UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine for July 2020 ...Species of butterflies spotted in the Western...

UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine for July 2020 –

Answer Key

Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to Attorney General (AG) of India: 1. AG enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. 2. AG’s remuneration is fixed by the Parliament. 3. AG has the right to take part in a meeting of any committee of the Parliament of which he is named as a

member, but without a right to vote. 4. The Indian Constitution mentions the procedure and grounds for the removal of the Attorney General.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 and 3 only b. 1, 2 and 4 only c. 1, 2 and 3 only d. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: a Explanation:

• President of India appoints Attorney General for a term which is decided by President. • He can be removed by the president at any time. There is no procedure or ground mentioned in the

Constitution for his removal. • He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President

may determine. • He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. • AG has the right to take part in a meeting of any committee of the Parliament of which he is named as a

member, but without a right to vote. Q2. Wari-Warkari tradition is mostly associated with the state of:

a. Karnataka b. Maharashtra c. Gujarat d. Odisha

Answer: b Explanation:

• Wari-Warkari is a Maharashtrian festival celebrated by the Warkari sect. • It is a tradition within the Bhakti spiritual movement of Vaishnavaite Hinduism. • It is associated with the state of Maharashtra.

Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to Hydrogen Sulfide:

1. It is a colourless and odourless gas. 2. It is poisonous, corrosive and inflammable. 3. It is used to produce heavy water for nuclear power plants.

Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect? a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 3 only


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• Hydrogen sulfide is a colourless chalcogen hydride gas with a characteristic foul odour. • It is very poisonous, corrosive, and flammable. • Hydrogen sulfide is used primarily to produce sulfuric acid and sulfur. • It is also used to create a variety of inorganic sulfides used to create pesticides, leather, dyes, and

pharmaceuticals. • Hydrogen sulfide is used to produce heavy water for nuclear power plants.

Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. IUCN classifies both Javan and Sumatran Rhinos as Critically Endangered in its Red List. 2. Greater one-horned rhinoceros is classified as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.

Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d Explanation: Both statements are correct. Q5. “Striped Hairstreak” and “Elusive Prince” recently seen in news are:

a. Species of butterflies spotted in the Western Ghats. b. Species of butterflies spotted in Arunachal Pradesh. c. Species of non-venomous snakes identified in Arunachal Pradesh. d. Species of venomous spiders identified in Arunachal Pradesh.

Answer: b Explanation: Lepidopterists in Arunachal Pradesh have added two species to India’s expanding list of butterflies.

1. Striped Hairstreak was first recorded by Japanese entomologists in the Hainan province of China. It has also been spotted in Vijaynagar bordering Myanmar.

2. Elusive Prince has a Vietnamese connection and was thought to be the more familiar Black Prince found in the Eastern Himalayas. It has been spotted on the periphery of the Namdapha National Park.

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to Central Zoo Authority: 1. It is a statutory body chaired by the Environment Minister. 2. It regulates the exchange of animals of the endangered category listed under Schedule – I and II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 among zoos. 3. The exchange of animals between an Indian and a foreign zoo is also approved by the Authority. Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?

a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. None of the above

Answer: d Explanation: All the statements are correct.


Q7. Birbal Nath committee recommendations are associated with which of the following?

a. Formation of Special Protection Group (SPG). b. Allowing private train operators in Indian Railways. c. Establishment of Central Zoo Authority. d. Launch of Special Liquidity Scheme to help low rated finance companies to raise debt.

Answer: a Explanation: SPG was formed in 1985 after the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, as an executive body on the recommendation of the Birbal Nath committee. Subsequently, the SPG Act was enacted by Parliament in 1988. Q8. Consider the following statements with respect to Namdapha National Park: 1. Situated in Arunachal Pradesh, it is also a tiger reserve. 2. It is located between the Patkai range and the Dapha Bum range of Mishmi Hills. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c Explanation:

• Namdapha National Park is located in the Changlang district of the state of Arunachal Pradesh.

• It was declared a tiger reserve and national park in 1983.

• It is located between the Patkai range and the Dapha Bum range of Mishmi Hills. Q9. Which of the following initiatives is/are established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?

1. International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) 2. International Seabed Authority 3. Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf (CLCS)

Choose the correct option: a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d Explanation:

1. International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS): Established by the UNCLOS, the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea is an independent judicial body that adjudicates disputes arising out of the convention.

2. International Seabed Authority: It was formed in 1994 under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (1982) for regulating the exploration and exploitation of marine non-living resources of oceans in international waters.

3. Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf (CLCS): Established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, CLCS is responsible for facilitating the implementation of UNCLOS with respect to the establishment of the outer limits of the continental shelf beyond 200 nautical miles.

Q10. Consider the following statements with respect to UN Convention Against Torture (UNCAT):


1. It aims to prevent torture and other acts of cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment around the world.

2. India has signed and ratified the convention. Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?



• The Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (commonly known as the United Nations Convention against Torture (UNCAT)) is an international human rights treaty, under the review of the United Nations, that aims to prevent torture and other acts of cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment around the world.

• India signed the convention in 1997 but it remains among a handful of countries including Pakistan and China which are yet to ratify the convention.

Q11. Which of the following Tiger Reserves are located in Uttar Pradesh?

1. Amangarh Tiger Reserve 2. Pilibhit Tiger Reserve 3. Rajaji Tiger Reserve 4. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve 5. Dampa Tiger Reserve

Choose the correct option: a. 1, 2 and 4 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 2, 3 and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only


• There are three tiger reserves in Uttar Pradesh. They are Amangarh in Bijnor, Pilibhit and Dudhwa in Lakhimpur-Kheri.

• Rajaji Tiger Reserve is located in the state of Uttarakhand and Dampa Tiger Reserve is situated in the state of Mizoram

Q12. Consider the following statements about the Integrated Disease Surveillance Program (IDSP):

1. It was launched with the assistance of the World Health Organisation. 2. It is a unit under the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC).

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2


• Integrated Disease Surveillance Program (IDSP) is an initiative by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs started in 2004 with the assistance of the World Bank.

• It is a unit under the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC).


Q13. Consider the following statements with respect to Nagarhole National Park:

1. It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. 2. It is also a tiger reserve. 3. River Kabini separates Bandipur National Park from Nagarhole National Park.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 2 and 3 only b. 1,2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 only


• Nagarhole National Park is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. • In 1999, it was declared as the 37th tiger reserve of India. • River Kabini separates Bandipur National Park from Nagarhole National Park.

Q14. Consider the following statements with respect to the Tiwa tribe:

1. They are recognized as Scheduled Tribes in Assam and Meghalaya. 2. They follow the “Slash and Burn” method of farming. 3. Wanchuwa festival is one of the most important celebrations for the Tiwa tribe.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 3 only


• Tiwas are recognized as a Scheduled tribe within the state of Assam. But they still do not have the ST status in the state of Meghalaya.

• They follow the “Slash and Burn” method of farming. • Wanchuwa festival is one of the most important celebrations for the Tiwa tribe.

Q15. “Dharma Guardian” is

a. A bilateral annual military exercise between India and Japan. b. A bilateral annual naval exercise between India and the U.S. c. An annual military exercise between India, Japan, Australia and the U.S. d. An annual naval exercise between India, Japan and the U.S.

Answer: a Explanation: Dharma Guardian is a Joint Military Exercise between India and Japan being conducted in India since 2018. Q16. ‘Prerak Dauur Samman’ awards are announced as a part of:

a. Swachh Survekshan b. Atma Nirbhar Abhiyaan c. Atal Innovation Mission d. Uchhatar Avishkar Yojana



• A new category of awards titled ‘Prerak Dauur Samman’ has been announced as part of Swachh Survekshan 2021.

Q17. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

1. Infant mortality rate (IMR) is the number of deaths per 1,000 live births of children under five years of age. 2. India’s average IMR for rural areas is higher as compared to urban areas. 3. Madhya Pradesh has the highest IMR among Indian states.

Options: a. 1 and 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1,2 and 3


• Infant mortality rate (IMR) is the number of deaths per 1,000 live births of children under one year of age. • India’s average IMR has dropped by one point to 32. The country’s average stands at 36 deaths for rural and

23 for urban areas. • The infant mortality rate (IMR) in Madhya Pradesh has increased to 48 in 2018, stymying an improving annual

trend for at least six years. Madhya Pradesh has the country’s worst IMR. • Kerala which has the lowest IMR among the bigger states has decreased its IMR by three points to 7.

Q18. The Logistics performance index is released by which of the following?

a. World Bank b. World Economic Forum c. World Trade Organization d. UNCTAD


• The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is a benchmarking tool created by the World Bank to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance.

• It is the weighted average of the country scores on six key dimensions: efficiency of the clearance process by border control agencies; quality of trade and transport related infrastructure; ease of arranging competitively priced shipments; competence and quality of logistics services (e.g., transport operators, customs brokers); ability to track and trace consignments; timeliness of shipments in reaching destination within the scheduled or expected delivery time.

• The Logistics Performance Index is reported by the World Bank in every two years. • The LPI is based on a worldwide survey of stakeholders on the ground providing feedback on the logistics

“friendliness” of the countries in which they operate and those with which they trade. Q19. The Kanger Valley National Park is situated in which of the following state?

a. Jharkhand b. Madhya Pradesh c. Chhattisgarh d. Uttarakhand



• Kanger Ghati National Park (also called Kanger Valley National Park) is located in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.

• The park derives its name from the Kanger River, which flows through it. • The Kanger Valley National Park is noted for its highly heterogeneous land formations ranging from low flat

and gentle areas to steep slopes, plateaus, valleys and stream courses. Q20. Which of the following correctly describes the term ‘Ophiocordyceps’?

a. Algae b. Arthropod c. Bacteria d. Fungi


• Ophicordyceps are a type of fungi. • This widespread genus grow on insects.

Q21. Consider the following statements with respect to Global Environment Facility (GEF):

1. It was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. 2. GEF Trust Fund is administered by the World Bank. 3. It serves as a financial mechanism for the Convention on Biological Diversity and UN Convention to Combat

Desertification. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3


• Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.

• World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, administering the GEF Trust Fund.

• The GEF serves as a financial mechanism to five conventions: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and Minamata Convention on Mercury.


1. Compulsory License is the grant of permission by the government to entities to use, manufacture, import or sell a patented invention without the patent owner’s consent.

2. Indian Patent Act, 1970 deals with compulsory licensing. 3. The TRIPS Agreement does not allow for the use of compulsory licences.

Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect? a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. None of the above


• Indian Patent Act, 1970 deals with compulsory licensing.

• The TRIPS Agreement allows the use of compulsory licences.


• Compulsory licensing enables a competent government authority to license the use of a patented invention to a third party or government agency without the consent of the patent-holder.

Q23. Arrange the following Indian states in the ascending order of the length of boundary shared with Bhutan:

1. Sikkim 2. Assam 3. West Bengal 4. Arunachal Pradesh

Choose the correct option: a. 1, 3, 4, 2 b. 1, 4, 3, 2 c. 3, 1, 4, 2 d. 1, 3, 2, 4

Answer: a Explanation: Indian states of Assam (267 km), Arunachal Pradesh (217 km), West Bengal (183 km), and Sikkim (32 km) share boundary with Bhutan. Q24. Which of the following pairs of cyclone and naming country is/are correctly matched?

1. Cyclone Nisarga – India 2. Cyclone Amphan – Thailand 3. Cyclone Fani – Bangladesh

Options: a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 2 only

Answer: c Explanation: Cyclone Nisarga and Fani were both named by Bangladesh. Cyclone Amphan was named by Thailand. Q25. Consider the following statements:

1. Golden Triangle is located in the area where the borders of Thailand, Myanmar and Laos meet at the confluence of the Ruak and Mekong Rivers.

2. Golden Crescent overlaps between the mountain ranges of Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan. 3. Golden Crescent area has been producing opium since much earlier than the area marked by the Golden

Triangle. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 only


• The Golden Crescent overlaps between the mountain ranges of Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan whose mountainous peripheries give the network its eponymous name.

• The Golden Triangle is located in the area where the borders of Thailand, Myanmar and Laos meet at the confluence of the Ruak and Mekong Rivers.


• The Golden Crescent is much older than its counterpart in Southeast Asia. While the Golden Triangle began as an opium-producing entity during the 1980s, the Golden Crescent has been doing the same since the 1950s.


1. Zardozi is an art patronised by the Mughals that involves weaving metallic threads on fabric to create intricate patterns.

2. Bhopal Zardozi has a Geographical Indication tag. Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?



• Zardozi is an art patronised by the Mughals that involves weaving metallic threads on fabric to create intricate patterns.

• It flourished during the reign of Mughal Emperor Akbar. • Lucknow Zardozi has a Geographical Indication tag.

Q27. Consider the following statements with respect to Humayun’s tomb:

1. Humayun’s garden-tomb is an example of the charbagh. 2. It is the first garden-tomb built in India. 3. It is included in UNESCO’s list of World Heritage Sites in India.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 and 3 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3


• Humayun’s tomb, built in 1570, is of particular cultural significance as it was the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent.

• Humayun’s garden-tomb is an example of the charbagh (a four quadrant garden with the four rivers of Quranic paradise represented), with pools joined by channels.

Q28. Which of the following is/are Green House Gas/es:

1. Ozone 2. Carbon dioxide 3. Nitrous oxide

Choose the correct option: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 3 only d. None of the above



Atmospheric gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide (N2O), water vapour, and chlorofluorocarbons are capable of trapping the out-going infrared radiation from the earth’s surface thereby causing the greenhouse effect. Hence, these are known as greenhouse gases. Ozone is also a greenhouse gas Q29. Which of the following is India’s largest butterfly?

a. Female golden birdwing b. Southern birdwing c. Quaker d. Elusive Prince


• A Himalayan butterfly named golden birdwing is now India’s largest butterfly (wingspan of 194 mm). • While the male golden birdwing (Troidesaeacus) is much smaller at 106 mm wingspan, the female of the

species is marginally larger than the southern birdwing. • The record was earlier held by southern birdwing (wingspan of 190 mm) for 88 years. • The smallest is the quaker (Neopithecopszalmora) with a wingspan of 18 mm.

Q30. Consider the following statements with respect to Daulat Beg Oldie:

1. It is the northernmost corner of Indian Territory in Ladakh. 2. It has the world’s highest airstrip. 3. It is to the west of the Line of Actual Control at Aksai Chin.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3


• Daulat Beg Oldie (DBO) is the northernmost corner of Indian Territory in Ladakh. • DBO has the world’s highest airstrip, originally built during the 1962 war but abandoned until 2008, when the

Indian Air Force (IAF) revived it as one of its many Advanced Landing Grounds (ALGs) along the LAC, with the landing of an Antonov An-32.

• It is located at an altitude of 16,614 ft. • DBO is less than 10 km west of the LAC at Aksai Chin. A military outpost was created in DBO in reaction to

China’s occupation of Aksai Chin, and is at present manned by a combination of the Army’s Ladakh Scouts and the paramilitary Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP).

Q31. “Idlib Province” frequently in the news is located in:

a. Syria b. Iran c. Israel d. Afghanistan


• Idlib is a province in Syria. Its proximity to the Turkish border makes Idlib strategically important to the Syrian government.


Q32. Consider the following statements with respect to Strategic Forces Command (SFC): 1. It works on the directives of the Nuclear Command Authority. 2. It is responsible for the management and administration of India’s tactical and strategic nuclear weapons

stockpile. Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?


Answer: d Explanation: Both statements are correct. Q33. Which of the following countries are parties to the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)?

1. United States of America 2. Malaysia 3. Japan 4. Australia 5. Brunei 6. Chile

Choose the correct option: a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only b. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only c. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6


• Following the withdrawal of the U.S from the Trans-Pacific Partnership, the remaining 11 countries renegotiated parts of the TPP and later signed the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP), also known as TPP-11.

• TPP-11 is a trade agreement between Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore and Vietnam.

Q34. Labour Force Participation Rate is:

a. Section of the working population in the age group of 16-64 in the economy currently employed or seeking employment.

b. Section of the working population in the age group of 16-64 in the economy currently employed. c. Section of the working population in the age group of 18-60 in the economy currently employed or

seeking employment. d. None of the above.


• Labour Force Participation Rate is the section of the working population in the age group of 16-64 in the economy currently employed or seeking employment.



1. Member countries of the World Health Organisation South-East Asia Region have resolved to eliminate measles and rubella by 2023.

2. Both Sri Lanka and the Maldives have eradicated Measles and Rubella ahead of the target. 3. Both Measles and Rubella are caused by an RNA virus.


Answer: d Explanation: All the statements are correct. Q36. Consider the following statements:

1. India has an open skies policy with SAARC countries and countries within the 5,000-km radius. 2. Open sky air service agreement allows for airlines from the two countries to have an unlimited number of

flights as well as seats to each other’s jurisdictions. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?



• India has an open skies policy with SAARC countries and those beyond the 5,000-km radius, which implies that nations within this distance need to enter into a bilateral agreement and mutually determine the number of flights that their airlines can operate between the two countries.

• An open sky air service agreement allows for airlines from the two countries to have an unlimited number of flights as well as seats to each other’s jurisdictions.

Q37. Consider the following statements with respect to Malabar Exercise:

1. It is a biannual trilateral naval exercise between the navies of India, Japan and the USA. 2. It began as a bilateral exercise between India and Japan and included the US in 2015. 3. Australia has participated in the exercise as a non-permanent member in the past.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3


• It is an annual exercise between the navies of India, Japan and the U.S. • It began in 1992 as a bilateral exercise between India and the U.S. • Then it got permanently expanded into a trilateral format with the inclusion of Japan in 2015. • Past non-permanent participants are Australia and Singapore.

Q38. Consider the following statements with respect to Working Mechanism for Consultation & Coordination (WMCC) on India-China Border Affairs:


1. It was established in 2017 as an institutional mechanism for consultation and coordination for the management of India – China border areas.

2. It is headed by joint secretary-level officials from India and China. Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?



• The WMCC was established in 2012 as an institutional mechanism for consultation and coordination for management of India – China border areas, as well as to exchange views on strengthening communication and cooperation, including between the border security personnel of the two sides.

• It is headed by joint secretary-level officials from both sides. They are entrusted to help the special representative for boundary talks, a position currently held by NSA Ajit Doval.

Q39. “Bhashan Char Island” is a part of:

a. Malaysia b. Myanmar c. Bangladesh d. India


• Bhashan Char is an island in Hatiya Upazila, Bangladesh. It is located in the Bay of Bengal. Q40. “Mongolian Kanjur” recently in the news is:

a. A Buddhist canonical text which is the most important religious text in Mongolia. b. Critically Endangered ground squirrels endemic to Mongolia. c. A Mongolian percussion instrument found in Buddhist monasteries. d. A form of performing art involving ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed in Buddhist monasteries.


• Mongolian Kanjur, the Buddhist canonical text in 108 volumes, is considered to be the most important religious text in Mongolia.

• In the Mongolian language ‘Kanjur’ means ‘Concise Orders’- the words of Lord Buddha in particular. Q41. Consider the following statements:

1. The Western Ghats have high endemism of orchids. 2. In India, the highest number of orchid species is recorded from Arunachal Pradesh.




• According to Orchids of India: A Pictorial Guide, as published by the Botanical Survey of India, Western Ghats have high endemism of orchids.

• The highest number of orchid species is recorded from Arunachal Pradesh with 612 species, followed by Sikkim (560 species) and West Bengal; Darjeeling Himalayas have also high species concentration, with 479 species.

Q42. Consider the following statements with respect to ASEEM digital platform:

1. It is an AI-based platform designed to bridge the demand-supply gap of skilled workforce across sectors. 2. It is developed and managed by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC). 3. It was launched by the Ministry of Human Resource and Development.

Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect? a. 1 and 3 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 only


• The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship has launched AI-based ASEEM digital platform to bridge the demand-supply gap of skilled workforce across sectors.

• ASEEM stands for Atmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping. • ASEEM is developed and managed by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) in collaboration with

Bengaluru-based company Betterplace, specialising in blue-collar employee management. Q43. Consider the following statements with respect to AH-64 Apache:

1. It is the world’s most advanced multi-role combat helicopter. 2. India has procured AH-64 Apache from Russia. 3. It is also used by the US Army.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2 and 3 only


• Boeing has handed over the last of the five AH-64E Apache attack helicopters to the Indian Air Force (IAF). • The AH-64 Apache is the world’s most advanced multi-role combat helicopter and is also used by the US Army. • India contracted 22 Apache helicopters and 15 Chinook helicopters from Boeing through the Foreign Military

Sales programme of the U.S. government in September 2015 under a $3 billion deal. Q44. Consider the following statements with respect to the recently inaugurated Rewa Solar project:

1. It is India’s first renewable energy project to supply to an institutional customer outside the State. 2. It is Asia’s largest solar power project. 3. It is located in Madhya Pradesh.


Answer: c


Explanation: • Rewa Solar project is Asia’s largest 750 MW solar power project. • It is located in Rewa district, Madhya Pradesh. • It is India’s first renewable energy project to supply to an institutional customer outside the State, i.e, Delhi

Metro. Q45. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect with respect to Capital to Risk (Weighted) Assets Ratio (CRAR)?

1. The lower the CRAR of a bank the better capitalized it is. 2. The Basel III norms stipulated a capital to risk-weighted assets of 8%. 3. In India, scheduled commercial banks are required to maintain a CRAR of 7% while Indian public sector banks

are emphasized to maintain a CRAR of 6% as per RBI norms. Options

a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1,2 and 3


• Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital to its risk. It is arrived at by dividing the capital of the bank with aggregated risk-weighted assets for credit risk, market risk, and operational risk.

• It is also known as the Capital to Risk (Weighted) Assets Ratio (CRAR). In other words, it is the ratio of a bank’s capital to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities.

• In general terms, a bank with a high CRAR/CAR is deemed safe/healthy and likely to fulfil its financial obligations. The higher the CRAR of a bank the better capitalized it is.

• CRAR is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process. RBI tracks CRAR of a bank to ensure that the bank can absorb a reasonable amount of loss and complies with statutory Capital requirements.

• The Basel III norms stipulated a capital to risk-weighted assets of 8%. • In India, scheduled commercial banks are required to maintain a CAR of 9% while Indian public sector banks

are emphasized to maintain a CAR of 12% as per RBI norms. Q46. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to ‘Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act’ (CAATSA)?

1. CAATSA’s stated purpose is to counter aggression by the Governments of Iran, the Russian Federation, and North Korea.

2. There are provisions in the law for secondary sanctions on persons that engage in significant transactions with Iran, Russia and North Korea.

3. There is a CAATSA waiver for India as part of the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for fiscal year 2019.

Options: a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1,2 and 3


• The ‘Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act’ (CAATSA) was passed by the U.S. Congress in 2017. CAATSA’s stated purpose was to counter aggression by the Governments of Iran, the Russian Federation, and North Korea.


• There are provisions in the law for secondary sanctions on people who engage in significant transactions with Iran, Russia and North Korea.

• Given the India-U.S. growing defence relationship, the U.S. Congress passed a CAATSA waiver for India as part of the John S. McCain National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for fiscal year 2019.


1. As per the recent all India Tiger Estimation survey of 2018, the number of tigers reported from India have increased as compared to the previous survey.

2. India accounts for less than 25% of wild tiger population of the world. Options:



• The fourth cycle of the All India Tiger Estimation 2018 counted 2,967 tigers, which is about 75% of the global tiger population.

Q48. Hagia Sophia, is located in which of the following country?

a. Syria b. Turkey c. Iran d. Kazakhstan


• Hagia Sophia, the sixth century Byzantine structure in Istanbul, was an Eastern Orthodox patriarchal cathedral for about 900 years, an imperial mosque for 482 years and now currently functions as a museum and a famed tourist spot.

• Hagia Sophia, a UNESCO World Heritage site, has been one of the most visited monuments in Turkey, and an emblem of Christian-Muslim co-existence.

Q49. Consider the following statements with respect to Fundamental Duties:

1. The concept of Fundamental Duties has been borrowed from the Irish Constitution. 2. Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh

Committee. 3. While the 42nd Amendment added 8 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution, the rest were added

through the 86th Amendment. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only


• The concept of Fundamental Duties has been borrowed from the Russian Constitution. The 42nd Amendment added 10 fundamental duties. The 11th was added by the 86th Amendment.


Q50. Which of the following chillies have been granted the GI Tag in India?

1. Bydagi Chilli 2. Guntur Sannam Chilli 3. Mizo Chilli 4. Bhiwapur Chilli

Options: a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 1, 3 and 4 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4


• All four chilli varieties from India have been granted GI tag status. Q51. Consider the following statements with respect to faults:

1. Faults are discontinuities or cracks that are the result of differential motion within the earth’s crust. 2. While a downthrown block between two normal faults is called graben, upthrown block between two normal

faults is called horst. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?


Answer: c Explanation: Both statements are correct. Q52. Consider the following statements with respect to NATGRID project:

1. It is an integrated intelligence grid connecting databases of core security agencies of the Government of India. 2. The office of NATGRID is attached to the Ministry of Defence. 3. The intelligence gathering mechanism relates to immigration, banking, individual taxpayers, air and train

travels. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

a. 1 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2 and 3 only

Answer: a Explanation: National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) is an integrated intelligence grid connecting databases of core security agencies of the Government of India. The intelligence gathering mechanism relates to immigration, banking, individual taxpayers, air and train travels. The office of NATGRID is attached to the Ministry of Home Affairs. Q53. Consider the following statements:

1. INS Vikrant is an Indigenous Aircraft Carrier. 2. INS Vikramaditya was bought from Russia. 3. The Indian Navy currently operates one aircraft carrier only.




• India bought INS Vikramaditya from Russia. It is a former USSR carrier vessel and entered into service with the Indian Navy in 2013.

• INS Vikrant is an Indigenous Aircraft Carrier under construction by Cochin Shipyard in Kochi, Kerala for the Indian Navy. It is the first aircraft carrier to be built in India.

• The Indian Navy currently operates one aircraft carrier only – INS Vikramaditya. Q54. Consider the following statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:

1. The Seventh Schedule was inserted in the Constitution of India by the 73rd Amendment. 2. Constitutional status was accorded to Panchayati Raj Institutions through the 73rd Amendment Act. 3. It provided that one-third of the seats in all Panchayat councils, as well as one-third of the Pradhan

(chairperson) positions, be reserved for women. 4. It fixed the minimum age for contesting in elections to Panchayat at 25 years.

Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect? a. 1 and 4 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 1, 3 and 4 only


• The Eleventh Schedule was inserted in the Constitution of India by the 73rd Amendment. • Constitutional status was accorded to Panchayati Raj Institutions through the 73rd Amendment Act. • It provided that one-third of the seats in all Panchayat councils, as well as one-third of the Pradhan

(chairperson) positions be reserved for women. • It fixed the minimum age for contesting in elections to Panchayat at 21 years.

Q55. Consider the following statements with respect to Bandar-e-Jask port:

1. Bandar-e-Jask port lies to the west of Chabahar. 2. It is located in the Hormozgan province of Iran.


Answer: c Explanation: Both statements are correct. Q56. Consider the following statements:

1. RBI purchases G-Secs under its Open Market Operations to reduce excess liquidity in the system. 2. G-Secs are risk-free gilt-edged instruments.


3. G-Secs are issued by both the Central as well as the State Governments. Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?

a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 3 only


• A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments.

• The purchase of government securities by the RBI under its Open Market Operations will infuse liquidity into the system.

• G-Secs practically carry no risk of default and, hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments. Gilt-edged securities are high-grade investment bonds offered by governments and large corporations as a means of borrowing funds.


1. Cytokine storm is an overproduction of immune cells and their activating compounds. 2. Cytokines can be pro-inflammatory or anti-inflammatory.


Answer: d Explanation: Cytokines are small proteins secreted by immune cells to communicate and alter the actions of other immune cells. They can be pro-inflammatory or anti-inflammatory, thus promoting or inhibiting the proliferation and functions of other immune cells. Cytokine storm is an overproduction of immune cells and their activating compounds. Q58. Consider the following statements:

1. The lake is located in the Zabarwan mountain valley. 2. It is surrounded by Shankaracharya hills on three sides.

The lake being talked about is: a. Tso Moriri Lake b. Dal Lake c. Loktak Lake d. Chilika Lake


• Dal lake is located in the Zabarwan mountain valley and surrounded by Shankaracharya hills on three sides. Q59. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect about Kaziranga National Park:

1. It is a “Mixed World Heritage Site” on the UNESCO World Heritage List. 2. It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species. 3. It has been declared a tiger reserve.

Choose the correct option: a. 1 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only


d. 2 only Answer: a Explanation:

• Khangchendzonga National Park in Sikkim is the only “Mixed World Heritage Site” in India to be inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List.

• Kaziranga National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage site (Natural site). • It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species. • It was declared a tiger reserve in 2006.

Q60. "PRAGYATA Guidelines" refer to the recently released:

a. Guidelines for obtaining collateral-free MSME loans, as a part of Atmanirbhar Bharat. b. Guidelines on digital education. c. Set of procedural guidelines for use in India in cases of sexual harassment. d. Guidelines regarding the preparation of coal blocks before bidding.


• The PRAGYATA guidelines include eight steps of online/digital education that is, Plan- Review- Arrange- Guide- Yak (talk)- Assign- Track- Appreciate.

• The guidelines on Digital/Online Education provide a roadmap or pointers for carrying forward online education to enhance the quality of education.

Q61. Consider the following statements with respect to Asian Development Bank (ADB):

1. It is headquartered in Manila, Philippines. 2. The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the

Pacific (UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries. 3. It issues Special Drawing Rights (SDR) monetary reserve currency that operates as a supplement to the existing

money reserves of member countries. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3


• The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP, formerly the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East or ECAFE) and non-regional developed countries.

• Special Drawing Rights (SDR) refers to an international type of monetary reserve currency created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969 that operates as a supplement to the existing money reserves of member countries.

• SDRs are units of account for the IMF and not a currency per se. They instead represent a claim to currency held by IMF member countries for which they may be exchanged.

Q62. Total Fertility Rate is:

a. The average number of children born to women during their reproductive years. b. The fertility rate at which a population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next, without

migration. c. The fertility rate at which a population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next.


d. The number of live births per thousand of population per year. Answer: a Explanation:

• Total Fertility Rate refers to the average number of children born to women during their reproductive years. • In simple terms, it refers to the total number of children born or likely to be born to a woman in her lifetime

if she were subject to the prevailing rate of age-specific fertility in the population (reproductive years). Q63. Consider the following statements with respect to Chiang Mai Initiative:

1. It is a multilateral currency swap arrangement. 2. It involved ten members of ASEAN, the People’s Republic of China including Hong Kong, Japan, and South

Korea. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?



• The Chiang Mai Initiative was a financial swap mechanism that emerged in the aftermath of the late 1990s Asian financial crisis.

• It is a currency swap agreement among ASEAN +3 i.e, ten members of ASEAN, the People’s Republic of China including Hong Kong, Japan, and South Korea.

Q64. Which of the following committees or commissions dealt with Centre-State relations?

1. Sarkaria Commission 2. Puncchi Commission 3. Rajamannar Committee

Choose the correct option: a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

• Sarkaria Commission, Puncchi Commission and Rajmannar Committee dealt with center-state relations. • In 1983, the Central government appointed a three-member Commission on Centre-state relations under the

chairmanship of R S Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court. • In April 2007, the Government of India constituted a Commission on Centre-State Relations under the

chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi to look into the new issues of Centre-State relations keeping in view the changes that have taken place in the polity and economy of India since the Sarkaria Commission had last looked at the issue of Centre-State relations over two decades ago.

• In 1969, the Tamil Nadu Government appointed a three-member committee under the chairmanship of Dr P V Rajamannar to examine the entire question of Centre–state relations and to suggest amendments to the Constitution so as to secure utmost autonomy to the states.

Q65. Consider the following statements with respect to the International Court of Justice (ICJ):

1. It is the principal judicial body of the UN. 2. It is composed of 15 judges elected to five-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and

the Security Council.


3. Its judgements are final and without appeal. Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?

a. 3 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 and 3 only

Answer: b Explanation

• The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial body of the UN, established in 1946 to replace the Permanent Court of International Justice.

• The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office. • They are elected by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. • Judgments are final and without appeal. If there is a dispute about the meaning or scope of a judgment, the

only possibility is for one of the parties to make a request to the Court for an interpretation. Q66. Which of the following conventions has/have NOT been ratified by India?

1. UN Convention on Rights of the Child 2. United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities 3. UN Convention Against Torture (CAT)

Choose the correct option: a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 3 only d. None of the above


• India has ratified both the UN Convention on Rights of the Child and the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities.

• The UN Convention Against Torture (CAT) is an international human rights treaty, under the review of the UN and was adopted in 1984. It aims to prevent torture and other acts of cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment around the world. India has not ratified the treaty yet.


1. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is defined as the number of maternal deaths per one thousand live births. 2. Sustainable Development Goal has set a target for the reduction of MMR to fewer than 70 by 2030. 3. The Government of India launched the LaQshya Initiative with the objective of reducing Maternal Mortality.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3


• Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is defined as the number of maternal deaths per one lakh live births. • Sustainable Development Goal has set a target for the reduction of MMR to fewer than 70 by 2030. • Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India launched LaQshya – Labour room Quality

Improvement Initiative with the following objectives: • Reduce maternal and newborn morbidity and mortality. • Improve the quality of care during delivery and the immediate post-partum period.


• Enhance satisfaction of beneficiaries, positive birthing experience and provide Respectful Maternity Care (RMC) to all pregnant women attending public health facilities.

Q68. Consider the following statements with respect to Afghanistan–Pakistan Transit Trade Agreement:

1. It allows for both countries to use each other’s airports, railways, roads, and ports for transit trade along designated transit corridors.

2. This agreement does not permit Indian goods to be loaded onto trucks for transit back to Afghanistan, except at the Wagah border.



• The Afghanistan–Pakistan Transit Trade Agreement (also known as APTTA) is a bilateral trade agreement signed in 2010 by Pakistan and Afghanistan.

• It allows for both countries to use each other’s airports, railways, roads, and ports for transit trade along designated transit corridors.

• The signed Agreement permits Afghanistan trucks access to the Wagah border with India, where Afghan goods will be offloaded onto Indian trucks, but does not permit Indian goods to be loaded onto trucks for transit back to Afghanistan.

• It does not offer Afghanistan the right to import Indian goods across Pakistani territory. Q69. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Pangolin (Maniscrassicaudata):

1. It is the only species of pangolin occurring in India. 2. It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 3. It is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.



• Of the eight extant species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin (Maniscrassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla) occur in India.

• It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. • It is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Q70. Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?

1. It is mandatory for loanee farmers to take insurance cover under this scheme. 2. It does not cover losses occurred due to war or similar hazardous activities. 3. Losses occurred after harvesting crops are also covered under the scheme.




• When the scheme was launched in February 2016 it was mandatory for loanee farmers to take insurance cover under the PMFBY. However, currently subsequent to recently introduced changes, crop insurance has been made optional for both agriculture loanee and non-loanee.

• It does not cover losses occurred due to war or similar hazardous activities. • It provides post-harvest coverage. Losses occurred after harvesting crops are covered under the scheme.

Coverage is available only upto a maximum period of two weeks from harvesting Q71. Kish Island, recently in news, is located in:

a. Persian Gulf b. South China Sea c. Philippine Sea d. Gulf of Oman

Answer: a Explanation: Kish Island, in the Persian Gulf, is located at the mouth of the Strait of Hormuz. Q72. Arrange the following from East to West:

1. Kedarnath 2. Badrinath 3. Gangotri 4. Yamunotri

Options: a. 2, 1, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 2, 1, 4, 3 d. 3, 4, 1, 2


• The Char Dham programme is an initiative to improve connectivity to the Char Dham pilgrimage centres in the Himalayas, namely Gangotri, Yamunotri, Kedarnath and Badrinath.

• East to West: Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri, Yamunotri. Q73. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

1. Malabar exercise has been a trilateral exercise between India, U.S. and Japan since its inception in 1992. 2. Malabar exercise has always been conducted in Indian waters. 3. Australia has never participated in the Malabar exercise.

Options: a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1,2 and 3 only d. None of the above


• The Malabar exercise began as a bilateral exercise between India and the U.S. in 1992 and was expanded into a trilateral format with the inclusion of Japan in 2015.


• Malabar exercise is not restricted to Indian waters and has been previously held off the Japanese coast and Guam.

• Australia has previously participated in the Malabar exercise as a non-permanent participant. Q74. Equalisation levy is associated with which of the following?

a. Inter-country transfer of assets b. Digital services c. Wealth tax imposed on transfer of assets from parents to children d. Tax on companies for use of natural resources like water


• Earlier, the government had imposed a 6% equalisation levy on online advertisement services by non-resident entities. Later, the scope was expanded to online sale of goods and provision of services from April 1.

• The Finance Ministry has imposed an equalisation levy of 2% on e-commerce supplies and services from April 1, 2020.


1. National Disaster Response Fund supplements the State Disaster Response Fund in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in the State Disaster Response Fund.

2. The States have to submit utilisation certificates, pending which no future allocation is made from the National Disaster Response Fund to State Disaster Response Fund.

Options: a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2


• As per Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, the “NDRF supplements the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in the SDRF”.

• The States have to submit utilisation certificates, pending which no future allocation is made. Q76. The Solar Orbiter mission is associated with which of the following organization/s?

1. NASA 2. European Space agency 3. ISRO

Options: a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1,2 and 3


• Solar Orbiter is an international cooperative mission between the European Space Agency and NASA Q77. India has ratified which of the following conventions?

1. Convention against Torture


2. Convention on Cluster Munitions 3. Chemical Weapons Convention

Options: a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

• In 2017, the Central Government admitted in the Supreme Court that it was seriously considering the 273rd Report of the Law Commission that recommended ratification of the U.N. Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhumane or Degrading Treatment (CAT). CAT was signed by India but is yet to be ratified.

• India became one of the original signatories of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) in 1993 and ratified it on 02 September 1996.

• India has not signed the Convention on Cluster Munitions.

Q78. With reference to the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

1. The provisions of this Act apply to citizens of India outside India. 2. Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in a maximum of 90 days after the arrests.


Answer: a

• Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the arrests: Q79. Consider the following pairs:

1. Jim Corbett National Park: Uttarakhand 2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary: Sikkim 3. Silent Valley National Park: Kerala

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura. Q80. Congress had decided to demand “Purna Swaraj” (complete independence) at its

a. Lahore Session b. Bombay session c. Benaras Session d. Madras Session

Answer: a

• The Indian National Congress, on 19 December 1929, passed the historic ‘Purna Swaraj’ – (total independence) resolution – at its Lahore session.


Q81. Consider the following statements with respect to Maldharis:

1. They are religious pastoral communities living in Gir forests. 2. Their settlements are called Nesses.


Answer: d Explanation: Both statements are correct. Q82. In which of the following country/ies does Polio continue to be endemic?

1. Pakistan 2. Iran 3. Afghanistan 4. Sri Lanka 5. Bangladesh 6. Maldives

Choose the correct option: a. 1 and 3 only b. 3 and 6 only c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6


• Polio does still exist, although polio cases have decreased by over 99% since 1988. • Polio remains endemic in Pakistan and Afghanistan. • There is no cure for polio, it can only be prevented.

Q83. Consider the following statements with respect to “Al-Amal”:

1. It is the first Arab space mission to Mars. 2. Its objective is to land on Mars and provide a comprehensive image of the weather dynamics in the planet’s

atmosphere. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?



• While the objective of the Mars mission is to provide a comprehensive image of the weather dynamics in the red planet’s atmosphere, the probe is a foundation for a much bigger goal – building a human settlement on Mars within the next 100 years.

• It will not land on the planet, but instead orbit it for a whole Martian year, or 687 days.


Q84. IUCN Red List classifies Asiatic Lion as: a. Vulnerable b. Endangered c. Critically Endangered d. Near Threatened


• Asiatic Lion (Pantheraleopersica) is classified as Endangered in the IUCN Red List. • It is listed under Appendix I of CITES and Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Q85. Arrange the following areas from West to East:

1. Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Doklam Plateau 3. Jakarlung 4. Pasamlung

Choose the correct option: a. 2, 3, 4, 1 b. 3, 4, 2, 1 c. 2, 4, 3, 1 d. 2, 3, 1, 4

Answer: a Explanation: These are the areas of dispute between China and Bhutan. West to East: Doklam Plateau – Jakarlung – Pasamlung – Sakteng Wild Life Sanctuary Q86. Consider the following statements with respect to “Meta Materials”:

1. Meta Materials are artificially crafted with unique internal microstructures that give them properties not found in nature.

2. The constituent artificial units of the Meta Material can be tailored in shape, size, and interatomic interaction. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?


Answer: c Explanation: Both statements are correct.

• Meta Materials are artificially crafted materials with unique internal microstructures that give them properties not found in nature.

• The constituent artificial units of the Meta Material can be tailored in shape, size, and interatomic interaction, to exhibit unusual properties.

Q87. The international financing organization, ‘Global Fund’, works towards accelerating the end of which of the following diseases?

1. Tuberculosis 2. Malaria 3. Swine Flu 4. Polio


5. AIDS Choose the correct option:

a. 1, 2 and 4 only b. 1, 2 and 5 only c. 2, 3 and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


• Founded in 2002, Global Fund for AIDS, TB and Malaria (GFATM), also known as Global Fund, is an international financing organization.

• It aims to attract, leverage and invest additional resources to end the epidemics of HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis and malaria to support attainment of the Sustainable Development Goals established by the United Nations.

Q88. Consider the following statements with respect to Trade-Related aspects of Intellectual Property rights (TRIPS):

1. It is an international agreement administered jointly by the World Trade Organization and the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development.

2. It was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of GATT in 1994. 3. TRIPS Agreement applies to all WTO members.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only


• It is an international agreement administered by the World Trade Organization. • It was negotiated at the end of the Uruguay Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in

1994. • All the WTO agreements (except for a couple of “plurilateral” agreements) apply to all WTO members. The

TRIPS Agreement is part of that package. Therefore it applies to all WTO members. • But the agreement allows countries different periods of time to delay applying its provisions. These delays

define the transition from before the agreement came into force (before 1 January 1995) until it is applied in member countries.

Q89. Which of the following national parks are located in Assam?

1. Kaziranga National Park 2. Manas National park 3. Orang National Park 4. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park 5. Nameri National Park

Choose the correct option: a. 1, 2 and 4 only b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only c. 1, 3 and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: d Explanation: Assam has five national parks—Kaziranga National Park, Manas National Park, Nameri National Park, Dibru-Saikhowa National Park and Orang National Park.


https://byjus.com/free-ias-prep/world-trade-organization-wto/

Q90. Bharni, Katchni, Tantrik, Godna, and Kohbar are distinctive styles of which of the following folk paintings?

a. Madhubani Painting b. Warli Painting c. Kalamkari Painting d. Pattachitra Painting


• Madhubani painting has its origins in Maithili village of Bihar, characterized by line drawings filled in by bright colours and contrasts or patterns.

• Their various styles include Bharni, Katchni, Tantrik, Godna, and Kohbar, which would historically be painted only by women from the upper strata in the caste system, who would make them on mud walls on special occasions.

• The themes & designs widely painted are of Hindu deities such as Krishna, Rama, Siva, Durga, Lakshmi, Saraswati, Sun and Moon, Tulasi plant, court scenes, wedding scenes, social happenings, etc. Floral, animal and bird motifs, geometrical designs are used to fill up all the gaps.

Q91. Consider the following statements with respect to Fishing Cat:

1. It is the state animal of West Bengal. 2. It is classified as Endangered in the IUCN Red List. 3. Fishing Cats are nocturnal.



• Fishing Cat (Prionailurusviverrinus) is the state animal of West Bengal. • It has been down listed to “Vulnerable” from “Endangered” in the IUCN Red List species assessment. • They are nocturnal and prey on frogs, crustaceans, snakes, birds, and scavenge on carcasses of larger animals

apart from fish. Q92. Consider the following statements with respect to “Haloarchaea”:

1. It is a bacteria culture, which produces pink pigment. 2. They are found in water saturated with salt.



• Haloarchaea or halophilic archaea is a bacteria culture, which produces pink pigment. • It is found in water saturated with salt. • Haloarchaea requires salt concentrations in excess of 2 M (or about 10%) to grow, and optimal growth usually

occurs at much higher concentrations, typically 20–25%.


Q93. In which of the following state/s is the Bru Tribe recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG):

1. Tripura 2. Assam 3. Manipur 4. Mizoram

Choose the correct option: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 only c. 4 only d. 1, 2 and 4 only


• The Brus, also referred to as the Reangs, are spread across the north-eastern states of Tripura, Assam, Manipur, and Mizoram.

• However, they are recognised as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) only in Tripura. • In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, tribes that are

less developed among the tribal groups. • In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). • There are 75 PVTGs. The criteria followed for determination of PVTGs are:

• A pre-agriculture level of technology; • A stagnant or declining population; • Extremely low literacy; and • A subsistence level of economy.

Q94. Consider the following statements with respect to the European Union (EU):

1. It is an economic and political union of 27 countries where all the members use the Euro as their official currency.

2. It came into force after the signing of the Maastricht Treaty. 3. Switzerland is a member of the European Union.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 2 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2 and 3 only


• It is an economic and political union of 27 countries. 8 EU members (Bulgaria, Croatia, Czech Republic, Denmark, Hungary, Poland, Romania and Sweden) do not use the euro.

• It came into force after the signing of the Maastricht Treaty. • Switzerland is not a member of the European Union. However, it has signed a number of treaties with the

European Union. Switzerland is one of the largest trading partners of the EU. Q95. Consider the following statements with respect to Tianwen-1:

1. It is China’s first fully home-grown Mars mission. 2. It is China’s first Mars orbiter. 3. It consists of an orbiter and a solar-powered rover.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 3 only


c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3


• Tianwen-1 is China’s first fully home-grown Mars mission. • It consists of an orbiter and a lander/rover duo, a combination of craft that had never before been launched

together towards Mars. • China had attempted the launch of a Mars orbiter called Yinghuo-1 in 2011. The spacecraft accompanied

Russia’s Phobos-Grunt mission. However, the launch failed, leaving the probes trapped in Earth orbit. Q96. Consider the following statements with respect to General Financial Rules (GFRs):

1. They are a compilation of rules and orders of the Government of India to be followed while dealing with matters involving public finances.

2. They were first issued in 1947 and have not been modified ever since. 3. They are issued by the Department of Financial Services under the Finance Ministry.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 and 3 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 only


• General Financial Rules (GFRs) are a set of rules that deals with matters concerning public finances. • They were first issued in 1947, and later were modified in 1963, 2005 and the latest in 2017. • They are issued by the Department of Expenditure under the Finance Ministry.

Q97. Consider the following statements with respect to Hagia Sophia Grand Mosque:

1. It is an example of Byzantine architecture. 2. It was built as the Christian cathedral of Constantinople. 3. It was converted into a mosque by Mustafa Kemal Ataturk, the founder of the Republic of Turkey.



• Hagia Sophia is the former Greek Orthodox Christian patriarchal cathedral, later an Ottoman imperial mosque and then a museum located in Istanbul, Turkey.

• It was built in 537 AD during the reign of Justinian I, the Eastern Roman emperor. • The Byzantine architecture monument is famous for its large dome. • In 1453, when Constantinople fell to Ottoman forces, it was turned into a mosque. • In 1934, Mustafa Kemal Ataturk, the founder of the Republic of Turkey, converted the mosque into a

museum in an attempt to make the country more secular. • The Council of State, the highest administrative court in Turkey, unanimously cancelled the 1934 decision by

modern Turkey’s founder to turn it into a museum, saying it was registered as a mosque in its property deeds. Mr. Erdogan, Turkey’s President, then swiftly ordered the building to reopen for Muslim worship.

Q98. Which among the following treaties established the modern border between Turkey and Greece?


a. Treaty of Lausanne b. Treaty of Alexandropol c. Treaty of Sèvres d. Treaty of Ankara


• Treaty of Lausanne ended the conflict between the Ottoman Empire and the Allies and established the modern border between Turkey and Greece.

Q99. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. Kuchipudi – Tamil Nadu 2. Sattriya – Arunachal Pradesh 3. Kathakali – Kerala 4. Odisha – Odissi

Choose the correct option: a. 1, 2 and 3 only b. 3 and 4 only c. 2, 3 and 4 only d. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: b Explanation: Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh and Sattriya is from Assam. Q100. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):

1. It is a constitutional body established in 1993. 2. President appoints the Chairman and members of NHRC on the recommendation of a high-powered

committee headed by Prime Minister. 3. It has the powers of a Civil Court.



• NHRC of India is an independent statutory body established on 12 October 1993 as per the provisions of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

• President appoints the Chairman and members of NHRC on the recommendation of a high-powered committee headed by Prime Minister.

• It has the powers of a Civil Court Q101. Who of the following were parts of the Thanjavur Quartet?

1. Chinnaiah 2. Ponniah 3. Muthuswami Dikshitar 4. Vadivelu 5. Tyagaraja 6. Syama Sastri


7. Sivanandam Options:

a. 1,2,4 and 7 b. 1,2,3 and 4 c. 3,4,5 and 6 d. 2,3,6 and 7


• Thanjavur Quartet were four brothers, Chinnaiah, Ponniah, Sivanandam and Vadivelu, who lived during the early 19th century and contributed to the development of Bharatanatyam and Carnatic music.

• Muthuswami Dikshitar was a legendary composer of Indian classical music, who is considered one of the musical trinity of Carnatic music, the other two being Tyagaraja and Syama Sastri.

Q102. Which of the following has a geographical indication (GI) tag?

1. Kashmir saffron 2. Kandhamal Haladi 3. Tirur Betel Leaf 4. Tawlhlohpuan

Options: a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 1,2,3 and 4


• Tawlhlohpuan, is a fine quality fabric woven in Mizoram. • Tirur betel vine, cultivated in Malappuram district of Kerala, is valued for its medicinal and cultural usages.


1. The governor has to always act as per the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.

2. The constitution has a provision for reservation of state bills by Governors for President’s consideration. Options:



• Article 163(1): There shall be a council of Ministers with the chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.

• The articles 200 and 201 of the Indian constitution provides for reservation of bills by Governors for President’s consideration.


1. Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutorily backed by the Environment Protection Act, 1986. 2. The environmental clearance to projects can be given only by the Central Government.




• Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutorily backed by the Environment Protection Act, 1986. • The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notified new EIA legislation in 2006.

Environment Impact Assessment Notification of 2006 has decentralized the environmental clearance projects by categorizing the developmental projects in two categories, i.e., Category A (national level appraisal) and Category B (state level appraisal).

Q105. Consider the following statements with respect to Istanbul Convention:

1. It is a Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence. 2. India has signed and ratified the Convention. 3. Turkey was the first country to ratify the Convention.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3 only


• The Council of Europe Convention on preventing and combating violence against women and domestic violence is better known as the Istanbul Convention.

• Only European countries have signed this convention. It has been signed by 45 countries and the European Union (EU).

• In 2012, Turkey became the first country to ratify the Convention. Q106. Consider the following statements with respect to River Gandak:

1. It is a right-bank tributary of the Ganga. 2. Kali Gandak and the Trishuli are its tributaries. 3. The Burhi Gandak flows parallel to and east of the Gandak River.



• River Gandak is a left-bank tributary of the Ganga. • Kali Gandak and the Trishuli are its tributaries. • The Burhi (“Old”) Gandak flows parallel to and east of the Gandak River in an old channel. It joins the Ganges

northeast of Munger. Q107. “Operation Safed Sagar” refers to:


a. The world’s largest dairy development program and a landmark project of India’s National Dairy Development Board.

b. The codename assigned to the Indian Air Force’s strike to support the ground troops during the Kargil War of 1999.

c. Campaign launched for popularising Blue Revolution in India. d. Indian military’s capture of the majority of Siachen Glacier.


• During the Kargil war in 1999, the Indian Air Force (IAF) had conducted Operation Safed Sagar as a part of Operation Vijay of the Indian Army.

Q108. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF):

1. It ranks higher educational institutions across India. 2. 90% of the parameters in NIRF are completely objective and fact-based, while only 10% is based on the

subjective parameter of perception by academic peers and employers. Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect?



• National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) ranks higher educational institutions in India based on 9 categories: Overall Ranking (1), Category-Specific Rankings (2 – Universities and Colleges) and Domain-Specific Rankings (6- Engineering, Management, Law, Pharmacy, Architecture and Medical).

• 90% of the parameters in NIRF are completely objective and fact-based, while only 10% is based on the subjective parameter of perception by academic peers and employers.

Q109. Consider the following statements with respect to the “Strait of Hormuz”:

1. It lies between Iran and Qatar. 2. It links the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman. 3. It contains the islands of Qeshm and Hengam.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 2 and 3 only


• Strait of Hormuz is a strategic strait that links the Persian Gulf (west) with the Gulf of Oman. • It lies between Iran and Oman. • It contains the islands of Qeshm (Qishm), Hormuz, and Hengam (Henjam).

Q110. Consider the following statements regarding Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve:

1. It is the largest Tiger Reserve in India. 2. It spans across five districts in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. 3. River Krishna flows through the reserve.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?


a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only

Answer: c Explanation: All the statements are correct. Q111. Which of the following is the nodal agency for divestment in India?

a. Department of Revenue b. Department of Financial Services c. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management d. Department of Economic Affairs

Answer: c Explanation: The Department of Disinvestment was one of the Departments under the Ministry of Finance. It was renamed as the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) in 2016. DIPAM has been made the nodal agency for disinvestment. Q112. Consider the following statements with respect to World Migration Report:

1. It is published by the International Labour Organisation. 2. It is released annually since the year 2000.



• World Migration Report is the flagship publication series of the International Organization for Migration. • The World Migration Report presents data and information on human migration together with the analysis of

complex and emerging migration issues. • It is released biennially. • The World Migration Report was first published by IOM in the year 2000 with the aim of promoting ‘a better

understanding of the main migratory movements that are occurring across the globe’. Q113. Consider the following statements with respect to River Pampa:

1. It is the longest river in Kerala. 2. It originates in the Pulachimalai hill in the Western Ghats. 3. It flows westwards and drains into the Vembanad Lake.

Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect? a. 1 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 and 3 only



https://byjus.com/free-ias-prep/international-organization-for-migration/

• The Pamba River (also called Pampa river) is the third-longest river in the South Indian state of Kerala after Periyar and Bharathappuzha.

• It originates in the Pulachimalai hill in the Western Ghats. • It is a west flowing river. • It flows westwards and empties into the Vembanad Lake.


1. Palamau Tiger Reserve – Jharkhand 2. Buxa Tiger Reserve – Maharashtra 3. Dampa Tiger Reserve – Mizoram 4. Satkosia Tiger Reserve – Odisha

Which of the above is/are correctly matched? a. 1, 2 and 4 only b. 1, 3 and 4 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: b Explanation: Buxa Tiger Reserve is located in West Bengal. Q115. Consider the following statements with respect to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB):

1. It is headquartered in Beijing, China. 2. India is a member and has the second-largest shareholding and voting rights. 3. Membership is open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or the Asian

Development Bank. 4. The bank allows non-sovereign entities of member countries to apply for membership.

Choose the correct option: a. 1 and 4 only b. 1, 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 2 and 4 only

Answer: c Explanation: All the statements are correct.

• The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is headquartered in Beijing, China. • India is a member and has the second-largest shareholding and voting rights after China. • The AIIB allows non-sovereign entities to apply for AIIB membership, assuming their home country is

a member. Thus, sovereign wealth funds (such as the China Investment Corporation) or state-owned enterprises of member countries could potentially join the Bank.

• Its membership is open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or the Asian Development Bank.

Q116. The “Five Eyes” alliance comprises of which of the following countries?

1. Canada 2. Russia 3. New Zealand 4. Australia 5. India 6. United Kingdom


7. United States Choose the correct option:

a. 1, 3, 4, 6, 7 only b. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7 only c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 only d. 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 only


• The Five Eyes, often abbreviated as FVEY, is an Anglophone intelligence alliance comprising Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States.

Q117. Which of the following temples is built in the Pratihara style?

a. Ghateshwara Temple in Baroli, Rajasthan b. Sun Temple in Konark, Odisha c. Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati, Assam d. Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu

Answer: a

• The Ghateshwara Temple in Baroli is one of the nine temples near the river Chambal in Rajasthan. The Ghateshwara temple is dedicated to the god Shiva and is constructed in the Pratihara style.

Q118. Consider the following statements with respect to the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER):

1. It is located in France. 2. It is the largest plasma-based fusion reactor. 3. Both India and China are members of ITER.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d Explanation: All the statements are correct. Q119. Consider the following questions with respect to the Budapest Convention:

1. It is the first international treaty seeking to address internet and computer crime. 2. It is open for ratification only to the members of the Council of Europe. 3. India has acceded to the Budapest Convention.

Which of the given statement/s is/are incorrect? a. 2 and 3 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3



• The Convention on Cybercrime, also known as the Budapest Convention on Cybercrime or the Budapest Convention, is the first international treaty seeking to address Internet and computer crime by harmonizing national laws, improving investigative techniques, and increasing cooperation among nations.

• It is open for ratification even to states that are not members of the Council of Europe. • India has not acceded to the Convention.


1. The Aichi Targets were adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference. 2. There are 20 Aichi Targets divided into 5 sections with a ten-year framework for action. 3. India has 12 National Biodiversity Targets in Line with the Aichi Targets.

Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 only


• The Aichi Targets were adopted by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at its Nagoya conference. • It is a ten-year framework for action by all countries to save biodiversity. This short term plan provides a set

of 20 ambitious yet achievable targets divided into 5 sections, collectively known as the Aichi Targets. • India has 12 National Biodiversity Targets in line with the Strategic Plan (SP) for Biodiversity (2011-2020) and

20 Aichi Targets. Q121. Consider the following statements with respect to Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. 2. ARISE initiative under the AIM is a national mentor network in collaboration with the public sector, corporates

and institutions, to support all the initiatives of the mission. 3. AIM-iCREST is an incubator capabilities enhancement programme for creating high-performance start-ups.



• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.

• ARISE (Atal Research & Innovation for Small Enterprises) is an initiative under the AIM to stimulate innovation and research in the MSME industry.

• AIM-iCREST is an incubator capabilities enhancement programme for a robust ecosystem for creating high-performance start-ups.

• Mentor India Campaign under AIM is a national mentor network in collaboration with the public sector, corporates and institutions, to support all the initiatives of the mission.

Q122. Memba Tribe belongs to which of the following regions?

a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Kerala c. Nagaland d. Gujarat


Answer: a Explanation: The last Indian village – Bishing, is closest to the McMahon Line, and it demarcates the boundary between China’s Tibet region and Arunachal Pradesh. The Memba tribe which has a population of 100 stays in that village. Q123. Which of the following committee/s is/are associated with the National Education Policy?

1. T.S.R. Subramanian Committee 2. K. Kasturirangan Committee 3. Madhav Gadgil Committee 4. Bibek Debroy Committee

Choose the correct option: a. 2 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4


• ‘Committee for Evolution of the New Education Policy’ under the Chairmanship of Shri T.S.R. Subramanian, submitted its report in May 2016.

• In 2017 a ‘Committee for the Draft National Education Policy’ was constituted under the Chairmanship of Dr. K. Kasturirangan.

• Kasturirangan Committee submitted the Draft National Education Policy, 2019. Q124. Consider the following statements with respect to Assam Rifles:

1. The Assam Rifles is the oldest paramilitary force of India. 2. The administrative control of the Assam Rifles lies with the Defence Ministry, while the operational control is

with the Home Ministry. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?


Answer: a Explanation: The Assam Rifles is the oldest paramilitary force of India. The unit can trace its lineage back to a paramilitary police force that was formed under the British in 1835 called Cachar Levy. The administrative control of Assam Rifles lies with the Home Ministry, while the operational control is with the Defence Ministry.


UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine for July 2020 ...Species of butterflies spotted in the Western...

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