Unique IAS Academy, 2006 UPSC Prelims Original … IAS Academy, 2006 UPSC Prelims Original GS...

Unique IAS Academy, 2006 UPSC Prelims Original GS Question paper

Unique IAS Academy, 1st street, Gandhipuram, Coimbatore, 9884267599

1. Who among the following laid the foundation of

Rashtrakuta Empire?

a) Amostghavarsha I b) Dantidurga

c)Dhruva d) Krishna I

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Dantidurga laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta

Empire. It’s original name was Dantivarman.

2. The initial design and construction of which

massive temple took place during the reign of

Suryavarman II?

a) Sri Mariamman Temple

b) Angkor Vat Temple

c) Batu Cavas Temple

d) Kamakhya Temple

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Angkor vat temple was built in (1113-1150) by

Suryavarman II in Combodia. The temple is

dedicated to Lord Vishnu.

3. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly

matched?

a) States Reorganization Act: Andhra Pradesh

b) Treaty of Yandabu: Assam

c) State of Bilaspur: Himachal becomes a State

d) Year 1966: Gujarat becomes a State

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Gujarat became a state on first may, 1960, It was

carved out of Bombay (Northern part of Bombay

where the majority was of Gujarati).

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Charter Act, 1853 abolished East India

Company monopoly of Indian trade.

2. Under the government of India Act, 1858 the

British Parliament abolished the East India

Company altogether and undertook the

responsibility of ruling India directly.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are

correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1nor 2

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The Charter Act, 1853 abolished East India

company monopoly of Indian trade. Hence, the

answer is (b)

5. When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of

Myore, who was the ruler of the Vijaynagar

Empire?

a) Sadasiva b) Tirumala

c)Ranga II d) Venkata II

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of

Mysore, Venkata II was the ruler of the

Vijayanagar Empire.

6. Between which of the following was the ancient

town of Takshasila located?

a) Indus and Jhelum b) Jhelum and Chenab

c)Chenab and Ravi d) Ravi and Beas

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Ancient town of Takshasila located between the

Indus and Jhelum

7. With reference to the invaders in ancient India,

which one of the following is the correct

chronological order?

a) Greeks – Sakas – Kushanas

b) Greeks – Kushanas – Sakas

c) Sakas – Greeks – Kushanas

d) Sakas – Kushanas – Greeks

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

With referent to the invaders in ancient India,

Greeks – Sakas – Kushans is the correct

chronological order.


1. The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were

antagonistic towards Buddhism




correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c)Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were the

supporters of Buddhism. Hence, statement 1 is

incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

9. Which one of the following revolts was made

famous by Bankim Chandra chatterjee in his novel

‘Annd Math’?

a) Bhil uprising

b) Rangpur and Dinapur uprising

c) Bishnupar and Birbhum rebellion

d) Sanyasi rebellion

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Sanyasi rebellion was made famous by Bankim

Chandra Chatterjee in his novel ‘Anand Math’.

10. In the year 1613, where was the English East India

Company given permission to set up a factory

(trading post)?

a) Bangalore b) Madras

c)Masulipattam d) Surat

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

In the year 1613, in Surat the English East India

Company was given permission to set up a factory

(trading post).

11. With reference to the ‘revolt of the year’ who of

the following was betrayed by ‘friend’ captured

and put to death by the British?

a) Nana Sahib b) Kunwar Singh

c)Khan Bahadur Khan d) Tantia Tope

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

With reference to the revolt of the year 1857,

Tantia Tope was betrayed by a friend captured and

put to death by the British.

12. Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session

of the Indian Congress held in the year 1929,

wherein a resolution was adopted to gain complete

independence from the British?

a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

c) Jawaharlal Nehru

d) Motilal Nehru

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Under Jawaharlal Nehru presidency was the

Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress

held in the year 1929, where in a resolution was

adopted to gain complete independence from the

British.

13. Which one of the following pairs is correctly

matched?

a) Vikramsila Monastery : Uttar Pradesh

b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Himachal Pradesh

c) Udayagiri Caves : Maharashtra

d) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa : Andhra

Pradesh

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

a) Vikramsila Monastery : Bihar

b) Hemkand Gurudware : Uttaranchel

c) Udayagiri : Orissa

14. Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq issued a

new gold coin which was called Dinar by Ibn

Batutah.

Reason (R): Muhammad bin Tuhluq wanted to

issue token currency in gold coins to promote trade

with West Asian and North African countries.

Codes:

a) Both A and R are individually true and R is

the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not


c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.



Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement A is correct, but R is false. Hence the

answer is c)

15. The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with

which one of the following?

a) Mahapadma Nanda

b) Chandragupta Maurya

c) Ashoka

d) Samudragupta

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with

Samudragupta.

16. Which one of the following is the correct

chronological order of the Afghan rulers to the

throne of Delhi?

a) Sikandar Shah – Ibrahim Lodi – Bahlol Khan

Lodi

b) SIkandar Shah – Bahlol Khan Lodi or Lodin

Ibrahim

c) Bahlol Khan Lodi or Lodin Sikandar Shah

– Ibrahim Lodi of Lodin

d) Bahlol Khan Lodi or Lodin Ibrahim Lodi or

Lodin Sikandar Shah

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The correct chronological order of the Afghan

rulers to the throne of Delhi is: Bahlol Khan lodi

(1451 – 1489), Sikandar Shah (1489 – 1517),

Ibrahim Lodi (1517 – 1526).

17. Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which

Mughal emperor?

a) Babar b) Akbar

c)Jehagir d) Aurangzeb

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The period of Bhaki Tukaram is considered in

between 1608 – 1649.

The period of Jehangir is 1605 – 1627.

The period of Shahjehan is 1627 – 1657. Since

there is no option of Shah Jahan, Jehangir is a

better choice.

18. In Indian history, who was Abdul Hamid Lahori?

a) An important military commander during

Akbar reign.

b) An official historian of the reign of Shah

Jahan.

c) An important noble and confident of

Aurangzeb.

d) A chronicler and poet during the reign of

Muhammad Shah.

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Abdul Hamid Lahori was an official historian of

the reign of shah Jahan. He wrote the book

‘Padshah – Nama’.

19. Who was the Governor – General of India during

the Sepoy Mutiny?

a) Lord Canning b) Lord Dalhousie

c)Lord Hardings d) Lord Lytton

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Lord Caning was the Governor – General of India

during the Sepoy Mutiny (1858 – 1862)

20. Consider the following statements about Madam

Bhikaji Cama:

1. Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at

the International Socialist Conference in Paris

in the year 1907.

2. Madam Cama served as private secretary to

Dadabhai Naoroji.

3. Madam Cama was born to Parsi.


correct?

a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only

c)1 and 2 only d) 3 only

Explanation-----------------------------------------------



Madam Cama unfurled the National flag at the

International Socialist Conference in Stutt guard of

Germany in the year 1907.

21. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad

in the Interim Government formed in the year

1946?

a) Defence

b) External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations

c) Food and Agriculture

d) None of the above

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Food and Agriculture portfolio was held by Dr.

Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government

formed in the year 1946.

22. Match List I (Finding/Invention/Calculation) with

List II (Ancient Indian Scholar) and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the

lists:

List I List II

A. Time taken by the

earth to orbit the sun 1. Aryabhatta

B. Calculation of the

value of (pi) 2. Bhaskaracharya

C. Invention of the

digit zero 3. Budhayana

D. The game of snakes

and ladders 4. Gyandev

Codes:

A B C D

a) 2 4 1 3

b) 1 3 2 4

c) 2 3 1 4

d) 1 4 2 3

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

A. Time taken by the

earth to orbit the sun 2. Bhaskaracharya

B. Calculation of the

value of (pi) 3. Budhayana

C. Invention of the

digit zero 1. Aryabhatta

D. The game of snakes

and ladders 4. Gyandev

23. Recently Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

governments signed a memorandum of

Understanding for the linking of two rivers as a

link project. Which are these two rivers?

a) Betwa and Chambal b) Betwa andKen

c)Chambal and Son d) Ken and Narmada

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Recently Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh and

Central Govt. signed the Memorandum of

Understanding to link the rivers of Betwa and Ken.

24. Where is the Central Water and Power Research

Station located?

a) Khadakwasla b) Sileru

c)Jamnagar d) Srisailam

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Central water and power research station was

established in 1936 in Khadakwasla Pune

(Maharashtra)

25. Projected and Development India Limited is

mainly engaged in design engineering,

procurement and supervision of construction /

commissioning in which area?

a) Pharmaceutical plants

b) Petroleum refineries and sugar factories

c) Ship – building yards

d) Fertilizer and allied chemical plants

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Projects and Development India Limited is mainly

engaged in design engineering, procurement and

supervision of construction/commissioning in

Fertilizer and allied chemical plants.



26. Where is DAVOS, the venue of the annual meeting

of World Economic Forum; located?

a) France b) Germany

c)Switzerland d) Luxemburg

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

DAVOS is a tower in East Switzerland where

three events are organized yearly

1. Spengler cup Ice Hockey

2. Annual meeting of World Economic Forum

3. Annual Meeting of Global Politics and

Business Elites


1. The Richter scale is a logarithmic scale and so

an increase of 1 magnitude unit represents a

factor of 10 times in amplitude.

2. Each integer reading of the Richter scale has

an energy 100 times that the previous integer

reading.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

b) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Each integer reading of the Richter scale has an

energy 32 times that of the previous integer

reading. Hence, statement (2) is not correct.

Statement (1) is correct


1. Assam shares a border with Bhutan and

Bangladesh.

2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and

Nepal.

3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and

Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above are correct?


c)2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

All the three statements given in the question are

correct. Hence, the answer is (a)

29. Match List I (Place of Archaeological Monument)

with List II (State) and select the correct answer

using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

(Place of Archaeological Monument) (State)

A. Sisupalgarh 1. Assam

B. Piprahwa 2. Manipur

C. Goalpara 3. Orissa

D. Bishnupur 4. Uttar Pradesh

Codes:

A B C D

a) 2 4 1 3

b) 2 1 4 3

c) 3 4 1 2

d) 3 1 4 2

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

List I List II

(Place of Archaeological Monument) (State)

A. Sisupalgarh 3. Orissa

B. Piprahwa 4. Uttar Pradesh

C. Goalpara 1. Assam

D. Bishnupur 2. Manipur


1. Sikkim has the minimum area among the 28

Indian states (Delhi and Pondicherry not

included)

2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy rate among

Pondicherry, National Capital Territory of

Delhi and other Union Territories.

3. Maharashtra has the highest population after

Uttar Pradesh among the 28 Indian States

(Delhi and Pondicherry not included)


correct?

a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3

c)1 only d) 3 only



Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement 3 is correct only. The minimum area is

of Goa and that is 3702 sq.km. the area of Sikkim

is 7096 sq.km. highest Literacy rate among the

Union Territories is of Lakshadweep that is 86.7%

(for Chandigarh it is 81.9%).

31. Match List I (Centre of Handicrafts) with List II

(States) and select the correct answer using the

codes given below the lists:

List I List II

(Centre of Handicrafts) (States)

A. Mon 1. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Nalbari 2. Assam

C. Nasighat 3. Meghalya

D. Tura 4. Nagaland

Codes:

A B C D

a) 4 2 1 3

b) 1 3 4 2

c) 4 3 1 2

d) 1 2 4 3

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

List I List II

(Centre of Handicrafts) (States)

A. Mon 4. Nagaland

B. Nalbari 2. Assam

C. Nasighat 1. Arunachal Pradesh

D. Tura 3. Meghalya

32. In which State is the Rajiv Gandhi National

Institute of Youth Development located?

a) Tamil Nadu b) Karnataka

c)Himachal Pradesh d) Uttaranchal

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth

Development located in Tamil Nadu.

33. In which one of the following oceans Diamantine

Trench situated?

a) Pacific Ocean b) Atlantic Ocean

c)Indian Ocean d) Arctic Ocean

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Diamantine Trench is situated in Indian Ocean.

This is the deepest trench in Indian Ocean. The

depth is 1040 m.


1. Petronet LNG Ltd. is setting up another LNG

terminal at Magalore.

2. The Head Office of the Dredging Corporation

of India is at Visakhapatnam.

3. The Narwapahar Mine is operated by the

Uranium Corporation of India Limited.


a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2, only

c)2 and 3, only d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

All the three statements given in this question are

correct. Hence the answer is (a)

35. Assertion (A): The percentage of net Sown area in

the total area of Andhra Pradesh is less as

compared to that of West Bengal.

Reason (R): The soil of most of Andhra Pradesh is

laterite.

Codes:







Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement A is correct and R is false. Net sown

area Andhra Pradesh = 40%

West Bengal = 60%



36. Assertion (A): To orbit around the sun the planet

Mars takes lesser time than the time taken by the

Earth.

Reason (R): The diameter of the planet mars is less

than that of Earth.

Codes:







Explanation-----------------------------------------------

A is incorrect Time taken by Mars to orbit around

Sun is 1.88 years.

37. Consider the following statements in respect of

India advanced satellite INSAT – 4A.

1. INSAT -4A was launched in December,

2005from New Mexico.

2. The European Commercial Launch Service

Provider Arianespace was associated with the

launch of INSAT -4A.

3. Tata-Sky; a digital cable service provider; is

associated with DTH television broadcasting

service from INSAT -4A.




Explanation-----------------------------------------------

INSAT -4A was launched on 22 December, 2005

from French Guiana. Hence, statement (1) is

incorrect.

38. Bermuda Triangle extends up to which of the

following places?

1. Southern Florida

2. Puerto Rico

3. Hawaii Islands

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:


c)2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3only

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Bermuda Triangle extends up to Southern Florida

and Puerto Rico. Bermuda Triangle is in

triangular shape, the third point is Bermuda.

39. Which one of the following countries is not a

member of the Nordic Council?

a) Norway b) Denmark

c)Iceland d) United Kingdom

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Members of the Nordic Council are

Denmark, Norway, Iceland, Swedan and Finland.

United Kingdom is not the member of this council.

40. Claims to the historical Macedonian territory have

been a bone of contention between which of the

following countries?

a) Portugal and Spain

b) Bulgaria and Greece

c) Romania and Bulgaria

d) Portugal and Greece

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Claims to the historical Macedonian territory have

been a bone of contention between the Bulgaria

and Greece.

41. Huangpu River flows through which one of the

following cities?

a) Beijing b) Ho Chi Minh City

c)Shanghai d) Manila

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Huangpu River flows through Shanghai. It’s total

length is 97 km. it is the major source of drinking

water for the people of Shanghai.



42. Which one of the following countries is the leading

producer of Uranium?

a) United States of America

b) Canada

c) Germany

d) Zambia

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Canada is the largest producer of Uranium. It

produces 29% of the world Uranium, Australia is

2nd

in the list with 18%.


1. Appellate Tribunal for Electricity has been

established by each State Government in India.

2. One of the component of the Accelerated

Power Development and Reforms Programme

(APDRP) is up gradation of sub-transmission

and distribution system for electricity in India.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

In the year of 2003 Appellate Tribunal for

Electricity Act was passed by the Government

under which states were directed to create State

Electricity Regulatory Commissions. But in states

like Delhi and Orissa electricity has been

privatized hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2 is correct.


matched?

Monastery State

a) Dhankar Monastery Himachal Pradesh

b) Rumtek Monastery Sikkim

c) Tabo Monastery Himachal Pradesh

d) Kye Monastery Arunachal

Pradesh

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Kye monastery is situated in Himachal Pradesh in

12 km. north of Kaza. Hence, (d) is not correctly

matched.

45. Match List I (Valley) with List II (State) and select

the correct answer using the codes given below the

lists:

List I List II

(Valley) (State)

A. Markha Valley 1. Sikkim

B. Dzukou Valley 2. Himachal Pradesh

C. Sangla Valley 3. Jammu and

Kashmir

D. Yumthang Valley 4. Nagaland

Codes:

A B C D

a) 2 4 3 1

b) 3 1 2 4

c) 2 1 3 4

d) 3 4 2 1

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

List I List II

(Valley) (State)

A. Markha Valley 1. Sikkim

B. Dzukou Valley 2. Himachal Pradesh

C. Sangla Valley 3. Jammu and

Kashmir

D. Yumthang Valley 4. Nagaland

46. Which one of the following statements is not

correct?

a) Mahanadi River rises in Chattisgarh

b) Godavari river rises in Maharashtra

c) Cauvery River rises in Andhra Pradesh

d) Tapti River rises in Madhya Pradesh

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Cauvery river rises in Karnataka from Brahm Giri

in Kodagu district.



47. Where is Bundala Biosphere Reserve which has

been recently added to the UNESCO’s Man and

Biosphere (MAB) network located?

a) Russia b) India

c)Sri Lanka d) Bangladesh

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Bundala Biosphere Reserve which has been

recently added to the UNESCO’s Man and

Biosphere (MAB) network is located in Sri Lanka.

Central National Park of Bundala is also situated at

the same place.


1. According to the census 2001, Kerala has the

smallest gap in male and female literacy rates

among the 28 states of India (Delhi and

Pondicherry not included)

2. According to the Census 2001, Rajasthan has

literacy rate above the national average

literacy rate.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Both the statements are incorrect. In statement

1it’s Mijoram not Kerala. In statement 2

Rajasthan Literary Rate = 60.4%. National

Literacy Rate = 64.8%

49. Which one of the following is countries is the first

country in the world to propose a carbon tax for its

people to address global warming?

a) Australia b) Germany

c)Japan d) New Zealand

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

New Zealand is the first country in the world to

propose a carbon tax for its people to address

global warming in the year 2005.


matched?

a) Solvenia Bratislava

b) Seychelles Victoria

c) Sierra Leone Freetown

d) Uzbekistan Tashkent

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Bratislava is the capital of Slovakia hence, (a) is

not correctly matched. The capital of Slovenia is

Ljublijana.


1. Length of a terrestrial mile is lesser than that

of a nautical mile.

2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the East

African Coast.

3. Greece and Albania form a part of the Iberian

peninsula.


correct?


c)3 only d) 1 only

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement 1 is correct 2 and 3 are incorrect

Nautical mile = 1852 mtrs.

Terrestrial mile = 1609 mtrs.

52. Match List I (National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary)

with List II (Nearby Town) and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

(National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary) (Nearby Town)

A. Chandra Prabha 1. Jaipur

B. Karera 2. Jhansi

C. Jaisamand 3. Agra

D. Nahagarh 4.Varanasi

5. Udaipur

Codes:

A B C D

a) 4 1 5 2



b) 4 2 3 1

c) 4 2 5 1

d) 5 1 3 2

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

List I List II

(National Park / Wildlife Sanctuary) (Nearby Town)

A. Chandra Prabha 4.Varanasi

B. Karera 2. Jhansi

C. Jaisamand 5. Udaipur

D. Nahagarh 1. Jaipur


member of the commonwealth of Independent

States (CIS)?

a) America b) Belarus

c)Estonia d)Georgia

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Estonia became themember of E.U. in the year of

2004 (not of CIS)

54. What was the main reason for which Niger was in

the news in recent times?

a) Many deaths due to AIDS

b) Fierce civil war

c) Intense fighting with Algeria

d) Famine and starvation

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Famine and starvation was the main reasons for

which Niger was in the news in recent times.

55. From North towards South, which one of the

following is the correct sequence of the given

rivers in India?

a) Shyok – Spiti – Zaskar – Satluj

b) Shyok – Zaskar – Spiti – Satluj

c) Zaskar – Shyok – Satluj – Spiti

d) Zaskar – Satluj – Shyok – Spiti

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The correct sequence of the given rivers in India

from North to South is:

Shyok – Zaskar – Spiti – Satluj

56. Through which one of the following groups of

countries does the Equator pass?

a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia

b) Coloumbs, Kenya and Indonesia

c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia

d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Groups of countries through which Equator passes

is as follows: Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia


matched?

Well – known Place Country

a) Baikonour Russia

b) Kourou French Guiana

c) Borobudur Indonesia

d) Cannes France

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Baikonour is situated in Kazakhsistan not in

Russia. Its earlier name was Lennissk.

58. Other than India and China, which one of the

following groups of countries border Myanmar?

a) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam

b) Cambodia, Laos and Malaysia

c) Thailand, Vietnam and Malaysia

d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Group of countries bordering Myanmar is:

Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh.

59. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly

matched?

Railway Zone Headquarters

a) North – Eastern Railway : Gorakhpur

b) South – Eastern Railway :Bhubaneshwar

c) Eastern Railway : Kolkata

d) South – East Central Railway : Bilaspur



Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Head office of Southern – Eastern Railways zone

is Kolkata.

60. Recently with which country government did

ONGC – Mittal Energy Limited (OMEL) sign a

joint – venture deal of $6 billion with

infrastructure, refinery and power?

a) Colombia b) Venezuela

c)Nigeria d) Saudi Arabia

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

ONGC – Mittal Energy Ltd. (OMEL) has signed a

joint – venture with Nigeria.

61. Which one of the following companies is

associated with the exploration and commercial

production of oil in Barmer – Sanchor basin of

Rajasthan?

a) Carin Energy

b) Unocal Corporation

c) Reliance Energy Ventures

d) Oil and Natural Gas Commission

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Cairn Energy is associated with exploration and

commercial production of OVL in Barmer –

Sanchor basin.

62. Which one of the following Indian banks is not a

nationalized bank?

a) Corporation Bank b) Dena Bank

c)Federal Bank d) Vijaya Bank

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Federal Bank is not a nationalized bank. This

bank is a private bank in the state of Kerala.

63. What is Indo Next which was launched in January,

2005?

a) A new scheme to promote Indian tourism.

b) A new scheme to promote export of Indian

handicrafts.

c) An association

d) An alternative trading platform being

promoted by the Mumbai Stock Exchange

and Regional Stock Exchanges.

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Indo Next is an alternative trading platform being

promoted by the Mumbai Stock Exchange and

Regional Stock exchange.

64. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act

(FRBMA) concerns:

a) Fiscal deficit only

b) Revenue deficit only

c) Both fiscal deficit and revenue deficit

d) Neither fiscal deficit nor revenue deficit

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Fiscal responsibility and Budget Management Act

(FRBMA) concerns both fiscal deficit and revenue

deficit. FRBMA came into effect on 5th July,

2004. It was declared on 2nd

July, 2004.

65. Consider the following statements in respect of

welfare schemes launched by the Ministry of Rural

Development, Government of India.

1.Drinking water for rural areas is one of the

components of the Bharat Nirman Plan.

2.In the National Rural employment Guaantee Act

2005 there is a provision that the statutory

minimum wage applicable to agricultural workers

in the State has to be paid to the workers under the

Act.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement 1 as well as statement 2 regarding the

welfare schemes launched by Ministry of Rural

Development are correct.



66. Assertion (A): Balance of Payments represents a

better picture of a country economic transaction

with the rest of the world than the alance of trade

Reason (R): Balance of Payments takes into

account the exchange of both visible and invisible

items whereas alance of Trade does not.

Codes:







Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Both A and R are individually true and R is the

correct explanation of A


member of ASEAN?

a) Vietnam b) Brunei Darussalam

c)Bangladesh d) Myanmar

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Bangladesh is not the member of ASEAN. Out of

ten member of ASEAN maximum countries are f

south east.

Country Took Membership in

Brunei Darussalam 1984

Vietnam 1995

Myanmar 1997

68. Match List I (Person) with List II

(Organization/Area of Work) and select the correct


List I List II

A. Chandra Kochh ar 1. Advertising

B. Amrita Patel 2. Banking

C. Indra Nooyi 3. Dairy Development

D. Piyush Pandey 4. Pepsi Co

Codes:

A B C D

a) 2 1 4 3

b) 4 3 2 1

c) 2 3 4 1

d) 4 1 2 3

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

List I List II

A. Chandra Kochh ar 2. Banking

B. Amrita Patel 3. Dairy Development

C. Indra Nooyi 4. Pepsi Co

D. Piyush Pandey 1. Advertising

69. Consider the following statements in respect of the

National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005:

1. Under the provisions of the Act, 100 days of

employment in a year to every household

whose adult member volunteer to do unskilled

manual work has become a fundamental right.

2. Under the provisions of the Act, women are to

get priority to the extent that one – half of

persons who are given employment are

women who have asked for work.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Both the given statements are incorrect. Provision

given in statement 1 is a legal guarantee not the

fundamental right. In statement 2 it is not ½ but it

is 1/3 women.


1. The agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area

(SAFTA) came into effect from 1st December,

2005.

2. As per SAFTA agreement terms, India, Pakistan

and Sri Lanka have to decrease their custom duties

to the level of 0 to 5 per cent by the year 2013.


correct?



a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area

(SAFTA) came into effect from 1 Jan. 2006. The

time limit given in the statement 2 is 1 Jan, 2009.


1.In India, during the financial year 2004 – 2005

an increase of below 10% over the value of

exports (in rupee terms) in the financial year 2003

– 2004 was reported.

2.According to the WTO, India share in the world

merchandise exports crosses 2% in the year 2005.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Both the statements are incorrect, the figure given

in statement 1 is 15% and the figure given in

statement 2 is 1%.


1.Life Insurance Corporation of India is the oldest

insurance company in India.

2.National Insurance Company Limited was

nationalized in the year 1972 and made a

subsidiary of General Insurance Corporation of

India.

3. Headquarters of United Indian Insurance

Company Limited are located at Chennai.




Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Oriental Life Insurance company, Calcutta

(Kolkata) is the oldest insurance company in India

(1818). Life Insurance corporation of India was

created in the year of 1956.

73. Which one of the following is the correct

statement?

Service tax is a / an:

a) Direct tax levied by the Central

Government

b) Indirect tax level by the Central Government

c) Direct tax levied by the State Government

d) Indirect tax levied by the State Government

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Service Tax is indirect tax levied by Central

Government

74. Which is the correct chronological sequence of the

major events given below?

1.SLV – 3 Launch

2.Formation of Bangladesh

3.Sikkim becomes twenty – second state of the

Indian Union

4. Pokharan – First Nuclear test


below:

Codes:

a) 2431 b) 3124

c)2134 d) 3421

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The correct sequence is:

2.Formation of Bangladesh

4. Pokharan – First Nuclear test

3.Sikkim becomes twenty – second state of the

Indian Union

1.SLV – 3 Launch

75. With reference to the Government of India various

programmes, what is Nirmal Gram Puraskar?

a) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for

the single girl child in families in villages.

b) It is an incentive scheme of scholarships for

female sportspersons from villages who

represent their states in any game.



c) It is an incentive scheme for schools in the

villages for computer education.

d) It is an incentive scheme for Panchayati Raj

Institutions.

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Nirmal Gram Puraskar is an Incentive scheme for

Panchayati Raj institutes to maintain hygiene and

comeliness.

76. Which one of the following subjects is under the

Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the

Constitution of India?

a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and

oilfields

b) Agriculture

c) Fisheries

d) Public health

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Agriculture, Fisheries and Public health are given

in State List.


1.There is no provision in the Constitution of India

to encourage equal pay for equal work for both

men and women.

2.The Constitution of India does not define

backward classes.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c)Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1nor 2

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement 1 is incorrect under Act 39 (d) of the

Constitution of India the above given condition

has been mentioned. Statement 2 is correct.


1.The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare

that it would be in national interest for the

Parliament to legislate with respect to a matterin

the State List.

2.Resolutions approving the proclamation of

Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare

that it would be in national interest for the

Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in

the State List (Art. 249). Statement 2 is incorrect.

79. What does the 104th Constitution Amendement

Bill related to?

a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain

states.

b) Introducing of dual citizenship for persons of

Indian origin living outside India.

c) Providing quota to socially and

educationally backward classes in private

educational institutions.

d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the

services under the central Government.

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

104th Constitution Amendment Bill related to

provide quota to socially and educationally

backward classes in private educational

institutions.

80. Assertion(A): In India, every State has a High

Court in its territory.

Reason(R): The Constitution of India Provide a

High Court in each State.









Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement A is incorrect. In India there are 28

States and 7 UTs but only 21 High Court are there.


1.Free and compulsory education to the children of

6 – 14 years age – group by the State by the

seventy – sixth Amendment to the Constitution of

India

2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide

computer education even in rural areas.

3. Education was included in the Concurrent list

by the Forty – second Amendment, 1976 to the

Constitution of India.




Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Free ad compulsory education to the children of 6

-14 years age – group by the State was made a

Fundamental Right by the Eighty – sixth

Amendment to the Constitution of India. Hence

drop point 1.

82. Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public

Interested Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the

Indian Judicial System?

a) M. Hidayatullah b) A.M.Ahmadi

c)A.S.Anand d) P.N.Bhagwati

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when

Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to

the Indian Judicial System. P.N. Bhagwati was the

Chief Justice of India during the period of 1985 –

86.

83. Which one among the following commission was

set up in pursuance of a definite provision under

an Article of the Constitution of India?

a) University Grants Commission

b) National Human Rights Commission

c) Election Commission

d) Central Vigilance Commission

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Election Commission was set up in pursuance of a

definite provision under an Article of the

Constitution of India. (25 January 1950)


1.A person who has held office as a permanent

Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any

court or before any authority in India except of the

Supreme Court.

2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a

Judge of a High Court in India unless the territory

of India.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Both the statements 1 and 2, are correct Refer Art.

217 in case of statement 1 and refer Art. 220 in

case of Statement 2.

85. What does the tem Dolby B or Dolby C printed on

tape-recorders and other sound systems refer to?

a) Frequency Modulated System

b) Amplitude Modulated System

c) Noise Reduction Circuit

d) Both DC and AC power can be used

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The term Dolby B or Dolby C printed on tape –

recorders and other sound systems refer to Noise

Reduction Circuit. Dolby is a company which has

developed this Noise Reduction Circuit.

86. In which one among the following is the speed of

sound maximum?



a) Air at 00C b) Air at 100

0C

c)Water d) Wood

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Speed of sound in the medium:

1.Air at 00-331.45 m/sec

2.Air at 1000c – 387.4 M/sec

3.Water -1500 m/sec

4. Wood – 3800 m/sec

87. In which one of the following areas did the Indira

Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research make

significant progress in the year 2005?

a) Reprocessing the uranium – plutonium

mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder Test

Reactor.

b) New application of radioisotopes in

metallurgy.

c) A new technology for production of heavy

water.

d) A new technology for high level nuclear waste

management.

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research has

made significant progress in the year 2005 in

reprocessing the uranium – plutonium mixed

carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder Test Reactor.

88. To which one of the following process is the term

CMYK releted?

a) Railway signaling b) Navigation

c)Offset Printing

d) Electronic voting machine

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The term CMYK is related to offset printing

C =Cyan, M= Magenta, Y=Yellow, K= Key

(Black)

89. Which one of the following is printed on a

commonly used fluorescent tube light?

a) 220k b) 273k c) 6500k d) 9000k

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

6500k is printed on a commonly used fluorescent

tube light.

90. Which of the following pairs are correctly

matched?

Inventor Invention

1.Christopher Hovercraft Cockerell

2.David Bushnell Submarine

3.J.C.Perrier Steamship

Select the correct answer by using the codes given

below:


c)2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3only

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

All the three combinations are correct.

91. What is the approximate mean velocity with which

the earth moves round the sun in its orbit?

a) 20 km/s b) 30 km/s

c)40 km/s d) 50 km/s

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The approximate mean velocity with which the

Earth moves round the Sun in its orbit 30 km/s

(precisely it is 29.8 km/s)

92. Which of the following substances are found in the

beach sands of many parts of Kerala?

1.Ilmenite 2. Zircon

3. Sillimanite 4. Tungsten


below:

Codes:

a) 1,2,3 ad 4 b) 1,2 and 3 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Firstly these substances are found in Kollam

district in Kerala. These substances are found in

the beach sands.



93. Which are the materials generally employed as

solder in soldering operations in electronics?

a) Iron and tin

b) Lead and tin

c) Aluminium and lead

d) Aluminium and iron

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Lead and tin are the materials generally employed

as solder in soldering operation s in electronics.

94. Consider the following chemicals:

1.Benzene

2.Carbon tetrachloride

3.Sodium carbonate

4.Trichloroethylene

Which of the above is/are used as dry cleaning

chemical?

a) 1 only b) 2 only

c)1,2 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Other than sodium carbonate all these chemicals

are used in drycleaning.


1.Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is a

diuretic.

2.Citric acid is used in soft drinks.

3.Ascorbic acid is essential for formation of bones

and teeth.

4. Citric acid is a good substitution ascorbic acid in

our nutrition.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1,2 and 3 only

c)3 and 4 only d) 1,2,3 and 4

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Citric Acid is the substitute of melic acid not of

ascorbic acid. Hence, drop point (4)

96. Assertion (A): Cellulose is used in making shatter

–proof glass.

Reason (R): Polysaccharides are not soluble in

water.

Codes:







Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Cellulose is not soluble in water that why it is used

in making shatter – proof glass. R explains A.

Hence, the answer is (a)

97. Consider the following statements

1.ELISA test is employed as the first and most

basic test for an individual to detect cancer.

2.Almost 50% of human beings have Rh+ blood

while the remaining have Rh- blood.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

ELISA test is employed as the first and most basic

test for an individual to detect HIV. Statics given

in the second statement is not correct. 85% of

human being posses Rh+ and 15% are Rh

-.

98. What is the name of the vessel that delivers the

nutrient rich blood from the stomach and small

intestine to the liver?

a) Left hepatic artery b) Hepatic vein

c)Right hepatic artery d) Hepatic portal

vein

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Hepatic portal vein delivers the nutrient rich blood

from the stomach and small intestine to the liver.



99. Consider the following statements with reference

to human body:

1.The common bile duct releases its contents into

stomach.

2. The pancreatic duct releases its contents into

duodenum.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement 1 is not correct while statement 2 is

correct. Hence, the answer is (b)


matched?

Recent Scientific Achievement Country

a) Creating the world first

Mouse with a full human

Chromosome U.K

b) Cloning a human embryo

for the first time Germany

c) Guiding a spacecraft for

collision with a comet U.S.A

d) Landing a spacecraft on

an asteroid Japan

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Cloning a human embryo for the first time took

place in United States of America.

101. Which one of the following is not a good source

of nutrition calcium?

a) Rice b) Ragi

c) Skimmed Milk d) Egtg

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Rice is not a good source of nutritional calcium. It

is only 19 mg. in 100 mg. of rice.


1.Meningococcal Meningitis is transmitted from

person to person by mosquito bites.

2.Vomiting and neck pain are two of the

symptoms of Meningococcal Meningitis.

Which of the statements(s) given above is / are

correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement 1 is incorrect. Meningococcal

Meningitis is transmitted from person to person

through cough and having a body contact on a

regular basis.

103. Match List I (Indian Scientist/Scholar) with List

Ii (Area of work) and select the correct answer

using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

A. C.N.R. Rao 1. Telecommunication

B. Jagdish Bhagwati 2. Physics

C. G.N. Ramachandran 3. Economics

D. Ashok Jhunjhunwala 4. Solid State

Chemistry and

Material Science

Codes:

A B C D

a) 4 3 2 1

b) 2 1 4 3

c) 4 1 2 3

d) 2 3 4 1

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

List I List II

A. C.N.R. Rao 4. Solid State

B. Jagdish Bhagwati 3. Economics

C. G.N. Ramachandran 2. Physics

D. Ashok Jhunjhunwala 1. Telecommunication

Chemistry and

Material Science



104. In which country is the committee which selects

winners for Nobel Peace Prize located?

a) Norway b) Sweden

c)Finland d) Denmark

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Nobel Peace Prize Committee is located in

Norway since 1901

105. In which Olympic Games did India last win a

Gold Medal?

a) Montreal (1976)

b) Moscow (1980)

c) Los Angele (1984)

d) Atlanta (1996)

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

It was eighth Olympic in Moscow (1980) in which

India won the last gold medal. (Itochey)

106. Who among the following directed the film

chosen as India official entry for of 2006 Academy

Awards?

a) Adoor Gopalakrishnan

b) Amol Palekar

c) Sanjoy Leela Bhansali

d) Kunal Kohil

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

‘Paheli’ a flim directed by Amol Palekar was

chosen as India’s official entry for Academy

award of 2006.

107. Which one among the following was awarded the

CSIR Diamond Jubilee Technology Award – 2004

in September, 2005 by the Prime Minister of

India?

a) Infosys Technologies Ltd.

b) Midas Communication Technologies

c) Tata Consultancy Services

d) Biocon India Ltd.

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Midas Communication Technologies was awarded

the CSIR Diamond Jubilee Technology Award –

2006 for the development of Cor – Dect WLL.

108. Who is the President of the Council of Scientific

and Industrial Research?

a) President of India

b) Vice – President of India

c) Prime Minister of India

d) Union Minister of Science and Technology

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Prime Minister of India is the president of Council

of Scientific and Industrial Research, it was

created in the year of 1942.

109. Indian Airlines are have redesigned their logo

which is a graphic wheel. This logo has been

inspired from which one of the following?

a) Hampi Temple

b) Mamallapuram Temple

c) Sun Temple of Konark

d) Khajuraho Temple

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Indina Airlines have redesigned their logo which is

a graphic wheel. This logo has been inspired from

Sun Temple of Konark.

110. Match List I (Person) with List II (Area of

Distinction) and select the correct answer using the

codes given below the lists:

List I List II

A. E.C.G. Sudarshan 1. Theatre

B. V. Shanta 2. Violin

C. T.N. Krishnan 3. Research in Physics

D. Mahesh Dattani 4. Cancer treatment

5. Water harvesting

Codes:

A B C D

a) 3 1 2 4

b) 2 4 5 1



c) 3 4 2 1

d) 2 1 5 4

111. What is the Universal Product Code (UPC)

adopted for?

a) Fire safety code in building

b) Earthquake – resistant building code

c) Bard code

d) Against adulteration in eatables

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Universal Product Code (UPC) is adopted for Bar

code.

112. For which sport is the Val Barker Cup awarded in

the Olympic Games?

a) Swimming b) Boxing

c)Long Jump d) High Jump

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Val Barker Cup awarded in the Olympic Games

for Boxing sport event.

113. What is the new administrative capital proposed

for Myanmar?

a) Bassein b) Mandalay

c)Myitkyina d)Pyinmana

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Pyinmana is the new administrative capital

proposed for Myanmar. The official declaration

has been made on the date of 7th November, 2005.

114. When did Croatia defeat in the Davis Cup – 2005

Finals to win the Davis Cup – 2005?

a) United states of America

b) Slovak Republic

c) Argentina

d) Spain

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Croatia defeated Slovak Republic in the Davis Cup

– 2005. Finals and win the Davis Cup – 2005.

115. Who among the following is a Hindustani

classical singer?

a) Geeta Chandran

b) Leela Samson

c) Gangubai Hangal

d) Swapnasundari

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Gangubai Hangal is a Hindustani Classical Singer.

She belongs to Krishana gharana of Indian

Classified Music.

116. Zayed bin Sultan – al - Nahyan was a long

serving President of which of the following?

a) Oman b) Kuwait

c)United Arab Emirates d) Saudi Arabia

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Zayed bin Sultan – al – Nahyan was a long serving

President of United Arab Emirates. He served his

country for the period of thirty years.


1.Kofi Annan, the UN Secretary General is from

Nigeria.

2.Kofi Annan is the First UN Secretary General to

be appointed form the ranks of the United National

Staff.

3.Kofi Annan was appointed for a second term to

the office of the UN Secretary General.

Which of the statement given above are correct?



Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Kofi Annan: The UN Secretary General is from

Ghand. Drop Statement 1 and select the answer.

118. Which one of the following countries was not a

participation team in the Football World Cup –

2006?

a) Russia b) Togo

c)Ivory Coast d) Switzerland



Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Russia was not a participating team in the Football

World Cup – 2006 held in Germany in July.


1. The Noble Prize Awarding Ceremony takes

place on December 10, of every year.

2. The Nobel Prize for Literature was added later

on to the other five areas: Physics, Chemistry,

Physiology or Medicine, Peace and Economics.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

The Noble Prize for Economics was added later on

to the other five areas: Physics, Chemistry,

Physiology or Medicine, Peace and Literature in

the year of 1968. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect

and 1 is correct.

120. What is Medecins Sans Frontieres (MSF)?

a) An agency formed by the International

Olympic Committee (IOC) to check misuse of

the drugs by sportspersons.

b) A non-governmental organization which

specializes in international humanitarian

aid and emergency medical assistance.

c) An organization to develop applications of

nanotechnology in Medicine.

d) An organization of medical practitioners

funded by the Europena Union which carries

out research against spread of AIDS.

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Medecins Sans Frontieres is a non-governmental

organization which specializes in international

humanitarian aid and emergency medical

assistance. MSF is a French world. MSF was

established in the year of 1971 by a doctor of

France. MSF got Nobel Prize in the year of 1999

for Peace.

121. In which one of the following films did the Noble

Laureate Pearl S. Buck collaborate?

a) Shatranj Ke Khilari

b) Guide

c) Lawrence of Arabia

d) Titanic

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Noble Laureate Pearl S. Buck Collaborated in the

film ‘Guide’

122. ‘Lectures from Colombo to Almore’ is based on

the experience of which one of the following?

a) Veer Savarkar

b) Annie Besant

c) Ramkrishan Paramhansa

d) Swami Vivekanand

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Lectures from Colombo to Almore is based on the

experience of Swami Vivekanand. This book is

also called the charter for Modern India.

123. Match List I (Leading Woman Lawn Tennis

Player) with List Ii (Country) and select the correct


List I List II

A. Daniela Hantuchova 1. Russia

B. Patty Schnyder 2. Slovakia

C. Nadia Patrova 3. France

D. Amelie Mauresmo 4. Switzerland

Codes:

A B C D

a) 2 1 4 3

b) 3 4 1 2

c) 2 4 1 3

d) 3 1 4 2



124. Which one of the following is not a Central

University?

a) Pondicherry

b) Maulana Azad National Urdu University,

Hyderabad

c) Vishva Bharti, Shanti Niketan

d) University of Madras (Chennai)

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

University of Madras (Chennai) is not a Central

University. This information is based on the

declaration of University Grant Commission.

125. Match List I (Person) with List II (Area of Work)

and select the correct answer using the codes given

below the lists:

List I List II

A. Ela Bhatt 1. Theatre training

B. Mahashweta Devi 2. Women labour Sector

C. Ebrahim Alkazi 3. Management teaching

D. Vijay Govindaraja 4. Literature and social work

for the country tribal

communities

Codes:

A B C D

a) 3 1 4 2

b) 2 4 1 3

c) 3 4 1 2

d) 2 1 4 3

126. Who among the following wrote ‘The Communist

Manifesto’ along with Karl Marx?

a) Emile Drukheim b) Friedrich Engels

c)Robert Owen d) Max Weber

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Friedrich Engels wrote ‘The Communist

Manifesto’ along with Karl Marx (published on 21

February, 1848).

127. Who among the following was presented with the

Snageet Natak Akademic Ratna Award, 2005 for

her lifetime achievement in dance?

a) Chandralekha

b) Tanjavur Balasaraswati

c) Uma Sharma

d) Yamini Krishnamurthy

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Chandralekha was presented with the Sangeet

Natak Akademi Ratna Award, 2005 for her

lifetime achievement in dance.

128. Who is Wole Soyinka?

a) A well – known economist

b) A well – known football player

c) A well – known industrialist owning steel

plants in many parts of the world

d) A Nobel Prize winner for literature

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Wole Soyinka is a Noble Prize winner for

literature in the year of 1986.


matched?

Well – known company Major area of work

a) Adobe system India Software

b) Sasken Communication

technology

c) Genpact Power generation

d) Synthite Export of spices

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Genpact is related to trade & technology services.

130. Match List I (Author) with List II (Book) and

select the correct answer using the codes given

below the lists:

List I List II

A. Amartya Sen 1. An ordinary person Guide

to empire

B. Bimal Jalan 2. The Argumentative Indian



C. Arundhati Roy 3. The Future of India

D. Mani Shankar Aiyar 4. Confessions of a

Secular

Fundamentalist

131. Which one of the following is not correctly

matched?

Prominent Indian Writer Language

a) Raja Rao : Telugu

b) Gobind Trimbuk Deshpande : Marathi

c) Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil

d) Tara Shankar Joshi : Gujarati

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Raja Rao is a writer of novels and short stories in

English languages.

132. Match List I and List II and select the correct


List I List II

A. Harold Pinter 1. Director – General, FAO

B. Jacques Diouf 2. President, European

Commission

C. Jose Manuel

Barroso 3. World Bank appoint inted

expert for adjudicating on the

Baglihar Hydel Project

D. Raymond Lafitte 4. Lilterature

Codes:

A B C D

a) 4 3 2 1

b) 2 1 4 3

c) 4 1 2 3

d) 2 3 4 1


matched?

a) Sigmund Freud : Paychoanalysis

b) Anna Freud : Child psychiatry

c) Milton Friedman : Economics

d) Eric R. Kandel : Literature

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Eric R. Kandel is a psychiatrist and Neuro –

scientist.

134. Which one among the following was the first to

legalize Euthanasia?

a) Austria b) Switzerland

c)Netherlands d) Canada

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Netherlands among the given countries is first to

legalize euthanasia.

135. How many numbers are there in all from 6000 to

6999 (Both 6000 and 6999 included) having?

a) 216 b) 356 c) 496 d) 504

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Numbers between 6000 and 6999 of four digit

=1000

Numbers of the given number of those where all

the digit differs. Hence, 1000 10x9x8x7 = 1000

504=496.

136. Each of two women and three men is to occupy

one chair out of eight chairs, each of which

numbered form 1 to 8. First, women are to occupy

any two chairs from those numbered 1 to 4; and

then the three men would occupy any three chairs

out of the remaining six chairs. What is the

maximum number of different ways in which this

can be done?

a) 40 b) 132 c) 1440 d) 3660

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

One woman is sitting on one chair out of the four

given. So she can sit in four different ways.

Second woman can sit on anyone chair in three

different ways. So the different ways of sitting

becomes 4 x 3 = 12. The ways of sitting of three

men out of remaining six chairs is 6p3 = 6 x 5 x 4

= 120



137. In a tournament, each of the participants was to

play one match against each of the other

participants. Three players fell ill after each of

them had played three matches and had to leave

the tournament. What was the total number of

participants at the beginning, if the total number of

matches played was 75?

a) 08 b)10 c) 12 d) 15

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Suppose number of players in beginning = x

Three players fell ill hence, the number remains =

x-3

Three players played three matches hence, number

of matches = 3 x 3 = 9

Number of matches played by the remaining

players (other than the ill players) = 75- 9 =66

Mathces played by (x-3) players

2

2

( 3)( 4) 4 3 12

2 2

4 3 1266

2

x x x x x

x x x

Comparing (i) with (ii)

2

2

2

7 12 132

7 12 132 0

7 120 0

15

x x

x x

x x

x

and 8x

The positive value that is 15 will be taken into

account. Hence the answer is (d)

138. P, Q, R and T reside in a five – storeyed (Ground

+ 4) building, and each of them resides on a

separate floor. Further:

1.T does not reside on the topmost floor.

2.Q does not reside on the ground floor.

3.S resides on one storey above that of P and one

storey below that of R.

To know as the which one of the five persons

resides on the ground floor which of the above

statements are sufficient / insufficient?

a) 1 and 3 are sufficient

b) 2 and 3 are sufficient

c) 1,2 and 3 are sufficient

d) 1,2 and 3 are insufficient

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Statement 1,2 and 3 are insufficient

139. A box contains five sets of balls, has one color

which is different from every other set what is the

least number of balls that must be removed from

the box in order to claim with certainty that a pair

of balls of the same colour has been removed?

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

1 2 3 4 5

1 1 1 1 2

1+ 1+ 1+ 1+ 2 =6

140. There are three parallel straight lines. Two

points, A and B are marked on the first line, points

C and D are marked on the second line, and points,

E and F, are marked on the third line. Each of

these 6 points can move to any position on its

respective straight line.

Consider the following statements:

1.The maximum number of triangles that can be

drawn by joining these points is 18.

2. The minimum number of triangles that can be

drawn by joining these points is zero.


correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

A B

s

F E

`

C

`

P

` x

2 y

q

D



According to above figure there are more than 18

triangles can be drawn. So statement one is not

correct.

When there is overlapping between the two points

on the same line and all the points put in a straight

line (vertically) no possibility of triangle arises.

141. A mixed doubles tennis game is to be played

between two teams (each team consists of one

male and one female). There are four married

couples. No team is to consist of a husband and his

wife. What is the maximum number of games that

can be played?

a) 12 b) 21 c) 36 d) 42

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Married couples: MF MF MF MF

A B, C D, E F, G H

Possible teams: AD CB EB GB

AF CF ED GD

AH CH EH GF

Team AD can play only with: CB, CF, CH, EB,

EH, GB, GF ( 7 teams)

Team AD cannot play with: AF, AH, ED and GD

The same will apply with all teams. So No. of total

matches = 12 x 7 = 84.

But every match includes 2 teams, so the actual

No. of matches = 84/2 = 48.

142. In an office, the number of persons who take tea

is twice the number of persons who take only

coffee. The number of persons who take coffee is

twice the number of persons who take both coffee

and tea.

Consider the following statement:

1.The sum of the number of persons who take

either tea or coffee or both is four times the

number of persons who take both coffee and tea.

2. The sum of the number of person who take only

coffee and those who tea only tea is twice the

number of persons who take both tea and coffee.

Which of the statement(s) given above is / are

correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only


Explanation-----------------------------------------------

x represents – Persons who take tea only

z represents – Persons who take coffee

y represents – Persons who take tea and coffee

both

from the figure it is clear that the sum of the

number of persons who take only coffee and those

who take only tea is twice, the number of persons

who take both tea and coffee.

143. 3 digits are chosen at random from 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8

and 9 without repeating any digit. What is the

probability that their product is odd?

a) 2/3 b) 5/108 c) 5/42 d) 7/48

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Every digit must be odd if their product is odd.

The ways of selecting 3 odd digits our of 5.

5

3

5 4 3

2C

The way of selecting 3 odd digits out of 9

9

3

9 8 7

2C

Probability 5 4 3 5

9 8 7 42

144.

What is the value of X in figure III ?

a) 4 b) 16 c) 25 d) 36

A B

x y z

16

25 18 9

36

64

1 18 25

16

16

1 18 9

X



The value of x in figure III is 36. In every figure

the sum of square route of all corner digits comes

in middle box. Hence, underfoot of 9 = 3

Underfoot 64 = 8, underfoot of 1 = 1

3+8+1 = 12

18-12 = 6 (6)2 = 36

145. Each of the six faces of a cube is numbered by

one of the six digits from 1 to 6. This cube is

shown in its four different positions in the figure I,

II, III, and IV

Consider the following statements,

1.Figures II and III are sufficient to known as to

which face is opposite to the face numbered 6.

2.Figures II and III are sufficient to known as to


3.Figure I and IV are sufficient to known as to



a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only

c)2 and 3 only d) 1,2 and 3

146. Each of the five persons A, B, C, D and E

possesses unequal number (<10) of similar items,

A, B and C possess Twenty – one items in all,

while C, D and E possess seven items in all. How

many items do A and B possess in all?

a) 15 b) 17 c) 18 d) Data insufficient

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

According to question

A+B+C = 21

and C+D+E = 7

The value of C can be 1,2,4.

If C=1, then A+B=20 (not possible)

If C=2, then A+B = 19(not possible)

If C = 4, then A+B = 17 (Possible)

Thus the value of A and B are either 8,9 or 9,8

respectively. Hence, the total number of items

with A and B = 17.

147. There are eight equidistant points A, B, C, D, E,

F, G and H in the clockwise direction on the

periphery of a circle. In a time interval t, a person

reaches from A to C with uniform motion while

another person reaches the point E from the point

B during the same time interval with uniform

motion. Both the persons move in the same

direction along the circumference of the circle and

start at the same instant. How much time after the

start, will the two persons meet each other?

a) 4t b) 7t c) 9t d) Never

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

According to the figure given above the

circumference of the circle is divided into eigtht

equal parts. Suppose the circumference = p A to C

(two parts) hence, distance = 2/p

B to E (three equal parts) hence, distance = 3/p

Both persons travel this distance in time t

The relative speed of A and B in time E

=3/p – 2/p = 1/p mtr

Distance travelled in time, suppose in seconds 7/p

mtr. Travelled in time = 7/p x p/1 x t = 7t

148. In a question paper, three are four multiple choice

type question. Each question has five choices with

only one choice for its correct answer. What is the

total number of ways in which a candidate will not

get all the four answers correct?

a) 19 b) 120 c) 624 d) 1024

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Multiple choice type question

3 2

6

4 2

1

6 4

5

2 4

6

A B

C

D

E F

G

H



=1 2 3 4

Total numbers of ways = 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 = 625

Number of correct answer = 1

Number of false answers = 625 – 1 = 624

149. A match showed a time of fourteen minutes past

nine (9 hrs and 14 minutes). The positions of the

hour – hand of the watch are exactly interchanged.

The new time shown by the watch is closet to

which one of the following?

a) Twelve minutes to three

b) Thirteen minutes to three

c) Fourteen minutes to three

d) Fifteen minutes to three

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

Minute pointer when move sixty minutes the hour

pointer moves five minutes. When minute pointer

moves 14 minutes the hour pointer will move =

14/60 x 5 = 14/12

Hence, the minute pointer will be act 45+14/12 =

277/6 minutes which is closer to fourteen minutes

to three.

150.

Each of the eight identical ball is to be placed in

the squares shown in the figures given above in a

horizontal direction such that one horizontal row

contains six balls and the other horizontal row

contains two balls. In how many maximum

different ways can this be done?

a) 38 b) 28 c) 16 d) 14

Explanation-----------------------------------------------

There are 19 positions when Row A contains 6

balls. We will get some 19 positions when Row B

contains 6 balls. So maximum different ways (to

put the 8 balls in a horizontal direction such that

one horizontal row contains 6 balls and the other

horizontal row contains two balls) are = 19 x 2 =

38.

Unique IAS Academy, 2006 UPSC Prelims Original … IAS Academy, 2006 UPSC Prelims Original GS...

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