UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - hvdcec.orghvdcec.org/cp/images/brochure_13_04_2019_22_38_36_GS...

UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES: Test 20

TOPIC: GS Comprehensive test 1 Date: 14-04-2019 Time Allowed: 2 Hr Maximum Marks: 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.

2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or

discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any

omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection. 3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet

in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything

else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each

item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to

mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response,

mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response

for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 6. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 7. All items carry equal marks. 8. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test

Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent

to you with your Admission Certificate. 9. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the

examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.

You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 10. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 11. Penalty for wrong answers: 12. THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 2 www.hvdcec.org

1. With reference to Odisha school of architecture, consider the following statements: 1. In this school, the Shikhara, is

vertical until the top and then it suddenly curves sharply inwards.

2. The ground plan of the main temple known as jagamohana is almost square in shape.

3. Interior walls of the temples of this school are lavishly decorated but exterior walls are plain.

4. There is extensive use of stone pillars in the temples of this school.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 2 only

2. With reference to Chola Kingdom of

South India, consider the following statements: 1. It was situated between the Pennar

and the Velar rivers. 2. Their chief center of political power

was at Uraiyur. 3. One of the main sources of their

wealth was trade in cotton cloth. 4. Romans set up two regiments at

Muziris in their kingdom. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

3. Consider following statements regarding rock painting of Bhimbetka: 1. The paintings are linear

representations of huge animal figures besides stick-like human figures.

2. Hunting scenes predominate in paintings depicting people hunting in

groups, armed with barbed spears. Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Which of the above is/are not a genre of Hindustani music? 1. Dhamar 2. Khyal 3. Sadra 4. Thumri

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) None of the above

5. With reference to Harrapan

Civilization, consider the following statements: 1. Harrapan people buried their dead

under the floor of their house in north-south position.

2. Harrapan people in Gujarat produced rice and domesticated elephants.

3. Harrapan people knew the use of spoked wheel.

4. Unlike Mesopotamia, no temples have been found at any Harrapan site.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3only

6. Buddhism spread to a very large part

of the world including China and Japan, but declined in its place of

origin- India. Consider the following statements: 1. Hostility of Brahmins towards

Buddhism and revival of Brahminical Philosophy.

2. Attacks by Turkish rulers from North West.

3. Admission of women in monasteries accompanied with lavish lifestyle of monks.

4. Extreme asceticism practiced and

popularized by it was tough to follow. Which of the above is/are reason(s) for the decline of Buddhism in India?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 3 www.hvdcec.org

7. Nalanda was the most famous centre of Buddhism. It maintained a great Buddhist university meant for Buddhist monks. Which of the following statement about it is/are incorrect? 1. They were taught Buddhist

philosophy of all schools - Mahayana, Hinayana and Vajrayana.

2. It flourished the most during Harsha’s reign.

3. Financially it was supported by revenues from the villages than King’s grace.

4. Secular subjects were also taught in the school of religious origin.

(a) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 3 and 4

8. Arrival of Muslim rulers influenced

almost all aspects of culture but its impact on prevailing architecture is the most significant. Consider the following statements in this regard: 1. The distinctive features of Indo-

Islamic architecture were the dome, minarets, arch and the vault.

2. Pietra dura is an important feature of Indo-Islamic architecture.

3. Arabesque designs were prominent in Indo-Islamic architecture.

4. Indo-Islamic architecture depicted images of humans, birds and animals extensively in wall paintings in their monuments.

What of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about Indo-Islamic architecture?

(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (a)

9. The Natya Shastra mentions many

regional varieties, such as the south-eastern style known as the Odhra Magadha which can be identified as the earliest precursor of present day? (a) Mohiniyattam (b) Bihu (c) Both Odissi and Bharatnatyam (d) Odissi

10. What was the reason for emergence of the Nehru Report? (a) It came as a response to the

appointment of Simon Commission. (b) It came as a reaction to the defeat of

the Public Safety Bill in 1928 in the Central Legislative Assembly.

(c) It was brought to popularize the adoption of 'Purna Swaraj' at the Lahore Congress Session.

(d) None of the above

11. With regard to the development of Education in British India, consider the following statements: 1. The first beginnings with respect to

education was laid out by the Charter

Act of 1833, which directed the Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually for promoting oriental knowledge in the country.

2. Lord Macaulay's Minute of 1835, settled the Orientalist-Anglicist controversy in favour of Orientalists.

3. Wood's Despatch of 1854 asked the Government of India to assume the responsibility to spread education.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Consider following statements

about Dr. Ambedkar: 1. He was in favour of separate

electorate for the Depressed Classes. 2. He signed Poona Pact with Gandhiji

which provided for separate electorate for the Depressed Classes.

3. Ambedkar opposed partition of India along religious lines.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Exercise Pitch Black 2018 was hosted by (a) South Africa (b) Australia (c) USA (d) Israel

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 4 www.hvdcec.org

14. Consider the following statements regarding the Deccan riots of 1875: 1. The unrest was caused due to the

increase of land revenue followed by bad harvests.

2. Peasants used the tool of social boycott of outside moneylenders.

3. The peasants seized and publicly burnt debt bonds and deeds during the riots.

4. Mahalwari system was followed by British to collect revenues from the cultivators of agricultural land in Deccan region during 1870s.


(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only

15. Consider the following statements land revenue settlement system during British period: 1. According to the Zamindari system of

revenue settlement, Zamindars had the right to collect revenues from peasants but peasants retained the ownership of land.

2. As per the Ryotwari system of revenue settlement, land ownership was vested with village committees and the government directly collected the revenue from Peasants.

3. In the Mahalwari system, the village committee was responsible for tax collection and the land ownership was vested with the village community.


(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

16. Which of the following is correct

regarding the speed of rotation of Earth? (a) It remains constant across all the

latitudes. (b) It decreases with increase in latitudes. (c) It increases till 45o latitude and then

decreases. (d) It increases with increase in latitude.

17. Consider the following statements regarding the Ilbert Bill: 1. The bill aimed to curtail rights of

Indian magistrate to try Europeans. 2. The Indian National Congress

effectively protested against the passage of bill.

3. The bill was passed during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Lytton.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above

18. After sudden withdrawal of Non-

cooperation movement Swarajists wanted to join legislative councils because (a) They were feared that if they don’t join

legislative councils their political career will vanish.

(b) They wanted to expose the weakness of legislative councils and use councils for political struggle.

(c) Work in legislative councils will help in constructive work like promotion of Khadi, spread of education, removal of untouchability.

(d) No-changers allowed them to make a new party within the congress.

19. Consider the following statements

regarding Ground Source Heat Pumps (GSHP): 1. It harvests heat released from molten

rock systems. 2. It uses the earth as heat source in

winter or heat sink in summer. 3. It works on the principles of

refrigeration cycle. 4. In India, it is effective only in

Himalayan climate zone. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 5 www.hvdcec.org

20. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Kheda Satyagraha of 1918? 1. The demand of the Satyagraha was to

reduce the untimely increase of land revenue.

2. Gandhiji undertook fast unto death to support the Satyagraha.

3. The government finally agreed to the demands and reduced the land revenues.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above


regarding Kharai Camel found in India: 1. It is found in Rajasthan and some

parts of Haryana. 2. It is an eco-tonal breed which can

survive in both dry as well as coastal ecosystem.

3. They can feed on saline trees and shrubs.

4. They can swim in deep waters. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. Consider the following statements regarding species diversity: 1. The number of fungi species in the

world is more than the combined total of the species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

2. The share of animals in recorded species is almost two fold higher than plants.

3. Insects are most species rich taxonomic group in the biosphere.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

23. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): 1. In positive IOD ocean water off the

Sumatra coast becomes colder than normal.

2. The IOD is the difference in sea surface temperature between the Arabian Sea and the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia.

3. An IOD can counter or worsen an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

24. Which of the given ocean currents

are cold currents? 1. Labrador Current 2. Canary Current 3. Oyashio Current 4. Peru Current 5. Agulhas Current

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


about Geostrophic Winds: 1. They blow under the influence of both

the pressure gradient force and Coriolis force.

2. These winds are free from the influence of ground friction.

3. They flows perpendicular to the isobars.

4. These types of air flow are possible only at higher altitudes in the atmosphere.


(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 6 www.hvdcec.org

26. Consider the following four principal lifting mechanisms which operate in the atmosphere: 1. Convergent lifting operates when air

flows toward an area of high pressure. 2. Convectional lifting operates when air

is stimulated by local surface heating. 3. Orographic lifting operates when air is

forced over a barrier such as a mountain range.

4. Frontal lifting operates when air is displaced upward along the leading edges of homogenous air masses.

Which one of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


about the Scheduled Areas under Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. 1. President is empowered to declare

that Parliament’s law is not applicable to a scheduled area of the state.

2. Governor is empowered to declare that state legislature’s law is not applicable to a scheduled area of the state.

3. President can direct a state to establish a body similar to Tribes Advisory Council even if it does not have scheduled area.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

28. Consider the following types of soil

erosion: 1. Gully erosion 2. Wind erosion 3. Surface erosion 4. Sheet Erosion

Most of the erosion in Chambal valley is through which type of soil erosion?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 4 only

29. Consider the following statements in context of Chief minister (CM) of a state in India: 1. The representation of people’s act,

1951 is the source for enabling or barring a candidate from becoming CM

2. According to the the RPA act, if the CM is convicted, he/she cannot contest elections for 6 years from the date of conviction.

3. Normally, a non-member can be CM for a maximum of six months only if he/she is eligible for contesting an election

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only


regarding passage of bills in the parliament: 1. Amendments to a bill a can be

introduced at the stage of second reading only and not first or third.

2. It is mandatory for every bill to be referred to a parliamentary committee during second reading.

3. A private member cannot introduce a bill without the prior permission of President.

4. Defeat of Money Bill leads to resignation of the government.


(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only


about ‘Invest India’: 1. It is India’s official agency dedicated to

investment promotion and facilitation. 2. It is a not-for-profit, single window

facilitator, set up in 2010. Select the correct answer using the code given below:


HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 7 www.hvdcec.org

32. India is a signatory to The Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW). Which of the following statement is incorrect about this convention? (a) States parties may take temporary

special measures, so that women can enjoy all their human rights.

(b) Countries that have signed the Convention are not legally bound to put its provisions into practice.

(c) Countries are committed to submit national reports, at least every four years, on measures they have taken.

(d) It was the pioneer human rights treaty which affirmed the reproductive

rights of women. 33. Taking evidences from the texts of

Vedic age, we know about the polity, society and religion of that age. Consider the following statements. 1. Post of king was hereditary and he

enjoyed unlimited power. 2. Widow Remarriage was allowed and

there is no instance of child marriage. 3. The most prominent Gods were Indra

and Agni. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

34. Which of the following events

encouraged increasing peasant movements in 1930’s and 1940's?

1. Launching of civil disobedience movement.

2. The economic depression of 1930. 3. Formation of congress ministries

in provinces in 1937 4. Outbreak of Second World War.

Select the correct answer using the

codes given below. (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

35. Which of the following is incorrect? (a) Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory

Liquidity Ratios are inversely related to base rate

(b) Repo rate is directly related to base rate

(c) Open market operations are related to selling of government bonds by RBI

(d) Cut in repo rate may or may not lead to monetary transmission


regarding particulate matter 1. Particulate Matter can be produced by

internal reactions within air. 2. Particulate Matter generally increases

in concentration during windy

conditions. 3. Fine particles can remain suspended

in air and can travel large distances. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only

37. Consider the following soil forming processes: 1. Gleization is associated with humid

cold midlatitude climates & coniferous vegetation.

2. Laterization is common to soils found in tropical and subtropical environments.

3. Calcification is common in the temperate grasslands.

4. Podsolization is associated with poor drainage.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

38. The sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west because (a) It is a natural phenomenon (b) The earth rotates on its axis from east

to west (c) The earth rotates on its axis from west

to east (d) The revolution of the earth around the

sun

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 8 www.hvdcec.org

39. Why does Karnataka receive more rainfall than Maharashtra and Kerala? 1. Mountain topography in Karnataka is

broader than the narrow topography of the Ghats in Maharashtra while Kerala has isolated mountains in the Western Ghats

2. Mountains in Karnataka are steeply sloping, compared to the gentle slopes of the Ghats in Maharashtra and Kerala




1. River Jhelum forms the boundary between India and Pakistan.

2. Patkai Bum forms the international boundary between Nagaland and Myanmar.

3. Manipur hills forms the boundary between Manipur and Myanmar.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Which of the following statements

is/are correct about Mediterranean vegetation? 1. Plants are not xerophytic or drought

resistant. 2. There is absence of shade. 3. Grass is in abundance.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

42. Which of the following

country/countries is/are not a member of `Gulf Cooperation Council’? (a) Iran (b) Iraq (c) Oman (d) Both a and b

43. With regard to WTO and its functioning, consider the following statements: 1. Most Favored Nation (MFN) status to a

country by another country ensures preferential tratment,lower tariffs and removal of other trade barriers between the two member countries.

2. Dispute settlement process in WTO is rule based and transparent and ensures ‘compliance of verdict’ on member countries.

3. Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM) is a tool for protecting interest of farmers and poor from volatility of international trade in agricultural commodities.


(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

44. In the context of International

Trade, Protectionism is the economic policy of restricting trade and economic relations between countries. Consider the following with regard to Protectionism 1. Imposing Import Quotas 2. Administrative Barriers 3. Direct Subsidies by Government 4. Export Subsidies 5. TRIPS agreement

Which of the measures given above is/are used for Protectionism?

(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only (c) 1,2,3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

45. Federal Character of Indian Polity is maintained by which of the following powers of the Judiciary? 1. Power to adjudicate disputes between

the central and state government. 2. Power to issue writs 3. Power of judicial review

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 9 www.hvdcec.org

46. Which of the measures given below is/are part of Directive Principles mentioned in Indian Constitution: 1. The minimum Wages Act, child labor

Prohibition Act, the Factories Act etc. Are statutory provisions to give effect to Directive Principles.

2. The Maternity Benefit Act and the Equal Remuneration Act are there to protect the interest of Women workers.

3. Aggrieved person can approach court for implementation of Directive Principles.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

47. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Zero hour : First hour of sitting

session of Lok Sabha 2. Question hour : First hour of sitting

session of Rajya Sabha 3. Filbuster : Delay in vote over

legislation due to extension of debate Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


48. Which of the following statement/s regarding fiat money is/are correct? 1. Currency notes are called fiat money

because they don't have intrinsic value like a gold or silver coin.

2. They cannot be refused by any citizen of the country for settlement of any kind of transaction.

3. Cheques and Demand deposits are the example of fiat money.

Select the correct answer using codes given below.


49. Consider the following statements with regards to SONAR (Sound navigation and Ranging) and RADAR (Radio detection and Ranging): 1. SONAR uses sound waves because

sound waves have high penetration in water

2. If radio waves are used instead of sound waves, range of SONAR will decrease

3. If sound waves are used instead of radio waves, range of RADAR will increase


(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

50. Which of the following

International Conventions deals with wildlife conservation? 1. Bonn Convention 2. World Heritage Convention 3. IUCN 4. CITES

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


regarding the impact of market rate of interest: 1. Price of a bond is inversely related to

the market rate of interest. 2. Speculative demand for money is

inversely related to the market rate of interest.


(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. ‘Hodeidah Operation often seen in

the news is related to: (a) Yemen (b) Oman (c) Kuwait (d) Syria

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 10 www.hvdcec.org

53. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Waste-to-energy’ technologies: 1. Biomethanation is more suitable for

wet biodegradable waste 2. Gasification is incomplete combustion

of dry waste and it produces CO and H2

3. Pyrolysis is costlier than Biomethanation

4. Incineration produces dioxins which are POPs (Persistent Organic Pollutants)


(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

54. Which of the following statements

reflects the limitations of National Income Estimation in India? 1. Output of agriculture involved in

barter trade is not included in the estimation.

2. Non-availability of data about the income of household enterprises.

3. Black money. Select the correct answer using codes given below.


55. Consider the following statements: 1. El Nino Modoki causes warm moist

conditions in the Central Pacific and dry cold conditions in Eastern and western pacific.

2. El Nino Modoki is conducive for formation of cyclones in the Arabian Sea while El Nino in the Bay of Bengal.

3. El Nino suppresses the cyclone

formation in the Arabian Sea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


56. Consider the following statements regarding jet streams: 1. The westerly jet stream steers the

tropical cyclone depressions into India.

2. Western disturbance is steered into India by the westerly jet stream.

3. The easterly jet stream is responsible for sudden outbreak of the monsoons in North India



57. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Dryland farming is

considered confined to the regions having annual rainfall less than 25 cm.

2. In Tamil Nadu farmers grow three crops of rice annually called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’.

3. Assam accounts for more than half of total cropped area and total production of tea in the country.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

58. Consider the following statements.

1. Pulses are the legume crops which increase the natural fertility of soils through nitrogen fixation.

2. In India Pulses are largely grown in humid regions of east and north eastern regions.

3. Fruits and vegetables are majorly grown during Rabi season in India.

4. Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are the leading producers

of flowers in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 11 www.hvdcec.org

59. Consider the following statements: 1. PangongTso lake in Ladakh is an

example of Tectonic lake. 2. Lonar Lake of Buldhana

(Maharashtra) is an example of crater lake.

3. Bhojtal lake of Bhopal is an example of manmade wetalnd.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only


regarding water bodies :

1. Bay is larger than a gulf. 2. Strait is a waterway that connects two

larger bodies of water which could be either naturally or artificially formed.

3. Bays can exist as the estuary of a river.


(a) 1 only (b) 3 Only (c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1,2 and 3

61. Which of the following organisms

can be classified as autotrophes: 1. Algae 2. Zooplankton 3. Cyanobacteria

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


regarding the process of speciation: 1. Speciation is a process by which new

species are formed.

2. Evolution is the mechanism by which speciation is brought.

3. Number of species surviving in the world is the outcome of speciation and extinction.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

63. Consider the following statements regarding the Writ of Quo-Warranto issued by the Supreme Court: 1. It can be issued only in case of a

substantive public office. 2. It can’t be issued against a minister. 3. It can be issued against a judge of a

High Court if he has acquired office through corrupt means.



64. Which of the following types of

silks are included under Vanya silks? 1. Tasar 2. Mulberry 3. Muga 4. Eri


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

65. Which of the following can be

considered as reasons behind the

shifting of sugar industries from north to south in India? 1. The production of sugarcane per

hectare is higher in south India. 2. The sucrose content is higher in the

tropical variety of sugarcane grown in south India.

3. The crushing season in south India is longer than in north India.

4. Cheap and abundant supply of power is available in south India.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

66. Which among the following

countries does not share its borders with Caspian Sea? (a) Iran (b) Russia (c) Azerbaijan (d) Uzbekistan

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 12 www.hvdcec.org

67. Consider the following characteristics of a National Park in India: 1. It is known for the floating

decomposed plant materials called ‘Phumdis’.

2. This is the natural habitat of endangered browantlered deer.

3. This is included under Ramsar site. Which of the following National Park having all these characteristics?

(a) Phawngpui National Park (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park (c) Nameri National Park (d) Balphakram National Park

68. Consider the following statements:

1. Press Trust of India is a statutory quasi-judicial authority mandated by the Parliament to improve the standards of newspapers and the news agencies in India.

2. Press Council of India has the additional responsibility of Advisory institution to Election Commission and other government institutions.

3. NAM News Network is the news exchange arrangement of the news agencies belonging to non-aligned movement countries.

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3

69. Which of the below mentioned

initiatives are primarily focused on increasing transparency and efficiency into the processes of governance? 1. SEVOTTAM 2. Shram Suvidha Portal 3. e-Biz scheme 4. Sagarmala Project 5. Udaan Scheme

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

70. With respect to All India Services consider the following statement: 1. All India Services are controlled jointly

by State and Centre. 2. New All India service may be created

only when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by majority of all members.

3. Creation of new All India Service affects interests of states.



71. Consider the following statement

regarding the federal system in India 1. Zonal councils which aimed at

promoting cooperation among states are constitutional bodies.

2. Chairman of Zonal councils is Prime Minister.

3. Governor of state is empowered to direct that an act of parliament does not apply to a schedule area.


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

72. With reference to globally

threatened species, which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) In the IUCN’s Red List, term

‘threatened’ includes only Critically Endangered and Endangered species.

(b) Between 2008 and 2014, there is almost 50% increase in the number of threatened species in India, on account of better research work and deforestation.

(c) Under Save Our Species (SOS) initiative, the focus is only on

protecting the threatened species, their habitat and communities who depend on them.

(d) Indian vulture, Jerdon's Courser, Red crowned roofed turtle and Rameshwaram Parachute Spider are some of the threatened species from India.

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 13 www.hvdcec.org

73. Which of the following statement is correct? (a) Generally a substance dissolved in a

liquid increases its freezing point. (b) Generally a substance dissolved in a

liquid decreases its freezing point. (c) Generally a substance dissolved in a

liquid decreases its boiling point. (d) Generally, dissolving a substance in a

liquid has no effect on its boiling and freezing points.

74. Which of the following methods can be used for removing permanent hardness of water : 1. Distillation 2. Adding sodium carbonate

3. Boiling 4. Adding caustic soda


(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

75. A lubricant is a substance introduced to reduce friction between moving surfaces. Which of the following is/are used as a lubricant : 1. Tungsten Disulfide 2. Graphite 3. Silica 4. Iron Oxide


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

76. An outdoor iron railing rusts after

several years. The rust on the railing is composed of:- (a) The elemental iron that has separated

from the railing as the result of

temperature fluctuations. (b) An oxide of iron produced during the

chemical reaction of the railing with the atmosphere.

(c) The product of broken chemical bonds between the iron and oxygen atoms that make up the railing.

(d) A reduced form of iron produced by the chemical reaction of water in the atmosphere with the railing.

77. The magnitude of the displacement of a body is (a) Equal to that of the distance covered

by the body (b) Less than that of distance covered by

the body (c) Greater than the distance covered by

the body (d) None of these

78. Which of the following is correct

regarding Special Leave Petitions (SLP) filed in the Supreme Court? (a) A party aggrieved by the judgment of

High Court in criminal matters, has the right to file SLP in Supreme Court.

(b) SLP is a discretionary power that lies

with the Supreme Court. (c) SLP can be granted against any court

or tribunal, and not necessarily against a high court.

(d) This power of Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal falls under its original jurisdiction.

79. According to the Constitution,

which of the following is/are true with regards to the appointment as a Governor of a state? 1. He should be eligible to be elected as

a member of Lok Sabha. 2. He should have completed the age of

35 years. 3. While appointing the governor, the

president should consult the chief minister of the state concerned.

4. He should not belong to the state in which he is appointed as a governor.

Choose from the options given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only

80. Consider the following statements.

1. Wetlands have highest species

diversity of all ecosystems 2. Species diversity is minimum at the

mouth of the river during its course Which of the above mentioned statements is/are correct?


HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 14 www.hvdcec.org

81. Consider the following statements: 1. Pyramid of Biomass and pyramid of

Energy in an ocean-ecosystem are always upright.

2. In process of leaching, water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon.

3. Montreal Protocol is a protocol under Vienna Convention to mitigate harmful effects of Global Warming.


(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

82. Consider the following statements: 1. The World Intellectual Property

Organization (WIPO) is the specialized agency of the United Nations to promote the protection of intellectual property.

2. In India, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is concerned with legislation related to Patents, Trade Marks, Designs and Geographical Indications.

3. Compulsory Licensing is a safeguard provided in the TRIPS agreement which allows companies to bypass licensing and other legislative requirements.


(a) 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

83. With reference to ‘Financial Action

Task Force (FATF)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. India is not a full member of FATF but

it has partial membership status of this organization.

2. All permanent members of the Security Council except China are members of FATF.



84. What are the reasons behind India's continued dependence on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds? 1. Farmers prefer to grow food grains

with highly remunerative support prices

2. Most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall

3. Oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained unexploited

4. It is far cheaper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

85. Consider the following statements in relation to Green House Gas emissions: 1. According to Greenhouse gas protocol

(GHG Protocol),carbon emissions are classified into direct and indirect emissions.

2. Automobile emissions are bigger contributor of Greenhouse gases than industrial gas emission.

3. Methane is bigger contributor to Greenhouse effect as compared to Carbon dioxide.


(a) 1and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

86. Which one of the following is

categorized as a parasite in true sense? (a) The cuckoo lays its egg in crow's nest. (b) The female Anopheles bites and sucks

blood from humans. (c) Human foetus developing inside the

uterus draws nourishment from the mother.

(d) Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair.

HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 15 www.hvdcec.org

87. In relation to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI),consider the following statements: 1. FDI increases access to market in

domestic country and also reduces cost of production if the labor market is cheaper.

2. FDI offers a source of external capital and increased revenue.

3. FDI exposes local governments and businesses to new technologies and management practices.

4. Remittances received from NRIs constitute one of the important source of FDI in India




about Soil alkalinity: 1. It is associated with the presence of

sodium carbonates in the soil. 2. Over irrigation in canal-irrigated areas

is the prominent reason behind Soil Alkalinity.

3. Alkalinity problems are more pronounced in Silty or Sandy soils as compared to Clay soils.

4. These types of soils can be reclaimed by adding acidifying minerals like pyrite and Gypsum.



89. Consider the following statements: 1. It grows in a well-drained soil. 2. It requires warm climate and

moderate rainfall.

3. Karnataka, Kerela, and Tamil Nadu are its major producers.

4. Nearly three-fourths of its production is exported.

Determine the Crop. (a) Tea (b) Natural Rubber (c) Coffee (d) Sugarcane

90. Recently India held first edition of their Ministerial 2+2 Dialogue, consider the following: 1. It was held between India and USA. 2. The dialogue involved Indian Home

and External Affairs Minister and their counterparts.

3. COMCASA was signed in the dialogue. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above

91. With reference to ‘BIMSTEC’,

consider the following: 1. It is a regional organization

comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity.

2. It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Indonesia.

3. Recently its 4th summit was held in Nepal.

Which of the above statements is/are

correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above

92. Consider the following questions

regarding the ‘Indian Ocean Conference’: 1. It is initiated by India Foundation

along with its partners from Singapore, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.

2. It is an annual effort to bring together Heads of States/Governments, Ministers, Thought Leaders, scholars,

diplomats, bureaucrats and practitioners from across the region.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?


HVD- CEC NIRAV DA

+91-9511635931 16 www.hvdcec.org

93. Which of the following country recently became the first country to adopt a ‘feminist foreign policy’? (a) India (b) USA (c) Sweden (d) Norway

94. Which of the following is not a

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) member? 1. India 2. Australia 3. Russia 4. China 5. USA

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 5 only (c) 4 and 5 only (d) 2 only

95. With reference to the Organization

of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In January, 2019 Qatar left the

membership of OPEC. 2. Angola and Venezuela are the

members of this organization from South America.



96. Consider the following statement

about the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA): 1. The IAEA is not an autonomous

organization and it is under the direct control of the United Nations.

2. Signature and ratification of the

Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) are preconditions for membership in the IAEA.



97. A regional trade organization consists of four European countries (Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland) and operates in parallel with the European Union. It's all four member states participate in the European Single Market and is part of the Schengen Area. Which trade organization has these features? (a) European Free Trade Association (b) European Union Customs Union (c) European Economic Community (d) None

98. Consider the following pairs:

Port City Country 1. Mocha : Yemen 2. Duqm : Yemen 3. Salalah : Oman

Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?


99. Consider the following pairs

Rebel Group: Country 1. Houthi : Oman 2. Hezbollah: Syria 3. Arakan Rohingya Islamic Front:

Myanmar Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?



about the International Nitrogen Initiative: 1. It has been launched by the World

Bank Group to monitor the nitrogen emission.

2. It aims to both optimize the benefits and reduce the negative impacts of Nitrogen in food and energy production.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?


UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - hvdcec.orghvdcec.org/cp/images/brochure_13_04_2019_22_38_36_GS...

Documents

Transcript of UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - hvdcec.orghvdcec.org/cp/images/brochure_13_04_2019_22_38_36_GS...