University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Self...

UNIT WISE TESTS 1

University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Self Test Series - 9

ARK Self-Test Series

~ Test 9

Total MCQs: 170 Max. Marks: 850 Time Allowed: 125 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.

ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.

iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll No. and Signature in the specified columns only.

COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION Q-ID. What is the Colour of your Question Paper? A) White B) Blue C) Pink D) Green

Ans: Colour of your Question Paper is White. Fill the Circle Corresponding to Letter ‘A’ against ‘ID’ in your MCQ Response Form (Exactly as shown in the diagram).

SYLLABUS PHYSICS Unit 11: MAGNETISM AND ELECTROMAGNETISM

CHEMISTRY Unit 6C: CARBOXYLIC ACID

Unit 7C: AMINO ACIDS

ENGLISH GRAMMAR

VOCABULARY

BIOLOGY Unit 9: ECOSYSTEM

A B C D

ID 1 2 3 4

UNIT WISE TESTS 2


PART I - PHYSICS Q.1 The field due to a long straight wire, carrying a current I, is proportional to

A) I C) I1/2 B) I-1 D) I3

Q.2 Magnetic field inside a solenoid is

A) Directly proportional to current C) Directly proportional to its length B) Inversely proportional to current D) Inversely proportional to total number to turns

Q.3 A long solenoid has 20 turns / cm. the current necessary to produce a magnetic field of 20 millitesla inside the solenoid is approximately A) 1 A C) 4 A B) 2 A D) 8 A

Q.4 Ions of different momenta (P), having the same charge, enter normally a uniform

magnetic field the radius of the orbit of an ion is proportional to A) P C) P2 B) 1/P D) 1/P2

Q.5 A straight current carrying conductor experiences maximum force in a uniform

magnetic field when it is placed A) Parallel to the field C) At an angle of 450 to the field B) Perpendicular to the field D) None of these

Q.6 The force F experiences by a conductor of length L carrying current when placed in a

uniform magnetic field B is given by the relation A) F = I (L x B) C) F = I (L / B) B) F = I (L . B) D) F = (L x B) / 1

Q.7 Tesla is the unit of

A) Magnetic induction or flux density C) Self inductance B) Magnetic flux D) Electric intensity

Q.8 Total number of lines of magnetic induction passing normally through a given area is

called A) Magnetic induction C) Magnetic flux B) Flux density D) Magnetic force

Q.9 The magnetic flux through an element of area A in a uniform magnetic field B is

expressed as A) B = B x A C) B= A x B

B) B = B.A D) B = B /A Q.10 The SI unit of magnetic flux is

A) Weber B) Tesla B) Nm-1 A-1 D) Gauss

Q.11 Magnetic flux and flux density are related by

A) Flux density = flux x area C) flux density = flux – area B) Flux density = flux / area D) flux density = flux + area

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Q.12 The SI unit of flux density is A) Weber-m-2 C) Nm-1A-1 B) Tesla D) All of them

Q.13 Which of the following is scalar

A) Magnetic flux C) emf B) Flux density D) Both A and C

Q.14 If n be the number of turns per unit length of the solenoid, each carrying a current I,

then the magnetic field B inside the solenoid is A) B = 0nI C) B = 0I/n

B) B = 0 / NI D) B = 0n/I Q.15 The magnetic field inside the solenoid along its axis due to current is:

A) Zero C) Infinite line B) Non-uniform D) Strong and uniform

Q.16 Which of the following statement is correct?

A) Two parallel currents attract each other C) They neither attract nor repel B) Two anti-parallel currents repel each other D) All statements are wrong

Q.17 The force experienced by a charged particle moving with velocity v in a magnetic field

B is given by A) F = q (v . B) C) F = q (v x B) B) F= (v x B) / q D) F = q (v + B)

Q.18 The direction of force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field will

be A) Parallel to the field B) Opposite to the field C) Parallel to its direction D) Perpendicular to both the field and the velocity vector

Q.19 The Lorentz force on a charged particle moving in an electric field F and magnetic field

B is given A) F = Fe + FB C) F = Fe / FB

B) F = Fe – FB D) F = Fe x FB Q.20 Charge to mass ratio (e/m) of a charged particle is also called is

A) Specific charge C) Gyro-magnetic ratio B) Specific force D) Magneto – mechanical ratio

Q.21 A vertical wire carrying a current in the upward direction is placed in a horizontal

magnetic field directed towards north. The wire will experience a force towards. A) North C) East B) South D) West

Q.22 0.25 T field over an area of 2 m2 which lies at angle of 300 to the field, then the resulting

magnetic flux is A) 0.25 W C) 2 Wb B) 0.25 T D) 2 T

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Q.23 An electron is moving along the axis of solenoid carrying a current will experience A) No force C) Maximum force B) Infinite force D) 10 N force

Q.24 Self-inductance ‘L; is

A)

ΔtΔI

C)

Δt

ΔI

B) Δt

ΔI D) All of above

Q.25 Lenz’s law deals with the

A) Magnetic field of emf C) Both of the magnitude and direction of emf B) Direction of emf D) Direction of induced current

Q.26 The pheromone in which a change of current in a coil induces an emf in itself is called

A) Mutual induction C) Self induction B) Electric induction D) Electromagnetic induction

Q.27 The SI unit of mutual inductance is

A) Vs/A C) A/Vs B) VA/S D) V

Q.28 Mutual inductance between the two coils depends upon the

A) Area of cross section of the two coils only B) Number of turns and the nature of materials of the two coils C) Distance between the two coils only D) All of the above

Q.29 If current changes at the rate of 1 A/s in the primary causes an induced emf of 1 volt in

the secondary then the mutual inductance of the pair of coils will be A) 1 Tesla C) 1 Volt B) 1 Henry D) 1 Webber

Q.30 An induced current of 2 A is flowing through an inductor of unit Henry then the PE

stored in the magnetic field of the inductor is equal to A) 1 J C) 4 J B) 2 J D) 0 J

Q.31 An inductor coil may appear like a

A) LED C) Toroid B) Super conductor D) Solenoid

Q.32 Transformer works on the principle of

A) Self-induction C) Back emf B) Mutual induction D) Front emf

Q.33 A 2 m length of wire is carrying a current of 3 amperes at right angles to a uniform

magnetic field of 0.4 weber/m2. The force on this length of wire A) 2.4 N C) 0.8 N B) 15 N D) 20 N

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Q.34 When a particle of charge q and mass m enters a region and constant magnetic induction traveling with the velocity v perpendicular to the direction of field. The time it takes to travel around one revolution in its orbit is

A) t = 2m/BqV C) t = 2mv/Bq

B) t = 2m/Bq D) t = 2qv/mB Q.35 If the solenoid is 1 m long and 10 cm in diameter and wound with 10 turns per cm of

wire which carries a current of 100 amperes, the flux density within is A) 0.4 Wb/m2 C) 40 Wb/m2

B) 0.04 Wb/m2 D) 4 Wb/m2 Q.36 When the current in a coil is reduced uniformly from 20 A to zero in 0.50 sec, an emf of

4.0 V is induced in a nearby coil. What is the value of the mutual inductance between the two coils? A) 0.10 H C) 40 H B) 0.40 H D) 160 H

Q.37 In MRI, electromagnetic radiations used are usually

A) X- rays C) Ultra Violet B) γ- rays D) Radio Waves

Q.38 MRI works on the principle that soft tissues in the human body have ______ in majority.

A) Carbon atoms C) Protons B) Water molecules D) Both B and C

Q.39 On which of the following person MRI should not be performed

A) A Person with Chemotherapy C) A Person with Metallic peace in Joints B) A Person with Heart Pacemakers D) All of these

Q.40 If MRI is used to evaluate the blood vessels then it is termed as

A) Magnetic Resonance positioning C) Magnetic Resonance Angiography B) Magnetic Resonance anatomy D) Magnetic Radiology

PART II - CHEMISTRY Q.41 Which of the following is optically active carboxylic acid

A) Succinic acid C) Tartaric acid B) Oxalic acid D) Maleic acid

Q.42 All of the following statements of carboxylic is correct except

A) The carboxylic acid of carbon is sp2 hybridized B) One of the oxygen (not linked to hydrogen) is sp2 hybridized C) The other oxygen (linked to H-atom) is sp3 hybridized D) The cation of alkyl group is hybridized

Q.43 The acids with even number of carbon atoms have the –COOH group and –CH3 group

on the opposite of carbon chain. In case of acid with odd number of C- atoms both the group –COOH and –CH3 lie on the same side. In the following cases, which high melting point A) Propanoic acid C) Butanoic acid B) Pentanoic acid D) Heptanoic acid

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Q.44 Which is used to remove ink and rust strains from clothes A) Alcohol C) Kerosene oil B) Ester D) Oxalic acid

Q.45 Butyric acid is so named because it is obtained from

A) Vinegar C) Butter B) Jam jelly D) Citrus fruit

Q.46 All of the following are di carboxylic acids except

A) Picric acid C) Oxalic acid B) Succinic acid D) Malonic acid

Q.47 The acid which can be purified by sublimation is

A) Acetic acid C) Citric acid B) Oxalic acid D) Benzoic acid

Q.48 On the dry distillation of calcium salt of di-carboxylic acid result in the formation of

A) Acid – base reaction C) Nucleophilic Substitution Reaction B) Decarboxylation of reaction of carboxylic acid D) Electrophilic Substitution Reaction

Q.49 Which of the following is the most stable function group in case of order of precedence

A) −OH C) −CHO B) C ═ C D) −COOH

Q.50 Which of the following is not derivative of carboxylic acid

A) Alkoxy chloride C) Alkamide B) Alkylalkanoate D) Alkanol

Q.51 Which of the following test is used to distinguish between formic acid (methanoic acid)

and acetic acid (ethanoic acid) A) Litmus solution C) Alcoholic AgNO3 B) Sodium carbonate D) Di ammine silver(I)

Q.52 Which of the following will not be able to produce acetyl chloride by reaction with acetic

acid A) PCl3 C) SOCl2 B) PCl5 D) Cl2

Q.53 Which acid is produced when ethyl benzene is subjected to KMnO4 solution

A) Benzoic acid C) Pthalic acid B) Ethanoic acid D) Phenyl acetic acid

Q.54 When an acid is added to amino acid, the carboxylate ion accepts the proton, the basic

character is due to A) −COO– C) Either A or B B) –NH2 D) Neither A nor B

Q.55 Which of the following amino acid is basic in nature?

A) Proline C) Valive B) Lysine D) Alanine

Q.56 Acetic acid is prepared by hydrolysis of

A) Grignard reagent C) Acetamide B) Ethanalethanoate D) Ethanol

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Q.57 Which of the following ester shows the flavor of banana? A) Ethyl butyrate C) Benzyl acetate B) Amyl acetate D) Octyl acetate

Q.58 All the α- amino acid isolated from human proteins have

A) D- configuration C) Either A or B B) L- configuration D) Neither A nor B

Q.59 Which of the following statement about amino acids is/ are correct

A) They are bi functional B) Acidic amino acids have two – COOH group and are – NH2 group C) Neutral amino acids have one – COOH group and two – NH2 group D) Essential amino acids are not supplied to our body

Q.60 All of the following are essential amino acids except

A) Histidine C) Arginine C) Lysine D) Glycine

Q.61 On hydrolysis, protein yield amino acids. In all protein about 20 different amino acids

are found. Which is not characteristic property of these 20 amino acids? A) All of them are optically active C) They have L-configuration B) Proline has secondary amino group D) They decompose before melting

Q.62 Which of the following statement is incorrect about carboxylic acid?

A) On acidic hydrolysis of alkyl nitrile carbolic acid is formed B) On reduction of alkyl nitrile carboxylic acid is formed C) In benzene, carboxylic acid form 6- member ring D) Formic acid is more reactive than acetic acid

Q.63 A compound z is a liquid at room temperature. It doesn’t decolorize acidified KMnO4

and does not mix completely with water what could be z. A) Ethanoic acid C) Ethyl methanoate C) Acetaldehyde D) Ethyl ethanoate

Q.64 Which reaction doesn’t produce benzoic acid

A) Oxidation of toluene C) Hydrolysis of ethyl benzoate B) Oxidation of phenol D) Hydrolysis of phenyl nitrile

Q.65 Glycine is the name of an amino acid because

A) Sweet taste C) Shining appearance B) Bitter taste D) Green colour

Q.66 The formula of palmitic acid

A) C15H31COOH C) C17H33COOH B) C13H27COOH D) C17H35COOH

Q.67 Consider the structure.

CHCH2CH2HOOC COOH

NH2 Its correct name is

A) Aspartic acid C) Palmitic acid B) Glutamic acid D) Lactic acid

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Q.68 An acid with unpleasant smell A) Formic acid C) Propionic acid B) Acetic acid D) Butyric acid

Q.69 Carboxylic acid on reduction with HI / phosphorous yields

A) Alkane C) Aldehydes B) Alcohols D) Ketones

Q.70 Which of the following is not an amino acid?

A) Glutamic acid C) Aspartic acids B) Lactic acid D) Glycine

Q.71 Which of the following is an unsaturated carboxylic acid?

A) Malonic acid C) Succinic acid B) Oxalic acid D) Maleic acid

Q.72 The number of peptide bond present in dipeptide

A) One C) Three B) Two D) Zero

Q.73 Which of the following acid gives Tollens test and Fehling solution test

A) Methanoic acid C) Ethanoic acid B) Formic acid D) Acetic acid

Q.74 Which of the following derivative of carboxylic acid is more reactive

A) Acid halide C) Acid amide C) Ester D) Same reactivity

Q.75 Which of the following acid has highest tendency to ionize in aqueous solution

A) HCOOH C) CH3COOH B) FCH2COOH D) BrCH2COOH

Q.76 The compound with a formula NH2CH2OOH, behave as

A) Amphoteric substance C) Acidic substance B) Basic substance D) None of them

Q.77 Which of the following give the correct order of acid strength (strongest first)for

ethanoic acid A) CH3CO2H > C6H5OH > CH2ClCO2H B) CH3CO2H > CH2ClCO2H > C6H5OH C) CH2ClCO2H > C6H5OH > CH3CO2H D) CH2ClCO2H > CH3CO2H > C6H5OH

Q.78 Which one of the following compound gives an immediate precipitate with aqueous

silver nitrate A) CH3CH2CH2Cl C) CH3CCl3

B) CH3COCl D) ClCH2CO2H Q.79 What is the product of reaction between phenyl methanol, C6H5CH2OH and ethanoyl

chloride, CH3COCl A) C6H5CH2Cl C) C6H5CH2COCl B) C6H5CH2OCOCH3 D) C6H5COCH3

UNIT WISE TESTS 9


Q.80 Which set of reagents could be used to prepare phenyl benzoate in the laboratory A) Benzene and benzoic acid C) Chlorobenzene and sodium benzoate B) Phenol and benzoic acid D) Sodium phenolate and benzoyl chloride

Q.81 Which compound is a product of the hydrolysis of CH3CO2C3H7 by boiling aqueous

sodium hydroxide A) CH3OH C) C3H8 B) C3H7CO2

_Na+ D) C3H7OH Q.82 The boiling point of acetic acid is higher than expected from its molecular mass because

of A) Solubility in water C) H-bonding B) Non- polar character D) Strong oxidizing agent

Q.83 Which compound reacts with its own oxidation product (an oxidation which involves

no loss of carbon) to give a sweet-smelling liquid A) Propanal C) Propanoic acid B) Propanone D) Propane-1-ol

Q.84 Which acid is used in the manufacture of synthetic rubber?

A) Acetic acid C) Carbonic acid B) Formic acid D) Benzoic acid

Q.85 The term “internal salt” refers to

A) Acidic character of amino acids C) Dipolar character of amino acids B) Basic character of amino acids D) Non-polar structure of amino acids

Q.86 The organic acid that does not has ―COOH group is

A) Carbonic acid C) Maleic acid B) Carbolic acid D) Succinic acid

Q.87 Which one of following is neither acidic nor a basic amino acid?

A) Lysine C) Proline B) Histidine D) Glutamate

Q.88 Which of the following is not an ester?

A) Amyl acetate C) Isobutyleformate B) Sodium butyrate D) Octyl acetate

Q.89 The reaction of carboxylic acids with alcohols in presence of conc. H2SO4 is called

A) Esterification C) Hydrolysis B) Neutralization D) Saponification

Q.90 The common thing in phthalic acid and oxalic acid is that both are

A) Aromatic C) Hydrocarbons B) Dicarboxylic D) Strong acids

PART III – ENGLISH

Q.91 Charles was so shocked by what had happened that his _____ love was nipped in the bud. A) Passionate C) Burgeoning B) Dwindling D) Jaded

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Q.92 The firm has been _____by a series of strikes. A) Triggered C) Galvanized B) Immobilized D) Resuscitated

Q.93 He _____ cigarettes as his New Year's resolution.

A) Preempted C) Foreswore B) Resumed D) Consumed

Q.94 Her recent expressions of concern are self-serving and _____.

A) Disingenuous C) Guileless B) Ingenuous D) Altruistic

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.95 Clean air as well as clean lakes and rivers concern all the citizens of the United States. A) B) C) D) Q.96 You will get paid for time off unless you have a doctor's note. A) B) C) D) Q.97 Whatever his motive was, he hit on a most extraordinary ambition, and struck to it. A) B) C) D) Q.98 One of the boys has a freckle on his cheek, otherwise, the twins are nearly identical. A) B) C) D) Q.99 Many people genuinely want to be fitter, but few have the tenacity for sticking to suitable diet

A) B) C) D) and exercise.

Q.100 He keeps few chairs in his office because he doesn't have room for many. A) B) C) D)

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.101 A) Yoga often helps people lose weight, increase flexibility, and it reduces stress. B) Yoga often helps people lose weight, increase flexibility, and to reduce stress. C) Yoga often helps people to lose weight, increase flexibility, and to reduce stress. D) Yoga often helps people lose weight, increase flexibility, and reduce stress.

Q.102

A) He took the book beside the shelf and put it next to his bag. B) He took the book at the shelf and put it into his bag. C) He took the book from the shelf and put it to his bag. D) He took the book by the shelf and put it on his bag.

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Q.103 A) If he would not have missed the deadline, the yearbook delivery would have been on time. B) If he would not miss the deadline, the yearbook delivery would have been on time. C) If he did not the deadline, the yearbook delivery would have been on time. D) If he had not missed the deadline, the yearbook delivery would have been on time.

Q.104 A) I don’t know when the next train will arrive. B) I don’t know when does the next train arrive. C) I don’t know when the next train arrives. D) I don’t know when will the next train arrive?

Q.105 A) Arctic trees are scrubbiest than trees in milder climates. B) Arctic trees are scrubbiest than are trees in milder climates. C) Arctic trees are scrubbier than are trees in milder climates. D) Arctic trees are scrubbier than trees in milder climates.

Q.106 A) Do you wish that you had a better job? B) Do you wish that you have a better job? C) Do you wish that you would have a better job? D) Do you wish that you had had a better job?

Q.107 A) The musicians nearly earned $400 for the evening's work. B) The musicians earned nearly $400 for the evening's work. C) The musicians earned $400 nearly for the evening's work. D) The musicians earned $400 for nearly the evening's work.

Q.108 A) The blow hit him in head and he crumpled to the ground. B) The blow hit him in the head and he crumpled to the ground. C) The blow hit him in his head and he crumpled to the ground. D) The blow hit him in his head crumpling him to the ground.

Q.109 A) Everybody has to find the best system for themselves. B) Everyone has to find the best system for oneself. C) Everybody has to find the best system for himself or herself. D) Everybody has to find the best system for himself.

Q.110 A) Has he been living here since all his life?

B) Has he lived here since all his life? C) Has he lived here all his life?

D) Has he been lived here for all his life?

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.111 VITUPERATIVE A) Meek C) Defamatory B) Garrulous D) Promiscuous

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Q.112 TENACIOUS A) Slack C) Tickling B) Adhesive D) Persuasive

Q.113 SURREALISTIC

A) Practical C) Pragmatic B) Incarnated D) Bizarre

Q.114 TCHOTCHKE

A) Witchcraft C) Dinginess B) Cavern D) Knickknack

Q.115 SWIVEL

A) Pivot C) Halt B) Snarl D) Knack

Q.116 VOCIFEROUS

A) Insidious C) Obstreperous B) Considerate D) Indulgent

Q.117 TABOO

A) Permitted C) Sacrosanct B) Profane D) Idiosyncrasy

Q.118 XYLOID

A) Liquid C) Woody B) Sticky D) Melting

Q.119 TORPID

A) Tempestuous C) Highbrow B) Inert D) Tough

Q.120 VENALITY

A) Fallacy C) Contention B) Corruption D) Reverence

PART IV – BIOLOGY Q.121 Recombinant DNA technology is popularly known as

A) Genetic engineering C) Gene technology B) Gene therapy D) All of these

Q.122 A gene of inters, require for recombinant DNA technology, can be obtained by

A) Isolating it from plasmid C) Making it from mRNA B) Chemically synthesizing in a cell D) All of these

Q.123 A gene of interest, required for recombinant DNA technology, cannot be obtained as

A) Cleaved DNA from chromosome C) Artificially synthesized DNA B) cDNA D) Plasmid DNA

Q.124 The enzyme which seals the foreign piece of DNA into the vector is

A) Polymerase C) Transcriptase B) Ligase D) Reverse transcriptase

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Q.125 ____________which are identical to original specimens are called clones.

A) Large number of molecules C) Large number of organisms

B) Large number of cells D) All of these

Q.126 The difference between using the plasmid as a vector and bacteriophage as a vector is

that

A) Bacterial cell take up plasmid if they are treated with calcium chloride

B) Bacteriophage itself injects Recombinant DNA into host bacterium

C) Bacteriophage take up plasmid if they are treated with calcium chloride

D) Both A and B

Q.127 There are natural enzymes of bacteria and are used for their protection, against viruses

A) Polymerases C) Transcriptases

B) Reverse transcriptases D) Restriction endonucleases

Q.128 The viral DNA is naturally cut at specific sites by

A) Polymerases C) Transcriptases

B) Reverse transcriptases D) Restriction endonucleases

Q.129 _______ is restriction enzymes have been isolated so far, whereas ______ are

frequently used.

A) 20, 400 C) 40, 200

B) 400, 20 D) 200, 40

Q.130 Discovery of restriction enzymes is carried out at

A) Hamilton O. Smith C) Both A and B

B) John Hopkin’s University D) Kary B. Mullis

Q.131 The commonly used molecular carrier, to introduce the recombinant DNA into a host

cell is

A) Vector C) Bacteriophage

B) Plasmid D) All of these

Q.132 Recombinant DNA may also be called as

A) cDNA C) Chimeric DNA

B) Complementary DNA D) Extrachromosomal DNA

Q.133 If we need large quantity of genes and protein product, then the suitable method is

A) Recombinant DNA technology C) Polymerase chain reaction

B) DNA technology D) All of these

Q.134 Before carrying out PCR ___________must be available

A) a DNA of 20 bases C) a DNA of 10 bases

B) a RNA of 20 bases D) a RNA of 10 bases

Q.135 A single gene or a smaller piece of DNA, among all human genes can be amplified by

A) Recombinant DNA technology C) Polymerase chain reaction

B) DNA technology D) All of these

Q.136 The best replacement of gene cloning is

A) PCR C) Replication

B) Recombinant DNA technology D) None of these

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Q.137 DNA polymerase is used to A) Start the replication process C) Both start and continue the replication process B) Continue or extend the replication process D) None of these

Q.138 Due to addition of Taq polymerase

A) Replication becomes possible C) Replication is no interrupted B) Replication is not interrupted D) Replication becomes impossible

Q.139 PCR these days is done in

A) Automatic PCR machine C) Both A and B at a time B) Thermocycler D) Automatic PCR machine or thermocycler

Q.140 Which is a routine piece of equipment in the laboratory

A) Automatic PCR machine C) Both A and B B) Thermocycler D) Gene cloning machine

Q.141 ____________is used to separate double stranded DNA during PCR

A) Taq polymerase C) Endonuclease B) Temperature D) Restriction enzyme

Q.142 Ex-vivo gene therapy is used to cure

A) SCIDS, cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, diabetes B) Cystic fibrosis, coronary artery angioplasty, parkinsonism C) Cystic fibrosis, coronary artery angioplasty, familial hypercholesterolemia D) Coronary artery angioplasty, familial hypercholesterolemia, cancer

Q.143 Microinjection and vortex mixing is used

A) To insert recombinant DNA in bacterial cell C) To insert recombinant DNA in animal cell B) To insert recombinant DNA in animal egg D) To insert foreign DNA into animal egg

Q.144 Human growth factor have been successfully in urine of mice in

A) Pasture institute France C) United States Department of Agriculture B) Health Institute USA D) Rosalin Institute Scotland

Q.145 The ozone hole was first of all observed over

A) Asia C) America B) Africa D) Antarctica

Q.146 In humans, the UV radiation can cause

A) Skin cancer C) Cataracts B) Skin healing D) Both A and C

Q.147 Along with humans ultra violet radiation may also affect

A) Crops, Plants, trees C) Weather patterns B) Marine plantation D) All of the above

Q.148 Which gas of atmosphere acts as a glass sheet of green house

A) CO2 C) N2

B) CO D) O3 Q.149 The study of human populations and things that affect them is carried out in

A) Human population C) Social biology B) Anthropology D) Demography

UNIT WISE TESTS 15


Q.150 At the time of independence in 1947 the population of Pakistan was A) 0.325 million C) 32.5 million B) 3.25 million D) 325 million

Q.151 Overcrowding, less living space, more people, more crime, violence and social diseases

are all due to which of the following pair A) Poverty and media B) Ignorance and media C) Antibiotics and Hygienic awareness, vaccination D) Both A and B

Q.152 The population growth should be checked in order to achieve

A) Better society C) Better living condition B) Better environment D) All of the above

Q.153 Clearance of vast areas of forest for procuring lumber, planting subsistence crops or

grazing cattle is called A) Deforestation C) Reforestation B) A forestation D) All of the above

Q.154 The destruction of forests leaves the soil barren and this is called as

A) A forestation C) Both A and B B) Deforestation D) Reforestation

Q.155 In the present scenario of polluted environment, the only option left in our hands to

save our environment is A) Less use of automobiles C) Three plantation B) Less production of food D) All of the above

Q.156 The great forests of temperate and tropic biomes have been realty reduced through

A) Construction Practice C) Acid Rains B) Harvesting Practice D) Forest five

Q.157 The Establishment of new forests where no forests existed previously is called

A) A forestation C) Both A and B B) Deforestation D) Reforestation

Q.158 _________ are called as environmental buffers

A) Forest C) Plantation B) Tree D) All of the above

Q.159 In the absence of forests the temperature range from day to night is

A) More close C) Not extreme B) More extreme D) Both B and C

Q.160 The befouling of the environment by anything produced by humans which is or maybe

harmful to human life and other living organisms is called A) Environmental pollution C) Radiation B) Air pollution D) Noise pollution

Q.161 The befouling of the air by anything that may be harmful to living organisms is

A) Environmental pollution C) Radiation B) Air pollution D) Noise pollution

UNIT WISE TESTS 16


Q.162 The causes of greenhouse effect are: A) Over urbanization C) Industrialization B) Deforestation D) All of these

Q.163 Rain that falls on high areas such as mountains possess large amount of gravitational:

A) Heat energy C) Electrical energy B) Kinetic energy D) Potential energy

Q.164 Soil is continuously depleting its mineral nutrients, due to vigorous:

A) Crop production C) Population B) Tree production D) Deforestation

Q.165 Stone monuments like “Taj Mahal” are being eroded due to “stone cancer” by:

A) Greenhouse effect C) Ozone depletion B) Acid rains D) Global warming

Q.166 The pioneer stage community established on lifeless rock is that of

A) Foliose stage C) Lichen B) Moss D) Herbaceous

Q.167 The term ecology originally was used in 1866 by the German zoologist:

A) Charles Eton C) Joseph Grinnell B) Ernst Haeckel D) Carolus Linneus

Q.168 Enrichment of water bodies by organic nutrients is called:

A) Organic pollution C) Sewage pollution B) Eutrophication D) Detergents pollution

Q.169 Water is turned into green colour due to:

A) Algal bloom C) Aquatic vegetation B) Reflection of sky D) None

Q.170 The term niche was proposed by:

A) J. Grinnell C) Darwin B) E. Haeckel D) Daubenmire

UNIT WISE TESTS 17


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