronic platform through a transparent mechanism.

Statement 3 is not correct: The quantity of coal imports has increased only by 9.1% from 190.95MT to 208.27MT in 2017-18.

89. Consider the following statements:

1. The parliament ( Prevention of Disqualification0 Act, 1959 exempts several posts from

disqualification on the grounds of ‘ Office of Profit’.

2. The above mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term ‘ Office of Profit’ is well defined in the constitution of India,

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Article 102 of the Constitution provides that a person shall be disqualified from being chosen as a Member of Parliament (MP) if he holds an office of profit under the government of India or the government of a state. However, Parliament can declare by law that the holding of certain offices will not incur this disqualification. Statement 2 is correct. The act has been amended 5 times, last being in 2013.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The term has not been defined in the constitution.

https://currentaffairs.gktoday.in/explained-office-profit-01201851899.html

90. Under which schedule of the constitution of india can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for

mining be declared null and void ?

(a) Third schedule

(b) Fifth schedule

(c) Ninth schedule

(d) Twelfth schedule

Explanation:

https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S5.pdf

91. Recently,there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan

nettle(Girardinia diversifolia)because it is found to be a sustainable source of

(a) anti-malarial drug

(b) biodesel

(c) pulp for paper industry

(d) textile fibre

Explanation:

https://www.treehugger.com/sustainable-fashion/in-nepals-himalayas-grows-a-sustainable-textile-fiber-photos.html

92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location

2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location

3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c ) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Based on the green light emitted a particular area, the chlorophyll content of the vegetation can be determined. Statement 2 is correct. CO2 can be measured as certain wavelengths light gets absorbed by atmospheric trace gases and the depth of the absorption lines in the reflected spectrum provides information about its atmospheric abundance. Statement 3 is correct. Temperature of specific area can also be determined as the radiation captured by the satellites will differ based on the temperature of the area.

93. Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. maharashtra

4. odisha

With reference to the States mentionad above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of

state,which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a) 2-3-1-4 (b) 2-3-4-1

(c) 3-2-4-1

(d) 3-2-1-4

Explanation:

Factual: http://fsi.nic.in/isfr2017/isfr-forest-cover-2017.pdf

94. Which of the following statements are correct about the desposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits

2. Large deposits of ‘ methane hydrate’ are found in Archic Tundra and under the seafloor

3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Explanation:

All statements are correct.[ https://worldoceanreview.com/en/wor-1/energy/methane-hydrates/]

95. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide

2. Methane

3. Ozone

4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomase residue?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

http://www.aaqr.org/files/article/619/40_AAQR-13-01-OA-0031_422-430.pdf (read intro only)

96. Consider the following pairs :

Sea Bordering country

1. Adriatic sea : Albania

2. black sea : Croatia

3. Caspian sea : Kazakhstan

4. Mediterranean sea : Morocco

5. Red sea : Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

Pair 2 is not correct: Black Sea does not border Croatia.

Pair 5 is not correct: Red Sea does not border Syria. 97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years ?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Myanmar

(d) Vietnam

Explanation:

Factual.

98. Consider the following pairs

Glacier River

1. Bandarpunch : Yamuna

2. Bara shigri : Chenab

3. Milam : Mandakini

4. siachen : Nubra

5. Zemu : Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1,2 and 4

(b) 1,3 and 4

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3 and 5

Explanation:

Pair 3 is not correct: Milam Glacier is the source of Gori Ganga River which acts as an important tributary of Kali River.

Pair 5 is not correct: The Zemu Glacier drains the east side of Kanchenjunga, is the source of Teesta River. 99. In india,the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion phorate and triazphos is viewd with

apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a) pesticides in agriculture

(b) preservatives in processed foods

(c) fruit-ripening agents

(d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics

Explanation: Factual. 100. Consider the following statements :

1. Under Ramsar convention, it is mandatory on The part of the government of india to protect and

conserve all the wetlands in the territory of india

2. the wetlands (conservation and management ) rules 2010 were framed by the recommendations of

Ramsar convention.

3. the wetlands (conservation and management) rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or

catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority

Which of the statements given above is are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct : Ramsar Convention, is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.It is not mandatory for the governments to adopt the Convention.

Statement 2 is not correct : These rules were not framed on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.

Statement 3 is correct : Under the Wetland Rules , 2010, "wetland" means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland covered under the notification of the Government of India in the Ministry of Environment and Forest.