Which statement about a vessel's stability while dry-docking is TRUE?

A) Every ton of weight bearing on the blocks acts as if a ton of weight was removed at keel level.***************

B) When the ship touches the blocks, the beam for stability purposes increases to the beam of the dry-dock.

C) The stability of the vessel increases as a dock is pumped out due to the support of the keel blocks....

Wale shores would be used when dry docking a vessel with __________.

A) tumble home

B) excessive deadrise*********

C) excessive trim...

The best information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a vessel is contained in the __________.

-ship's docking plan

The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT __________.

A) ocean currents*******************

B) outer dangers to navigation

C) tidal currents...

The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.

A) well-charted inner dangers

B) port facilities

C) coastal anchorages************...

The maritime radio system consisting of a series of coast stations transmitting coastal warnings is called __________.

-NAVTEX

Plain language is usually used on marine weather __________.

-forecasts

An urgent marine storm warning message would be broadcast on______.

-157.10 MHz (VHF-FM CH-22A)

When determining compass error by an azimuth of Polaris, you enter the Nautical Almanac with the __________.

-LHA Aries

The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs, are for the __________.

-centers of the various celestial bodies

What is the major limitation in using the Sight Reduction Tables for Air Navigation Volume I (Pub. No. 249) for star sights?

-Only certain stars are included and sights must be limited to those stars.

The annual change in variation for an area can be found in __________.

-the center of the compass rose on a chart of the area

Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the associated landmark is __________.

-conspicuous

Chart legends which indicate a conspicuous landmark are printed in __________.

a. underlined letters

b. capital letters***************

c. italics

d. boldface print

The shoreline on charts generally represents the mean __________.

-high water line

The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is __________.

-mean high water

Mean high water is used __________.

-to indicate the shoreline where there is a large tidal fluctuation

Charted depth is the __________.

-vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom

You would find the variation on a polyconic projection chart __________.

-on the compass rose

Which statement about a simple conic chart projection is TRUE?

-The scale is correct along any meridian.

A polyconic projection is based on a __________.

-series of cones tangent at selected parallels

Which chart projection would be most suitable for marine surveying?

-Polyconic

The numeral in the center of a wind rose circle on a pilot chart indicates the __________.

-percentage of calms

How is the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart?

-Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart

All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information concerning the __________.

-amounts of precipitation

A pilot chart does NOT contain information about __________.

-tidal currents

A sailing chart could have a scale of __________.

-1:700,000

A harbor chart could have a scale of __________.

-1:35,000

A general chart could have a scale of __________.

-1:200,000

A coastal chart could have a scale of __________.

-1:100,000

Which statement is TRUE concerning a Mercator projection?

-The length of the meridians is increased to provide for equal expansion in all directions

A chart projection depicting the poles and a small area on either side of a connecting meridian, that is sometimes used for star charts, is the __________.

-transverse Mercator projection

When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings are measured in reference to __________.

-the meridian through the ship's position

When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal projection, __________.

-a straight line drawn on the chart approximates a great circle

In very high latitudes, the most practical chart projection is the __________.

-Lambert conformal

For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than using a Mercator?

-Plotting radio bearings over a long distance

Which information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide?

-True directions

What information is NOT found in the chart title?

-Date of first edition

the value of sixty nautical miles per degree of geodetic latitude is most correct at________

-latitude 45

The survey information upon which a chart is based is found __________.

-near the chart title

The revision date of a chart is printed on which area of the chart?

-Lower-left corner

The agonic line on an isomagnetic chart indicates the __________.

-points where there is no variation

On a nautical chart, the inner ring of a compass rose indicates __________.

-magnetic directions

You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit?

-Shade the container and periodically hose it down

Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is TRUE?

-Containers should be ventilated, dehumidified, or the contents physically protected against sweat damage.

What is meant by the term "topping the boom"?

-Raising the boom

A pelican hook __________.

-can be released while under strain

The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the __________.

-Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual

Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at a position __________.

-one meter from the deck

Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed at night while bunkering at a dock?

-One red light

When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be __________.

-drained, blanked off, and stored securely

When bunkering at anchorage which of the following signals must be displayed?

-A red flag by day ONLY

When bunkering at a dock which of the following signals must be displayed?

-A red flag by day, red light by night

The most likely time for oil pollution while bunkering is when __________.

-final topping off is occurring

A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to __________.

-enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen

The biggest problem you generally encounter while towing a single tow astern is __________.

a. the catenary dragging on the bottom

b. swamping of the tow

c. the tow tending to dive

d. Yaw**

Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the __________.

a. rock is visible at low water springs only

b. rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only

c. rock is dry at high water**

d. exact position of the rock is doubtful

A spanner is a __________.

-special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line.

A tug's horsepower available at the shaft is __________.

-brake horsepower(indicated değil)

Which statement about the deck line is TRUE?

-A vessel with wooden planks on a steel deck will have the deck line marked at the intersection of the upper line of the wood sheathing with the side shell.

the plimsol mark on a vessel is used to____________.

-determine the vessel's freeboard.

A vessel cannot comply with all of the SOLAS requirements due to its construction. Where will this be indicated?

-On the Exemption Certificate

In which case is the IOPP Certificate of an inspected vessel NOT invalidated?

-The required oily-water separator malfunctions.

What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?

-Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductible spaces.

A 30,000 DWT tankship is required to have an IOPP certificate when __________.

-calling at ports in another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78

Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a Temporary Certificate of Inspection. The Temporary Certificate __________.

-has the full force of the regular Certificate of Inspection

You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has expired. You wish to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If the Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue a __________.

-Permit to Proceed.

What is NOT required on an uninspected towing vessel?

-Certificate of Inspection.

Temporary Certificates of Inspection are effective until the __________.

-permanent Certificate of Inspection is issued.

Where are the test certificates, for wire rope used as cargo runners, and loose gear certificates usually maintained?

-With the Cargo Gear Register on the ship.

Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992. What is NOT an acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements?

A) 28 February 1993

B) 27 November 1993********

C) 26 August 1994

Your load line certificate expires on 27 May 1988. The vessel is surveyed on that date and is found satisfactory. You are sailing foreign the same day. Which statement is TRUE?

-The existing certificate is extended for a period of up to 150 days.

Camber in a ship is usually measured in__________.

-inches per feet of breath.

Beams are cambered to __________.

-provide drainage from the decks

Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?

-Its period of roll is long.

Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?

-Its period of roll is short.

A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

-concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty

A vessel would be referred to as "stiff" when the weight of the cargo is __________.

-concentrated low and the double bottoms are full.

A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.

-slack

Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an electric winch?

-Electromagnetic brake.

A spreader bar is used to __________.

-protect the upper part of a load.

A sling is a device used in __________.

-hoisting cargo aboard a vessel.

** A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition?

A) None**

B) 10%

C) 25%...

What would you use to adjust the height of a cargo boom?

-Topping lift

You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

-Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.

Which statement is TRUE concerning a Mercator projection?

-The length of the meridians is increased to provide for equal expansion in all directions.

What area of the earth cannot be shown on a standard Mercator chart?

-North and South Poles

On a Mercator chart, 1 nautical mile is equal to __________.

-1 minute of latitude

Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the __________.

-latitude scale near the middle of the track line

A Mercator chart is a __________.

-cylindrical projection

A chart projection depicting the poles and a small area on either side of a connecting meridian, that is sometimes used for star charts, is the __________.

-transverse Mercator projection

Which statement about a gnomonic chart is correct?

-Parallels, except the equator, appear as curved lines.

The principal advantage of NAVTEX radio warnings is that __________.

-they can be used by mariners who do not know Morse code.

A major advantage of the NAVTEX system when compared to other systems is that__________.

-warning are printed out for reading when convenient.

how is the intensity of a light expressed in the light list?

-nominal range (kesinlikle luminous değil)

Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by _________.

-ship's sweat

"Cribbing" is __________.

-wooden blocks or dunnage placed between a deck load and the deck.

when referring to dry bulk cargoes, the term "flow state"____________

-refers to the saturation of a dry bulk product with water to the point where it acts as a liquid

What is normally used to pass a mooring line to a dock?

-Heaving line

The usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without kinking or fouling is __________.

-faking down the line

The revolving drum of a winch used to haul lines is called a __________.

-gypsyhead

If a mooring line should part while you are tying up at a dock, you should make a temporary eye by tying a __________.

-bowline

Chafing gear __________.

-reduces and prevents wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another

An example of a messenger is a __________.

-heaving line

A "gypsy" or "gypsyhead" is a __________.

-spool-shaped drum fitted on a winch

You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

-put out the sea anchor (cevap kesin u.yol 1.zbt çıkmış soru)

What represents poor sanitary procedures?

-Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge.

(cevap kesin u.yol 1.zbt çıkmış soru)

The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to........

-aid in its recovery (cevap kesin u.yol 1.zbt çıkmış soru)

which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?

-camber (cevap kesin u.yol 1.zbt çıkmış soru)

The fittings used to secure water tight door are known as....

-dogs (cevap kesin u.yol 1.zbt çıkmış soru)

While in dry dock your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process involves __________.A) measuring the thickness of the tail shaft linerB) taking the vessel's offsets to check for hull deformationC) testing and examining the anchor cables for defective linksD) drilling or sonic-testing the hull to determine the plate thickness********

Which statement about damage control is TRUE?A) A hole in the hull at the waterline is more dangerous than a hole below the inner bottom.************B) The amount of water entering a ship through a hole varies inversely to the area of the hole.C) Water flowing into a lower compartment on a ship is more dangerous than water on deck or flowing into an upper compartment.D) Water flowing over the fo'c'sle bulwark is more dangerous than a hole in the hull at the waterline.

Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.A) establish flooding boundaries and prevent further spread of flood water*****************B) plug the hole(s) in the outer shellC) pump out the water inside the vesselD) calculate the free surface effect and lost buoyancy to determine the vessel's stability

Your vessel was damaged and initially assumed a significant list and trim; however, further increase has been slow. Based on this data, what should you expect?A) The slowing is only temporary and the vessel will probably suddenly capsize or plunge from loss of stability due to change in the waterplane area.B) The vessel can probably be saved if further flooding can be stopped.*************C) The vessel will continue to slowly list and/or trim due to the free surface effect and free communication effect.D) The vessel will suddenly flop to the same or greater angle of list on the other side and may capsize.

How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?A) This requires extensive calculation and is usually performed only by a naval architect not by a ship's officer.B) Determine the point where aground and the draft at that point, then calculate it using the grounding formula.C) Use the hydrostatic tables and enter with the mean draft before grounding and the mean draft after grounding.**********D) Use the inclining experiment formula and substitute the change of trim for the angle of list.

Your vessel has gone aground in waters where the tide is falling. The BEST action you can take is to __________.A) set out a kedge anchor***********B) shift the vessel's load aft and repeatedly surge the engine(s) asternC) shift the vessel's load forward and wait until the next high tideD) slowly bring the engine(s) to full speed astern

Your vessel has grounded on a bar. What should you do?A) If you cannot get clear immediately, lighten the ship by pumping all ballast overboard.B) Run the engine full astern to keep from being set further onto the bar.C) Switch to the high suction for condenser circulating water, if it is submerged.**************D) All of the above

A continual worsening of the list or trim indicates __________.A) negative GMB) progressive flooding***********C) structural failureD) an immediate need to ballast

A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.A) cutting a square notch at each end of the crackB) drilling a hole at each end of the crack************C) slot-welding the crackD) welding a doubler over the crack

A wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.A) filling completely************B) developing free surfaceC) developing free surface momentD) collapsing

After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.A) after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs**********B) immediately, before the emergency is under controlC) after control of fire, but before control of floodingD) after stability is restored

Control of flooding should be addressed __________.A) firstB) following control of fire**********C) following restoration of vital servicesD) only if a threat exists

In plugging submerged holes; rags, wedges, and other materials should be used in conjunction with plugs to __________.A) reduce the water pressure on the hullB) reduce the possibility of stress fracturesC) prevent progressive floodingD) reduce the water leaking around the plugs**************

Progressive flooding is controlled by securing watertight boundaries and __________.A) transferring water ballastB) jettisoning cargoC) pumping out flooded compartments*********D) abandoning ship

Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces the threat of __________.A) free surface effectsB) capsizingC) continued progressive flooding************D) wind heel

Small hull leaks can be temporarily repaired by __________.A) parcelingB) parbucklingC) caulking**********D) seizing

Strengthening damaged bulkheads by using wood or steel is called __________.A) bracingB) batteningC) blockingD) shoring*************

The BEST information on the nature and extent of damage to the vessel is obtained from __________.A) alarms and monitoring devicesB) the engineroom watchC) personnel at the scene of the damage*************D) the bridge watch

The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.A) control flooding, control fire, repair structural damageB) restore vital services, control fire, control floodingC) control fire, restore vital services, control floodingD) control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage************

The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to __________.A) establish and maintain flooding boundaries****************B) dewater the compartmentC) secure power to the compartmentD) ballast to maintain even keel

The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.A) pump from the damaged tank****************B) fight a fireC) abandon shipD) use the crossover system

When patching holes in the hull, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used as __________.A) shoresB) gaskets***********C) strongbacksD) wedges

When plugging holes below the waterline you should __________.A) eliminate all water entering the holeB) only plug holes in machinery or other vital spacesC) reduce the entry of water as much as possible************D) plug the largest holes first

Which type of hull damage should be repaired FIRST?A) Damage below the waterlineB) Damage to interior watertight boundariesC) Damage in way of machinery roomsD) Damage at or just above the waterline**************

Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.A) pump fuel oil from midships to the ends of the vesselB) reduce speedC) take a course which most eases the vesselD) All of the above**************

You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?A) You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility.B) The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to ensure that it can be done safely.C) Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.D) The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make hot work repairs.********************

All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to __________.A) prevent them from falling when the vessel rollsB) protect personnel from electrical shock************C) increase their operating efficiencyD) prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them

Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be checked?A) Hoist rope is not kinkedB) Multiple part lines are not twisted around each otherC) The hook is centrally located over the loadD) All of the above***********

In battery charging rooms, exhaust ventilation should be provided __________.A) at the lowest pointB) near the batteriesC) at the highest point*************D) only when charging is in progress

Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called __________.A) fakingB) flemishing downC) mousing**********D) worming

Safety shackles are fitted with __________.A) a threaded boltB) a round pin, with a cotter pinC) a threaded bolt, locknuts, and cotter pins**********D) round pins and locknuts

What is TRUE about hoisting operations?A) Personnel may work beneath suspended loads, as long as they are alert and wear hard hats.B) If a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel should attempt to stop the spinning if the load is within reach.C) If tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they should be secured to the deck.D) Personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be kept clear of the transfer area.***************

when instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to___________-bend his knees and lift with his legs

When working on a tow, a good safety precaution is to __________.A) carry loads on your inside shoulder when walking along the outside of a barge

B) tighten ratchets outboardC) walk on the top of covered barges when possible to avoid narrow gunwalesD) always remove the toothpick after tightening the ratchet*********

You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?A) Up to five gallons of a flammable liquid may be stowed in the engine room.*****************B) All stores of line, rags, linens and other similar type stores must be certified by UL as being fire retardant.C) Cylinders containing compressed gasses must be constructed and tested in accordance with the Bureau of Standards.D) All distress flares when received must be stored in the portable magazine chest.

You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard?A) PhosphorousB) Safety************C) Self-extinguishingD) Wooden

You should NOT use a power tool if __________.A) it has a three-prong plugB) the insulation of the power wires is worn**********C) hand tools can be used insteadD) the power source is alternating current

A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?A) Paints, varnish, or other liquid flammables are stowed in a dry stores locker.B) Inert cargoes such as pig iron are loaded in a wet condition.C) Oily rags are stowed in a metal pail.*************D) Clean mattresses are stored in contact with an electric light bulb.

Accumulations of oily rags should be __________.A) kept in nonmetal containersB) discarded as soon as possible************C) cleaned thoroughly for reuseD) kept in the paint locker

Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by __________.A) allowing better access in an emergencyB) eliminating potential fuel sources*************(çıkmış soru)C) eliminating trip hazardsD) improving personnel qualifications

It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________.A) filter the incoming airB) prevent explosionsC) prevent backupsD) stop insects from entering*************

Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.A) conspicuously marked

B) stowed anywhereC) left on deckD) secured or stowed out of the way**************

Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to the __________.A) fire-main systemB) feed-water systemC) freshwater sanitary systemD) domestic water tank****************(çıkmış soru)

Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.A) deteriorate and give off noxious gassesB) spontaneously heat and catch fire*****************C) attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding groundD) None of the above

On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.A) Master and Second MateB) Master and Chief Engineer***************C) Master and union delegateD) Master and Chief Mate

One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.A) installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in portB) keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbageC) eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed************(çıkmış soru)D) trapping and/or poisoning the rats

Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.A) stored safely at the work site until work is completedB) returned to the paint locker after each use**************(çıkmış soru)C) covered at all times to protect from ignition sourcesD) stored in a suitable gear locker

What represents poor sanitary procedures?A) Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking) water.B) Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge.************* (bana çıkan soru)C) Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles, dirt may gather.D) After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water of at least 170°F (76.7°C).

Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its safety for drinking?A) NitrogenB) Chlorine************C) CarbonD) Oxygen

Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is __________.A) one******************

B) threeC) sixD) twelve

A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.A) rich to burnB) lean to burn**********C) cool to burnD) dense to burn

Before entering the chain locker, you should __________.A) have someone standing byB) make sure there is sufficient air within the lockerC) de-energize the windlassD) All of the above************

The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.A) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit)***********B) capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)C) capable of supporting a fire once startedD) not safe for ballasting

The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is __________.A) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level)B) capable of supporting combustionC) in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a regular basisD) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)************

The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.A) 0% to 1%B) 1% to 10%****************C) 10% to 15%D) 12% to 20%

The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the __________.A) auto-ignition pointB) flash pointC) lower explosive limit (LEL)**************D) threshold limit value (TLV)

The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________.A) battery fedB) self-containedC) approved explosion proofD) All of the above**************(çıkmış soru)

What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?A) For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate

B) For the instant that it is made*************C) Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopenedD) Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space

What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?A) Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.B) Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.C) Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.D) Use an explosimeter.****************

What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?A) Combustible gas indicatorB) Vapor indicatorC) Atmosphere analyzer kitD) None of the above***********

Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?A) The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content is at least 14% before entry.B) The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not regenerated.************C) The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated for more than 24 hours.D) If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an approved gas mask.

Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?A) A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.B) Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities.C) You should always wear a gas mask.D) After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside.*************

Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?A) A three-cell flashlightB) An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp***********C) A spark resistant and flame retardant lampD) None of the above

All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded to __________.A) prevent them from falling when the vessel rollsB) protect personnel from electrical shock*************C) increase their operating efficiencyD) prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them

Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________.A) be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machineryB) have a guard over the gearing************(çıkmış soru)C) be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order to call attention to the gearingD) not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the machinery

Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?A) 6%

B) 8%***************C) 10%D) 12%

A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in which condition?A) Paints, varnish, or other liquid flammables are stowed in a dry stores locker.B) Inert cargoes such as pig iron are loaded in a wet condition.C) Oily rags are stowed in a metal pail.*************D) Clean mattresses are stored in contact with an electric light bulb.

Accumulations of oily rags should be __________.A) kept in nonmetal containersB) discarded as soon as possible***********C) cleaned thoroughly for reuseD) kept in the paint locker

It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable water tanks to __________.A) filter the incoming airB) prevent explosionsC) prevent backupsD) stop insects from entering************

Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________.A) conspicuously markedB) stowed anywhereC) left on deckD) secured or stowed out of the way*************

Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.A) deteriorate and give off noxious gassesB) spontaneously heat and catch fire*************C) attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding groundD) None of the above

On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.A) Master and Second MateB) Master and Chief Engineer*************C) Master and union delegateD) Master and Chief Mate

One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.A) installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in portB) keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of garbageC) eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is constructed************D) trapping and/or poisoning the rats

Safety is increased if __________.A) extra line and wire are laid out on deck for emergency use

B) all lashings are made up, and the decks are clean and clear********C) power tools are kept plugged in for immediate useD) spare parts are kept on deck for ready access

Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site should be __________.A) used only under the supervision and direction of a ship's officerB) tightly capped and stowed with other tools near the job site when securing at the end of the dayC) used only when a pressurized fire hose is laid out ready for immediate useD) in a metal container with a tight cap************

The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?A) Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches fire is difficult to extinguish.****************B) In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury hazard to a person of average or more height.C) They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in combating deep fat fryer or range fires.D) They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable material to the ignition point.

Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when __________.A) using a rotary grinder with an installed shieldB) letting go the anchorC) handling wire rope or natural fiber line***********D) painting with a spray gun

When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of safety gear is __________.A) a hard hatB) glovesC) goggles***********D) a long sleeve shirt

When using a pneumatic chipping tool all of the following are TRUE except?A) The equipment is not required to be grounded to prevent shock hazard.B) It is not intended to be used in an explosive atmosphere.C) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter.************D) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.

Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE?A) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.*****B) The equipment must be grounded to prevent shock hazard.C) The chipping mechanism is made of non-sparking material that is safe to use near explosive atmospheres.D) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter.

A fuel-air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too __________.A) rich to burnB) lean to burn***********C) cool to burnD) dense to burn

Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.A) over an electrically heated platinum filament***************

B) where it is mixed with nitrogenC) where it is ignited by a sparking deviceD) where its specific gravity is measured

Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.A) 16%B) 18%C) 21%*************D) 25%

What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?A) For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificateB) For the instant that it is made**********C) Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are reopenedD) Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor content in the space

Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleaned fish hold?A) Lack of oxygenB) Methane gasC) Hydrogen sulfide gasD) Carbon monoxide**************

Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?A) The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content is at least 14% before entry.B) The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not regenerated.**************C) The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated for more than 24 hours.D) If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an approved gas mask.

Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?A) A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the tank with you.B) Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities.C) You should always wear a gas mask.D) After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside.*******

Paints and solvents on a vessel should be __________.A) stored safely in a cool dark non-ventilated area until work is completedB) resealed and returned to a well ventilated area after each use********C) covered at all times to protect from ignition sourcesD) stored in a suitable gear locker

A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, you should secure the line __________.A) to the base of the foremastB) to the forward-most bitts***********C) to the forward part of the deckhouseD) at the stern

A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?A) Shift weight to the bow

B) Shift weight to the center of the boatC) Shift weight to the stern***************D) Throw excess weight overboard

A tug is approaching a broken down steamer in moderately heavy weather preparing to take it in tow. In most cases the __________.A) steamer will drift stern downwindB) tug will drift faster than the steamerC) tug should approach stern toD) tug should approach from downwind*************

You are approaching a steamer that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, you must __________.A) compare the rate of drift between the ships***********B) install chafing gear on the towlineC) secure the bitter end of the towing hawser to prevent loss if the tow is slippedD) have traveling lizards rigged to guide the towline while it is paid-out

You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway?A) Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is just clear of the water, then reduce speed to that necessary to keep the line clear of the water.B) If the towline is properly adjusted and weighted you can order slow or dead slow and the towline will act as a spring to absorb the initial shock.

D) Order minimum turns until the catenary almost breaks the water, then stop. Order more turns as the hawser slackens but keep the catenary in the water.**************

You are on a vessel that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?A) The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be just forward of your bow.B) The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be immediately astern of the towing vessel.C) The strain of the tow is taken by the riding pawl, chain stopper, and anchor windlass brake.***************D) The anchor cable should be led out through a chock, if possible, to avoid a sharp nip at the hawsepipe lip.

You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances __________.A) the towing vessel should slip first**********B) the vessel towed should slip firstC) they should slip simultaneouslyD) either vessel may slip first

You have taken another vessel in tow at sea. You can tell that the towing speed is too fast when the __________.A) vessels are not in stepB) tow line feels like it is "jumping" when touchedC) catenary comes clear of the water**********D) towed vessel goes "in irons"

In time of war Naval Control of Shipping Authorities may give orders concerning the __________.A) cargo to be loadedB) final destinationC) ship's route***********D) All of the above

A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take?A) Immediately put the rudder over hard right.

C) Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is taut and then continue at that speed until towing speed is attained.

B) Immediately put the rudder over hard left.*********C) Immediately put the engines astern.D) Wait until the stern is well clear of the man and then put the rudder over hard right.

A person who sees someone fall overboard should __________.A) immediately jump into the water to assist the individualB) call for help and keep the individual in sight**********C) run to the radio room to send an emergency messageD) go to the bridge for the distress flares

On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, you should __________.A) immediately reverse the enginesB) stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side***C) increase speed to full to get the vessel away from the personD) first put the rudder hard over in either direction

One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY __________. See ReferenceA) apply left rudderB) throw the crew member a life preserver**********C) begin backing your engines

D) position your vessel to windward and begin recoveryThe key to rescuing a man overboard is __________.A) good equipmentB) a dedicated crewC) well-conducted drills*********D) good communication

Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.A) it is faster***************B) it can be used in both the immediate action and the delayed action situationsC) in fog, if the turn is started as soon as the man goes over, the vessel will be at the point where he went over when the turn is completedD) it returns the vessel to the original track line on a reciprocal course

The maneuver which will return your vessel in the shortest time to a person who has fallen overboard is __________.A) a single turn with hard rudder*********B) engine(s) crash astern, no turnC) a Williamson TurnD) two 180° turns

The Scharnow turn should be used in a man overboard situation only when __________.A) the man can be kept in sight from the bridge while maneuveringB) the turn is started immediately when the man goes overC) there has been sufficient time elapsed since the man went over to complete the maneuver**************D) the vessel has twin screws to assist in making the turn

The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if __________.A) the man is reported missing rather than immediately seen as he falls overboard

B) the vessel is very maneuverable*************C) the conning officer is inexperiencedD) a boat will be used to recover the man

When making a Scharnow turn, the __________.A) rudder must be put over towards the side the man went overB) initial turn direction is away from the side the man went overC) rudder is put hard over and the initial turn is maintained until about 240° from the original course***************D) man overboard must be not more than 300 feet astern when starting the turn

A racetrack turn would be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard if __________.A) the man has been missing for a period of timeB) the sea water is very cold and the man is visible***********C) there is thick fogD) the wind was from astern on the original course

Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE?A) It requires the highest degree of shiphandling skills to accomplish******B) It is the slowest of the methods used in turning the vessel.C) It is the best turn to use when the victim is not in sight due to reduced visibility.D) It returns the vessel to the original track-line on a reciprocal course.

Which statement is FALSE, concerning the Williamson turn?A) In a large vessel (VLCC) much of the headway will be lost thereby requiring little astern maneuvering.B) When the turn is completed, the vessel will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the original track line.C) The initial actions are taken at well defined points and reduce the need for individual judgment.D) The turn will return the vessel to the man's location in the shortest possible time******************

While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?A) figure eight turnB) Round turnC) Racetrack turnD) Williamson turn***********

You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. You should __________.A) put the rudder amidships and check the swingB) stop the engines and prepare to maneuver to pick up the man in the waterC) shift your rudder***************D) increase to maximum speed

You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?A) Stop the engines until clear of the man**************B) Come right full rudder until the vessel heads 150°T.C) Shift the helm to left full rudder.D) Continue with left rudder until on course 270°T.

A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a lifeboat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the lifeboat should make __________.A) an approach from leeward

B) an approach from windwardC) the most direct approach*************D) an approach across the wind

When a man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat, the boat should approach with the wind __________.A) astern and the victim just off the bowB) ahead and the victim just off the bowC) just off the bow and the victim to windwardD) just off the bow and the victim to leeward************

You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach?A) To windward of the disabled vessel****************B) To leeward of the disabled vesselC) Directly astern of the disabled vesselD) At three times the drifting speed of the disabled vessel

You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons a small craft should approach with the __________.A) victim to leewardB) victim to windward***********C) wind on your port sideD) wind on your starboard side

You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE?A) You should stop to windward of the survivors in the water and only use the ship's boats to recover the survivors.B) If the survivors are in inflatable rafts you should approach from windward to create a lee for the survivors.C) An inflatable liferaft secured alongside can be an effective boarding station for transfer of survivors from the boats************D) Survivors in the water should never be permitted alongside due to the possibility of injury from the vessel.

You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?A) Steering a zigzag course with 5 to 10 minutes on each legB) Making smoke in daylight************C) Dumping debris over the side to make a trail to your vesselD) Continuous ringing of the general alarm

You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your ship more visible to the survivors?A) Steering a sinuous courseB) Steering a zig-zag courseC) Turning on all available deck lights at night**********D) Dumping debris over the side to make a trail to your vessel

You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. You should approach __________.A) to leeward of the wrecked vesselB) at a speed of at most one-half that of the wrecked vesselC) at a speed of at least that of the wrecked vesselD) to windward of the wrecked vessel*************

A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?A) Expanding circle

B) Sector search************C) Parallel track patternD) Datum-drift search

The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should display by night __________.A) deck lights forward and aftB) a white light over two red lightsC) a red light, white light, and blue light in a vertical lineD) a distinctive signal promulgated by the CSS***********

The Coordinator Surface Search in a SAR situation should display by day __________.A) the code flags FR************B) a black ball over a black diamond shapeC) code flag Quebec over a black ballD) two black diamond shapes in a vertical line

The most probable position of the object of a search at any given time is the __________.A) datum position************B) incident positionC) reported positionD) dead-reckoning position

Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases would this NOT be true?A) The vessel would arrive at the distress scene more than 36 hours after the receipt of the initial distress message.B) There are vessels closer to the distress scene that are proceeding to assist.C) The Master of the vessel in distress has requisitioned another vessel, and that vessel has accepted the requisition.*************D) You are on a tank vessel and the distress involves a major fire on board the other vessel.

When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should normally be which of the following?A) In the same direction as the anticipated drift************B) In the opposite direction of the anticipated driftC) Perpendicular to the line of anticipated driftD) Downwind

You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?A) Sector searchB) Expanding square**********C) Track crawlD) Parallel track search

You should conduct a sector search under which of the following circumstances?A) The search target is sighted and then lost************B) More than one vessel is available for a search.C) The search object is a target that will be readily detected by radar.D) An aircraft is available to assist a surface vessel.

A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least __________.A) 6 feet of clear deck

B) 10 feet of clear deckC) 25 feet of clear deckD) 50 feet of clear deck***********-(metre versiyonuna da uyarlayınız)

When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be __________.A) stopped with the wind dead aheadB) stopped with the wind on the beamC) underway with the wind 30° on the bow***********D) underway on a course to provide no apparent wind

When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?A) With the wind dead ahead because the helicopter is more maneuverable when going into the wind.B) A course that will have the hoist area in the lee of the superstructure.C) Downwind so that the apparent wind is close to nil.D) A course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist area****************

When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?A) The vessel should be stopped with the wind dead ahead during the hoisting operation.B) Flags should be flown to provide a visual reference as to the direction of the apparent wind.************C) The drop line should be grounded first then secured as close to the hoist point as possible.D) The hoist area should be located as far aft as possible so the pilot will have a visual reference while approaching.

When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?A) Evacuation should be from an area forward of the bridge.B) The vessel should be slowed to bare steerageway.C) If the hoist is at the stern, booms extending aft at the stern should be cradled with the topping lifts hove taut.D) The litter should not be touched until it has been grounded*************

You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE?A) The ship should be stopped with the wind off the beam while the helicopter is hovering overhead.B) The basket or stretcher must not be allowed to touch the deck.C) The tending line of the litter basket should be secured to the ship beyond the radius of the helicopter blades.D) The hoist line should be slack before the basket or stretcher is hooked on*************

You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE?A) The ship's relative wind should be from dead ahead at 10 to 30 knots.B) The deck crew at the hoist point should not wear baseball hats********C) The helicopter's drop line should be secured to the ship not more than 15 feet from the hoist position.D) When using a "horse collar", the bight of the loop should be around the chest of the injured seaman.

An electronic or electric device that indicates the rate of turn of a vessel, defines a/an _________. A) magnetic compassB) gyro-compassC) swing meter*****D) odometer

A compass card without north-seeking capability that is used for relative bearings is a(n) __________. A) bearing circleB) pelorus****C) bearing barD) alidade

A Doppler log in the bottom return mode indicates the __________. A) velocity of the currentB) bottom characteristicsC) depth of the waterD) speed over the ground*****

A Doppler log in the volume reverberation mode indicates __________. A) speed being made goodB) speed through the water*****C) the set of the currentD) the depth of the water

A Doppler speed log indicates speed over ground __________. A) at all timesB) in the bottom return mode****C) in the volume reverberation modeD) only when there is no current

A Doppler speed log indicates speed through the water __________. A) at all timesB) in the bottom return modeC) in the volume reverberation mode*****D) only when there is no current

A hand held instrument used to measure distances between objects and the ship is a __________. A) vernierB) psychrometerC) hygrometerD) stadimeter****

The accuracy of an azimuth circle can be checked by __________. A) sighting a terrestrial range in line and comparing the observed bearing against the charted bearingB) aligning the relative bearing markings so that 000° is on the lubber's line and the line of sight passes over the center of the compassC) ensuring that the alignment marks on the inner face of the circle are in line with those on the repeater on relative bearings of 000° and 090°

D) comparing observed azimuths at different altitudes with computed values at the times of observation to see if the difference is constant****

What will NOT induce errors into a Doppler sonar log? A) Increased draft*****B) PitchC) RollD) Change in trim

Which form of navigation may be suspended without notice under defense planning? A) electronic******B) celestialC) pilotingD) None of the above

A hygrometer is a device used for determining __________. A) the absolute temperatureB) atmospheric pressureC) wind velocityD) relative humidity***

A microbarograph is a precision instrument that provides a __________. A) charted record of atmospheric temperature over timeB) charted record of atmospheric pressure over time*******C) graphic record of combustible gases measured in an atmosphereD) graphic record of vapor pressure from a flammable/combustible liquid

A psychrometer has two thermometers that provide dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures. By comparing these two temperature readings with a set of tables you can determine the __________. A) atmospheric pressureB) wind speedC) relative humidity and dew point*****D) wind chill factor

A sling psychrometer is a(n) __________. A) type of cargo gearB) instrument used in celestial navigationC) instrument used to measure relative humidity**********D) instrument used to measure specific gravity

A sylphon cell is a part of a __________. A) maximum thermometerB) barograph*****

C) thermographD) hygrometer

An anemometer on a moving vessel measures __________. A) apparent wind speed only******B) true wind speed and true wind directionC) true wind speed onlyD) apparent wind speed and true wind direction

An aneroid barometer is an instrument __________. A) used to measure the speed of windB) in which the pressure of the air is measured*****C) that tells which direction a storm is coming fromD) used to measure the height of waves

An aneroid barometer on a boat should always be __________. A) located in an air-conditioned areaB) mounted in the passenger compartmentC) protected by a collision bulkheadD) permanently mounted*****

An aneroid barometer reading should be corrected for differences in __________. A) elevation*****B) temperatureC) wind speedD) latitude

An instrument designed to maintain a continuous record of atmospheric pressure is a(n) __________. A) mercurial barometerB) aneroid barometerC) barograph*****D) thermograph

An instrument that indicates wind direction is known as a(n) __________. A) weather vane, wind vane or wind sock*****B) hydrometerC) hygrometerD) sling psychrometer

An instrument that maintains a continuous record of humidity changes is called a __________. A) thermometer

B) barometerC) hygrograph****D) thermograph

An instrument useful in predicting fog is the __________. A) sling psychrometer******B) microbarographC) anemometerD) aneroid barometer

An instrument which maintains a continuous record of temperature changes is called a __________. A) thermometerB) barometerC) thermograph*****D) hygrograph

Aneroid barometers are usually calibrated to indicate atmospheric pressure in __________. A) inches of mercury and centimetersB) feet of mercury and millibarsC) inches of mercury and millimetersD) inches of mercury and millibars******

Apparent wind speed blowing across your vessel while underway can be measured by a(n) __________. A) barometerB) wind vaneC) anemometer******D) thermometer

Atmospheric pressure may be measured with a(n) __________. A) barographB) aneroid barometerC) mercurial barometerD) All of the above*******

Barometer readings in weather reports are given in terms of pressure at __________. A) sea level*****B) Washington, D.C.C) the weather stationD) the broadcasting station

For an accurate barometer check, you would __________.

A) check it with a barometer on another vesselB) take readings from several barometers and average themC) check it with the barometer at the ship chandleryD) check it against radio or National Weather Service reports of the immediate vicinity********

In a microbarograph, the pen should be checked and the inkwell filled __________. A) each time the chart is changed*******B) once per monthC) once per weekD) daily

On what does the operation of an aneroid barometer depend? A) Thin, metal, air tight cell******B) Curved tube containing alcoholC) Column of mercury supported by atmospheric pressureD) Expansion of mercury in a closed tube

Prior to reading an aneroid barometer, you should tap the face lightly with your finger to __________. A) expose any loose connectionsB) demagnetize the metal elementsC) bring the pointer to its true position********D) contract and expand the glass face

Scales on aneroid barometers are usually graduated in inches of mercury in the general range of __________. A) 26 to 29 inchesB) 28 to 31 inches******C) 30 to 33 inchesD) 32 to 35 inches

The barometer is an instrument for measuring the __________. A) temperatureB) relative humidityC) dew pointD) atmospheric pressure*****

The correction(s) which must be applied to an aneroid barometer reading include(s) __________. A) height error*********B) gravity errorC) temperature errorD) All of the above

The instrument most commonly used to gather the data for determining the relative humidity is the __________.

A) hydrometerB) psychrometer*****C) barometerD) anemometer

The most important information to be obtained from a barometer is the __________. A) difference between the reading of the two pointers, which shows wind directionB) last two figures of the reading of the pointer, such as .87, .76, or .92C) present reading of the pressure, combined with the changes in pressure observed in the recent past********D) weather indications printed on the dial (such as "cold, wet, etc.") under the pointer

The passing of a low pressure system can be determined by periodically checking the __________. A) thermometerB) hygrometerC) barometer****D) anemometer

The pressure-sensitive element of an aneroid barometer is called a __________. A) pressure bellowsB) sylphon cell*****C) column of mercuryD) constant pressure capsule

The purpose of the "set" hand on an aneroid barometer is to __________. A) adjust the barometerB) indicate any change in the reading of the barometer******C) provide a correction for height above sea levelD) provide a correction for temperature changes

To avoid error you should read the scale of an aneroid barometer with your eye placed __________. A) to the right of the pointerB) to the left of the pointerC) directly in front of the pointer*****D) slightly above the meniscus

What instrument measures wind velocity? A) HydrometerB) BarometerC) PsychrometerD) Anemometer*****

What is TRUE concerning an anemometer on a moving vessel? A) It measures true wind speed.B) It measures true wind speed and true wind direction.C) It measures apparent wind speed.******D) It measures apparent wind speed and true wind direction.

Which correction(s) must be applied to an aneroid barometer? A) Instrument error and height error*****B) Instrument error onlyC) Height error onlyD) Instrument error and latitude correction

Which indication on the barometer is most meaningful in forecasting weather? A) The words "Fair -- Change -- Rain"B) The direction and rate of change of barometric pressure******C) The actual barometric pressureD) The relative humidity

Which instrument is most useful in forecasting fog? A) A barometerB) An anemometerC) A sling psychrometer*****D) A pyrometer

Which instrument is used to measure the relative humidity of the air? A) A hydrometerB) A hygrometer******C) A spectrometerD) A barograph

Which of the following is the most useful factor for predicting weather? A) The present reading of the barometerB) The previous reading of the barometerC) The difference in the barometric readings within the past 24 hoursD) The rate and direction of change of barometric readings******

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) An anemometer measures wind speed.B) A barometer measures atmospheric pressure.C) A thermometer measures temperature.D) A psychrometer measures wind pressure*****

What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing containers?

a. Ties a container stack to the deckb. Ties a container to the container below itc. Restrains racking loadsd. Restrains the container against horizontal motion*************

On an anchor windlass, the wheel over which the anchor chain passes is called a __________.

a. brake compressor wheelb. devil's claw c. Wildcat***************d. winchhead

A rope ladder with wooden rungs is a __________.

a. drop ladder b. life ladderc. Jacob's ladder**************d. jury ladder

Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called __________.

A) faking B) flemishing down C) mousing *************D) worming

A) Every ton of weight bearing on the blocks acts as if a ton of weight was removed at keel level.***************

B) When the ship touches the blocks, the beam for stability purposes increases to the beam of the dry-dock.

The best information on the location of the blocks when dry docking a vessel is contained in the __________.

The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on all of the following EXCEPT __________.

The maritime radio system consisting of a series of coast stations transmitting coastal warnings is called __________.

When determining compass error by an azimuth of Polaris, you enter the Nautical Almanac with the __________.

The values of the Greenwich hour angle and declination, tabulated in all almanacs, are for the __________.

What is the major limitation in using the Sight Reduction Tables for Air Navigation Volume I (Pub. No. 249) for star sights?

The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is __________.

All of the following can be found on a Pilot Chart EXCEPT information concerning the __________.

A chart projection depicting the poles and a small area on either side of a connecting meridian, that is sometimes used for star charts, is the __________.

When using a Lambert conformal chart in high latitudes, angles such as bearings are measured in reference to __________.

When navigating in high latitudes and using a chart based on a Lambert conformal projection, __________.

For what purpose would using a Lambert conformal chart be more convenient than using a Mercator?

You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit?

-Containers should be ventilated, dehumidified, or the contents physically protected against sweat damage.

The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the __________.

Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at a position __________.

Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters. This indicates the __________.

-A vessel with wooden planks on a steel deck will have the deck line marked at the intersection of the upper line of the wood sheathing with the side shell.

A vessel cannot comply with all of the SOLAS requirements due to its construction. Where will this be indicated?

Your vessel has completed an inspection for certification and is issued a Temporary Certificate of Inspection. The Temporary Certificate __________.

You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has expired. You wish to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If the Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue a __________.

Where are the test certificates, for wire rope used as cargo runners, and loose gear certificates usually maintained?

Your vessel is issued a load line certificate dated 27 May 1992. What is NOT an acceptable date for one of the surveys for endorsements?

Your load line certificate expires on 27 May 1988. The vessel is surveyed on that date and is found satisfactory. You are sailing foreign the same day. Which statement is TRUE?

Which device is designed to automatically hold the load if power should fail to an electric winch?

** A periodic thorough examination of the cargo gear proves satisfactory. What percentage of the total gear must be dismantled to determine actual internal condition?

You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

A chart projection depicting the poles and a small area on either side of a connecting meridian, that is sometimes used for star charts, is the __________.

The usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without kinking or fouling is __________.

If a mooring line should part while you are tying up at a dock, you should make a temporary eye by tying a __________.

You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

A) A hole in the hull at the waterline is more dangerous than a hole below the inner bottom.************

C) Water flowing into a lower compartment on a ship is more dangerous than water on deck or flowing into an upper compartment.D) Water flowing over the fo'c'sle bulwark is more dangerous than a hole in the hull at the waterline.

Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.

Your vessel was damaged and initially assumed a significant list and trim; however, further increase has been slow. Based on this data, what should you expect?A) The slowing is only temporary and the vessel will probably suddenly capsize or plunge from loss of stability due to change in the waterplane area.

C) The vessel will continue to slowly list and/or trim due to the free surface effect and free communication effect.D) The vessel will suddenly flop to the same or greater angle of list on the other side and may capsize.

How do you determine the weight of the vessel that is supported by the ground when a vessel has run aground?A) This requires extensive calculation and is usually performed only by a naval architect not by a ship's officer.B) Determine the point where aground and the draft at that point, then calculate it using the grounding formula.C) Use the hydrostatic tables and enter with the mean draft before grounding and the mean draft after grounding.**********

Your vessel has gone aground in waters where the tide is falling. The BEST action you can take is to __________.

A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by __________.

A wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from __________.

After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.

In plugging submerged holes; rags, wedges, and other materials should be used in conjunction with plugs to __________.

The BEST information on the nature and extent of damage to the vessel is obtained from __________.

The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely damaged are to plug the openings or to __________.

The wooden plug inserted in the vent of a damaged tank should be removed if you are going to __________.

When patching holes in the hull, pillows, bedding, and other soft materials can be used as __________.

Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.

You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?A) You can make repairs with permission of the facility owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility.

Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called __________.

B) If a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel should attempt to stop the spinning if the load is within reach.

D) Personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be kept clear of the transfer area.***************

when instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to___________

B) All stores of line, rags, linens and other similar type stores must be certified by UL as being fire retardant.C) Cylinders containing compressed gasses must be constructed and tested in accordance with the Bureau of Standards.

You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What type of matches are permitted aboard?

Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.

On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.

One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.

B) Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in the bilge.************* (bana çıkan soru)

D) After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize them in water of at least 170°F (76.7°C).

Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The number of sanitary inspections required is __________.

A) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit)***********B) capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)

A) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level)

D) incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)************

The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the __________.

The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is __________.

What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?

Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

B) The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not regenerated.************

Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

B) Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities.

D) After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside.*************

Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?

Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or towing engine should __________.A) be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing, the operator can immediately stop the machinery

Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may __________.

On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.

One method of controlling rats on vessels is by rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by __________.

B) In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a head-injury hazard to a person of average or more height.C) They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting systems in combating deep fat fryer or range fires.D) They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise surrounding flammable material to the ignition point.

C) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter.************D) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.

A) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.*****

C) The chipping mechanism is made of non-sparking material that is safe to use near explosive atmospheres.D) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter.

Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.

Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering an empty but uncleaned fish hold?

Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

B) The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that hazardous gasses have not regenerated.**************

Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?

B) Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities.

D) After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance while you are inside.*******

A situation has occurred in which your vessel must be towed. When the towing vessel passes the towing line to you, you should secure the line __________.

A situation has occurred where it becomes necessary for you to be towed. What action should be taken to prevent your vessel from yawing?

A tug is approaching a broken down steamer in moderately heavy weather preparing to take it in tow. In most cases the __________.

You are approaching a steamer that is broken down and are preparing to take her in tow. BEFORE positioning your vessel to pass the towline, you must __________.

You are attempting to take a dead ship in tow. All lines have been passed and secured. How should you get underway?A) Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is just clear of the water, then reduce speed to that necessary to keep the line clear of the water.B) If the towline is properly adjusted and weighted you can order slow or dead slow and the towline will act as a spring to absorb the initial shock.

D) Order minimum turns until the catenary almost breaks the water, then stop. Order more turns as the hawser slackens but keep the catenary in the water.**************

You are on a vessel that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?A) The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be just forward of your bow.B) The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be immediately astern of the towing vessel.C) The strain of the tow is taken by the riding pawl, chain stopper, and anchor windlass brake.***************D) The anchor cable should be led out through a chock, if possible, to avoid a sharp nip at the hawsepipe lip.

You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances __________.

You have taken another vessel in tow at sea. You can tell that the towing speed is too fast when the __________.

In time of war Naval Control of Shipping Authorities may give orders concerning the __________.

C) Order minimum turns until the towing hawser is taut and then continue at that speed until towing speed is attained.

On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, you should __________.

One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY __________. See Reference

Besides saving distance along the track line, another advantage of the Scharnow Turn over the Williamson Turn in a man overboard situation is because __________.

C) in fog, if the turn is started as soon as the man goes over, the vessel will be at the point where he went over when the turn is completed

The maneuver which will return your vessel in the shortest time to a person who has fallen overboard is __________.

C) there has been sufficient time elapsed since the man went over to complete the maneuver**************

The single turn method of returning to a man overboard should be used ONLY if __________.

C) rudder is put hard over and the initial turn is maintained until about 240° from the original course***************

A racetrack turn would be better than a Williamson turn in recovering a man overboard if __________.

A) In a large vessel (VLCC) much of the headway will be lost thereby requiring little astern maneuvering.B) When the turn is completed, the vessel will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the original track line.

D) The turn will return the vessel to the man's location in the shortest possible time******************

While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?

You are doing a Williamson turn. Your vessel has swung about 60° from the original course heading. You should __________.

You are on watch at sea on course 090°T. A man falls overboard on your starboard side. You immediately start a Williamson Turn. Which action is NOT a part of a Williamson Turn?

A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a lifeboat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the lifeboat should make __________.

When a man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a lifeboat, the boat should approach with the wind __________.

You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your approach?

You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh breeze. For safety reasons a small craft should approach with the __________.

You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which statement is TRUE?A) You should stop to windward of the survivors in the water and only use the ship's boats to recover the survivors.B) If the survivors are in inflatable rafts you should approach from windward to create a lee for the survivors.C) An inflatable liferaft secured alongside can be an effective boarding station for transfer of survivors from the boats************D) Survivors in the water should never be permitted alongside due to the possibility of injury from the vessel.

You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts. Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?

You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will make your ship more visible to the survivors?

You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. You should approach __________.

A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?

The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should display by night __________.

Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases would this NOT be true?A) The vessel would arrive at the distress scene more than 36 hours after the receipt of the initial distress message.

C) The Master of the vessel in distress has requisitioned another vessel, and that vessel has accepted the requisition.*************

When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of the search units should normally be which of the following?

You are proceeding to the area of reported distress. When you arrive at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not sighted. What type of search should be conducted?

A) With the wind dead ahead because the helicopter is more maneuverable when going into the wind.

B) Flags should be flown to provide a visual reference as to the direction of the apparent wind.************

D) The hoist area should be located as far aft as possible so the pilot will have a visual reference while approaching.

C) If the hoist is at the stern, booms extending aft at the stern should be cradled with the topping lifts hove taut.

A) The ship should be stopped with the wind off the beam while the helicopter is hovering overhead.

C) The tending line of the litter basket should be secured to the ship beyond the radius of the helicopter blades.

You must medevac a critically injured seaman by helicopter hoist. Which statement is TRUE?

C) The helicopter's drop line should be secured to the ship not more than 15 feet from the hoist position.D) When using a "horse collar", the bight of the loop should be around the chest of the injured seaman.

An electronic or electric device that indicates the rate of turn of a vessel, defines a/an _________.

A compass card without north-seeking capability that is used for relative bearings is a(n) __________.

A hand held instrument used to measure distances between objects and the ship is a __________.

A) sighting a terrestrial range in line and comparing the observed bearing against the charted bearingB) aligning the relative bearing markings so that 000° is on the lubber's line and the line of sight passes over the center of the compassC) ensuring that the alignment marks on the inner face of the circle are in line with those on the repeater on relative bearings of 000° and 090°

D) comparing observed azimuths at different altitudes with computed values at the times of observation to see if the difference is constant****

A psychrometer has two thermometers that provide dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures. By comparing these two temperature readings with a set of tables you can determine the __________.

An instrument designed to maintain a continuous record of atmospheric pressure is a(n) __________.

An instrument that maintains a continuous record of humidity changes is called a __________.

An instrument which maintains a continuous record of temperature changes is called a __________.

Aneroid barometers are usually calibrated to indicate atmospheric pressure in __________.

Apparent wind speed blowing across your vessel while underway can be measured by a(n) __________.

D) check it against radio or National Weather Service reports of the immediate vicinity********

Prior to reading an aneroid barometer, you should tap the face lightly with your finger to __________.

Scales on aneroid barometers are usually graduated in inches of mercury in the general range of __________.

The correction(s) which must be applied to an aneroid barometer reading include(s) __________.

The instrument most commonly used to gather the data for determining the relative humidity is the __________.

C) present reading of the pressure, combined with the changes in pressure observed in the recent past********D) weather indications printed on the dial (such as "cold, wet, etc.") under the pointer

The passing of a low pressure system can be determined by periodically checking the __________.

To avoid error you should read the scale of an aneroid barometer with your eye placed __________.

On an anchor windlass, the wheel over which the anchor chain passes is called a __________.

Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from slipping out of the hook is called __________.

You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit?

The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the __________.

You are in port A in the United States, and your Certificate of Inspection has expired. You wish to go to port B in the United States for repairs and to complete the inspection. If the Officer-in-Charge Marine Inspection deems it safe, he may issue a __________.

Your vessel has been loaded in a sagging condition. Enroute you encounter heavy weather and notice buckling in the midships deck plating of your vessel. To relieve the strain you could __________.

You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

You have a large, broken-down vessel in tow with a wire rope and anchor cable towline. Both vessels have made provision for slipping the tow in an emergency; however, unless there are special circumstances __________.

A psychrometer has two thermometers that provide dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures. By comparing these two temperature readings with a set of tables you can determine the __________.

A barometer showing falling pressure indicates the approach of a __________. A) high pressure systemB) low pressure system***C) high dew pointD) low dew point

A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a(n) __________. A) tornadoB) anticycloneC) occluded cyclone or occluded front*****D) polar cyclone

A generally circular low pressure area is called a(n) __________. A) cyclone******B) anticycloneC) cold frontD) occluded front

A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________. A) the "trade winds"B) a low front or an occluded frontC) a high pressure area; an anticyclone; or a "high"*********D) the "doldrums"

A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________. A) the "trade winds"B) an anticyclone**********C) a low front or an occluded frontD) the "doldrums"

A warm air mass is characterized by __________. A) stability*************B) instabilityC) gusty windsD) good visibility

Air temperature varies with __________.

A) the altitude above sea levelB) the season of the yearC) the latitude or distance from the equatorD) All of the above********

An air mass is termed "warm" if __________. A) it is above 70°FB) the ground over which it moves is cooler than the air*******C) it originated in a high pressure areaD) it originated in a low pressure area

Anticyclones are usually characterized by __________. A) dry, fair weather****B) high winds and cloudinessC) gustiness and continuous precipitationD) overcast skies

Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of an important heat transmitting process in our atmosphere called __________. A) conductionB) radiationC) convection******D) barometric inversion

Compared to a low pressure system, generally the air in a high is __________. A) warmer, less dense, and less stableB) cool, more dense, and drier********C) muggy and cloudyD) extremely moist with high relative humidity

Cyclones tend to move __________. A) perpendicular to the isobars in their warm sectorsB) parallel to the isobars in their warm sectors**********C) parallel to the line of the cold frontD) perpendicular to the line of the cold front

Cyclones that have warm sectors usually move __________. A) westerlyB) parallel to the isobars in the warm sector**********

C) toward the nearest high pressure areaD) faster than the accompanying cold front

Good weather is usually associated with a region of __________. A) low barometric pressureB) high barometric pressure**********C) falling barometric pressureD) pumping barometric pressure

Hot air can hold __________. A) less moisture than cold airB) more moisture than cold air*********C) the same amount of moisture as cold airD) moisture independent of air temperature

In a cyclone the lowest pressure is found in the __________. A) center*********B) outer edgeC) warm frontD) cold front

In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation surrounded by higher pressure is a __________. A) low********B) highC) warm frontD) cold front

In the Southern Hemisphere the wind circulation in a high pressure system rotates __________. A) clockwise and inwardB) clockwise and outwardC) counterclockwise and outward**************D) counterclockwise and inward

Stormy weather is usually associated with regions of __________. A) low barometric pressure*********B) high barometric pressureC) steady barometric pressureD) changing barometric pressure

Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass due to __________. A) pressure changes in the air massB) movement of the air mass**************C) the heterogeneous nature of the air massD) upper level atmospheric changes

The atmosphere in the vicinity of a high pressure area is called a(n) __________. A) anticyclone*********B) cold frontC) occluded frontD) cyclone

The process by which the temperature and/or moisture characteristics of an air mass changes is called __________. A) sublimation or condensationB) modification************C) consolidationD) association

The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is __________. A) counterclockwise and moving towards the highB) counterclockwise and moving outward from the highC) clockwise and moving towards the highD) clockwise and moving outward from the high***********

The wind direction around a low pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is __________. A) clockwise and inwardB) clockwise and outwardC) counterclockwise and inwardD) counterclockwise and outward

Warm air masses will generally have __________. A) turbulence within the massB) stratiform clouds*********C) heavy precipitationD) good visibility

Weather systems in the middle latitudes generally travel from __________. A) east to west

B) north to southC) west to east*********D) None of the above

When a low pressure area is approaching, the weather generally __________. A) improvesB) worsens***********C) remains the sameD) is unpredictable

Which of the listed properties does warm air possess? A) It rises above cooler air and cools as it rises.B) Atmospheric pressure drops as warm air rises.C) Moisture in warm air condenses as the air is cooled.D) All of the above*******

You are located within a stationary high pressure area. Your aneroid barometer is falling very slowly. This indicates a(n) __________. A) wind shift of 180°B) large increase in wind velocityC) decrease in the pressure of the system***********D) increase in the intensity of the system

According to Buys Ballot's law, when an observer in the Northern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center of low pressure is located to the __________. A) northeast*****B) west-southwestC) northwestD) south-southeast

According to Buys Ballot's Law, when an observer in the Southern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center of the low pressure is located to the __________. A) east-northeastB) south-southwest*********C) east-southeastD) west-southwest

A cloud of marked vertical development (often anvil-shaped) would be classified as __________. A) cirrusB) cirrocumulusC) altocumulusD) cumulonimbus*********

A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the ground, is called __________. A) cumulusB) nimbusC) stratus*******D) cirrus

A sign of thunderstorm development is a cumulus cloud __________. A) darkening, growing in size and forming an anvil topB) that shows extensive vertical developmentC) creating cold downdrafts that are felt on the groundD) All of the above********

A thin, whitish, high cloud popularly known as "mares' tails" is __________. A) altostratusB) stratusC) cumulusD) cirrus*******

A type of precipitation that occurs only in thunderstorms with strong convection currents that convey raindrops above and below the freezing level is known as __________. A) sleetB) hail**********C) freezing rainD) rime

All of the following are associated with cumulonimbus clouds EXCEPT __________. A) steady rainfall**************B) hail stormsC) thunderstormsD) tornadoes or waterspouts

Altocumulus clouds are defined as __________. A) high cloudsB) middle clouds**********C) low cloudsD) vertical development clouds

An "atoll cloud" forming over an island due to heating of the land during the daytime would be which type?

A) CirrusB) Cumulus********C) StratusD) Nimbus

Cirrus clouds are composed primarily of __________. A) ice crystals**********B) water dropletsC) snow crystalsD) nitrogen

Cloud formations are minimal when the __________. A) surface temperature and temperature aloft are equal**********B) surface temperature and temperature aloft differ greatlyC) barometric pressure is very lowD) relative humidity is very high

Clouds are classified according to their __________. A) sizeB) moisture contentC) altitude and how they were formed******D) location in a front

Clouds form __________. A) as a mass of warm, humid air rises into the atmosphere and cools, condensing moisture into small droplets********B) as winds blow across bodies of water, the sun causes the moisture to be absorbed and move upward forming cloudsC) dry air compresses moisture from the atmosphere into cloudsD) when the relative humidity of the atmosphere is low

Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering either small or large portions of the sky are __________. A) cirrusB) cirrostratusC) altostratusD) cirrocumulus*******

Clouds with the prefix "nimbo" in their name __________. A) are sheet or layer cloudsB) have undergone great vertical developmentC) are middle or high altitude clouds

D) are rain clouds*********

Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by __________. A) vertical air movements*********B) heavy rainstormsC) horizontal air movementsD) any movement of moist air

Cumulonimbus clouds can produce __________. A) dense fog and high humidityB) gusty winds, thunder, rain or hail, and lightning*********C) clear skies with the approach of a cold frontD) a rapid drop in barometric pressure followed by darkness

Cumulus clouds that have undergone vertical development and have become cumulonimbus in form, indicate __________. A) clearing weatherB) that a warm front has passedC) probable thunderstorm activity*********D) an approaching hurricane or typhoon

From which type of cloud can a tornado or waterspout develop? A) NimbostratusB) AltostratusC) Cumulonimbus******D) Cirrus

High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and often banded together to form a "mackerel sky", would be classified as __________. A) cirrusB) cirrocumulus********C) altostratusD) cumulonimbus

If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate __________. A) rainB) hurricane weatherC) fair weather***D) fog setting in

In many areas "atoll" clouds (clouds of vertical development) are produced over small islands. These are the result of __________.

A) rising air currents produced by the warm islands****B) warm air from the sea rising over higher land areasC) cool land air mixing with warm sea airD) descending air over the islands

On a clear, warm day, you notice the approach of a tall cumulus cloud. The cloud top has hard well defined edges and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. Should this cloud pass directly overhead __________. A) it will be preceded by a sudden increase in wind speed*********B) it will be preceded by a sudden decrease in wind speedC) the wind speed will not change as it passesD) the wind will back rapidly to left in a counterclockwise direction as it passes

Small, visible mound-like protuberances on the bottom of cumulonimbus clouds, that are potential breeding grounds for waterspouts and tornadoes, are called __________. A) thunderheadsB) mamma*********C) rimeD) ice prisms

The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea would be accompanied by which of the following conditions? A) Rain and poor visibility********B) Dropping barometric pressure and backing wind in the Northern HemisphereC) High winds and rising seaD) Severe thunderstorms

The bases of middle clouds are located at altitudes of between __________. A) 3,000 to 6,500 feet (914 to 1981 meters)B) 6,500 to 20,000 feet (1981 to 6096 meters)*********C) 10,000 to 35,000 feet (3048 to 10,668 meters)D) 20,000 to 60,000 feet (6096 to 18,288 meters)

The low, dark, sheet-like cloud which is associated with continuous precipitation for many hours is a __________. A) cirrus cloudB) cumulus cloudC) cumulonimbus cloudD) nimbostratus cloud****

The presence of stratus clouds and a dying wind will usually result in __________. A) heavy rainB) heavy snow

C) thick fog********D) clearing skies

Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes, are called __________. A) altostratus******B) altocumulusC) cirrostratusD) cirrocumulus

What occurs when rising air cools to the dew point? A) Advection fog formsB) Humidity decreasesC) Winds increaseD) Clouds form****

Which cloud commonly produces a halo about the Sun or Moon? A) Cirrostratus*********B) CirrocumulusC) AltostratusD) Altocumulus

Which cloud type is normally associated with thunderstorms? A) CirrusB) StratusC) CumulusD) Cumulonimbus********

Which list of clouds is in sequence, from highest to lowest in the sky? A) Altostratus, cirrostratus, stratusB) Cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus**********C) Stratus, cirrostratus, altostratusD) Altostratus, stratus, cirrostratus

Which type of cloud formation should be of immediate concern to small craft operators? A) cirrusB) altostratusC) nimbostratusD) cumulonimbus********

Which type of cloud is among the most dependable for giving an indication of an approaching weather system? A) CumulusB) Altostratus********C) CumulostratusD) Nimbus

Which type of cloud is composed entirely of ice crystals and is found at very high altitudes? A) CumulusB) Cirrus*********C) StratusD) Nimbostratus

Which type of cloud is the classic "thunderhead"? A) Cumulonimbus********B) StratusC) CirrusD) Altostratus

Which type of weather could you expect soon after seeing "hook" or "comma" shaped cirrus clouds? A) Rain with the approach of a warm front********B) Clearing with the approach of a cold frontC) Continuing fog and rainD) The formation of a tropical depression

Advection fog is most commonly caused by __________. A) air being warmed above the dew pointB) saturation of cold air by rainC) a rapid cooling of the air near the surface of the Earth at nightD) warm moist air being blown over a colder surface*******

Advection fog may be formed by warm moist air passing over a __________. A) warmer sea surfaceB) cooler sea surface******C) dry coastal plainD) polar land mass

As the temperature of the air reaches the dew point, __________. A) rain must develop

B) fog may form***********C) it begins to snowD) water freezes

Fog forms when the air __________. A) is 50% water saturatedB) is 90% water saturatedC) temperature is greater than the dew point temperatureD) temperature is equal to, or below the dew point temperature********

Fog forms when the air temperature is at or below __________. A) 32° FB) the wet bulb temperatureC) the dew point*********D) the dry bulb temperature

Fog generally clears when the __________. A) wind speed increasesB) wind direction changesC) temperature increasesD) All of the above*****

Fog is formed when __________. A) the moisture in the air is condensed into small dropletsB) air is cooled to its dew pointC) the base of a cloud is on the groundD) All of the above*********

Fog is likely to occur when there is little difference between the dew point and the __________. A) relative humidityB) air temperature*********C) barometric pressureD) absolute humidity

Fog is most commonly associated with a(n) __________. A) warm front at night**********B) low pressure areaC) anticycloneD) cold front in the spring

In a weather report, the term "visibility" expresses __________. A) how far you can see with the "naked eye"B) how far you can see with a telescope or binocularsC) how well you can identify an object at nightD) the distance in miles at which prominent objects are identifiable*********

Radiation fog __________. A) always forms over waterB) is formed by a temperature inversion*********C) is thinnest at the surfaceD) dissipates during the evening

Steam smoke will occur when __________. A) extremely cold air from shore passes over warmer water*********B) warm dry air from shore passes over cooler waterC) cold ocean water evaporates into warm airD) cool rain passes through a warm air mass

The fog most commonly encountered at sea is called __________. A) conduction fogB) radiation fogC) frontal fogD) advection fog********

The fog produced by warm moist air passing over a cold surface is called __________. A) conduction fogB) radiation fogC) frontal fogD) advection fog*********

The type of fog that occurs on clear nights with very light breezes and forms when the earth cools rapidly by radiation is known as __________. A) radiation fog**********B) frontal fogC) convection fogD) advection fog

What will act to dissipate fog?

A) Upwelling cold waterB) Advection of warm air over a colder surfaceC) Rain that is warmer than airD) Downslope motion of an air mass along a coast********

When compared to air temperature, which factor is most useful in predicting fog? See Reference A) Vapor pressureB) Dew point**********C) Barometric pressureD) Absolute humidity

When warm moist air blows over a colder surface and is cooled below its dew point, the result is __________. A) radiation fogB) ice fogC) advection fog********D) frost smoke

Which condition would most likely result in fog? A) Warm moist air blowing over cold water**********B) Airborne dust particlesC) Warm moist air blowing over warm waterD) Dew point falling below the air temperature

Which of the following is TRUE of advection fog? A) It commonly occurs on coastal waters during cold seasons.B) It moves in a bank or dense cloud.C) It is caused by warmer air moving to a cooler location.D) All of the above***

Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel? A) Visibility*********B) TemperatureC) Wind directionD) Atmospheric pressure

Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel? A) relative humidityB) temperatureC) true wind speed***********

D) atmospheric pressure

Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel? A) Relative humidityB) Cloud base height*********C) TemperatureD) Atmospheric pressure

Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel? A) Relative humidityB) Atmospheric pressureC) TemperatureD) Wave period********

While on watch, you notice that the air temperature is dropping and is approaching the dew point. Which type of weather should be forecasted? A) HailB) Heavy rainC) SleetD) Fog*********

A boundary between two air masses is a(n) __________. A) lapse rateB) isobarC) front********D) continent

A cloud sequence of cirrus, cirrostratus, and altostratus clouds followed by rain usually signifies the approach of a(n) __________. A) occluded frontB) stationary frontC) warm front*********D) cold front

A cold front moving in from the northwest can produce __________. A) thunderstorms, hail, and then rapid clearing************B) increasing cloud cover lasting for several daysC) lengthy wet weatherD) low ceilings with thick cirrus clouds

A frontal thunderstorm is caused by __________.

A) pronounced local heatingB) wind being pushed up a mountainC) a warm air mass rising over a cold air mass*************D) an increased lapse rate caused by advection of warm surface air

A line of clouds, sharp changes in wind direction, and squalls are most frequently associated with a(n) __________. A) occluded frontB) warm frontC) cold front***D) warm sector

A series of brief showers accompanied by strong, shifting winds may occur along or some distance ahead of a(n) __________. A) upper front aloftB) cycloneC) occluded frontD) cold front*********

A weather front exists when __________. A) air masses of the same temperature meetB) air masses of different temperatures meet********C) many clouds create a differential in air densityD) two lows are separated by a ridge of higher pressure

After a cold front passes the barometric pressure usually __________. A) fluctuatesB) remains the sameC) remains the same, with clouds forming rapidlyD) rises, often quite rapidly, with clearing skies*******

After a cold front passes, the barometric pressure __________. A) drops, and the temperature dropsB) drops, and the temperature risesC) rises, and the temperature drops*********D) rises, and the temperature rises

After the passage of a cold front the visibility_______. _ A) does not changeB) improves rapidly*********

C) improves only slightlyD) becomes poor

An occluded front is caused by a(n) __________. A) low pressure areaB) high pressure areaC) area of calm airD) cold front overtaking a warm front***********

An occluded front is usually caused by a __________. A) cold front becoming stationaryB) warm front becoming stationaryC) cold front overtaking a warm front********D) warm front dissipating

As a cold front passes an observer, pressure __________. A) drops and winds become variableB) rises and winds become gusty********C) drops and winds become gustyD) rises and winds become variable

As it approaches, a typical warm front will bring __________. A) rising temperatures and falling barometric pressure*********B) falling temperature and pressureC) falling temperatures and rising pressureD) rising barometric pressure and temperatures

Brief, violent showers frequently accompanied by thunder and lightning are usually associated with __________. A) passage of a warm frontB) passage of a cold front**********C) winds shifting counterclockwise in the Northern HemisphereD) stationary high pressure systems

Cirrus clouds followed by cirrostratus then altostratus, stratus, and occasionally nimbostratus indicate the approach of a(n) __________. A) cold frontB) warm front**********C) tropical frontD) occluded front

Clouds appearing in the following order: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus, and nimbostratus usually indicate the approach of a(n) __________. A) warm front***********B) occluded frontC) medium frontD) cold front

Cumulonimbus clouds are most likely to accompany a(n) __________. A) high pressure systemB) cold front*******C) warm frontD) occluded front

In the Northern Hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise, a rapid drop in temperature, thunderstorms or rain squalls in summer (frequent rain/snow squalls in winter) then a rise in pressure followed by clearing skies, indicate the passage of a(n) __________. A) warm frontB) tropical cycloneC) anticycloneD) cold front***********

In the Northern Hemisphere, winds veering sharply to the west or northwest with increasing speed are indications that a __________. A) cold front has passed***********B) low pressure center is approachingC) stationary front existsD) high pressure center has passed

On the approach of a warm front the barometric pressure usually __________. A) falls**********B) risesC) is steadyD) is unreliable

Squall lines with an almost unbroken line of threatening dark clouds and sharp changes in wind direction, generally precede a(n) __________. A) slow-moving warm frontB) fast-moving cold front***********C) stationary frontD) occluded front

Steady precipitation is typical of __________. A) coming cold weather conditions

B) a warm front weather condition**********C) high pressure conditionsD) scattered cumulus clouds

The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________. A) large cumulonimbus (thunderclouds) building upB) high cirrus clouds gradually changing to cirrostratus and then to altostratus**********C) fog caused by the warm air passing over the cooler waterD) low dark clouds accompanied by intermittent rain

The FIRST indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________. A) large cumulonimbus clouds building upB) low dark clouds with intermittent rainC) fog caused by the warm air passing over the cooler waterD) high clouds gradually followed by lower thicker clouds*********

The probability of a sudden wind may be foretold by __________. A) a partly cloudy skyB) an overcast skyC) a fast approaching line of dark clouds***********D) the formation of cumulus clouds in the sky

The slope of a warm front is about __________. A) 1 mile vertically to 10 miles horizontallyB) 1 mile vertically to 50 miles horizontallyC) 1 mile vertically to 150 miles horizontally***********D) 1 mile vertically to 500 miles horizontally

The steepness of a cold front depends on __________. A) the direction of wind around the frontB) its velocity************C) the temperature of the air behind the frontD) the precipitation generated by the front

What is true about a front? A) A front is a boundary between two air masses.B) There are abrupt temperature differences on opposite sides of a front.C) The pressure tendencies are different on opposite sides of a front.D) All of the above*********

What is typical of warm front weather conditions? A) An increase in pressureB) A wind shift from southwest to northwestC) Scattered cumulus cloudsD) Steady precipitation**********

What type of clouds are associated with a cold front? A) Altostratus and fracto-cumulusB) Altostratus and cirrusC) Cirrus and cirrostratusD) Cumulus and cumulonimbus********

What weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere? A) Wind shift from northeast clockwise to southwestB) Steady dropping of barometric pressureC) Steady precipitation, gradually increasing in intensityD) A line of cumulonimbus clouds*********

When a cold air mass and a warm air mass meet, and there is no horizontal motion of either air mass, it is called a(n) __________. A) cold frontB) occluded frontC) stationary front********D) warm front

When a warm air mass is adjacent to a cold air mass, the separation line between the two is called a(n) __________. A) front***********B) isobarC) isothermD) equipotential line

When a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, the contact surface is called a __________. A) line squallB) water spoutC) cold frontD) warm front********

When a warm air mass overtakes and replaces a cold air mass, the contact surface is called a(n) __________.

A) warm front*********B) cold frontC) line squallD) occluded front

When cold air displaces warm air you have a(n) __________. A) cold front**********B) occluded frontC) stationary frontD) warm front

When crossing a front isobars tend to __________. A) change from smooth curves within the air mass to sharp bends at the front**********B) change from sharp bends within the air mass to smooth curves at the frontC) pass smoothly across the front with no changeD) become closer together at the front and pass through in straight lines

Which condition will occur after a cold front passes? A) Temperature risesB) Stratus clouds formC) Pressure decreasesD) Humidity decreases************

Which is a characteristic of the weather preceding an approaching warm front? A) Gusty windsB) Steadily falling barometric pressure************C) Decreasing relative humidityD) Clearing skies

A) Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts.**********B) Cold fronts move slower than warm fronts.C) Cold fronts and warm fronts move with equal speed.D) Cold fronts move slower at the northern end and faster at the southern end.

Which of the following statements concerning frontal movements is TRUE? A) The temperature rises after a cold front passes.B) The barometric pressure rises when a warm front passes.C) A cold front generally passes faster than a warm front.************D) A warm front usually has more violent weather associated with it than a cold front.

Which statement is TRUE when comparing cold and warm fronts? A) Cold fronts are more violent and of shorter duration.**********B) Cold fronts are milder and last longer.C) They are very similar with the exception of wind direction.D) Warm fronts are more violent and of longer duration.

Which type of front forms when a cold front overtakes and forces a warm front upwards? A) A cold frontB) An occluded front**********C) A warm frontD) A stationary front

Which type of frontal passage is associated with a relatively narrow band of precipitation? A) A cold front**********B) A warm frontC) A stationary frontD) None of the above

Which weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere? A) Wind shift from northeast, clockwise to southwestB) Steady dropping of barometric pressureC) Steady precipitation, gradually increasing in intensityD) A line of cumulonimbus clouds*********

With the passage of an occluded front the temperature __________. A) rises rapidlyB) remains about the sameC) drops rapidlyD) depends on whether warm type or cold type occlusion********

You can expect frontal activity when two air masses collide and __________. A) their barometric pressures and temperatures are the sameB) there are differences in how they track along the jet streamC) there are no significant differences between their temperatures and moisture contentD) there are significant differences between the temperature of each air mass*********

Your facsimile prognostic chart indicates that you will cross the cold front of a low pressure system in about 24 hours. You should __________. A) expect to see cirrus clouds followed by altostratus and nimbostratus clouds

B) alter course to remain in the navigable semicircleC) prepare for gusty winds, thunderstorms, and a sudden wind shift***********D) expect clear weather, with steady winds and pressure, until the front passes

A light, feathery deposit of ice caused by the sublimation of water vapor directly into the crystalline form, on objects whose temperatures are below freezing, is called __________. A) dewB) frost************C) glazeD) snow

Air circulation is caused or affected by __________. A) the rotation of the earth on its axisB) convection currents caused by differences in radiant heating between equatorial and polar regionsC) mountain rangesD) All of the above*********

Air masses near the earth's surface __________. A) move from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressureB) are deflected by the earth's rotation in both hemispheresC) are deflected by the "Coriolis effect"D) All of the above*********

Mechanical lifting of air by the upslope slant of the terrain is called __________. A) vertical liftingB) convective liftingC) advective liftingD) topographic lifting********

Plain language is usually used on marine weather __________. A) forecasts***********B) observationsC) analysesD) synoptic chart

Static on your AM radio may be __________. A) an indication of nearby thunderstorm activity**********B) an indication of "clearing" weatherC) of no meteorological significanceD) a sign of strong winds

The Earth's irregular heating is caused by __________. A) the time of dayB) the seasonsC) geographyD) All of the above********

The force resulting from the earth's rotation that causes winds to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere is called __________. A) pressure gradientB) Coriolis effect***********C) aurora borealisD) ballistic deflection

The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and the region to which are confined such phenomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is called __________. A) stratosphereB) troposphere***********C) stratopauseD) tropopause

Weather forecast messages are usually __________. A) given only to TV stationsB) transmitted only by commercial broadcast stationsC) broadcast in plain language**********D) broadcast immediately on VHF Channel 16 and 2182 kHz

What benefit is a weather bulletin to a mariner? A) It provides a legal reason to cancel a projected voyage.B) It allows the mariner to make long term weather forecasts.C) It is of little benefit since the weather changes frequently and rapidly.D) It gives the mariner time to prepare for weather changes.*************

What is the primary source of the earth's weather? A) The oceansB) The moonC) The sun**********D) The solar system

Which condition(s) is(are) necessary for the formation of dew?

A) Clear skiesB) Calm airC) Earth's surface cooler than the dew point of the airD) All of the above********

Which type of precipitation is a product of the violent convection found in thunderstorms? A) SnowB) Freezing RainC) Hail**********D) Sleet

A decrease in barometric pressure is associated with all of the following except __________. A) rising warm airB) proximity to a low pressure areaC) inward spiraling circulationD) clear dry weather*********

A line on a weather chart connecting places which have the same barometric pressure is called an __________. A) isothermB) isallobarC) isobar***********D) isotope

A slow rise in the barometric pressure forecasts __________. A) rainy weather for the next 48 hoursB) high seasC) improving weather conditions********D) deteriorating weather conditions

A slow, gradual fall of the barometer indicates approaching __________. A) gale force winds within 12 hoursB) blizzard conditionsC) deteriorating or unsettled weather************D) heavy, wind driven rain

A steep barometric gradient indicates __________. A) calmsB) light windsC) strong winds********

D) precipitation

As a high pressure system approaches, the barometer reading __________. A) stays the sameB) fallsC) rises***********D) falls rapidly

At what angle to the isobars do surface winds blow over the open sea? A) About 90°B) About 50°C) About 25°D) About 15°****

Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to __________. A) 14.7 pounds per square inchB) 29.92 inches of mercuryC) 1013.25 millibarsD) All of the above*******

Despite weather predictions for continued good weather, a prudent mariner should be alert for all of the following, EXCEPT a sudden __________. A) drop in barometric pressureB) drop in temperature*********C) wind shiftD) squall line

Generally speaking, in the Northern Hemisphere, when winds are blowing from between SE and SW the barometric reading __________. A) makes no change at allB) is somewhat lower than it would be for winds from a northern quadrant*******C) is uncertain and may fluctuate by increasing and decreasingD) is somewhat higher than it would be for winds from the northern quadrant

Generally speaking, you should expect to find low atmospheric pressure prevailing in the earth's __________. A) equatorial area***********B) polar regionsC) mid-latitudesD) All of the above

If you observe a rapid fall of barometric pressure you should __________.

A) call the Coast Guard to verify the changeB) know the barometer is not working properlyC) contact the NWS or a local radio stationD) prepare for the onset of stormy weather with strong winds*********

In low latitudes the range of the diurnal variation of pressure is up to __________. A) 0.5 millibarB) 3.0 millibars********C) 6.0 millibarsD) 10.0 millibars

In low latitudes, the high(s) of the diurnal variation of pressure occur(s) at __________. A) noonB) noon and midnightC) 1000 and 2200**********D) 1600

Lines drawn through points on the Earth having the same atmospheric pressure are known as __________. A) isothermalB) millibarsC) isobars*******D) seismics

Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve hour period indicates __________. A) stormy weather is imminentB) that present weather conditions will continue*********C) a defect in the barometerD) increasing wind strength

Pressure gradient is a measure of __________. A) a high-pressure areaB) pressure difference over horizontal distance********C) pressure difference over timeD) vertical pressure variation

The daily recurring pattern of pressure changes most noticeable in low latitudes is the __________. A) daily lapse readingB) diurnal variation of pressure*********

C) pressure tendencyD) synoptic pressure

The diurnal pressure variation is most noticeable in the __________. A) polar regionsB) horse latitudesC) roaring fortiesD) doldrums**********

The diurnal variation of pressure is most noticeable __________. A) above the polar circlesB) in a low pressure areaC) during periods of low temperaturesD) in the doldrums*********

The diurnal variation of pressure is not visible in the middle latitudes in winter because __________. A) it is masked by the pressure changes of moving weather systems***********B) the decreased gravitational effect from the sun causes the variation to fadeC) the decreased average temperature is less than the critical temperatureD) the increased Coriolis force disperses the pressure variation

The pressure gradient between the horse latitudes and doldrums runs __________. A) east to westB) north to south************C) northeast to southwestD) northwest to southeast

The standard atmospheric pressure measured in inches of mercury is __________. A) 29.92***********B) 500.0C) 760.0D) 1013.2

Two well-developed high pressure areas may be separated by a __________. A) hill of low pressureB) trough of low pressure************C) valley of low pressureD) ridge of low pressure

Two well-developed low pressure areas may be separated by a __________. A) trough of higher pressureB) hill of higher pressureC) ridge of higher pressure************D) valley of higher pressure

What is a common unit of measure for atmospheric pressure? A) centimetersB) Inches**********C) DegreesD) Feet

When observing a rapid rise in barometric pressure, you may expect __________. A) clear weather with no wind, but the possibility of rain or snow within 24 hoursB) deteriorating weather with rain or snowC) heavy rain or severe thundershowersD) clearing weather, possibly accompanied by high winds***********

Which general weather conditions should you expect to find in a low pressure system? A) Fair weatherB) Precipitation and cloudiness********C) Scattered clouds at high elevationsD) Gradual clearing and cooler temperatures

Widely spaced isobars on a weather map indicate __________. A) high windsB) gentle breezes***********C) ice, snow or frozen rainD) probability of tornados

Relative humidity is defined as __________. A) the maximum vapor content the air is capable of holdingB) the minimum vapor content the air is capable of holdingC) the ratio of the actual vapor content at the current temperature to the air's vapor holding capability***********D) the relation of the moisture content of the air to barometric pressure

The dew point temperature is __________. A) always higher than the air temperature

B) always lower than the air temperatureC) equal to the difference between the wet and dry bulb temperaturesD) the temperature at which the air is saturated with water vapor**********

The expression "the air is saturated" means __________. A) the relative humidity is 100%**************B) the vapor pressure is at its minimum for the prevailing temperatureC) precipitation has commencedD) cloud cover is 100%

The temperature at which the air is saturated with water vapor and below which condensation of water vapor will occur is referred to as the __________. A) precipitation pointB) vapor pointC) dew point**************D) absolute humidity

The wind speed and direction observed from a moving vessel is known as __________. A) coordinate windB) true windC) apparent wind***********D) anemometer wind

A gale is characterized by a wind speed of __________. A) 10 to 20 knotsB) 34 to 47 knots*************C) 48 to 63 knotsD) 64 to 83 knots

A hurricane is characterized by winds of __________. A) up to 33 knotsB) 34 to 47 knotsC) 48 to 63 knotsD) 64 knots or greater********

A katabatic wind blows __________. A) up an incline due to surface heatingB) in a circular patternC) down an incline due to cooling of the air************D) horizontally between a high and a low pressure area

A sea breeze is a wind __________. A) that blows towards the sea at nightB) that blows towards an island during the day**********C) caused by cold air descending a coastal inclineD) caused by the distant approach of a hurricane

A tropical storm is a tropical cyclone that generates winds of __________. A) between 20 and 33 knotsB) between 34 and 63 knots**********C) over 63 knotsD) None of the above

A very light breeze that causes ripples on a small area of still water is a __________. A) cat's paw************B) hog's breathC) williwawD) chinook

The best estimate of the wind direction at sea level can be obtained from observing the direction of the __________. A) cloud movementB) vessel headingC) waves***********D) swells

The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and the region to which are confined such phenomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is called __________.

a. stratosphere b. Troposphere******************c. stratopause d. tropopause

A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________.

A phenomenon where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called __________.

Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of an important heat transmitting process in our atmosphere called __________.

In the Northern Hemisphere, an area of counterclockwise wind circulation surrounded by higher pressure is a __________.

In the Southern Hemisphere the wind circulation in a high pressure system rotates __________.

Temperature and moisture characteristics are modified in a warm or cold air mass due to __________.

The process by which the temperature and/or moisture characteristics of an air mass changes is called __________.

The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is __________.

The wind direction around a low pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is __________.

You are located within a stationary high pressure area. Your aneroid barometer is falling very slowly. This indicates a(n) __________.

According to Buys Ballot's law, when an observer in the Northern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center of low pressure is located to the __________.

According to Buys Ballot's Law, when an observer in the Southern Hemisphere experiences a northwest wind, the center of the low pressure is located to the __________.

A cloud of marked vertical development (often anvil-shaped) would be classified as __________.

A low, uniform layer of cloud resembling fog, but not resting on the ground, is called __________.

A type of precipitation that occurs only in thunderstorms with strong convection currents that convey raindrops above and below the freezing level is known as __________.

An "atoll cloud" forming over an island due to heating of the land during the daytime would be which type?

A) as a mass of warm, humid air rises into the atmosphere and cools, condensing moisture into small droplets********B) as winds blow across bodies of water, the sun causes the moisture to be absorbed and move upward forming clouds

Clouds that form as small white flakes or scaly globular masses covering either small or large portions of the sky are __________.

Cumulus clouds that have undergone vertical development and have become cumulonimbus in form, indicate __________.

High clouds, composed of small white flakes or scaly globular masses, and often banded together to form a "mackerel sky", would be classified as __________.

If the sky was clear, with the exception of a few cumulus clouds, it would indicate __________.

In many areas "atoll" clouds (clouds of vertical development) are produced over small islands. These are the result of __________.

On a clear, warm day, you notice the approach of a tall cumulus cloud. The cloud top has hard well defined edges and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. Should this cloud pass directly overhead __________.

Small, visible mound-like protuberances on the bottom of cumulonimbus clouds, that are potential breeding grounds for waterspouts and tornadoes, are called __________.

The appearance of nimbostratus clouds in the immediate vicinity of a ship at sea would be accompanied by which of the following conditions?

The low, dark, sheet-like cloud which is associated with continuous precipitation for many hours is a __________.

Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes, are called __________.

Which type of cloud formation should be of immediate concern to small craft operators?

Which type of cloud is among the most dependable for giving an indication of an approaching weather system?

Which type of cloud is composed entirely of ice crystals and is found at very high altitudes?

Which type of weather could you expect soon after seeing "hook" or "comma" shaped cirrus clouds?

Fog is likely to occur when there is little difference between the dew point and the __________.

The type of fog that occurs on clear nights with very light breezes and forms when the earth cools rapidly by radiation is known as __________.

When compared to air temperature, which factor is most useful in predicting fog? See Reference

When warm moist air blows over a colder surface and is cooled below its dew point, the result is __________.

Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?

Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?

Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?

Which weather element cannot be measured accurately while on board a moving vessel?

While on watch, you notice that the air temperature is dropping and is approaching the dew point. Which type of weather should be forecasted?

A cloud sequence of cirrus, cirrostratus, and altostratus clouds followed by rain usually signifies the approach of a(n) __________.

A line of clouds, sharp changes in wind direction, and squalls are most frequently associated with a(n) __________.

A series of brief showers accompanied by strong, shifting winds may occur along or some distance ahead of a(n) __________.

Brief, violent showers frequently accompanied by thunder and lightning are usually associated with __________.

Cirrus clouds followed by cirrostratus then altostratus, stratus, and occasionally nimbostratus indicate the approach of a(n) __________.

Clouds appearing in the following order: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, stratus, and nimbostratus usually indicate the approach of a(n) __________.

In the Northern Hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise, a rapid drop in temperature, thunderstorms or rain squalls in summer (frequent rain/snow squalls in winter) then a rise in pressure followed by clearing skies, indicate the passage of a(n) __________.

In the Northern Hemisphere, winds veering sharply to the west or northwest with increasing speed are indications that a __________.

Squall lines with an almost unbroken line of threatening dark clouds and sharp changes in wind direction, generally precede a(n) __________.

The first indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________.

B) high cirrus clouds gradually changing to cirrostratus and then to altostratus**********

The FIRST indications a mariner will have of the approach of a warm front will be __________.

What weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere?

When a cold air mass and a warm air mass meet, and there is no horizontal motion of either air mass, it is called a(n) __________.

When a warm air mass is adjacent to a cold air mass, the separation line between the two is called a(n) __________.

When a warm air mass overtakes a cold air mass, the contact surface is called a __________.

When a warm air mass overtakes and replaces a cold air mass, the contact surface is called a(n) __________.

A) change from smooth curves within the air mass to sharp bends at the front**********

Which type of front forms when a cold front overtakes and forces a warm front upwards?

Which type of frontal passage is associated with a relatively narrow band of precipitation?

Which weather change accompanies the passage of a cold front in the Northern Hemisphere?

C) there are no significant differences between their temperatures and moisture contentD) there are significant differences between the temperature of each air mass*********

Your facsimile prognostic chart indicates that you will cross the cold front of a low pressure system in about 24 hours. You should __________.

A light, feathery deposit of ice caused by the sublimation of water vapor directly into the crystalline form, on objects whose temperatures are below freezing, is called __________.

B) convection currents caused by differences in radiant heating between equatorial and polar regions

The force resulting from the earth's rotation that causes winds to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere is called __________.

The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and the region to which are confined such phenomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is called __________.

Which type of precipitation is a product of the violent convection found in thunderstorms?

A decrease in barometric pressure is associated with all of the following except __________.

A line on a weather chart connecting places which have the same barometric pressure is called an __________.

Despite weather predictions for continued good weather, a prudent mariner should be alert for all of the following, EXCEPT a sudden __________.

Generally speaking, in the Northern Hemisphere, when winds are blowing from between SE and SW the barometric reading __________.

Generally speaking, you should expect to find low atmospheric pressure prevailing in the earth's __________.

Lines drawn through points on the Earth having the same atmospheric pressure are known as __________.

Little or no change in the barometric reading over a twelve hour period indicates __________.

The daily recurring pattern of pressure changes most noticeable in low latitudes is the __________.

The diurnal variation of pressure is not visible in the middle latitudes in winter because __________.

C) the ratio of the actual vapor content at the current temperature to the air's vapor holding capability***********

The temperature at which the air is saturated with water vapor and below which condensation of water vapor will occur is referred to as the __________.

The best estimate of the wind direction at sea level can be obtained from observing the direction of the __________.

The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and the region to which are confined such phenomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is called __________.

On a clear, warm day, you notice the approach of a tall cumulus cloud. The cloud top has hard well defined edges and rain is falling from the dark lower edge. Should this cloud pass directly overhead __________.

Uniform, grayish-white cloud sheets that cover large portions of the sky, and are responsible for a large percentage of the precipitation in the temperate latitudes, are called __________.

In the Northern Hemisphere, gusty winds shifting clockwise, a rapid drop in temperature, thunderstorms or rain squalls in summer (frequent rain/snow squalls in winter) then a rise in pressure followed by clearing skies, indicate the passage of a(n) __________.

A light, feathery deposit of ice caused by the sublimation of water vapor directly into the crystalline form, on objects whose temperatures are below freezing, is called __________.

The force resulting from the earth's rotation that causes winds to deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere is called __________.

The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and the region to which are confined such phenomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is called __________.

The region containing 3/4 of the mass of the atmosphere and the region to which are confined such phenomena as clouds, storms, precipitation and changing weather conditions is called __________.

A block and tackle is "rove to advantage". This means that the __________. A) blocks have been overhauledB) hauling parts of two tackles are attachedC) hauling part leads through the movable block************D) hauling part leads through the standing block

A block that can be opened at the hook or shackle end to receive a bight of the line is a __________. A) bight blockB) gin blockC) heel blockD) snatch block********

A breeches buoy is being rigged from the shore to a stranded vessel. The initial shot line passed to the vessel is normally made fast to a __________. A) hawser which is used to pass a tail-block and whip to the vesselB) hawser with breeches buoy and harness attachedC) hawser which should be made fast to the vessel below the intended location of the tail-blockD) tail-block and whip which may be used to pass a hawser to the vessel************

A metal ring on the bottom of a block, to which the standing part of a tackle is spliced, is known as a(n) __________. A) becket************B) loopC) swivelD) eye

A sheave is a __________. A) grooved wheel in a block**********B) line to hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deckC) partial load of grainD) seaman's knife

A small light tackle with blocks of steel or wood that is used for miscellaneous small jobs is called a __________. A) snatch blockB) threefold purchaseC) handy-billy**********D) chockablock

A snatch block is a __________. A) block used only with manila rope

B) chock rollerC) hinged block***********D) strong block used for short, sharp pulls

A snatch block would most likely be used as a __________. A) boat fallB) fairlead*********C) riding pawlD) topping lift

A tackle is "two blocked" when the blocks are __________. A) equally sharing the loadB) jammed together*********C) as far apart as possibleD) rove to the highest mechanical advantage

Separating both blocks of a tackle to prepare it for reuse is called __________. A) chockablockingB) out-haulingC) over-hauling*********D) two-blocking

The cheek length of a block in inches should be about __________. A) three times the circumference of a manila line*********B) five times the diameter of a manila lineC) twice the diameter of its sheaves for manila lineD) twenty times the diameter of a manila line

The grooved wheel inside a block is called a __________. A) cheekB) gypsyC) sheave********D) drum

The standing part of a tackle is __________. A) all the fall except the hauling partB) the hook that engages the weight to be movedC) that part to which power is appliedD) that part of the falls made fast to one of the blocks*********

To facilitate passing the end of a large rope through a block, you could use a __________. A) gantlineB) head lineC) reeving line*********D) sail line

To reeve a right-angle threefold purchase start with the __________. A) left sheave bottom blockB) left sheave top blockC) middle sheave top block**********D) right sheave bottom block

What is meant by the term "two-blocked"? A) The bottom block touches the top block**********B) The line has jumped the sheaves.C) There are turns in the fall.D) You have two blocks.

Which tackle arrangement has the LEAST mechanical advantage? A) Single whip*********B) Gun tackleC) Luff tackleD) Twofold purchase

What are reef points used for? A) Reduce the area of a sail**********B) Keep the sail taut in light airsC) Reduce the draft if the boat runs agroundD) Increase the strength of the mast

Which line is two-stranded, left-handed small stuff? A) HouselineB) Marline************C) RatlineD) Lagline

A "bowline" is used to __________.

A) join lines of equal sizeB) form a temporary eye (loop) at the end of a line***********C) be a stopperD) keep a line from fraying

A "figure eight" knot is used to __________. A) be a stopperB) shorten a lineC) join lines of equal sizeD) keep a line from passing through a sheave********

A "sheepshank" is used to __________. A) keep a line from frayingB) join lines of unequal sizeC) stop off a lineD) shorten a line**********

A "whipping" is __________. A) a messengerB) a stopper for nylon lineC) a U-bolt for securing a cargo whip to the winch drumD) turns of twine around a rope end*********

A method used to make an eye in a bight of line where it cannot be spliced is known as __________. A) braidingB) plaitingC) seizing***********D) serving

A monkey fist is found on a __________. A) heaving line***********B) lead lineC) manropeD) mooring line

A rolling hitch can be used to __________. A) make a temporary eyeB) mouse a hookC) secure a line around a spar***********

D) shorten a line

A whipping on a fiber line __________. A) keeps the ends from fraying*********B) strengthens itC) protects your handsD) becomes part of a splice

Instead of whipping an end of a line, a temporary means of preventing the line from unraveling is to tie a __________. A) becket bendB) blackwall hitchC) figure-eight knot*********D) square knot

On a small boat, which knot is best suited for attaching a line to the ring of an anchor? A) Clove hitchB) Figure-eight knotC) Fisherman's bend******D) Overhand knot

Temporary seizings on wire rope are made with __________. A) marlineB) sail twineC) tapeD) wire*********

The "carrick bend" is used to __________. A) add strength to a weak spot in a lineB) join two hawsers**********C) be a stopper to transfer a line under strainD) join lines of different sizes

The "rolling hitch" could be used to __________. A) join two lines of different sizesB) join two lines of equal sizesC) add strength to a weak spot in a lineD) act as a stopper to transfer a line under strain********

The "square knot" is used for __________.

A) forming temporary eyes in linesB) joining two lines of equal size*********C) keeping line from unlaying or frayingD) joining two lines of different size

The knot at the end of the heaving line used to pass the towing hawser is called a __________. A) monkey's fist**********B) ball or baseball knotC) heaving knotD) three strand Turk's head

The knot used to join two lines of different diameter is a __________. A) square knotB) carrick bendC) becket bend*********D) sheepshank

The knot used to join two lines or two large hawsers for towing is called a __________. A) square knotB) carrick bend*********C) sheet bendD) bowline

Which bend or knot is used to tie a small line to a larger one? A) Becket bend*********B) BowlineC) Clove hitchD) Lark's head

Which is NOT a type of seizing? A) Flat seizingB) Racking seizingC) Throat seizingD) Tube seizing********

Which kind of hitch should you use to secure a spar? A) Blackwall hitchB) Stage hitch

C) Timber hitch**********D) Two half hitches

Which knot is suitable for hoisting an unconscious person? A) Bowline in a bightB) French bowline**********C) Fisherman's loopD) Spider hitch

Which knot is suitable for hoisting an unconscious person? A) Bowline on a bightB) Fisherman's loopC) French bowline*********D) Spider hitch

Which knot is used to attach two different sized lines together? A) Granny knotB) Sheet bend*************C) Square knotD) Thief knot

Which knot reduces the strength of a line by the LEAST amount? A) BowlineB) Clove hitchC) Sheet bendD) Two half hitches**********

Which knot should be used to bend two hawsers together for towing? A) Double carrick bend*********B) Fisherman's bendC) Heaving line bendD) Rolling hitch

Which knot should be used to send a man over the side when he may have to use both hands? A) BowlineB) French bowline***********C) Bowline on a bightD) Running bowline

Which knot would serve best as a safety sling for a person working over the side? A) Bowline on a bightB) French bowline**********C) Jug slingD) Lifting hitch

Whipping the bitter end of a fiber rope __________. A) increases the circumference of the ropeB) makes for easier handlingC) prevents fraying of the bitter end************D) prevents moisture from entering the bitter end

A "gypsy" or "gypsyhead" is a __________. A) punt used for painting over the sideB) small, reciprocating steam engineC) spool-shaped drum fitted on a winch********D) swinging derrick

A "spring line" is __________. A) any wire rope used for mooringB) a fire-warpC) a mooring line running diagonally to the keel*************D) a mooring line perpendicular to the keel

A Chinese stopper (two lines) will hold best when you __________. A) fasten the bitter ends to the mooring line with half hitchesB) twist the ends together and hold them in the direction of the pull***********C) twist the ends together and hold them in the direction opposite to the pullD) twist the ends together and hold them at right angles to the mooring line

A mooring line leading 45° to the keel, used to check forward or astern movement of a vessel, is called a __________. A) spring line*********B) warp lineC) bow lineD) breast line

A mooring line leading at nearly right angles to the keel is a __________. A) bow line

B) breast line**********C) spring lineD) stern line

A mooring line that checks forward motion of a vessel at a pier is a __________. A) bow lineB) forward bow lineC) stern line**********D) stern breast line

A mooring line that prevents a vessel from moving sideways away from the dock is a __________. A) bow lineB) breast line**********C) stern lineD) spring line

A post on a dock or wharf used to secure mooring lines or hawsers is called a __________. A) bittB) bollard***********C) cleatD) capstan

A spring line leads __________. A) fore and aft from the ship's side********B) to the dock at a right angle to the vesselC) through the bull nose or chock at the bowD) through the chock at the stern

A wooden float placed between a ship and a dock to prevent damage to both is called a __________. A) camel************B) dolphinC) rat guardD) wedge

An example of a messenger is a __________. A) fairleadB) heaving line*********C) stayD) warp

Chafing gear __________. A) reduces and prevents corrosion of standing riggingB) prevents corrosion of running riggingC) reduces and prevents wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another**********D) protects the body against extreme cold

Chafing gear is normally used __________. A) for portable fendersB) for ground tackleC) on the inside of the hawsepipeD) on mooring lines***********

Chafing gear is used to __________. A) anchor the boatB) pick up heavy loadsC) protect fiber rope from abrasion*********D) strengthen mooring lines

If a mooring line should part while you are tying up at a dock, you should make a temporary eye by tying a __________. A) becket bendB) clove hitchC) bowline*********D) square knot

If two mooring lines are to be placed on the same bollard, which method is BEST? A) Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line directly over the first.B) It makes no difference how the lines are placed.C) Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollard**********D) Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.

in order to pay out or slack a line which is under strain, you should__________

Err:509

The lines led forward from the bow and aft from the stern when a vessel is moored to the dock are __________. A) bow and stern lines***********B) breast linesC) halyards

D) warps

The main advantage of a Chinese stopper over the one line stopper is that it __________. A) will not jam on the mooring line************B) is strongerC) is easier to use when under heavy tensionD) is safer to use when under heavy tension

The most common method of securing a line to a cleat is a __________. A) half hitch, then round turnsB) round turn, then figure eights***********C) figure eight, then round turnsD) figure eight, then half hitches

The revolving drum of a winch used to haul lines is called a __________. A) bull gearB) gypsyhead**********C) spannerD) wildcat

The usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without kinking or fouling is __________. A) coiling the lineB) faking down the line**********C) flemishing the lineD) racking the line

Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if __________. A) the eye of the second line is dipped***********B) the mooring lines are doubledC) the bollard has two hornsD) one of the lines is a breast line

What is likely to occur when you are surging synthetic mooring lines on the gypsyhead during mooring operations? A) The lines may jam and then jump off the gypsyhead.B) If there is sudden strain on the line, the man tending the line may be pulled into the gypsyhead.C) The lines' surging may cause the vessel to surge.D) The heat generated may cause the lines to temporarily fuse to the gypsyhead*************

What is normally used to pass a mooring line to a dock?

A) Distance lineB) GantlineC) Heaving line**********D) Tag line

What is the chief hazard encountered when surging synthetic mooring lines on the gypsyhead during operations? A) If there is sudden strain, the man tending the line may be pulled into the gypsyhead.B) The lines may jam and then jump off the gypsyhead.C) The lines' surging may cause the vessel to surge.D) The heat generated may cause the lines to temporarily fuse to the gypsyhead********

What should you do to a line to prevent fraying where it passes over the side of the vessel? A) Worm that part of the line.B) Splice that part of the line.C) Cover it with chafing gear**********D) Install a cleat.

When a line is subject to wear where it passes through a mooring chock, it should be __________. A) wormed, parceled, and servedB) wrapped with heavy tapeC) wrapped with chafing gear********D) wrapped in leather

When checking a mooring line, you should __________. A) ensure the bight is not fouled between the ship and the dock by taking up slackB) pay out slack smartly and keep free for runningC) secure more turns to hold the line against any strain, then clear the areaD) surge the line so that it maintains a strain without parting**********

When making a wire fast to bitts it is recommended that you __________. A) use only figure eightsB) take 2 round turns around one bitt, then make figure eightsC) take 3 round turns around both bitts, then make figure eights*********D) alternate round turns and figure eights around both bitts

When passing a hawser to the dock you would first use what line? A) GantlineB) Heaving line**********

C) PreventerD) Warp

When securing a manila line to a bitt what is the minimum number of round turns you should take before figure-eighting the line? A) NoneB) 1**********C) 2D) 3

When securing a synthetic line to a bitt what is the minimum number of round turns you should take before figure-eighting the line? A) NoneB) 1C) 2***********D) 3

Which method of adjusting mooring lines is MOST useful for leaving a boat free to rise and fall with the tide? A) Crossing the spring lines**********B) Slacking all forward running lines while keeping all after running lines tautC) Doubling up on spring or breast linesD) Slacking bow and stern lines

Which method should be used to secure a manila line to bitts? A) A round turn on the bitt farthest from the strain and then figure eightsB) A round turn on the bitt closest to the strain and then figure eights***********C) Figure eights and then a round turn at the top of both bittsD) Only figure eights are necessary on both bitts

Which method should be used to secure a synthetic fiber line to two bitts? A) Two round turns on the bitt closest to the strain and then figure eights**********B) Two round turns on the bitt farthest from the strain and then figure eightsC) Figure eights and then a round turn at the top of both bittsD) Only figure eights are necessary on both bitts

Which mooring line is likely to undergo the most strain when docking a ship under normal conditions? A) Bow lineB) Breast lineC) Spring line**********D) Stern line

Which mooring line prevents sideways motion of a vessel moored to a pier? A) A line led forward from the bowB) A line led aft from the bowC) A line led in the same direction as the keelD) A line led at a right angle to the keel*********

Which statement is ALWAYS true? A) Keep clear of any line that is under a strain************B) A line will creak, make snapping sounds, and smoke before it parts.C) Only synthetic lines will snap back after parting.D) Stepping on the bight of a line is safer than stepping in the bight of a line.

Which statement is TRUE about placing the eyes of two mooring lines on the same bollard? A) Put one line at the low point and one at the high point of the bollard so they don't touch.B) Take the eye of the second line up through the eye of the first line before putting the second line on the bollard***********C) Never put two mooring lines on the same bollard.D) The mooring line forward should be put on the bollard first.

You are handling a mooring line and are instructed to "Check the line". What should you do? A) Ensure the bight is not fouled by taking up slack.B) Pay out the line smartly and keep it free for running.C) Secure the line by adding more turns.D) Surge the line so it maintains a strain without parting**********

You are in charge while handling a synthetic hawser on a capstan. The hawser has a heavy strain and you wish to avoid the hawser's slipping on the capstan drum. Which action should you take? A) Back off on the capstan a bit and have the seaman take several more turns on the drum*************B) Have the seaman take a strain on the hawser and carefully have several turns added on the drum.C) Have more than one seaman hold a good strain on the hawser and continue to heave easy.D) While continuing to heave slowly on the capstan, have the seaman take several more turns on the drum.

You can safely step in the bight of a line __________. A) when it is not under strainB) if both ends are made fastC) in an emergencyD) at no time**********

You need to make a fixed loop at the end of a line in order to use the line as a mooring line. You have insufficient time to make a splice. Which knot should you use? A) Clove Hitch

B) Fisherman's BendC) Bowline***********D) Round-turn and two half hitches

You want to double the strength of a mooring line by using two lines. To accomplish this, the second line must __________. A) be 1 1/2 times the diameter of the firstB) be married to the firstC) not cross the firstD) be of the same length**********

Chafing gear should be placed __________. A) at all wearing points of mooring lines***********B) at the bitter ends of all standing riggingC) around running riggingD) on wire rope only

Avast means __________. A) let goB) pullC) slack offD) stop***********

A "chock" is a __________. A) deck fitting used to secure mooring linesB) casting fitted at the side of a weather deck, used as a fairlead***********C) sharp block of wood used to support hygroscopic cargoD) smoke pipe for the galley stove

A "stopper" is __________. A) a short length of line used for temporarily holding another line**********B) a snatch block for handling a topping liftC) an engine order telegraphD) the brake on a cargo winch

A "strongback" refers to a __________. A) bar securing a cargo port*************B) centerline vertical bulkheadC) deep beamD) spanner stay

A bollard is found on the __________. A) beachB) deckC) pier***********D) towed vessel

A fid is a __________. A) mallet used when splicing wire ropeB) sharp pointed crow bar used to unlay wire ropeC) tapered steel pin used to separate wire ropeD) tapered wooden pin used when splicing heavy rope*********

A grapnel is a __________. A) device for securing a chain topping liftB) hook to prevent the anchor cable from slippingC) device used to drag for a submerged cable or line*************D) type of clam bucket used for discharging bulk cargo

A hook that will release quickly is a __________. A) longshore hookB) margin hookC) marginal hookD) pelican hook**********

A long ton is __________. A) 1,000 poundsB) 2,000 poundsC) 2,240 pounds*********D) 2,400 pounds

A metal object on the pier resembling a tree stump and made to receive mooring lines is a __________. A) bightB) bollard**********C) chockD) camel

A rope ladder with wooden rungs is a __________.

A) drop ladderB) life ladderC) Jacob's ladder**********D) jury ladder

A safety shackle is identified by its __________. A) shapeB) pin*********C) certification stampD) color code

A serving mallet is used in __________. A) covering wire or fiber rope**********B) forcing fids into a lineC) dogging hatchesD) splicing lines

A vessel's "quarter" is that section which is __________. A) abeamB) dead asternC) just aft of the bowD) on either side of the stern*********

Displacement refers to the __________. A) cubic capacity of a vesselB) deadweight carrying capacity of a vesselC) gross tonnage of a vesselD) number of long tons of water displaced by a vessel afloat*********

Faking a line means to __________. A) arrange it on deck in long bights***********B) coil it down on deckC) put a whipping on itD) stow it below

Holes in the bulwark, which allow deck water to drain into the sea, are __________. A) doggersB) fidleysC) freeing ports**********

D) swash ports

The "iron mike" is a(n) __________. A) pilotB) speakerC) standby wheelD) automatic pilot*********

The beam of a vessel refers to the __________. A) depth between decksB) internal cubic capacityC) molded depth of the vesselD) width of the vessel*********

The purpose of a bilge well is to __________. A) afford access to the shell through the double bottomsB) collect water to be pumped out***********C) provide access for the pneumercatorD) provide a base line for sounding measurements

The rope which is rove from the truck to be used with a bos'n's chair is called a __________. A) gantline***********B) life lineC) stropD) whip

The space above the engine room is called the __________. A) fidley*************B) gold lockerC) middle hatchD) noble

The term "lee side" refers to the __________. A) side of the vessel exposed to the windB) side of the vessel sheltered from the wind**********C) port sideD) starboard side

The term that indicates how many tons of cargo a vessel can carry is __________.

A) bale cubicB) deadweight***********C) gross tonnageD) loaded displacement

The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects, that a ship can carry, is the __________. A) bale cubicB) deadweight**************C) gross tonnageD) loaded displacement

To "belay" a line means to __________. A) coil it downB) heave it tautC) stow it belowD) secure it to a cleat**********

To "ease" a line means to __________. A) cast offB) double up so that one line does not take all the strainC) pay out line to remove most of the tension************D) slack it off quickly

To warp a vessel means to __________. A) anchor the vesselB) bring the head into the windC) clean the decksD) move the vessel by hauling on lines************

To "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo means to __________.

a. weld pad eyes on deck in proper position to secure the cargo

b. strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the tween-decks****************

c. distribute the weight of the cargo by placing fore-and-aft planks on the main deck

d. package the cargo in wooden crates so it will not damage the deck

A block that can be opened at the hook or shackle end to receive a bight of the line is a __________.

A breeches buoy is being rigged from the shore to a stranded vessel. The initial shot line passed to the vessel is normally made fast to a __________.

C) hawser which should be made fast to the vessel below the intended location of the tail-block

A metal ring on the bottom of a block, to which the standing part of a tackle is spliced, is known as a(n) __________.

A small light tackle with blocks of steel or wood that is used for miscellaneous small jobs is called a __________.

To facilitate passing the end of a large rope through a block, you could use a __________.

A method used to make an eye in a bight of line where it cannot be spliced is known as __________.

Instead of whipping an end of a line, a temporary means of preventing the line from unraveling is to tie a __________.

On a small boat, which knot is best suited for attaching a line to the ring of an anchor?

The knot at the end of the heaving line used to pass the towing hawser is called a __________.

Which knot should be used to send a man over the side when he may have to use both hands?

A mooring line leading 45° to the keel, used to check forward or astern movement of a vessel, is called a __________.

A mooring line that prevents a vessel from moving sideways away from the dock is a __________.

A post on a dock or wharf used to secure mooring lines or hawsers is called a __________.

A wooden float placed between a ship and a dock to prevent damage to both is called a __________.

C) reduces and prevents wear caused by the rubbing of one object against another**********

If a mooring line should part while you are tying up at a dock, you should make a temporary eye by tying a __________.

A) Place the eye from the forward line on the bollard and then place the eye from the second line directly over the first.

C) Place the eye from either line on the bollard, and then bring the eye of the other line up through the eye of the first, and place it on the bollard**********D) Place both eyes on the bollard, in any manner, but lead both lines to the same winch head on the vessel and secure them on the winch.

The lines led forward from the bow and aft from the stern when a vessel is moored to the dock are __________.

The main advantage of a Chinese stopper over the one line stopper is that it __________.

The usual method of arranging a line on deck so that it will run out easily without kinking or fouling is __________.

Two mooring lines may be placed on the same bollard and either one cast off first if __________.

What is likely to occur when you are surging synthetic mooring lines on the gypsyhead during mooring operations?

B) If there is sudden strain on the line, the man tending the line may be pulled into the gypsyhead.

D) The heat generated may cause the lines to temporarily fuse to the gypsyhead*************

What is the chief hazard encountered when surging synthetic mooring lines on the gypsyhead during operations?

A) If there is sudden strain, the man tending the line may be pulled into the gypsyhead.

D) The heat generated may cause the lines to temporarily fuse to the gypsyhead********

What should you do to a line to prevent fraying where it passes over the side of the vessel?

When a line is subject to wear where it passes through a mooring chock, it should be __________.

When securing a manila line to a bitt what is the minimum number of round turns you should take before figure-eighting the line?

When securing a synthetic line to a bitt what is the minimum number of round turns you should take before figure-eighting the line?

Which method of adjusting mooring lines is MOST useful for leaving a boat free to rise and fall with the tide?

Which mooring line is likely to undergo the most strain when docking a ship under normal conditions?

Which statement is TRUE about placing the eyes of two mooring lines on the same bollard?

A) Put one line at the low point and one at the high point of the bollard so they don't touch.B) Take the eye of the second line up through the eye of the first line before putting the second line on the bollard***********

You are handling a mooring line and are instructed to "Check the line". What should you do?

You are in charge while handling a synthetic hawser on a capstan. The hawser has a heavy strain and you wish to avoid the hawser's slipping on the capstan drum. Which action should you take?

A) Back off on the capstan a bit and have the seaman take several more turns on the drum*************B) Have the seaman take a strain on the hawser and carefully have several turns added on the drum.C) Have more than one seaman hold a good strain on the hawser and continue to heave easy.D) While continuing to heave slowly on the capstan, have the seaman take several more turns on the drum.

You need to make a fixed loop at the end of a line in order to use the line as a mooring line. You have insufficient time to make a splice. Which knot should you use?

You want to double the strength of a mooring line by using two lines. To accomplish this, the second line must __________.

A metal object on the pier resembling a tree stump and made to receive mooring lines is a __________.

The rope which is rove from the truck to be used with a bos'n's chair is called a __________.

The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew, and their effects, that a ship can carry, is the __________.

You are in charge while handling a synthetic hawser on a capstan. The hawser has a heavy strain and you wish to avoid the hawser's slipping on the capstan drum. Which action should you take?

A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________. A) should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards****B) should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwardsC) will right itself when the canopy tubes inflateD) must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself

After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft? A) Open equipment pack.B) Issue anti-seasickness medicine.C) Get clear of the ship*****D) Dry the liferaft floor and inflate.

After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________. A) keep the liferaft from capsizingB) navigate against the currentC) keep personnel from getting seasickD) stay in the general location****

If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________. A) pushing up on one sideB) standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards*****C) getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinderD) doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate

If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________. A) go in one direction until the fuel runs outB) plot course for the nearest landC) take a vote on which direction you should goD) shut down the engines and set the sea anchor*****

If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________. A) go in a different direction in search of landB) spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding youC) reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possibleD) tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group****

If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________. A) climb onto the bottomB) swim away from the raftC) right the raft using the righting strap*****

D) inflate the righting bag

If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________. A) tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the currentB) form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle*****C) send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistanceD) form a raft by lashing their life preservers together

If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________. A) remain in the immediate vicinity*****B) head for the nearest landC) head for the closest sea-lanesD) vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT __________. A) wear as much clothing as possibleB) enter the water feet firstC) swim with the wind****D) cover eyes with one hand when entering the water

Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________. A) survivors in the water****B) food and waterC) landD) bad weather

Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________. A) shapeB) shallow draftC) large sail areaD) All of the above***

Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it? A) Small sips at regular intervals during the dayB) The complete daily ration at one time during the dayC) One-third the daily ration three times daily*****D) Small sips only after sunset

To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________. A) be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water******B) float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the air

C) remove their life preservers and hold on to the uninjured survivorsD) sip water at intervals of fifteen minutes

To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________. A) canopyB) manropesC) sea painterD) righting strap******

Using a sea anchor will __________. A) reduce your drift rate*****B) keep the liferaft from turning overC) aid in recovering the liferaftD) increase your visibility

What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel? A) Identify the person in charge****B) Gather up useful floating objects.C) Prepare for arrival of rescue units.D) Arrange watches and duties.

What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft? A) Open equipment pack.B) Post a lookout.C) Issue anti-seasickness medicine.D) Pick up other survivors*****

When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________. A) plot a course for the nearest landB) take a vote on which direction you should goC) stay in the immediate area*****D) go in one direction until fuel runs out

You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE? A) As the raft flips to the upright position, you will be thrown clear.B) After the raft is in the upright position on top of you, dive down to prevent your life preservers from fouling as you come out.C) Swim out from under the raft in a face up position to keep your life preservers clear of the raft*****D) You should remove your life preservers before attempting to right an inflatable raft.

You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft? A) Cut the painter****

B) Operate the radio equipment.C) Open the equipment pack.D) Ventilate the liferaft of CO2.

You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this? A) The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.B) The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflated.C) A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.D) Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop********

You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours? A) 1 canB) 1 pint*****C) 1 quartD) 1 gallon

You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next? A) Close up the entrances**********B) Top up the buoyancy tubes.C) Prepare for the arrival of rescue units.D) Decide on food and water rations.

You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________. A) not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time**********B) plug the safety valveC) unscrew the deflation plugsD) remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch

You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________. A) quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflatesB) check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are roughC) check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial openingD) not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape*********

Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________. A) boat the sea anchor******B) paddle away from the fireC) splash water over the liferaft to cool itD) get out of the raft and swim to safety

Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

A) Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.B) Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.C) Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container**********D) Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.

If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________. A) spread apart as far as possibleB) held as tightly against your chest as possibleC) in a kneeling positionD) extended straight down and crossed at the ankles********

If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should __________. A) protect your life preserver by holding it above your headB) enter the water on the windward side of the vessel***********C) keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head firstD) wear very light clothing

If you must jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes __________. A) holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together**********B) knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legsC) body straight and arms held tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the waterD) both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed

If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will __________. A) weigh you downB) preserve body heat***********C) reduce your body heatD) make it more difficult to breathe

The abandon ship signal is __________. A) a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 secondsB) a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship's whistleC) more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells**********D) a continuous sounding of the ship's whistle

The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________. A) 6 short blasts and 1 long blastB) more than 6 short blastsC) more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast*****D) 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds

The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is __________.

A) 3 short blasts of the ship's whistleB) specified on the muster list (station bill)*******C) 3 long blasts of the ship's whistleD) 1 long blast of the ship's whistle

Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________. A) more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on the general alarmB) continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds*****C) 1 short blast on the whistleD) alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle

When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________. A) "use the float-free method only"B) "lower all boats"********C) "raise all boats"D) "drill is over, secure all boats"

While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________. A) abandon shipB) dismissal from fire and emergency stations*********C) fire and emergencyD) man overboard

You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________. A) abandon shipB) dismissal from fire and emergency stationsC) fire and emergency*********D) man overboard

After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours will __________. A) pass through the body with little absorbed by the system*********B) help to prevent fatigueC) quench thirst for only 2 hoursD) help to prevent seasickness

Drinking salt water will __________. A) be safe if mixed with fresh waterB) prevent seasicknessC) dehydrate you********D) protect against heat cramps

Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require __________. A) frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh airB) regular checks of bilge levels******C) use of ear plugs to dampen engine noiseD) frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water

If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________. A) drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter******B) find some wood for a fireC) get the provisions out of the raftD) set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it

In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________. A) thirstyB) sick or injured*****C) wetD) awake

One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________. A) stream the sea anchorB) take an anti-seasickness pill********C) open the pressure relief valveD) drink at least one can of water

Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water? A) Up to 3 daysB) 8 to 14 days********C) 15 to 20 daysD) 25 to 30 days

Seawater may be used for drinking __________. A) at a maximum rate of two ounces per dayB) after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh waterC) if gathered during or immediately after a hard rainD) under no conditions******

When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________. A) a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free********B) only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collectedC) it should be strained through a finely woven clothD) chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable

When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________. A) deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of the raft overturning********B) inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stabilityC) remove their life preservers to prepare for the transferD) take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling

When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should __________. A) remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vesselB) climb on top of the boat while waiting for their turn to transfer to the rescue vesselC) remain seated inside and make the transfer one person at a time*********D) enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel

When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________. A) passed around so all can drinkB) poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy*********C) saved to be used at a later timeD) used to boil food

When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed __________. A) horizontally and directly abeam of your vesselB) at the vessel whose attention you want to attractC) into the windD) at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon*******

Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE? A) Fresh water may be obtained from fish*********B) Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before drinking water is collected.C) Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the liferaft.D) Seawater should never be consumed.

Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft? A) The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.B) Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it.C) The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated.D) All of the above*****

Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency? A) Ration food and water supplies.B) Take anti-seasickness pills, if available*********C) Determine position and closest point of land.

D) Check pyrotechnic supplies.

While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather __________. A) the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling breezesB) the pressure valve may periodically open to prevent excessive air pressureC) deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel*********D) the entrance curtains should never be opened

You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon? A) Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on********B) Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes.C) Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on.D) Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off.

You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft? A) Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.B) Get plenty of rest.C) Keep the entrance curtains open.D) All of the above*******

AMVER is a system which provides __________. A) satellite communicationsB) navigational informationC) weather informationD) position reporting service****

The AMVER system requires __________. A) sailing plans to be sent before departureB) more frequent reports in heavy weatherC) arrival reports to be sent within 8 hours of arrivalD) a position report within 24 hours of departure*******

The first AMVER position report must be sent within how many hours of departure? A) 12B) 24********C) 36D) 48

The Sailing Plan, required by vessels participating in AMVER, must be sent __________. A) within 12 hours of departureB) within 24 hours of departure

C) within a few hours before or after departure****D) prior to departure

How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance be test fired? A) MonthlyB) At the Master's discretion*******C) SemiannuallyD) Annually

If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________. A) take part*******B) watchC) go to their quartersD) stay out of the way and do what they want

The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to __________. A) cool the craft in a fire************B) cool the engineC) spray oil on the sea to calm itD) spray personnel during a fire

The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________. A) shorter than the othersB) used for the stroke oarC) used by the forward man in the boat to direct the bowD) longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern***********

The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the __________. A) bumpkin oarB) stroke oarC) sweep oar*************D) becket oar

The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color? A) International orange***********B) YellowC) WhiteD) Red

What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered lifeboat? A) Provides air for engine combustion

B) Pressurizes water spray system**************C) Provides air for passenger respirationD) Prevents smoke and other noxious fumes from entering craft

What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged? A) Sea anchorB) Steering oar**************C) Spare rudderD) Daggerboard

When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the __________. A) fuel supply valve should be closedB) hatches, doors, and oar ports should be closed************C) air cylinder shut-off valve should be closedD) engine should be shut off

Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat? A) Number of persons allowedB) Name of the vesselC) Weight of the boat************D) Port of registry

Why are lifeboats usually double-enders? A) They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to************B) They can go forward and backward more easily.C) They require less space for stowing aboard ship.D) There is no particular reason for this.

With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be __________. A) changing in relation to the speed of the craftB) less than outside air pressureC) greater than outside air pressure*************D) equal to outside air pressure

Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames? A) The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links.B) The motor takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew.C) A water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump.D) An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the survivors and the engine***********

After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.

A) hoist manB) limit switch***********C) brake handleD) preventer bar

Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________. A) 4, based on the breaking strengthB) 5, based on the maximum allowable stressC) 6, based on the maximum working load***********D) 8, based on the normal working load

Frapping lines _________. A) secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed positionB) bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the embarkation positionC) give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered from the embarkation levelD) reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level**********

Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________. A) reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the embarkation level***********B) secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed positionC) hold the lifeboat to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passedD) be used as a safety line in an emergency

Limit switches __________. A) control the descent rate of a lifeboatB) control the ascent rate of a lifeboatC) cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position************D) cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers

Limit switches are used on which davits? A) Sheath-screw davitsB) Gravity davits************C) Radial davitsD) Quadrantal davits

Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________. A) the engineers, from a panel in the engine roomB) shutting off the current to the winchC) pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running************D) All of the above

Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.

A) 2 monthsB) 4 monthsC) 6 monthsD) year**********

Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding are __________. A) life linesB) frapping lines*************C) tricing linesD) tripping lines

On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit heads is to __________. A) keep the movement of the davits at the same speedB) keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed positionC) prevent vibration during lowering of the boatD) support the manropes**********

On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height? A) Radial**************B) Sheath-screwC) QuadrantalD) Gravity

The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat shall __________. A) be painted bright redB) be secured to a permanent part of the lifeboat structureC) have the area surrounding the lever painted whiteD) All of the above************

The falls on gravity davits are __________. A) manilaB) nylonC) wire************D) All of the above

The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________. A) limit switchesB) emergency disconnect switchC) governor brake****************************************D) position of the counterweight on the brake handle

The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the __________. A) radialB) sheath-screwC) gravity***********D) quadrantal

The purpose of the tricing pendants is to __________. A) control the fore and aft motion of a lifeboat during loweringB) control the outboard swing of a lifeboat during loweringC) provide suspensions for the manropesD) hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading*********

The tricing pendants should be released __________. A) before the gripes are removedB) before loading the passengersC) after loading the passengers***********D) after the boat is afloat

The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________. A) sheath-screw davit***********B) gravity davitC) radial davitD) bruckner davit

What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and davits? A) Moisture accumulation in winch motor damaging the electrical wiringB) Freezing of gears in cold weatherC) Corroding of sheaves on the davits so they will not rotateD) All of the above*********

What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits? A) To cut off the power when the davits hit the track safety stopsB) To stop the davits from going too fastC) To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches or more from the track safety stops******D) None of the above

What is the purpose of tricing pendants? A) They have the same function as frapping lines.B) They are safety lines for personnel inside the lifeboat.C) They slow the descent of the lifeboat.D) They hold the lifeboat alongside the embarkation deck**********

What is TRUE concerning frapping lines? A) They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered***********B) They are normally attached to the davit span.C) They are needed only on radial davits.D) They are used to clear the puddings.

When operating gravity davits, the __________. A) gripes should be released after the boat is movingB) davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowed position**********C) boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform bittsD) tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes

Which davit type may be operated by one man? A) QuadrantalB) Gravity***********C) Sheath-screwD) Radial

You will find a limit switch on a __________. A) liferaft cradleB) radial davitC) sheath-screw davitD) gravity davit*********

How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged? A) Spliced into the ring on the stem postB) Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwartC) Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls**********D) Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls

In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin? A) Frapping lineB) Tricing lineC) Rottmer releaseD) Winch remote control wire*********

In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released? A) Before the boat is lowered from the stowage positionB) As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit headC) After the limit switch is activated

D) After all people have been embarked*******

In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch a lifeboat __________. A) on the lee side************B) on the windward sideC) with the wind dead aheadD) with the wind from astern

Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the __________. A) oarsB) sailC) boat plug************D) life preservers

The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led __________. A) forward and outside of all obstructions***********B) forward and inside of all obstructionsC) up and down from the main deckD) to the foremost point on the ship

Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________. A) release the gripesB) release tricing pendantsC) put the cap on the drain***********D) lift the brake handle

When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________. A) before the gripes are releasedB) before the boat is moved from the davitsC) at the embarkation deck***********D) after the boat is in the water

When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be released __________. A) before the boat is lowered from the stowed positionB) as the boat-fall blocks break clear of the davit headC) before the boat is lowered from the embarkation level***********D) after the boat is released into the water

When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the embarkation deck by the __________. A) fallsB) tricing pendants*********

C) frapping linesD) boat hooks

When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________. A) on only the forward fallsB) on only the after fallsC) with a lead of about 45 degrees to the boat********D) from the falls to the main deck of the vessel

Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving vessel? A) The fallsB) Sea Painter**********C) Fleming GearD) Boat Hook

Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits? A) Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping linesB) Release tricing pennants, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping linesC) Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brakeD) Release gripes, lift brake, release tricing pennants********

Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes? A) They must be released by freeing a safety shackle.B) They should not be released until the boat is in lowering position.C) They may be adjusted by a turnbuckle********D) They are normally used only with radial davits.

A) in the secured positionB) at the embarkation deckC) being lowered to sea levelD) waterborne********

If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________. A) keep the bow directly in toward the beach, and tow the sea anchor off the sternB) ride in on the back of a large breakerC) keep the bow into the seas with the sea anchor out over the bow, and row to meet the breaking waves******D) head directly into the beach by staying between the crests of the waves

In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the motor lifeboat __________. A) into the seas**********B) broadside to the seasC) in the same direction as the seas

D) in a series of figure-eights

Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to __________. A) capsize*********B) run smootherC) run fasterD) sink

When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________. A) straightB) to port************C) to starboardD) None of the above

When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________. A) approach while coming to the left to take advantage of the currentB) drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor line over the bow while the seas carry the boat toward the beachC) approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around to meet breaking seas on the bowD) rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue tripped between breakers**********

You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________. A) put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will goB) take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in a heavy seaC) head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage*************D) place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to keep the bow heavy

What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter? A) Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.B) Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship***********C) Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat.D) Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the wind about broad on the quarter of your ship.

When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up __________. A) to their final position with the winch operating at slow speedB) to the bar stop, and then hand cranked to their final positionC) until just before they make contact with the limit switch, and then hand cranked to their final position*********D) to the embarkation deck, and then hand cranked to their final position

When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter should be secured __________. A) well forward in the lifeboat***********B) about amidships in the lifeboat

C) well aft in the lifeboatD) only after the falls have been attached

A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a __________. A) rigid liferaftB) life float********C) inflatable liferaftD) survival capsule

On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a __________. A) bailerB) spongeC) whistleD) fishing kit**********

Generally, what is used to inflate liferafts? A) non-toxic gas*************B) OxygenC) HydrogenD) Helium

If you find an inflatable liferaft container with steel bands around the case, you should __________. A) tell the MasterB) leave the bands in place*********C) tell the MateD) remove the bands yourself

After you have thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, you inflate the liferaft by __________. A) pulling on the painter line***********B) forcing open the container which operates the CO2C) hitting the hydrostatic releaseD) using the hand pump provided

An inflatable liferaft can be launched by __________. A) the float-free method ONLYB) breaking the weak link on the painterC) throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft**********D) removing the securing straps

An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by __________. A) pulling a cord

B) cutting the wire restraining bandsC) removing the rubber packing stripD) throwing the entire container overboard********

An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft? A) The sea anchor deploys***********B) The floor inflates.C) If upside down, the craft rights itself.D) The painter detaches from the raft.

As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________. A) breaking the weak linkB) releasing the tie-down strap***********C) pulling the operating cordD) releasing the CO2 canister

If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard? A) Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard with the raft container.B) Attach the cord to a fixed object on the ship.**********C) You should stand on the cord.D) Attach the cord to the special pad eye on the "raft davit launcher".

The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________. A) open the CO2 inflation valveB) open the raft containerC) ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel****************D) inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side

To launch a liferaft by hand you should __________. A) cut the casing bands, throw the liferaft over the side, and it will then inflateB) detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side, and it will then inflateC) cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side, and pull the operating cordD) throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord***********

To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must __________. A) pull the release lanyard**************B) pull the hydraulic releaseC) push the release buttonD) pull on the ratchet handle

What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?

A) The hydrostatic releaseB) NothingC) A Rottmer releaseD) The weak link in the painter line*********

When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________. A) fastened to some substantial part of the vessel**********B) not fastened to anythingC) secured to the hydrostatic releaseD) fastened to the raft container

Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand? A) Open the liferaft casing.B) Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation.C) Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side.**********D) After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft.

Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft? A) The person in chargeB) An approved servicing facility***********C) Shipyard personnelD) A certificated lifeboatman

A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________. A) lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feetB) straps from the overheadC) lifelines on the inside of the raft************D) ridges in the floor of the raft

A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________. A) must be wet before it will releaseB) should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergencyC) will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manuallyD) must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically**********

A life line must be connected to the liferaft __________. A) at the bowB) at the sternC) in the middleD) all around*********

A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.

A) attached to the raft stowage cradle or to a secure object nearby with a weak link*************B) checked to see that it's unattachedC) coiled neatly on the raft containerD) faked on deck and lead through a chock

After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by __________. A) opening the automatic drain plugsB) draining the water pocketsC) using the electric bilge pumpD) using the bailers and cellulose sponge*********

All inflatable liferafts have __________. A) safety straps from the overheadB) built in seatsC) releasing hooks at each endD) water stabilizing pockets*********

An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by __________. A) cutting the straps that enclose the containerB) removing the rubber sealing strip from the containerC) loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strapD) pushing the button on the hydrostatic release************

Hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are provided __________. A) to right the raft if it capsizes*************B) to carry the raft around on deckC) for crewmen to hang on toD) to hang the raft for drying

If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________. A) set the water lights on immersionB) release the dye-marker from the liferaftC) free the liferaft from a sinking vessel****************D) break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder

In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft? A) No equipment is provided.B) Glue and rubber patchesC) Several various-sized sealing clamps************D) Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches

Inflatable liferafts are provided with __________. A) a portable radioB) an oil lanternC) canned milkD) a towing connection*********

Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________. A) sealing clamps***********B) repair tapeC) a tube patchD) sail twine and vulcanizing kit

Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n) __________. A) Very pistolB) orange smoke signal**********C) air hornD) lantern

Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include __________. A) a rocket shoulder rifleB) an oil lanternC) red flares************D) an air horn

The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________. A) asphyxiation from CO2B) loss of air in the sides of the raftC) rough seasD) cold water temperatures**********

The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the vessel. The operating cord __________. A) serves as a sea painter***********B) detaches from the liferaft automaticallyC) is used to rig the boarding ladderD) is cut immediately as it is of no further use

The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should __________. A) go into place as the raft is inflated*************B) be put up after everyone is aboardC) be put up only in severe weatherD) be used as a sail if the wind is blowing

The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on __________. A) automatically as the liferaft inflates***********B) with a switch near the boarding handleC) at night because the light has a photosensitive switchD) by screwing the bulb in after the raft is inflated

The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located __________. A) in one of the equipment bagsB) in a special pocket near the forward entrance***********C) on a cord hanging from the canopyD) in a pocket on the first aid kit

The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate __________. A) by turning the globe clockwiseB) by a switch at each lightC) by a light sensorD) automatically when the raft is inflated************

The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a __________. A) lifelineB) painter***********C) drogueD) marker

The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be renewed by __________. A) removing the top half of the shell, cutting the line at its source, and renewing completelyB) cutting the line where it enters the case and replacing that portionC) leaving the original line and tying another one to it so the two lines will take the strainD) an approved servicing facility ashore**********

The painter of an inflatable liferaft should be __________. A) free running on the deckB) faked out next to the caseC) secured to a permanent object on deck**************D) stowed near the raft

The water pockets located on the underside of inflatable liferafts __________. A) stow rainwater; these 4 spaces do not take up valuable spaceB) act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as the raft is inflated and upright************C) hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed

D) None of the above

Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by __________. A) cutting the restraining strapB) unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradleC) lifting one end of the raftD) pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release**********

Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for __________. A) catching rain waterB) stability************C) easy drainageD) maneuverability

What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned? A) Water pockets**********B) A keelC) StrikesD) Sea anchor

What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft? A) To release the raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks***********B) To inflate the raft automaticallyC) To test the rafts hydrostaticallyD) None of the above

Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night? A) The water lightB) Smoke markerC) Red flares**************D) Orange dye marker

An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using __________. A) the single hook at the top of the raftB) two lines passed under the raftC) the towing bridle**********D) All of the above

Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship you would use the __________. A) towing bridle*************B) main weather cover

C) external lifelinesD) righting strap

In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________. A) lifelinesB) righting strapC) sea anchorD) towing bridle********

You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.

A) switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode B) use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raftC) turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRBD) use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB********

A) should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards****B) should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards

After abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?

B) standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards*****C) getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder

If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.

C) reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible

If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

B) form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle*****

Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for __________.

Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation, how should you drink it?

To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they should __________.

A) be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in the water******

To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.

What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning and clearing away from a vessel?

You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?

B) After the raft is in the upright position on top of you, dive down to prevent your life preservers from fouling as you come out.C) Swim out from under the raft in a face up position to keep your life preservers clear of the raft*****D) You should remove your life preservers before attempting to right an inflatable raft.

You board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the liferaft?

You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?

You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?

You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________.

Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.

Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

C) Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container**********

If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be __________.

C) keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first

A) holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet together**********

D) both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees bent and legs crossed

If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it will __________.

C) more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells**********

A) more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same signal on the general alarmB) continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least 10 seconds*****

When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast means __________.

While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.

You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.

After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours will __________.

Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time require __________.

In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are __________.

One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to __________.

Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water?

When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the personnel on the raft should __________.

When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the boat should __________.

When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection should be __________.

B) Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before drinking water is collected.

Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?

You are aboard a liferaft in a storm. What should you do with your Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon?

You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?

If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should __________.

The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which color?

What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes lost or damaged?

Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?

B) The motor takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew.C) A water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump.D) An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the survivors and the engine***********

After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the __________.

Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum safety factor of __________.

C) give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered from the embarkation level

A) reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the embarkation level***********

C) cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position************

Limit switches, winches, falls, etc. must be thoroughly inspected at least every __________.

Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding are __________.

On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit heads is to __________.

The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a lifeboat shall __________.

The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.

The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________.

C) To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches or more from the track safety stops******

B) davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final stowed position**********

C) Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls**********

In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?

In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch a lifeboat __________.

Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________.

When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the embarkation deck by the __________.

When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines __________.

B) Release tricing pennants, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines

If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to __________.

C) keep the bow into the seas with the sea anchor out over the bow, and row to meet the breaking waves******

When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back __________.

When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________.

B) drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor line over the bow while the seas carry the boat toward the beachC) approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around to meet breaking seas on the bowD) rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue tripped between breakers**********

You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent broaching, you should __________.

B) take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended maneuver in a heavy seaC) head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage*************

What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?

A) Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.B) Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about broad on the bow of your ship***********C) Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the lifeboat.D) Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with the wind about broad on the quarter of your ship.

When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be brought up __________.

C) until just before they make contact with the limit switch, and then hand cranked to their final position*********

When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter should be secured __________.

On a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a __________.

If you find an inflatable liferaft container with steel bands around the case, you should __________.

After you have thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, you inflate the liferaft by __________.

C) throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft**********

An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel. What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?

As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the liferaft container from its cradle by __________.

If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?

The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand is to __________.

What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?

When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the operating cord is __________.

C) Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side.**********

A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is __________.

A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord should be __________.

A) attached to the raft stowage cradle or to a secure object nearby with a weak link*************

If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT __________.

In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?

Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using __________.

The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide protection against __________.

The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the vessel. The operating cord __________.

A) removing the top half of the shell, cutting the line at its source, and renewing completely

C) leaving the original line and tying another one to it so the two lines will take the strain

B) act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as the raft is inflated and upright************

What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?

Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?

Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship you would use the __________.

In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you should heave on the __________.

You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should __________.

You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of this?

Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open lifeboat. The FIRST thing to do is to __________.

When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to __________.

A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology this is a __________. A) major burnB) secondary burnC) second-degree burn***D) blister burn

A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________. A) Minor burnB) Superficial burnC) Extremity burnD) First-degree burn****

A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology? A) Dermal burnB) Third-degree burn****C) Major burnD) Lethal burn

A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by __________.

*****

A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this injury?

Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with __________.

First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.

A)  gently flooding with waterB)  warming the eye with moist warm packsC)  laying the person flat on his backD)  mineral oil drops directly on the eye

A)  Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, and bandage.B)  Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment and bandage.C)  Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material and insure that nothing is in contact with the burn.D)  Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister and apply burn ointment.

A)  acids or alkaliesB)  diesel oilC)  acids, but not alkaliesD)  alkalies, but not acids

For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.

xxxx

If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should __________.

xxx

Severe airway burns can cause __________.

xxx

The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to __________.

xxxx

The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.

xxx

The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.

xxx

A)  area of the body burnedB)  source of heat causing the burnC)  layers of skin affectedD)  size of the burned area

A)  immerse the burn in cold waterB)  administer aspirinC)  apply petroleum jellyD)  apply a bandage to exclude air

A)  drain any blistersB)  apply antiseptic ointmentC)  scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infectionD)  immerse the arm in cold water

A)  nauseaB)  reddening of cheeksC)  complete obstruction of respiratory passagesD)  nosebleed

A)  wash the burned area with a warm soap and water solutionB)  flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold waterC)  cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandage it tightlyD)  leave the burned area exposed to the atmosphere

A)  move him to a cool locationB)  maintain an open airwayC)  apply a cool damp dressing to his neckD)  have him drink cool liquids

A)  apply ointment to the burned areaB)  flood the affected area with waterC)  wrap the burn with sterile dressing

The most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns is __________.

What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime? A) Water should be applied in a fine spray.B) The burned area should be immersed in water.C) The entire burn area should be covered with ointment.D) Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently.*

When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least __________. A) five minutes*B) ten minutesC) fifteen minutesD) twenty minutes

When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should __________. A) submerge the burn area in cold waterB) make the person stand up and walk to increase circulationC) cover the burns with thick, sterile dressings*D) break blisters and remove dead tissue

After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________. A) walked around until he is back to normalB) given several shots of whiskeyC) kept lying down and warm*D) allowed to do as he wishes

At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult? A) 4 to 6 times per minuteB) 12 to 15 times per minute**C) 20 to 30 times per minuteD) At least 30 times per minute

Before CPR is started, you should __________.

D)  apply an ice pack to the burned area

A)  reducing disfigurementB)  preventing infectionC)  cooling with ice waterD)  reducing swelling

A) establish an open airway*B) treat any bleeding woundsC) insure the victim is consciousD) make the victim comfortable

Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________. A) without losing the rhythm of respiration**B) only with the help of two other peopleC) by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutesD) at ten-minute intervals

If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________. A) ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilationB) pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouthC) switch to mouth-to-nose ventilationD) turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation**

Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) __________. A) vomitingB) blue color and lack of breathing**C) irregular breathingD) unconsciousness

The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________. A) having the proper equipment for the processB) starting the treatment quickly***C) administering of oxygenD) treating for traumatic shock

The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________. A) cupping a hand around the patient's mouthB) keeping the head elevatedC) applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth*D) holding the jaw down firmly

When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST important to __________. A) monitor blood pressureB) clear airways***

C) use the rhythmic pressure methodD) know all approved methods

When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________. A) 1/2 inch or lessB) 1/2 to 1 inchC) 1 to 1-1/2 inchesD) 1-1/2 to 2 inches**

When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute? A) 4B) 8C) 12****D) 20

When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should __________. A) start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the waterB) drain water from the lungs before ventilatingC) begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations as soon as possible****D) do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting

Which statement is CORRECT with respect to inserting an airway tube? A) Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.****B) A size 2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult.C) The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat.D) Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting.

You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied? A) Lower half of the sternum***B) Tip of the sternumC) Top half of the sternumD) Left chest over the heart

You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence? A) 15 compressions then 2 inflationsB) 15 compressions then 4 inflationsC) 30 compressions then 2 inflations***D) 30 compressions then 4 inflations

You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do? A) Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.B) Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.C) Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction.D) Re-tip the head and try again*****

You may have to give artificial respiration after a/an __________. A) drowningB) electrocutionC) poisoningD) All of the above***

A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________. A) immerse the feet in warm water*****B) warm the feet with a heat lampC) warm the feet at room temperatureD) rub the feet

A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure? A) Rub the toes briskly*****B) Elevate the foot slightly.C) Rewarm rapidly.D) Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary.

A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________. A) a small dose of alcoholB) treatment for shock****C) a large mealD) a brisk rub down

A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should be___ __________. A) moved to a cool room and told to lie down********B) kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuouslyC) given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of restD) None of the above are correct

Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive __________. A) loss of body temperature

B) loss of water and salt from the body****C) gain in body temperatureD) intake of water when working or exercising

Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________. A) be the best thing to try if there was no rescue in sightB) increase survival time in the waterC) increase the rate of heat loss from the body********D) not affect the heat loss from the body

Symptoms of heat stroke are __________. A) cold and moist skin, high body temperatureB) cold and dry skin, low body temperatureC) hot and moist skin, high body temperatureD) hot and dry skin, high body temperature*******

The most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________. A) running or jumping to increase circulationB) raising body temperature rapidly by placing hands and feet in hot waterC) bundling the body in blankets to rewarm gradually********D) laying prone under heat lamps to rewarm rapidly

The symptoms of heat exhaustion are __________. A) slow and strong pulseB) flushed and dry skinC) slow and deep breathingD) pale and clammy skin****

To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________. A) administer artificial respirationB) put him in a tub of ice waterC) give him sips of cool water*****D) cover him with a light cloth

Treatment of frostbite includes __________. A) rubbing affected area with ice or snowB) rubbing affected area briskly to restore circulationC) wrapping area tightly in warm clothsD) warming exposed parts rapidly****

Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of __________. A) cooling, removing to shaded area, and lying down*****B) bathing with rubbing alcoholC) drinking ice waterD) All of the above

Treatment(s) of heat exhaustion consist(s) of __________. A) moving to a shaded area and laying down*****B) bathing with rubbing alcoholC) placing the patient in a tub of cold waterD) All of the above

What are the symptoms of sun stroke? A) Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, skin is cold and clammy.B) Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, skin is hot and dry*****C) Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, skin is clammy.D) Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, skin is clammy.

Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia? A) Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temperature.B) Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature******C) Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature.D) Warm them under an electric blanket to rapidly regain normal body temperature.

Basic emergency care for third degree electrical burn is to __________. A) flood the burned area with warm water for two minutesB) brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned areaC) cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility***D) apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean cloth

If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the electrical source and then __________. A) administer ammonia smelling saltsB) check for serious burns on the bodyC) determine if he is breathing***D) massage vigorously to restore circulation

Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.

A) indication of broken bonesB) breathing and heartbeat****C) symptoms of concussionD) bleeding injuries

When a patient has an electrical burn, it is important to __________. A) look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current passing through the body****B) locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for five minutesC) remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burnD) apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth

When a rescuer finds an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________. A) flush water over any burned area of the patientB) apply ointment to the burned areas on the patientC) get assistance to shut down electrical power in the area*****D) remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or wiring

In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________. A) provide the necessary medicationB) rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries*****C) accurately diagnose the ailment or injuryD) prescribe treatment for the victim

The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________. A) evaluationB) triage******C) surveyingD) prioritizing

Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment? A) Back injuriesB) Major multiple fracturesC) Suspension of breathing*****D) Burns

Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment? A) Major multiple fracturesB) Eye injuriesC) Back injuries with spinal-cord damage

D) Airway and breathing difficulties*****

Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment? A) Severe shock*****B) Eye injuriesC) BurnsD) Major multiple fractures

A compound fracture is a fracture in which __________. A) more than one bone is brokenB) the same bone is broken in more than one placeC) there is never any internal bleedingD) the bone may be visible********

A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should __________. A) be assisted in walking aroundB) be examined then walked to a bunkC) not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives******D) not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or bunk

Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________. A) the bone has been setB) the fracture is immobilized**********C) radio advice has been obtainedD) the wound has been washed

What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid? A) Control bleedingB) Reduce painC) Immobilize a fracture******D) Reset the bone

Which is the most serious type of fracture? A) Compound*****B) GreenstickC) ClosedD) Crack

You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?

A) Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint.B) Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and apply a pressure dressing.C) Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and splint.D) Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and obtain medical advice******

You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by __________. A) attempting to set the fractureB) preventing further movement of the bone*****C) applying a tourniquetD) alternately applying hot and cold compresses

A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next? A) Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.B) Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.*********C) Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic.D) Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood.

A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________. A) pull it out with pliersB) cut the skin from around the hookC) push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook**********D) have a surgeon remove it

A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound? A) Wrap a tight bandage around the wound.B) Apply a compression bandage.C) Use temporary stitches of sail twine.D) Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.******

A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________. A) with puncture woundsB) when all other means have failed*******C) when the victim is unconsciousD) to prevent bleeding from minor wounds

Antiseptics are used principally to __________. A) speed healingB) prevent infection*********

C) reduce inflammationD) increase blood circulation

As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to __________. A) hold a victim in a stretcherB) stop uncontrolled bleeding*****C) hold a large bandage in placeD) restrain a delirious victim

Bleeding from a vein is __________. A) dark red and has a steady flow****B) bright red and slowC) bright red and spurtingD) dark red and spurting

Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________. A) applying direct pressure to the wound****B) heavy application of a disinfectantC) pouring ice water directly onto the woundD) pinching the wound closed

Blood flowing from a cut artery appears __________. A) dark red with a steady flowB) bright red with a steady flowC) bright red and in spurts*****D) dark red and in spurts

First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________. A) lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stopsB) stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound****C) apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stopsD) apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it

In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________. A) applying direct pressure to the wound*******B) submerging the wound in lukewarm waterC) cooling the wound with iceD) applying a tourniquet

The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by __________. A) direct pressure on the wound******B) elevating the wounded areaC) pressure on a pressure pointD) a tourniquet above the wound

A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________. A) turning the victim's head to the side to keep his airway openB) positioning the victim so the head is lower than the bodyC) giving the victim water if he is thirsty, but no foodD) elevating the head and shoulders slightly with a pillow*****

A crew member is having an epileptic convulsion. You should __________. A) give the victim artificial respirationB) completely restrain the victimC) give the victim one 30 mg. tablet of phenobarbitalD) keep the victim from injuring him or herself*****

A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________. A) lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised******B) administer a liquid stimulantC) lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feetD) attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness

A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________. A) boric acid solutionB) water*****C) baking soda solutionD) ammonia

A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injured. The symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma may include __________. A) reduced appetite and thirstB) sneezing and coughingC) only a low grade feverD) slurred speech and loss of coordination*****

A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________. A) carotid artery in the neck******

B) femoral artery in the groinC) brachial artery in the armD) radial artery in the wrist

A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________. A) perform the Heimlich maneuver******B) make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the brainC) immediately administer CPRD) do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious

A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must __________. A) immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessaryB) make the victim comfortable in a bunkC) immediately start CPR****D) administer oxygen

A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should __________. A) perform the Heimlich maneuverB) immediately start CPRC) give back blows and something to drinkD) allow the person to continue coughing and dislodge the obstruction on his own***

An effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board is known as the __________. A) pack-strap carryB) two man extremities carryC) fireman's dragD) four man log roll***

An unconscious person should NOT be __________. A) placed in a position with the head lower than the bodyB) given an inhalation stimulantC) given something to drink****D) treated for injuries until conscious

Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by __________. A) severe nausea and crampsB) muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness******C) sudden thirst and craving for candyD) severe agitation and desire to get out of closed spaces

First aid means __________. A) medical treatment of accidentB) setting of broken bonesC) emergency treatment at the scene of the injury*****D) dosage of medications

If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________. A) soda crackers and waterB) orange juice***C) an ounce of whiskeyD) a glass of milk

If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can __________. A) get them to rub their eye until the object is goneB) remove it with a match or toothpickC) remove it with a piece of dry sterile cottonD) remove it with a moist, cotton-tipped applicator*****

If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of __________. A) high feverB) head injuryC) broken limbsD) irregular breathing****

In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing? A) Giving stimulants*****B) Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphereC) Applying artificial respiration and massageD) Keeping the patient warm and comfortable

Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to __________. A) induce vomiting*****B) absorb the poison from the bloodC) neutralize the poison in the bloodD) increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison

Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.

A) stomachB) lower intestinesC) inner ear****D) bladder

Symptoms of sea sickness include __________. A) fever and thirstB) nausea and dizziness*****C) stomach cramps and diarrheaD) reddening of skin and hives

Symptoms of sugar diabetes include __________. A) increased appetite and thirst*****B) decreased appetite and thirstC) gain in weightD) elevated temperature

The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________. A) relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medicationB) avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling****C) preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the painD) providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration

The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is __________. A) teaB) coffeeC) whiskey and waterD) ammonia inhalant***

The symptoms of a fractured back are __________. A) leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legsB) pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and armsC) vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movementD) pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury****

To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________. A) bicarbonate of sodaB) paregoricC) aspirin****

D) aromatic spirits of ammonia

What are symptom(s) of a ruptured appendix? A) Dilated pupils and shallow breathingB) Diarrhea and frequent urinationC) Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen*****D) Extreme sweating and reddening skin

What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils? A) The degree of pain being sufferedB) The degree of vision impairmentC) Whether or not the brain is functioning properly*****D) Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal

What is a convenient and effective system of examining the body of an injury victim? A) Check the corresponding (left versus right) parts of the body.******B) Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body.C) Look for discoloration of the patient's skin.D) Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body.

What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient? A) Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurtsB) Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction******C) Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers painD) Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction

When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by __________. A) keeping an ice bag over the appendix area******B) giving the patient a laxativeC) giving the patient morphine sulfateD) giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water

When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to __________. A) give the patient a laxative to relieve painB) give the patient morphine sulfate to relieve painC) confine to bed until helicopter arrives********D) give the patient aspirin with a glass of water

When administering first aid you should avoid __________.

A) any conversation with the patientB) instructing bystandersC) unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty*****D) touching the patient before washing your hands

When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know __________. A) which medications to prescribeB) how to diagnose an illness from symptomsC) the limits of your capabilities*****D) how to set broken bones

When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________. A) pull the victim by the feetB) avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance*****C) carry the victim to a location where injuries can be assessedD) place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal

Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia? A) Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to normal body temperature.B) Move them to a warm room to gradually raise their body temperature.*****C) Keep them moving to stimulate circulation to raise their body temperature.D) Immerse them in a hot bath to rapidly raise their body temperature.

Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has fainted? A) Revive the person with smelling salts.B) Loosen the clothing.C) Lay the person horizontally.D) Give pain reliever*********

Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious? A) Give a stimulant*****B) Elevate his head.C) Stop severe bleeding.D) Treat for shock.

While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________. A) give artificial respirationB) prevent patient from hurting himself******

C) keep the patient awake and make him/her walk if necessary to keep him/her awakeD) remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed

A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position? A) On their side if unconsciousB) Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or headC) Flat on their back with head and feet at the same levelD) Arms above their head****

A person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm coverings to __________. A) increase body heatB) preserve body heat*******C) avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movementD) protect the person from injury during transportation

After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock? A) Slightly elevate the head and feet.B) Keep the person awake.C) Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature*********D) Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.

EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position? A) Head up and feet downB) Head down and feet up*******C) Flat on back with head and feet elevatedD) Arms above the head

In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and __________. A) application of CPRB) removal of any foreign objectsC) administration of oxygenD) for traumatic shock******

The best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an accident is to __________. A) have the victim exercise to increase circulationB) keep the victim from electrical equipmentC) keep the victim warm and dry while lying down******D) apply ice packs and avoid excitement

The major cause of shock in burn victims is the __________. A) high level of painB) emotional stressC) increase in body temperature and pulse rateD) massive loss of fluid through the burned area*****

What is a treatment for traumatic shock? A) Administer CPR.B) Administer fluids******C) Open clothing to allow cooling of the body.D) Keep the victim in a sitting position.

What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock? A) Keep the patient warm but not hot.B) Have the injured person lie down.C) Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation*****D) Relieve the pain of the injury.

When a person is in shock, their skin will be __________. A) warm and dryB) warm and dampC) cold and dryD) cold and damp******

Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock? A) Slow, deep breathing*****B) Pale, cold skinC) Weak, rapid pulseD) Restlessness and anxiety

A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical terminology this is a __________.

A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.

A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?

A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this injury?

First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified according to the __________.

A)  Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, and bandage.

C)  Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material and insure that nothing is in contact with the burn.D)  Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister and apply burn ointment.

For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.

The FIRST treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.

The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.

The most important concern in treating a person with extensive burns is __________.

What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?

When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least __________.

At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to nose artificial respiration to an adult?

If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation, the rescuer should FIRST __________.

B) pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth

D) turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation**

The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.

When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about __________.

When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?

You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?

You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?

A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?

Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold water would __________.

The most effective treatment for warming a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.

Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

A) Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to an acceptable body temperature.

C) cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to a medical facility***

If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the electrical source and then __________.

Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.

A) look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current passing through the body****

When a rescuer finds an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of live electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.

In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must be able to __________.

The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called __________.

Where there are multiple accident victims, which condition should be the first to receive emergency treatment?

Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the FIRST to receive emergency treatment?

Where there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should be the first to receive emergency treatment?

Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and __________.

You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower arm. Which action should you take?

B) Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and apply a pressure dressing.

D) Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and obtain medical advice******

A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. What should you do next?

A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________.

A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?

In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by __________.

A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.

A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY wash the eye with __________.

A person with diabetes has received a minor leg injured. The symptoms of the onset of a diabetic coma may include __________.

A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.

A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should __________.

A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observer should __________.

An effective method for moving patients with spinal injuries onto a spine board is known as the __________.

If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should be given __________.

If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see that it is not embedded, you can __________.

In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, what would you AVOID doing?

Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt water to __________.

Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the __________.

D) pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis below the injury****

What can be determined about an injury from examining the condition of a victim's pupils?

A) Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurtsB) Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction******C) Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers painD) Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction

When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by __________.

When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary action is to __________.

When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know __________.

When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must __________.

Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

A) Give them brandy or other alcoholic stimulation to promote a return to normal body temperature.

Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?

While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is most important to __________.

C) keep the patient awake and make him/her walk if necessary to keep him/her awake

After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?

EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient in shock should be placed in which position?

In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and __________.

A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a __________.

A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?

A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury, recommended treatment would include __________.

CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every __________.A) yearB) 2 yearsC) 6 yearsD) 12 years*********

Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.A) the same control releasing the CO2B) a separate control to release the CO2*********C) two separate controls to release the CO2D) three separate controls to release the CO2

Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or __________.A) the paint lockerB) spaces open to the atmosphere***********C) cargo holdsD) the engine room

In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2 __________.A) from inside the engine roomB) from the bridgeC) from the cargo control stationD) at the cylinder location************

Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.A) 20 seconds************B) 40 secondsC) one minuteD) two minutes

The C02 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.A) break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control**************B) sound evacuation alarm, pull handleC) open bypass valve, break glass, pull handleD) open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm

There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other is __________.A) the lack of cooling effect on heated materials************B) that it cannot be used in a dead ship situation with no electrical power to the CO2 pumpC) that it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gasesD) there is no effect on a class A fire even in an enclosed space

You receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. You should FIRST __________.A) notify the Master

B) put the wheel hard right***********C) put the engines full asternD) sound the man overboard alarm

When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.A) 1B) 2***********C) 3D) 4

Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?A) The compartment must be properly ventilated.B) The temperature of the room should never exceed 130°F(54,4 C).C) The door must be kept unlocked**********D) The compartment shall be clearly marked and identifiable.

Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?A) Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve.B) Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space.C) An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied.D) All of the above**************

A "fifteen-pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because __________.A) there are fifteen pounds of CO2 in the container*************B) the container, when full, weighs fifteen poundsC) the pressure at the discharge nozzle is l5 psiD) the empty container weighs fifteen pounds

A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged __________.A) at least annuallyB) whenever it is below its required weight************C) only if the extinguisher has been usedD) before every safety inspection

A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.A) labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible************B) replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%C) replaced in its proper location regardless of weightD) replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%

After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.A) put back in service if some C02 remainsB) hydrostatically testedC) retaggedD) recharged**************(HATIRLADINIZ MI?)

CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?A) 80%B) 85%C) 90%***********D) 95%

In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.A) invert the CO2 extinguisherB) squeeze the two trigger handles togetherC) remove the locking pin************D) open the discharge valve

Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should NOT be used to inert a space containing flammable liquids due to the danger of __________.A) the CO2 being inhaled by personnelB) reflash of burning liquidsC) vapor condensation on the extinguisherD) the discharge causing a static spark************

To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the discharge mode __________.A) slip the "D yoke" ring in the lower handle over the upper handle********B) reinsert the locking pinC) open the discharge valveD) invert the CO2 extinguisher

Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection and servicing of __________.A) CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire extinguishers**************B) foam fire extinguishersC) water (stored pressure) fire extinguishersD) All of the above

When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.A) becomes extremely hotB) becomes extremely cold*********(frost-bite benzeri soruldu)C) could come off in your handsD) is placed directly in the flames

Which is the proper method of determining whether a portable CO2 fire extinguisher needs recharging?A) Check the tag to see when the extinguisher was last charged.B) Release a small amount of CO2; if the CO2 discharges, the extinguisher is acceptable.C) Weigh the extinguisher and compare the weight against that stamped on the valve****************D) Recharge the extinguisher at least once each year.

Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a shore facility?A) Dry chemical (cartridge-operated)

B) Water (cartridge-operated)C) Water (pump tank)D) Carbon dioxide**************

You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by __________.A) looking at the gaugeB) checking the nameplate dataC) weighing by handD) weighing on a properly calibrated scale*************

You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds __________.A) one percent of the weight of the chargeB) five percent of the weight of the chargeC) seven percent of the weight of the chargeD) ten percent of the weight of the charge*************

A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the percentage of __________.A) vapor to oxygenB) the flammable limit concentrationC) the autoignition concentrationD) the lower explosive limit concentration***********

A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?A) In the lower level of the pumproomB) In the middle level of the pumproomC) In the upper level of the pumproomD) On the deck outside the pumproom***********

Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.A) flash pointB) upper explosive limitC) lower explosive limit***********D) fire point

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?A) 0B) 1.3 to 7.6%*************C) over 7.6%D) over 100%

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammable gases?A) 0.7%***********B) 4.1%C) 5.5%D) 55%

What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?A) An oxygen indicatorB) A combustible gas indicatorC) A combination combustible gas and oxygen indicator**********D) A flame safety lamp

When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.A) sour crudeB) leaded gasoline***********C) CO2D) chlorine

Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas indicator?A) Several seconds will elapse between the taking of a sample and the reading appearing on the dial****************B) The instrument will operate in any atmosphere.C) Toxicity of the atmosphere is measured by the instrument.D) All of the above

Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas indicators?A) One sample of air is adequate to test a tank.B) They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen*************C) They will detect a lack of oxygen.D) They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion.

While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle of the indicator will __________.A) remain at zero without movingB) move to the maximum reading and stay thereC) move halfway up the scaleD) move to the maximum reading and immediately return to zero**********

A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by __________.A) gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside downB) pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher**********C) air pressure from the hand pump attached to the extinguisherD) pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the chemical

In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?A) Weigh the powder in the canister.B) Discharge a small amount to see that it works.C) Check the hose and nozzle for clogs*************D) Check the external pressure gage.

Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accomplished by __________.A) authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only

B) replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling with powder***********C) puncturing the cartridge seal after installationD) recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder

When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical_________.A) is not an effective agent on Class B firesB) does little or no cooling*************C) dissipates quicklyD) is rapidly absorbed by the liquid

When must a dry chemical fire extinguisher be recharged?A) After each use**************B) When the air temperature exceeds 90°FC) Every 6 monthsD) Every 12 months

Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?A) Test the pressure gauge for correct reading.B) Weigh the cartridge************C) Replace the dry chemical.D) Pressure test the discharge hose.

Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?A) Insure the chemical is powdery**************B) Replace the cartridge.C) Pressure test the discharge hose.D) Test the pressure gauge for proper operation.

Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.A) smoke sensorsB) the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals**********C) pressure loss due to air being heatedD) an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the beam

Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?A) Manual fire detection systemB) Automatic fire detection system***************C) Smoke detection systemD) Watchman's supervisory system

Which of the following is/are NOT required on Ro-Ro vessels, regarding spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?A) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.B) The spaces shall have designated smoking areas************C) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.D) All of the above

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?A) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.B) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.C) The installation of a water sprinkler extinguishing system is prohibited*************D) All of the above

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?A) The spaces shall NOT be fitted with a flame detecting system**********B) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system.C) As an alternative to a fixed CO2 system, the Commandant may permit a water sprinkler system.D) All of the above

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?A) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system**************B) The spaces shall have designated smoking areas.C) The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems.D) All of the above

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?A) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.B) The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system.C) The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing system.D) All of the above**************

A double male coupling is one that __________.A) has left hand twistB) has inside threads on both endsC) has outside threads on both ends************D) takes two men to operate

A fire hose has a __________.A) male coupling at both endsB) female coupling at both endsC) female coupling at the nozzle end and a male coupling at the hydrant endD) male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the hydrant end***************

A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.A) fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations***************B) vessel is in portC) fire-main system is not chargedD) fire pumps are used for purposes other than supplying water to the fire main

A spanner is a __________.A) cross connection line between two main fire lines

B) special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line*************C) tackle rigged to support a fire hoseD) None of the above

Fire hose couplings __________.A) are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals****************B) should be painted red in order to identify hose lengthsC) are specially hardened to prevent crushingD) should be greased frequently

Fire hose should be washed with __________.A) salt water and a wire brushB) caustic soapC) mild soap and fresh water**************D) a holystone

No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal in order to __________.A) avoid kinking the hose******************B) avoid personal injury during connectionC) make connecting easierD) prevent spray on electrical equipment

The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is __________.A) the hose could burstB) the nozzle end will whip about causing damage or injury**************C) water damage to vessel's cargo or structureD) personnel might trip over the hose

The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing __________.A) 45° upwardB) vertically upwardC) vertically downward*****************D) all of the above

To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, you should use __________.A) glycerineB) graphiteC) keroseneD) fresh water and soap*****************

To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and __________.A) replace the gasket in the male couplingB) reduce fire pump pressureC) replace the gasket in the female coupling**************D) rethread the male coupling

What does the term "head" mean when applied to a fire pump?A) Length of the discharge pipeB) Height of the discharge pipeC) Difference between the discharge and suction pressures***********D) Sum of discharge and suction pressures

What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose?A) 1B) 2**************C) 3D) 4

What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose?A) 1B) 2C) 3***************D) 4

What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?A) The fire pumpB) Exposed hard pipingC) The hydrant valveD) The fire hose***************

What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?A) Bearing grease and a wire brushB) Talc and fine sandpaperC) Fish oil and a soft brushD) Fresh water, soap, and a stiff brush**************

The canvas covering of fire hose is called the __________.A) casingB) outer hoseC) line coverD) jacket***************

When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.

Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?

A) threads are lubricatedB) nozzle is attached to the hoseC) female coupling has a gasketD) hose is led out*********

Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?

Foam is a very effective smothering agent and __________.

One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam __________.

When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will __________.

After using a Halon extinguisher, it should be __________.

Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?

A) Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female coupling, then roll it up.**********B) Roll the hose starting at the female end.C) Roll the hose starting at the male end.D) Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then lash the folds together.

A) Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling process.B) The threads on the male end are protected by the hose.*********C) Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign objects into the couplings.D) Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering of the hose.

A) it provides cooling as a secondary effect************B) works well on extinguishing electrical firesC) can be used to combat combustible metal firesD) All of the above

A) cannot be made with salt waterB) is heavier than oil and sinks below its surfaceC) is corrosive and a hazard to fire fightersD) conducts electricity********

A) be dryerB) be lighterC) be more heat resistant***********D) cling to vertical surfaces

A) put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remainsB) repaintedC) discardedD) recharged**********

A) It is more effective than CO2.B) It leaves no residue.

The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be __________.

The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to __________.

What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.

An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is __________.

Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be detected with __________.

C) It is noncorrosive.D) It is always non-toxic.****************

A) made of steel or bronze wire ropeB) corrosion resistantC) not less than 50 feet in lengthD) All of the above*************

A) extinguish the fire which triggers itB) limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced************C) protect people in the areas which have sprinkler headsD) alert the crew to the fire

A) 10 minutesB) 15 minutesC) 30 minutes***************D) 45 minutes

A) CO2B) fresh air***********C) the tested compartment's airD) water

A) sufficient oxygen in a compartment to support life************B) combustible gases presentC) hydrogen gas presentD) All of the above

A) litmus paperB) a combustible gas indicatorC) an oxygen breathing apparatusD) an oxygen indicator************

While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then __________.

One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it __________.

The most effective cooling agent among those normally used to fight fires is __________.

What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?

What is the BEST conductor of electricity?

Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?

An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is its __________.

A) enter the tank safelyB) suspect the accuracy of the reading*************C) ventilate the tankD) test for nitrogen

A) can fit any size hoseB) converts a stream of water into a fog**************C) increases the amount of water reaching the fireD) can spray two streams of water at the same time

A) water fog or spray**********B) chemical foamC) mechanical foamD) carbon dioxide

A) Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuelB) Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier***********C) Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering systemsD) Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid surfaces

A) Carbon dioxideB) Distilled waterC) Fresh waterD) Salt water***************

A) CO2B) FoamC) Water*************D) Dry chemical

A) greater range*************

An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is __________.

As an extinguishing agent, foam __________.

As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?

Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?

CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________.

Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by __________.

B) cooling abilityC) cleanlinessD) All of the above

A) lack of toxicityB) the multipurpose extinguishing ability***********C) burn-back protectionD) cooling ability

A) conducts electricity*************B) should be directed at the base of the fireC) is most effective on burning gases which are flowingD) extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature

A) CleanerB) Effective on metal firesC) Greater range*********D) More cooling effect

A) It causes minimal damage.*************B) It is safer for personnel.C) It is cheaper.D) It is most effective on a per unit basis.

A) coolingB) smothering************C) chemical actionD) All of the above

A) coolingB) smotheringC) oxygen dilutionD) breaking the chain reaction***********

Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be __________.

Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam __________.

Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

Foam extinguishes a fire by __________.

Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by __________.

Halon extinguishes fire primarily by __________.

How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

A) able to absorb heatB) water basedC) nonconducting**********D) nontoxic

A) penetrates to the bottom of the fireB) is kept saturated with low-velocity water fogC) mixes with the burning fuel oilD) completely covers the top of the burning liquid*********

A) shutting off the air supply*******B) cooling the fuel to below ignition temperatureC) dispersing the fuelD) removing the source of ignition

A) smothering the burning material********B) chemical combination with burning materialC) absorbing the burning materialD) organic destruction of the burning material

A) coolingB) chemical actionC) smothering***********D) inerting the air

A) coolingB) smotheringC) shielding of radiant heatD) breaking the chain reaction************

The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.

The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an enclosed space is __________.

The disadvantage of using CO2 is that the __________.

The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed __________.

The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is __________.

The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is __________.

A) By cooling the oil below the ignition temperatureB) By removing the fuel source from the fireC) By excluding the oxygen from the fire**********D) By increasing the weight of the oil

A) spray directly on the base of the fireB) flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface*************C) sweep the fire with the foamD) spray directly on the surface of the fire

A) frostbiteB) skin burnsC) asphyxiation**********D) an explosive reaction

A) CO2 does not cool the fire********B) cylinders are regulated pressure vesselsC) C02 is not effective on class "B" firesD) C02 is not effective on class "C" fires

A) at the base of the flames**********B) at the center of the flamesC) to the lee side of the flamesD) over the tops of the flames

A) carbon dioxide*****B) foamC) water fogD) water stream

A) breaking the chain reaction**********B) the CO2 that is formed by heatC) smothering

The principal personnel hazard unique to Halon extinguishers is __________.

What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?

What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?

When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the __________.

When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be directed __________.

When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide __________.

When using carbon dioxide to fight a fire on a bulkhead, the CO2 should be applied __________.

D) shielding of radiant heat

A) displacement of oxygenB) skin irritationC) inhaling toxic vapors********D) eye irritation

A) It has a greater duration.B) It provides a heat shield for the operator.C) It is nontoxic.D) It offers lasting, effective protection against burn-back.*

A) Effective even if ventilation is not shut down*B) Will not deteriorate in storageC) Non-corrosiveD) Effective on electrical equipment

A) base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish***B) top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames downward as they diminishC) center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from top to bottomD) bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top following the flames upward as they diminish

A) over the top of the flamesB) off a bulkhead into the fireC) in front of the fireD) at the base of the fire***

A) is effective if used promptly on an oil fire**B) has a greater cooling effect than waterC) is lighter than airD) is harmless to cargo and crew

Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?

Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium?

Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?

Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?

Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing medium?

A) first to the bottom of the flaming area, sweeping from side to side, and following the flames upward***B) in a circular motion from the middle of the bulkhead outwardC) to the top of the flaming area, sweeping from side to side, and working toward the bottomD) in an up-and-down motion from one side of the bulkhead to the other

A) Compatible with all foam agentsB) CleanerC) More protective against re-flash***D) All of the above

A) Electrically non-conductive******B) Relatively inexpensiveC) Effective against chemicals containing an oxidizerD) All of the above

A) Leaves a residueB) Cost, relative to other agents***C) Breaks down while under prolonged storageD) Conducts electricity

A) Damaged eardrumsB) Electric shockC) FrostbiteD) Respiratory arrest***

A) CO2*****B) Water streamC) Water sprayD) Foam

A) Conducts electricityB) Difficult to store

Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?

Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?

Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical powder is FALSE?

Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?

Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon 1301?

Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?

C) Large volume necessary to be effectiveD) Ineffective in powdered metal fires***

A) Foam conducts electricity.****B) To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of the fire.C) Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing.D) Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires.

A) It displaces the oxygen in the air.B) It cannot be seen.C) It cannot be smelled.D) It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space.**

A) At temperatures of less than 32°F, the extinguisher must be recharged more often.****B) When possible, the fire should be attacked from windward.C) The stream should be directed at the base of the fire.D) Directing the stream into burning flammable liquid may cause splashing.

A) The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire.B) The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction.*****C) The powder forms a solid coating over the surface.D) The dry chemical smothers the fire.

A) It is colorless.B) It is sweet smelling.*****C) It may cause dizziness when inhaled.D) It does not conduct electricity.

A) The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire.B) The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases.C) Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders.D) Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from rising.*********

Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?

Which statement is TRUE concerning the use of a dry chemical extinguisher?

Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?

While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should __________.

Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?

A) It is lighter than air.B) It is an inert gas.*********C) It is used mostly on class A fires.D) All of the above

A) It is heavier than air.B) It is non-conductive.C) It is used on class B and C fires.D) All of the above are true.*********

A) It cools the surface of the liquid.B) It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the heat of the fire.C) It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil.*****D) It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water is being applied.

A) You should direct the stream at the base of the fire.*****B) You should direct the stream directly into the fire.C) You should direct the stream at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow over the fire.D) All of the above

A) You should direct the spray at the base of the fire.****B) You should direct the spray directly into the fire.C) You should direct the spray at a vertical bulkhead and allow it to flow over the fire.D) All of the above

A) secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylindersB) continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2C) retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning*****D) make sure all doors and vents are secured

A) To coat the surrounding bulkheads with foam in case the fire spreadsB) To cool the bulkhead closest to the fire

You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

Convection spreads a fire by __________.

In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

Radiation spreads a fire by __________.

C) To prevent any oil on the bulkheads from ignitingD) To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire*****

A) to bank off a bulkhead onto the fireB) at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge****C) over the top of the fireD) at the main body of the fire

A) at the main body of the fireB) to bank off a bulkhead onto the fireC) over the top of the fireD) at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge***

A) at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge******B) to bank off a bulkhead onto the fireC) over the top of the fireD) at the main body of the fire

A) transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metalB) burning liquids flowing into another spaceC) heated gases flowing through ventilation systems*****D) the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space

A) ventilationB) radiationC) convection***D) conduction

A) transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metalB) burning liquids flowing into another spaceC) heated gases flowing through ventilation systemsD) the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space****

Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with __________.

A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.

Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have which important property?

Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?

A) Carbon dioxideB) Hydrogen sulfideC) Carbon monoxide*****D) Nitric oxide

A) solid materials such as wood or bales of fiberB) flammable liquids**C) a piece of electrical equipmentD) combustible metallic solids

A) dry chemicalB) foam***C) high-velocity fogD) Water (cartridge-operated)

A) generatorsB) oil drums**C) the bridge controlsD) combustible metals

A) a mattress****B) spilled liquids such as oil or paintC) high voltage electrical gearD) a trash can

A) Cooling abilityB) Leaves no residueC) Penetrating powerD) Nonconductivity****

A) A onlyB) B only

Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which type(s) of fire?

If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be __________.

On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with the chemical called __________.

On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would be the LEAST desirable?

One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.

Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on class __________.

C) B and C onlyD) A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher***

A) Burning oilB) ElectricalC) PaintD) All of the above***

A) dry powder****B) water fogC) CO2D) steam

A) acrylic acidB) benzeneC) oleum*****D) vinyl tolüene

A) Carbon dioxideB) Water (stored pressure)***C) Dry chemicalD) Foam

A) it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumesB) it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its effectivenessC) fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil fire****D) it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage electrical equipment

A) A and class B fires*****B) A and class C firesC) B and class C firesD) A, class B, and class C fires

Portable foam type fire extinguishers are most effective on __________.

Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?

The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is __________.

The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on burning linen is __________.

What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?

When choosin a fire extinguisher to fight a class b fire do not use

When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?

A) mattress firesB) oil fires******C) wood firesD) All of the above

A) Motor gasolineB) Jet fuelC) Crude petroleumD) Alcohol******

A) water*****B) carbon dioxideC) foamD) dry chemical

A) water******B) carbon dioxideC) dry chemicalD) foam

A) WeightB) TemperatureC) Electrical nonconductivity****D) Cost

A) Water*****B) co2C) dry chemicalD) foam

A) FoamB) Solid stream water nozzle******

Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?

Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?

Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?

Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher effective on?

Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?

Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

C) All-purpose nozzleD) Carbon dioxide

A) WaterB) Sand*****C) CO2D) Dry chemical

A) CO2B) FoamC) Dry ChemicalD) Water****

A) FoamB) CO2*****C) Dry chemicalD) Water fog

A) Classes A and B******B) Classes A and CC) Classes B and CD) All of the above

A) Dry chemicalB) CO2C) FoamD) Dry powder*****

A) Foam (stored-pressure)B) Water (cartridge-operated)*****C) Dry chemicalD) Carbon dioxide

Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for putting out electrical fires?

Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a class "C" fire?

Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________.

Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in __________.

The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the __________.

The explosive range of Bunker C mixed with air is __________. A) 0% to 1% by volumeB) 1% to 5% by volume****C) 5% to 10% by volumeD) 10% to 20% by volume

The explosive range of Diesel Oil mixed with air is __________. A) 0% to 1% by volumeB) 0.8% to 5.3% by volumeC) 1.3% to 6.0% by volume****

A) Foam and water (stored pressure)B) Foam and carbon dioxideC) Foam and dry chemicalD) Dry chemical and carbon dioxide******

A) The dry chemical is a conductor.B) The dry chemical leaves a residue.****C) CO2 will not dissipate in air.D) It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area.

A) an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignitesB) conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substanceC) chemical action within a substance****D) All of the above

A) rags soaked in linseed oil******B) overloaded electrical circuitsC) dirty swabs and cleaning gearD) partially loaded fuel tanks

A) two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self igniteB) upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present****C) upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burnD) two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present

D) 6.3% to 12.1% by volume

The flash point of a liquid means the temperature __________. A) at which a liquid will give off flammable vapors*******B) at which a liquid will burn steadilyC) at which a liquid will explodeD) that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily

The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called __________. A) explosive rangeB) flash pointC) ignition temperature*******D) combustion temperature

The vapor pressure of a substance __________. A) increases with the temperature*******B) decreases as temperature increasesC) is not affected by temperatureD) may increase or decrease as the temperature rises

The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its __________. A) ignition temperatureB) flash point*****C) flammable rangeD) conversion index

What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur? A) 1%B) 10%C) 15%******D) 21%

Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel? A) Carbon dioxide****B) Water (stored pressure)C) FoamD) Carbon tetrachloride

Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature? A) Both are higher than normal burning temperatures.B) The flash point is always higher.C) The ignition temperature is always higher.****D) They are not necessarily related.

Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?

A) It is lower than the ignition temperature.************B) It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite.C) It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited, will continue to burn.D) It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive range.

Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion? A) CoalB) Scrap rubberC) LeatherD) All of the above*****

You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride? A) It will explode if exposed to a flame.B) Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal.***********C) It will burn rapidly once ignited.D) You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride.

You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks __________. A) during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom**********B) during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tankC) when underway as the fuel is moved by wave actionD) shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather

All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________. A) fuelB) electricity********C) oxygenD) heat

Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by a __________. A) remote operated valveB) fusible link********C) CO2 system pressure switchD) heat or smoke detector

Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________. A) the fire to spread through the ventilation system***********B) fixed foam systems to be ineffectiveC) faster cooling of the fireD) the accumulation of explosive gases

Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________. A) removing the heatB) removing the oxygenC) removing the fuel****

D) interrupting the chain reaction

Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by __________. A) convection***********B) conductionC) radiationD) direct contact

Fire may be spread by which means? A) Conduction of heat to adjacent surfacesB) Direct radiationC) ConvectionD) All of the above*****

Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by __________. A) a mechanical arm outside the vent ductB) electrical controls on the bridgeC) the heat of a fire melting the link********D) a break-glass and pull-cable system

Removing which will extinguish a fire?A) NitrogenB) Carbon dioxideC) SodiumD) Oxygen**********

The blocking or absence of fire dampers can cause __________. A) the accumulation of explosive gasesB) faster cooling of the fireC) the fire to spread through the ventilation system***********D) fixed foam systems to be ineffective

The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway? A) They are to be kept closed at all times.B) They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning system is shut down.C) They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge.**********D) They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire.

The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________. A) in the midships houseB) at the main deck manifoldC) at the vent headerD) in the pumproom******

The spread of fire is NOT prevented by __________.

A) shutting off the oxygen supplyB) cooling surfaces adjacent to the fireC) removing combustibles from the endangered areaD) removing smoke and toxic gases by ensuring adequate ventilation***

The spread of fire is prevented by __________.A) heating surfaces adjacent to the fireB) removing combustibles from the endangered area*********C) increasing the oxygen supplyD) All of the above

The spread of fire is prevented by __________. A) heating surfaces adjacent to the fireB) leaving combustibles in the endangered areaC) shutting off the oxygen supply********D) All of the above

The spread of fire is prevented by __________. A) cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire*******B) leaving combustibles in the endangered areaC) increasing the oxygen supplyD) All of the above

The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE? A) A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.B) Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification.C) Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them.D) Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.*******

What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire? A) Chain reaction******B) ElectricityC) PressureD) Smoke

What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?A) NitrogenB) SodiumC) Oxygen*********D) Carbon dioxide

Which condition is necessary for a substance to burn? A) The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point.B) The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity.C) The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range."

D) All of the above********

Which condition is NOT necessary for a combustible liquid to burn? A) The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire point.B) The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity.C) The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range."D) All of the above are necessary for a combustible liquid to burn.********

Which when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire? A) Oxygen*****B) Carbon dioxideC) SodiumD) Nitrogen

You will extinguish a fire when you remove __________. A) nitrogenB) oxygen***********C) sodiumD) carbon dioxide

Spontaneous ignition can result from __________.A) an unprotected drop-light bulbB) careless disposal or storage of material*******C) smoking in bedD) worn electrical wires on power tools

Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because __________. A) they generate heatB) they emit hydrogen**********C) of the toxic fumes they emitD) they recharge faster in a well ventilated space

What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors? A) Static electricityB) An open running electric motorC) Loose wiringD) Explosion proof lights*******

Which may ignite fuel vapors? A) Static electricityB) An open and running motorC) Loose wiringD) All of the above

A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, you should __________.

A) keep the galley door closed until all the class "A" material has been consumed by the fireB) have a hose team cool the galley door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II extinguisherC) cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the galley door*******D) advance the hose team into the galley without any preparatory action

Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________. A) opening dead spaces to check for heat or fire****B) evacuation of the vesselC) sounding the "all clear" signalD) operation of the emergency generator

The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to __________. A) remove oxygen from the areaB) cool fuel below ignition temperature*****C) smother with CO2D) smother fire with foam

The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________. A) shield fire fighters from radiant heatB) break up burning material*********C) get the most water possible on the fireD) drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters

What is meant by the term "overhaul" in firefighting? A) Slow down the spread of fire by cooling adjacent structuresB) Cover the fire with foamC) Smother the fire with a blanket or similar objectD) Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are extinguished*******

Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley? A) An adjacent storeroom, containing spare partsB) A storeroom directly above, containing combustible fluids*******C) An adjacent storeroom, containing mattresses and linenD) An adjacent storeroom, marked "Stewards Stores"

A class B fire is most successfully fought by __________.A) preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material*********B) cooling the burning material below its ignition temperatureC) using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material fire-resistantD) using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat

A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of __________. A) contaminating food with extinguishing agentB) spreading through the engineering spaceC) causing loss of stability

D) a grease fire in the ventilation system*******

A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to __________. A) batten down the engine roomB) start the fire pumpC) apply carbon dioxide to the fireD) shut off the fuel supply*********

A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______. A) waterB) foamC) the range hood extinguishing system********D) fire dampers

After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to __________. A) use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding areaB) stand by with water or other agents********C) thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2D) jettison all burning materials

After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________. A) opened and burned material removedB) left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool*********C) checked for oxygen contentD) doused with water to prevent reflash

If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to __________. A) release the CO2 flooding systemB) open the door to evaluate the extent of the fireC) enter and use a portable extinguisherD) secure the ventilation********

Oil fires are best extinguished by __________. A) cutting off the supply of oxygen***********B) removing the fuelC) cooling below the ignition temperatureD) spraying with water

When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line? A) Secure all engine room doors, hatches, and vents.B) Close the fuel line valve.**********C) Check the spread of the fire with foam.D) Cast the barge off the wharf.

When possible, what should be the FIRST step in combating a fire on deck resulting from a cargo overflow or a leaking cargo line?

A) Blanket the cargo spill with foam.B) Prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam.C) Apply CO2 on burning fuel at its source.D) Shut off the transfer of cargo.********

Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?A) Use the CO2 system and evacuate the engine room.B) Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room.C) Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.*********D) Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system.

An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to __________. A) stop ventilationB) stop the vesselC) de-energize the circuit********D) apply water to extinguish the fire

What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire? A) Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spacesB) Danger of shock to personnel**********C) The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisherD) Maintaining electrical power

You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________. A) use a portable foam extinguisherB) use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hoseC) use a portable CO2 extinguisher**********D) determine the cause of the fire

A vessel’s fire control plan shall be _________? A) posted every 150 feet along the most continuous deck on the vessel.B) permanently posted for the guidance of ship’s officers.********C) given to each crewmember in booklet form.D) translated into three languages: English, French and Spanish.

Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies?A) MicrofilmB) BlueprintC) Booklet Form********D) None of the above

In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or _________? A) French********B) SpanishC) German

D) Japanese

In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located? A) Gangway*********B) Engine RoomC) Crew MessD) Chief Mate's Office

In what location would a duplicate fire control plan normally NOT be located? A) Navigation BridgeB) Engine Room ControlC) Master's Office*********D) Crew and Passenger Areas

On a MODU, where MUST the fire control plan be posted? A) Crew loungeB) Mess AreaC) Control Center**********D) None of the above

On a MODU, where Must the fire control plan be posted?A) Pilot house**********B) Mess AreaC) Crew LoungeD) None of the above

On the vessel’s Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT? A) Spaces protected by the systemB) Extinguishing agent cylinder locationC) Remote cylinder release(s)D) Instructions for activation of system***********

On the vessel’s Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT? A) Fire pump(s) locationB) Fire pump capacityC) Diameter of fire main************D) Fire station locations

The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems? A) Fixed fire suppressionB) Ship constructionC) VentilationD) All of the above******

The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization?

A) National Fire Protection AgencyB) U.S. Coast GuardC) International Association of Classification SocietiesD) International Maritime Organization**********

The vessel’s fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan? A) General arrangement*******B) Midship sectionC) SubdivisionD) Lines

What is the purpose of a fire control plan aboard passenger ships? A) guidance for the officer-in-charge in the event of fireB) facilitate shore-side fire fighters in fighting fire aboard the vesselC) show passengers where to evacuate in event of fireD) All of the above**********

Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel’s fire control plan? A) Gas detectorB) Fire control planC) Fire and emergency signals**********D) Dry chemical monitor

Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel’s fire control plan? A) Fire main systemB) Muster lists*********C) Secondary means of escapeD) Bilge pumps

Which of the following is not required to be included on Fire Control Plans? A) Smoke detectorsB) Communication plan**********C) Secondary means of escapeD) All watertight doors

Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel’s Fire Control Plan? A) Ventilation fan locationB) Ventilation fan capacity*********C) Ventilation fan controlD) Ventilation dampers

Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel’s fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan? A) PartialB) Inboard profileC) Subdivision and stability

D) General arrangement*********

A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take? A) Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container.B) Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel.C) Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add more CO2 hourly.**********D) Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded.

A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________. A) blows the fire back toward the vesselB) comes over the bow***********C) comes over the sternD) comes over either beam

A fire is discovered in the bow of your vessel while making way. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________. A) remain on course and hold speedB) remain on course but slack the speedC) change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speedD) change course and put the stern to the wind**********

A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by __________.A) cooling the gas below the ignition pointB) cutting off the supply of oxygenC) stopping the flow of gas*********D) interrupting the chain reaction

A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should FIRST __________. A) stop the ventilationB) sound the general alarm****C) determine the source of the fireD) attempt to extinguish the fire

According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________. A) 5%B) 10%C) 25%***********D) 40%

At night while the ship is tied up to the dock, a fire breaks out in a cargo hatch. After sounding the alarm, what should the person on watch do? A) Begin fighting the fire immediately.B) Await further orders from the Master.C) Let go the lines to let the vessel drift to an anchorage.D) Send a person to summon the shore authorities.*******

Control of fire should be addressed __________.

A) immediately after restoring vital servicesB) immediately*************C) following control of floodingD) following establishment of fire boundaries

If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST __________.A) notify the Coast GuardB) sound the alarm************C) have passengers put on life preserversD) cut off air supply to the fire

If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel? A) Shutting off electricity to damaged cablesB) Pumping fire-fighting water overboard***********C) Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee sideD) Removing burned debris from the cargo hold

In the event of fire in a machinery space, __________. A) the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means of extinguishment have failed***********B) the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the most efficient means of extinguishmentC) water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fireD) the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel

The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is __________. A) CO2B) dry chemicalC) waterD) foam*********

The primary danger in helicopter fires is __________. A) burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas**********B) loss of stabilityC) rotating and flying debrisD) heat damage to helicopter structure

The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the __________.A) size of the fire when initially observedB) complete containment of the fire***********C) cooling ability of the firefighting agentD) class of the fire

There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________. A) head the bow into the wind and decrease speed**********B) put the wind off either beamC) put the stern into the wind and increase speed

D) put the stern into the wind and decrease speed

There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________. A) wind off either beamB) stern into the wind and increase speedC) bow into the wind and decrease speed***********D) stern into the wind and decrease speed

What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill? A) All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated.*********B) All lifeboat equipment shall be examined.C) Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened.D) All of the above

What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship? A) Sound the alarm.***********B) Attempt to put out the fire.C) Confine it by closing doors, ports, vents, etc.D) Call the Master.

When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire fighters from the fire by using __________.A) a straight stream of waterB) foam sprayC) high-velocity fog**********D) low-velocity fog

When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________. A) low-velocity fog**********B) high-velocity fogC) a straight stream of waterD) foam spray

When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best? A) High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overheadB) Straight stream directed into the center of the fireC) Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream*********D) Solid stream directed toward the overhead

When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________. A) shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fireB) use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system***********C) activate the fixed CO2 firefighting systemD) use high-expansion foam

When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________.

A) maneuver with the hose more easilyB) obtain the best available air for breathingC) allow the heat and steam to pass overhead*********D) None of the above

When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________. A) rotate personnel, due to heat stress********B) station personnel on the hot deck immediately above the fireC) stay low by crouching or kneeling on deckD) All of the above

When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________. A) not rotate personnel, as the consistent attack can extinguish the fire quickly.B) stand erect, to avoid the heat of the deck***********C) station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to observe for its potential spreadD) All of the above

When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), you should __________. A) attempt to isolate the fire from the LPGB) cool the bottles or remove them from the fire area***********C) see that the valves on all LPG bottles are closedD) place insulating material over the bottles

When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________. A) use different fire hose pressuresB) use fire hoses of different sizesC) not attack the fire from opposite sides**********D) not wear protective clothing

Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire? A) Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effectB) Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oilC) Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment************D) Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction

You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST? A) Advise the Chief Mate and Master.B) Release carbon dioxide into the hatch.C) Sound the general alarm.************D) Lead a fire hose to the hatch.

You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'tween deck. Which of the following should NOT be done immediately? A) Sound the general alarmB) Secure mechanical cargo hold ventilationC) Call for water on deck

D) Release carbon dioxide into the affected compartment************

You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________. A) remain on course and hold speedB) change course to put the wind on either beam and increase speedC) change course and put the stern to the wind***********D) remain on course but decrease speed

You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________. A) put the vessel's stern into the wind**********B) abandon ship to windwardC) call for assistanceD) keep going at half speed

You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________. A) begin breaking out the nearest fire hoseB) secure ventilation to the roomC) close the door to the roomD) acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus**********

You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions? A) Close the door to the room.B) Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher.C) Secure power to the washers and dryers.D) Break out the nearest fire hose.**********

You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST? A) Protect the adjacent spaces on the same deck as the laundry room.B) Locate and use the nearest portable extinguisher, if conditions permit.*********C) Protect the compartment directly above the laundry room.D) Go to the nearest fire station and break out the hose.

When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill? A) More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle***********B) A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 secondsC) One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistleD) Three short blasts of the whistle

While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This signal indicates __________. A) abandon shipB) commence lowering boats**********C) stop lowering boatsD) secure from boat stations

While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.

A) "abandon ship"B) "commence lowering boats"C) "stop lowering boats"************D) "secure from boat stations"

A fire must be ventilated __________. A) when using an indirect attack on the fire such as flooding with waterB) to prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters*************C) to minimize heat buildup in adjacent compartmentsD) if compressed gas cylinders are stowed in the compartment on fire

A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________. A) using a 2-1/2 inch hoseB) there is an outlet for the smoke and heat***********C) the fire is totally contained by the ship's structureD) at least two fog streams can be used

Actuating the CO2 fixed system causes the shutdown of the __________. A) fuel supplyB) exhaust ventilationC) supply and exhaust ventilation**********D) mechanical and natural ventilation

Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________. A) closing the compartment except for the ventilatorsB) completely closing the compartment**************C) leaving the compartment open to the airD) increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers

If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should be to __________.A) discharge the fixed CO2 system into the engine roomB) secure the fuel supply and ventilation to the engine room***********C) maneuver your vessel into the windD) have all of your crew get into the liferaft

It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________. A) allow the exhaust fans to remove smokeB) extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smotheringC) prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire************D) protect fire fighting personnel from smoke

There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel. You should __________. A) ventilate the quarters as much as possibleB) prepare to abandon shipC) close all ventilation to the quarters if possible***********

D) attempt to put the fire out yourself before sounding the alarm

Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by __________. A) convection***********B) conductionC) radiationD) spontaneous combustion

When should a fire be ventilated? A) When attacking the fire directly***********B) When using a steam smothering systemC) When using the fixed CO2 systemD) All of the above

You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the __________. A) compartment is closed and ventilators are openedB) compartment is left open to the airC) compartment is closed and airtight***********D) air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers

Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE?

A) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.**************B) The equipment must be grounded to prevent shock hazard.C) The chipping mechanism is made of non-sparking material that is safe to use near explosive atmospheres.D) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter.

When using a pneumatic chipping tool all of the following are TRUE except? . #

A) The equipment is not required to be grounded to prevent shock hazard.B) It is not intended to be used in an explosive atmosphereC) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter.***************D) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.

CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every __________.

Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.

In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2 __________.

Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.

There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available, and the other is __________.

You receive word that a person has fallen overboard from the starboard side. You should FIRST __________.

When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.

Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?

Which of the following statements is true concerning the control activators, i.e., pull-handles, push-buttons or levers, for a space protected by a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?A) Only one control activator is required for discharge piping systems designed without a stop valve.B) Two control activators are required when a stop valve is installed in the main discharge line to a space.C) An alarm must sound for at least 20 seconds before CO2 is released into a space that is likely to be occupied.

A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.

CO2 cylinders must be recharged when the weight of the charge in the cylinder is less than what percent of the stamped full weight of the charge?

In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.

Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should NOT be used to inert a space containing flammable liquids due to the danger of __________.

When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the horn __________.

Which is the proper method of determining whether a portable CO2 fire extinguisher needs recharging?

C) Weigh the extinguisher and compare the weight against that stamped on the valve****************

You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged if the weight loss exceeds __________.

A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?

Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible gas as a percentage of the __________.

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammable gases?

What is the best instrument for establishing a safe working area before welding in a confined space?

When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the atmosphere being tested contains vapors of __________.

A) Several seconds will elapse between the taking of a sample and the reading appearing on the dial****************

While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle of the indicator will __________.

In addition to weighing the cartridge, which other maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?

Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry-chemical extinguisher is accomplished by __________.

When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical_________.

Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable fire extinguisher?

Which of the following is/are NOT required on Ro-Ro vessels, regarding spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

C) As an alternative to a fixed CO2 system, the Commandant may permit a water sprinkler system.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"?

C) The Commandant may permit the installation of an approved water sprinkler extinguishing system.

A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the __________.

The outlet at a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing __________.

To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose coupling, you should use __________.

What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on the female coupling of a fire hose?

When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that the __________.

A) Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet from the female coupling, then roll it up.**********

What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with __________.

While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then __________.

What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?

When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the __________.

When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire extinguisher, the stream should be directed __________.

When using carbon dioxide to fight a fire on a bulkhead, the CO2 should be applied __________.

A) base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish***B) top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames downward as they diminish

D) bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top following the flames upward as they diminish

Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is used as a fire extinguishing medium?

Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?

A) first to the bottom of the flaming area, sweeping from side to side, and following the flames upward***

Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?

B) The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases.

D) Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid preventing flammable gases from rising.*********

While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should __________.

You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.

In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.

Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in __________.

An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST effective against a fire in __________.

If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be __________.

On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come into contact with the chemical called __________.

One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium bicarbonate) in firefighting is that __________.

What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?

When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?

Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

B) upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present****

The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition is called __________.

What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?

Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C fire on board a vessel?

Which statement describes the relationship between flash point and auto-ignition temperature?

D) It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive range.

You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?

D) You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride.

You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks __________.

Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.

The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

C) They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed from the bridge.**********D) They can be kept open if the Muster List ("Station Bill") has personnel designated to close them in case of fire.

The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.

The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE? A) A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and reset the damper.

What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because __________.

A large fire, involving class "A" material, has developed in the ship's galley. In combating this fire, you should __________.

A) keep the galley door closed until all the class "A" material has been consumed by the fireB) have a hose team cool the galley door, then open the door and extinguish the fire using a type B-II extinguisherC) cool adjoining horizontal and vertical surfaces before opening the galley door*******

The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a class A fire to __________.

D) Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are extinguished*******

Which of the following would be of immediate concern after discovering a large fire in the ship's galley?

A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to __________.

After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.

If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to __________.

When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?

When possible, what should be the FIRST step in combating a fire on deck resulting from a cargo overflow or a leaking cargo line?

Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?

What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?

You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.

Besides general arrangement plans, what other mediums may be utilized to provide fire control details to officers during fire and emergencies?

In addition to the official language of the flag state, the Fire Control Plan must also be translated into English or _________?

In what location would a duplicate fire control plan normally NOT be located?

On the vessel’s Fire Control Plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT?

On the vessel’s Fire Control Plan, all parts of the fire main are listed EXCEPT?

The Fire Control Plan must contain detailed information on which of the following systems?

The vessel’s fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan?

Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel’s Fire Control Plan?

Which type of plan is used to outline the vessel’s fire fighting arrangement within the fire control plan?

A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take? A) Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container.B) Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel.C) Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's then add more CO2 hourly.**********D) Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents; then keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded.

A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind __________.

A fire is discovered in the bow of your vessel while making way. The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should __________.

According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________.

At night while the ship is tied up to the dock, a fire breaks out in a cargo hatch. After sounding the alarm, what should the person on watch do?

If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?

A) the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means of extinguishment have failed***********B) the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the most efficient means of extinguishment

D) the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel

There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.

There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________.

When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire fighters from the fire by using __________.

When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using __________.

When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire, which method of applying water is best?

When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to __________.

When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to __________.

When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

When fighting a large fire on your vessel and attacking it from ABOVE the space on fire, it is important to __________.

C) station personnel on the hot deck, immediately above the fire, to observe for its potential spread

When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG (liquefied petroleum gas), you should __________.

B) Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil

D) Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction

You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?

You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'tween deck. Which of the following should NOT be done immediately?

You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at 20 knots. You should __________.

You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.

You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.

You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?

You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?

When supplemented by a comparable signal on the general alarm, what is the signal for boat stations or boat drill?

While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one short blast of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.

While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle. This signal indicates __________.

A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.

Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.

It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to __________.

Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by __________.

You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the __________.

A) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.**************

C) The chipping mechanism is made of non-sparking material that is safe to use near explosive atmospheres.D) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter.

C) The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced when they have been blunted more than ½ of their diameter.***************D) The equipment shall be secured to the hose by a quick-disconnect coupling to prevent the tool from becoming accidentally disconnected.

Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.

Some spaces protected by fixed carbon dioxide systems are required to have audible alarms that begin sounding prior to the discharge of CO2. This time delay must be at least __________.

When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.

A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of the air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample registered 55 on the instrument's dial. What is the concentration of flammable gases?

The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed with an interior stair tower from the main deck to the bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each deck to the stair tower be kept open when underway?

Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?

A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?

According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________.

You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman reports a fire in number five upper 'tween deck. Which of the following should NOT be done immediately?

You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.

You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?

A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when __________.

The flammable limits of gasoline are 1.3 to 7.6 percent volume of air. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial and remain there. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?

According the Lifesaving regulations in Subchapter W, fire and abandon ship drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew that has not participated in drills aboard that particular vessel in the prior month exceeds __________.

A carling is used aboard ship __________. A) as a connecting strap between the butted ends of platingB) to stiffen areas under points of great stress between beams**************C) to prevent the anchor from fouling when the brake is releasedD) to provide an extra heavy fitting in a heavy lift cargo rig

A deck beam does NOT __________. A) act as a beam to support vertical deck loadsB) lessen the longitudinal stiffness of the vessel*************C) act as a tie to keep the sides of the ship in placeD) act as a web to prevent plate wrinkling due to twisting action on the vessel

Beams are cambered to __________. A) increase their strengthB) provide drainage from the decks************C) relieve deck stressD) All of the above

The deck beam brackets of a transversely framed vessel resist __________. A) hogging stressesB) sagging stressesC) racking stresses*****************D) shearing stresses

The pillar shape that gives the greatest strength for the least weight is the __________. A) octagonal pillarB) "H" Beam pillarC) "I" Beam pillarD) circular type pillar*********

The usual depth of a beam bracket is __________. A) 2 1/2 times the depth of the beam**********B) 5 times the depth of the beamC) 10 times the depth of the beamD) same depth as the beam

Which term refers to a transverse curvature of the deck?

A) DeadriseB) Camber*************C) FreeboardD) Flare

On a small passenger vessel the collision bulkhead is __________. A) amidships forward of the engine roomB) just forward of the steering compartmentC) in the engine roomD) A distance of 5% to 15% of the waterline length abaft the stem measured at the load waterline************

A partial deck in a hold is called a(n) __________. A) weather deckB) orlop deck************C) shelter deckD) main deck

Camber, in a ship, is usually measured in __________. A) feet per feet of breadthB) feet per feet of lengthC) inches per feet of breadth*************D) inches per feet of length

The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________. A) garboard strakeB) limber strakeC) sheer strakeD) stringer strake************

A term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship is __________. A) bottom floorB) outer bottom**********C) shear platingD) tank top

Aboard ship, vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates are called __________. A) floors************B) intercostalsC) girders

D) stringers

Floors aboard ship are __________. A) frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship************B) transverse members of the ships frame which support the decksC) longitudinal beams in the extreme bottom of a ship from which the ship's ribs startD) longitudinal angle bars fastened to a surface for strength

Floors aboard ship are __________. A) also called decksB) vertical transverse plates connecting the vertical keel with the margin plates*************C) large beams fitted in various parts of the vessel for additional strengthD) found in passenger and berthing spaces only

Frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened are called __________. A) floors************B) intercostalsC) stringersD) tank top supports

The "inner bottom" is the __________. A) tank top************B) compartment between the tank top and shell of the vesselC) inner side of the vessel's shellD) space between two transverse bottom frames

The "margin plate" is the __________. A) outboard strake of plating on each side of an inner bottom***********B) outer strake of plating on each side of the main deck of a vesselC) plate which sits atop the center vertical keelD) uppermost continuous strake of plating on the shell of a vessel

The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by __________. A) face platesB) bottom longitudinals************C) longitudinal deck beamsD) transverse deck beams

The plating indicated by the letter N is known as the __________.

A) inner bottom*************B) floor ridersC) tank-top rider platingD) ceiling

The space indicated by the letter J is known as the __________. A) double bottom*************B) flooding barrierC) floor spaceD) bilge tank

The structural member indicated by the letter K is a __________. A) longitudinal frameB) stringerC) girderD) floor**********

The structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor? A) Intercostal************B) OpenC) LightenedD) Non-watertight

The terms "ceiling" and "margin plate" are associated with the __________. A) crew's quartersB) engine roomC) main deckD) tank top********

Vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors are called __________. A) boss platesB) buckler platesC) stiffeners**************D) breast hooks

What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships? A) The tank top forms a second skin for the vessel.B) The center of gravity of a loaded bulk cargo ship may be raised to produce a more comfortable roll.

C) The floors and longitudinals distribute the upward push of the water on the ship's bottom.D) They are less expensive to construct because of increased access space.***********

What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision? A) Separate lines are provided for filling and pumping these tanks.B) Pipe lines must run vertically from the tank to a point above the margin line before turning fore or aft towards the pump.C) All tanks must be served by the fewest possible number of pipes to reduce the possibility of rupture.D) Suction lines are fitted with a non-return valve***********

Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks? A) Cuts down free surface effect************B) Increases the rolling periodC) Decreases weight because extra stiffeners are unneededD) Lowers the center of buoyancy without decreasing GM

Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE? A) They must be watertight.B) They may have lightening, limber, or air holes cut into them.************C) They are built of structural frames connected by angle struts and stiffeners, with flanged plate brackets at each end.D) They are lighter than open floors.

Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure? A) Each vent for the tank must be equal to the area of the tank filling line.B) The tanks must be protected by overflows.C) The total area of the vents or the overflow shall be at least 125% of the area of the fill line*************D) There must be twice as much vent area as the area of the fill line.

A vessel having continuous closely spaced transverse strength members is __________. A) longitudinally framedB) transversely framed************C) cellular framedD) web framed

In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________. A) floorsB) margin platesC) stringersD) web frames***********

In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) girdersB) longitudinalsC) side stringersD) web plates***********

In ship construction, frame spacing is __________. A) greater at the bow and sternB) reduced at the bow and stern***********C) uniform over the length of the vesselD) uniform over the length of the vessel, with the exception of the machinery spaces, where it is reduced due to increased stresses

Lighter longitudinal stiffening frames on the vessel's side plating are called __________. A) stringers**********B) side framesC) side stiffenersD) intercostals

Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead on a vessel are called __________. A) side longitudinalsB) intercostalsC) stiffeners**************D) brackets

The letter M indicates a(n) __________. A) web frame************B) intercostalC) stringerD) cant frame

The structural member indicated by the letter L is a __________. A) web frameB) bilge keelC) side keelD) longitudinal************

Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________. A) centerline system of framing

B) isometric system of framingC) longitudinal system of framing*************D) transverse system of framing

What is the purpose of cant frames in steel vessels? A) To support the overhang of the sternB) To provide strength to shell plating at the stern**********C) To add strength to the deck beams which support the weather decksD) To support the plating of a cylindrical tank

When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________. A) transversely framedB) longitudinally framed***********C) intermittently framedD) web framed

Which letter indicates a longitudinal? A) CB) EC) L***********D) M

Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system? A) The transverse system is more resistant to hog and sag stresses.B) The numerous longitudinal frames cause excessive broken stowage.C) The transverse system provides better support to the varying cargo densities on a break bulk vessel.D) The deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo.**********

In ship construction, keel scantlings should be the greatest __________. A) at each frameB) amidships************C) one-third the distance from the bowD) one-third the distance from the stern

Keel scantlings of any vessel are greatest amidships because __________. A) connections between forebody and afterbody are most crucialB) of maximum longitudinal bending moments************C) of severest racking stressesD) resistance to grounding is at a maximum amidships

The letter I indicates the keel. Which of the following plates is NOT part of the keel? A) Center vertical keelB) Rider plateC) Longitudinal girder************D) Flat plate keel

The structural member indicated by the letter I is the __________. A) garboard strakeB) center pillarC) keel*************D) girder

Limber is a term associated with __________. A) emergency gearB) drainage************C) deck cargo storageD) securing gear

A cofferdam is __________. A) any deck below the main deck and above the lowest deckB) a member that gives fore-and-aft strengthC) made by placing two bulkheads a few feet apart***********D) a heavy fore-and-aft beam under the deck

A set of interior steps on a ship leading up to a deck from below is know as _________. A) a companion way************B) tween-decksC) stairsD) All of the above are acceptable

A thirty pound plate would be __________. A) 3/8" thickB) 1/2" thickC) 3/4" thick*************D) 1" thick

A wooden deck installed on top of the plating lettered N is known as __________.

A) spar deckingB) furringC) ceiling***********D) flooring

In nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________. A) crow barB) device to force a water tight door against the frame*************C) heavy steel beamD) wedge

The ceiling is __________. A) the overhead in berthing compartmentsB) a wooden protection placed over the tank top**********C) material driven into seams or cracks to prevent leakingD) None of the above are correct

The fittings used to secure a watertight door are known as __________. A) clampsB) claspsC) dogs************D) latches

The perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains, is called a __________. A) cradleB) draftC) harpingD) manger***********

The term "scantlings" refers to the __________. A) draft of a vesselB) measurements of structural members************C) requirements for ship's gearD) placement of a vessel's load line

The wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading is called __________. A) ceiling***********B) shoresC) frames

D) toms

When using the term "limber system" one is referring to a __________. A) cleaning systemB) drainage system**********C) strengthening systemD) weight reduction system

A butt is indicated by which letter? A) JB) FC) ED) D***********

A seam is indicated by which letter in illustration D033DG? A) E***********B) HC) LD) M

Another name for the garboard strake is the __________. A) A strake*********B) Z strakeC) side keel plateD) stringer plate

Bilge keels are fitted on ships to __________. A) assist in dry dock alignmentB) improve the vessel's stabilityC) protect the vessel from slamming against piersD) reduce the rolling of the vessel**********

Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls as the __________. A) pitching increasesB) list increasesC) rolling increases*************D) draft decreases

In vessel construction, the garboard strake is __________.

A) located next to and parallel to the keel************B) located next to and parallel to the gunwaleC) another term for the bilge keelD) another term for the rub rail

Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called __________. A) drop strakes**********B) stealersC) throughsD) voids

Shell plating is __________. A) the galvanizing on steelB) a hatch coverC) the outer plating of a vessel************D) synonymous with decking

Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________. A) compound plateB) furnaced plate***********C) flat plateD) rolled plate

The function of the bilge keel is to __________. A) reduce the rolling of the vessel****************B) serve as the vessel's main strength memberC) add strength to the bilgeD) protect the vessel's hull when alongside a dock

The garboard strake is indicated by which letter? A) AB) BC) GD) H*************

The garboard strake is the __________. A) raised flange at the main deck edgeB) riveted crack arrester strap on all-welded ships

C) riveting pattern most commonly used in ship constructionD) row of plating nearest the keel************

The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________. A) bevelB) seamC) butt************D) bond

The joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side is called a __________. A) bevelB) bondC) strakeD) seam************

The joint indicated by letter D is a __________. A) seamB) butt***********C) spanD) sheet line

The lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. This is done to __________. A) increase the strength in a highly stressed areaB) provide the flexibility inherent in a riveted seamC) serve as a crack arrestor and prevent hull girder failure***********D) reduce construction costs

The strake of shell plating indicated by letter H is known as the __________. A) sheer strakeB) outboard keel plateC) garboard strake************D) bilge strake

The strake on each side of the keel is called a __________. A) sheer strakeB) gatewood strakeC) insulation strakeD) garboard strake**********

The term "strake" is used in reference to __________. A) rudder mountingsB) anchor gearC) hull plating***********D) vessel framing

To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. This plate is known as a __________. A) cover plateB) joinerC) lap strakeD) stealer plate**********

What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating? A) Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the jointsB) Reduces frictional resistanceC) Reduces plate stress***********D) Reduces weight

Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding? A) ClinkerB) Flush************C) In-and-OutD) Joggled

Which is NOT an advantage of the flush method of welded shell plating? A) Reduces weightB) Reduces frictional resistanceC) Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the jointsD) Reduces plate stress************

Which letter designates the bilge strake of the vessel? A) AB) BC) CD) D***********

Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT? A) They are critical strength members and require careful design consideration.

B) They increase resistance to rolling****************C) They attach to a low stress area.D) They provide support when the vessel is dry docked.

Panting frames are located in the __________. A) after double bottomsB) centerline tanks on tankshipsC) fore and after peaks**************D) forward double bottoms

The strength of a deck will be increased by adding __________. A) camberB) deck beam brackets*************C) hatch beamsD) sheer

To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________. A) apron plateB) breasthook****************C) intercostal plateD) joiner

A "contra-guide" is a type of __________. A) bow thrusterB) cargo gearC) steering engineD) rudder***************

A Kort nozzle is a(n) __________. A) hollow tube surrounding the propeller used to improve thrust**********B) nozzle attached to a firefighting hoseC) intake valve on a diesel engineD) piston cylinder on a diesel engine

On a single-screw vessel the stern frame _________. A) furnishes support to the rudder, propeller shaft, and transom frame************B) provides foundations for after mooring winchesC) provides foundations for the main propulsion enginesD) transfers the driving force of the propeller to the hull

The extension of the after part of the keel in a single- screw vessel upon which the stern post rests is called the __________. A) bossB) knuckleC) skeg***********D) strut

The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________. A) rudder keysB) rudder palms***********C) lifting flangesD) shoes of the rudder

The pitch of a propeller is a measure of the __________. A) angle that the propeller makes with a free stream of waterB) angle that the propeller makes with the surface of the waterC) number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip***********D) positive pressure resulting from the difference of the forces on both sides of the moving propeller in still water without slip

The projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder are called __________. A) basesB) gudgeons***********C) pintlesD) rudder lugs

The ratio of the height of a vessel's rudder to its width is referred to as the __________. A) aspect ratio**********B) constriction ratioC) rudder ratioD) steering ratio

The term "pintle" and "gudgeon" are associated with the __________. A) anchor windlassB) jumbo boomC) rudder**********D) steering engine

The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with the vessel's __________.

A) cargo hatchB) forecastleC) steering engineD) stern***********

The vessel's "quarter" is located __________. A) abeamB) dead asternC) just forward of the beam on either sideD) on either side of the stern**************

A chock __________. A) is a deck fitting used to shackle gear to the deckB) permits easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergencyC) prevents stress concentration in the bulwarkD) provides openings through the bulwark for mooring lines***********

A deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two protruding horns is called a __________. A) bittB) bollardC) capstanD) cleat***********

A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE? A) The aluminum will provide greater resistance to the spread of fire by conduction.B) The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming by a method that insulates the two metals**************C) If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum structure requires additional expansion joints to prevent fracture.D) The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must be closely checked for galvanic corrosion.

Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks __________. A) prevent stress concentration in the bulwarkB) permit easy jettison of deck cargo in an emergencyC) provide openings through the bulwarks for mooring linesD) allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly*************

One function of a bulwark is to __________. A) help keep the deck dry**********B) prevent stress concentrations on the stringer plateC) protect against twisting forces exerted on the frame of the vessel

D) reinforce the side stringers

What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks? A) Allow water which may be shipped on deck to flow off rapidly*************B) Permit easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergencyC) Prevent the formation of any unusual stress concentration pointsD) Lighten the above deck weight caused by a solid bulwark

A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________. A) 48%B) 90%C) 100%************D) 121%

Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure? A) Tearing through the member is more likely in this type connection.B) The weld may be broken by the stresses caused by riveting.C) The weld increases the tensile stress on the rivet heads.D) The welding must be completed before the riveting commences.************

The smallest size of flaw that can be detected on a radiograph examination of a weld will be indicated by the __________. A) film speedB) penetrometer**************C) exposure readingD) time of exposure

The type of welding employed in shipyards is primarily __________. A) brazingB) electric arc*************C) pressure weldingD) thermite welding

The welds used to attach stiffeners to a plate are known as __________. A) butt weldsB) seam weldsC) fillet welds*************D) plate welds

The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.

A) butt welds**************B) seam weldsC) fillet weldsD) continuous welds

Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and to __________. A) provide tail shaft clearancesB) test welds for subsurface defects***********C) check the wear of the rudder carrier bearingD) test the links of the anchor cables while being ranged

What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate? A) Chain intermittentB) Tack***************C) ContinuousD) Staggered intermittent

Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws? A) Radiographic*************B) Magnetic particleC) Dye penetrantD) Chemical reaction

Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws? A) Magnetic particleB) Dye penetrantC) Ultrasonic**************D) Chemical reaction

Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld? A) UndercutB) Lack of reinforcementC) OverlapD) Lack of penetration****************

A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________. A) exemption spaceB) tonnage deck

C) cofferdamD) tonnage opening***********

Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________. A) bulwarkB) deck line*************C) gunwale barD) sheer strake

Gross tonnage indicates the vessel's __________. A) displacement in metric tonsB) total weight including cargoC) volume in cubic feet***********D) draft in feet

Molded depth is measured from the __________. A) inside of the shell**************B) outside of the shellC) top of the center vertical keelD) top of the garboard stake

The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________. A) floodable lengthB) factor of subdivisionC) compartment standardD) permissible length**********

The point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction is the __________. A) half lengthB) mid-bodyC) center lineD) amidships***********

Tonnage openings must be closed by means of __________. A) press boardB) steel hatch boardsC) steel plates*************D) wooden hatch boards

What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating? A) Molded***********B) RegisterC) TonnageD) Effective

What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage? A) Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductions for machinery and other areas.*************B) Net tonnage is tonnage of cargo compared to tonnage of whole ship.C) Net tonnage is the net weight of the ship.D) There is no difference.

What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the after side of the rudder post? A) Length overallB) Register lengthC) Length between perpendiculars***********D) Length on the waterline

What term indicates the line drawn at the top of the flat plate keel? A) Base line***********B) Molded lineC) Designer's waterlineD) Keel line

The area indicated by the letter G is known as the __________. A) entranceB) stringer plateC) turn of the bilge***********D) garboard

The purpose of sheer in ship construction is to __________. A) allow the ship to ride waves with drier decks*************B) eliminate the need for butt strapsC) eliminate the need for margin platesD) give greater strength at the deck edge

The upward slope of a ships bottom from the keel to the bilge is known as __________. A) camber

B) slopeC) deadrise*************D) keel height

The upward slope of a vessels bottom from the keel to the bilge is called __________. A) camberB) sheerC) rakeD) rise of bottom***********

What term indicates a curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction? A) DeadriseB) CamberC) Sheer*************D) Flare

What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline? A) CamberB) Tumble home***********C) DeadriseD) Flare

What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the parallel mid-body? A) Run*************B) SternC) CounterD) Flow

What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body? A) RunB) FlareC) Entrance***********D) Sheer

What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section? A) Half lengthB) AmidshipsC) Middle body***********D) Molded length

What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline? A) sheerB) tumble homeC) deadriseD) flare***********

Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line? A) Deadrise************B) CamberC) Molded heightD) Sheer

The body plan of a vessel is a(n) __________. A) endwise view of the ship's molded form************B) longitudinal side elevation viewC) plan made looking down on the ship, showing it's hull cut horizontally by the first set of planesD) vertical view made looking up in the ship, with the keel at the center

The half-breadth plan is __________. A) an endwise view of the ship's molded formB) a plan with the forebody to right of centerline and afterbody to the left of centerlineC) a longitudinal side elevationD) usually drawn for the port side only***********

The Sheer Plan __________. A) shows a longitudinal side elevation**********B) is an endwise view of the ship's molded formC) is usually drawn for the port side onlyD) has the forebody to the right of centerline and afterbody to the left of centerline

A vessel's bottom will be subjected to tension when weight is concentrated __________. A) amidships***********B) aftC) at both ends of the vesselD) forward

Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as __________.

A) pitchB) surgeC) swayD) roll***********

Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is called____________.

A) yaw*********** B) surgeC) swayD) roll

Heave is motion along the __________. A) longitudinal axisB) transverse axisC) vertical axis*************D) centerline axis

Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel is known as __________. A) pitchB) surge************C) swayD) roll

Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known as __________. A) pitchB) surgeC) sway************D) heave

Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about what axis? A) LongitudinalB) Transverse*************C) VerticalD) Centerline

Rolling is angular motion of the vessel about what axis? A) Longitudinal*************B) TransverseC) Vertical

D) Centerline

Signs of racking stresses generally appear at the __________. A) bow and stern shell frames and platingB) junction of the frames with the beams and floors***********C) garboard strake, at each side of the keelD) thrust bearing of the main shaft

Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________. A) opposite directions on the same line, tending to pull the material apart************B) opposite directions on the same line, tending to compress the objectC) opposite directions along parallel linesD) the same direction along parallel lines

The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is __________. A) pitchingB) rolling***********C) heavingD) swaying

The horizontal fore-and-aft movement of a vessel is called __________. A) yawB) swayC) heaveD) surge***************

The horizontal port or starboard movement of a vessel is called __________. A) yawB) sway************C) surgeD) heave

The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what type of stress? A) TensileB) CompressionC) Shear************D) Strain

The shearing stresses on a ship's structure are usually greatest at __________.

A) the bowB) the sternC) midshipsD) the ship's quarter-length points**********

The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known as __________. A) surgeB) swayC) heave*************D) pitch

The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as __________. A) surgeB) swayC) heave************D) yaw

The vertical movement of a vessel in the water is called __________. A) pitchB) swayC) heave************D) roll

Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses? A) AftB) Amidships***********C) At both endsD) Forward

What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal strength? A) Collision damage to the bow, forward of the collision bulkheadB) Grounding damage to the bilge strake, just aft of midships************C) Extensive corrosion to the centerline deck platingD) Damage to the side shell, midway between the bilge and the stringer plate

Yawing is angular motion of the vessel about what axis? A) LongitudinalB) Transverse

C) Vertical*************D) Centerline

D) A distance of 5% to 15% of the waterline length abaft the stem measured at the load waterline************

The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the __________.

Aboard ship, vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates are called __________.

A) frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship************

B) vertical transverse plates connecting the vertical keel with the margin plates*************

The floors in a vessel's hull structure are kept from tripping, or folding over, by __________.

The structural member indicated by the letter K was fitted in segments between continuous longitudinals. It is known as which type of floor?

Vertical structural members attached to the floors that add strength to the floors are called __________.

B) The center of gravity of a loaded bulk cargo ship may be raised to produce a more comfortable roll.

C) The floors and longitudinals distribute the upward push of the water on the ship's bottom.D) They are less expensive to construct because of increased access space.***********

What is used to prevent accidental flooding of a double bottom or peak tanks in the event of a pipe rupture due to collision?

B) Pipe lines must run vertically from the tank to a point above the margin line before turning fore or aft towards the pump.C) All tanks must be served by the fewest possible number of pipes to reduce the possibility of rupture.

Which is an advantage of using watertight longitudinal divisions in double bottom tanks?

C) They are built of structural frames connected by angle struts and stiffeners, with flanged plate brackets at each end.

Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?

C) The total area of the vents or the overflow shall be at least 125% of the area of the fill line*************

In a longitudinally-framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called __________.

In a transversely framed ship, the transverse frames are supported by all of the following EXCEPT __________.

D) uniform over the length of the vessel, with the exception of the machinery spaces, where it is reduced due to increased stresses

Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the __________.

When the longitudinal strength members of a vessel are continuous and closely spaced, the vessel is __________.

Why are most break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system rather than the longitudinal system?

C) The transverse system provides better support to the varying cargo densities on a break bulk vessel.

The perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains, is called a __________.

The wooden planking that protects the tank top from cargo loading is called __________.

Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called __________.

Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.

The joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side is called a __________.

The lower seam of the strake indicated by the letter B is sometimes riveted. This is done to __________.

To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. This plate is known as a __________.

What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?

To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.

The extension of the after part of the keel in a single- screw vessel upon which the stern post rests is called the __________.

C) number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip***********D) positive pressure resulting from the difference of the forces on both sides of the moving propeller in still water without slip

The projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder are called __________.

A deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two protruding horns is called a __________.

A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?

B) The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming by a method that insulates the two metals**************C) If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum structure requires additional expansion joints to prevent fracture.D) The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must be closely checked for galvanic corrosion.

Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding. Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?

The smallest size of flaw that can be detected on a radiograph examination of a weld will be indicated by the __________.

Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and to __________.

Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?

A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.

The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.

The point that is halfway between the forward and after perpendicular and is a reference point for vessel construction is the __________.

What descriptive term indicates that the dimension is measured from the inner face of the shell or deck plating?

A) Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductions for machinery and other areas.*************

What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the after side of the rudder post?

What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel forward of the parallel mid-body?

What term indicates the midships portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?

Which term indicates the rise in height of the bottom plating from the plane of the base line?

C) plan made looking down on the ship, showing it's hull cut horizontally by the first set of planes

B) a plan with the forebody to right of centerline and afterbody to the left of centerline

The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn from its bow to its stern is __________.

The result of two forces acting in opposite directions and along parallel lines, is an example of what type of stress?

The vertical motion of a floating vessel in which the entire hull is lifted by the force of the sea is known as __________.

Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?

The perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains, is called a __________.

Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called __________.

To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.

A well in the uppermost deck of a shelter deck vessel which has only a temporary means of closing for the purpose of gaining an exemption from tonnage measurement is called a(n) __________.

What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the intersection of that load line with the foreside of the stem and the intersection of that load line with the after side of the rudder post?

A copy of the Articles of Agreement, less the signatures, is required to be posted. This document is called the __________.

The Articles of Agreement __________.

The fo'c'sle card __________.

The forecastle card is a copy of the __________.

A holder of a license as Master of towing vessels may work each 24 hours for a period not to exceed __________.

Deckhands onboard towing vessels shall be divided into 3 watches when on a trip exceeding __________.

In terms of vessel manning, a watch is the __________.

A)  Fo'c'sle Card**************B)  Articles CopyC)  Voyage AgreementD)  Shipping Articles

A)  is also known as a Merchant Mariner's DocumentB)  designates the quarters a seaman will occupy during a voyageC)  advises the crew of the conditions of employment*************D)  are signed by each crewmember at the end of the voyage

A)  is posted in the crews quarters and lists the emergency stationsB)  advises the crew of the conditions of employment***********C)  is also known as a Merchant Mariner's DocumentD)  designates the quarters a seaman will occupy during a voyage

A)  quarters allocationB)  shipping agreement************C)  Muster List ("Station Bill")D)  unlicensed shipping card from the union

A)  6 hoursB)  12 hours*************C)  18 hoursD)  24 hours

A)  600 miles**********B)  700 milesC)  800 milesD)  1000 miles

A)  direct performance of deck or engine operations in a scheduled and fixed rotation************B)  performance of maintenance work necessary for the vessel's safe operation, on a daily basisC)  performance of lookout duties

On which vessels are the officers and deck crew allowed to operate under a two-watch system on voyages of less than 600 miles?

The terminology "able to understand any order spoken by the officers" refers to all of the following situations EXCEPT __________ .

Which statement, concerning offshore supply vessel operations, correctly defines the length of a voyage?

You are signing on a crew. You can determine the minimum number and qualifications of the crew that you are required to carry by consulting which document?

A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________.

When may a seaman on a vessel engaged in foreign trade be paid before earning the wages?

You are signing on a crew. Which person is presenting a Merchant Mariner's Document (MMD) that you should suspect as being invalid?

D)  direct performance of cargo loading and discharge operations only

A)  Towing vesselsB)  Offshore supply vesselsC)  Barges, when mannedD)  All of the above***********

A)  in response to a fireB)  directing the use of lifesaving equipmentC)  for deck department crew members to understand the terminology used in the engine room***********D)  in response to a man overboard

A)  The distance from the point of departure to the vessel's first stopB)  The distance from the point of departure to the most distant point offshoreC)  The total distance from the port of departure to the port of arrival, not including stops at offshore points************D)  The shortest measurable distance from the port of departure to the port of arrival

A)  Crew listB)  Certificate of Inspection*************C)  Articles of AgreementD)  fo'c'sle card

A)  intoxicatedB)  the vessel is overloaded***********C)  there is a change of home portD)  there is a change of Master

A)  The seaman may only draw an advance on earned wages.************B)  Wages up to fifty percent of the seaman's base wage maybe advanced upon proof of serious family illness.C)  Wages equivalent to three days base wage may be advanced upon arrival in a foreign port.D)  The advance of wages is at the discretion of the master; however, a seaman cannot be in an overpaid status at signoff.

A)  An AB with an endorsement of "Any unlicensed rating in the deck department including Able Seaman"B)  A seaman with an MMD only endorsed as "Bosun"**************

You are the Master signing on a crew. In completing the articles, who should sign in the various places indicated for the Shipping Commissioner's signature?

A seaman leaves a vessel before it sails from a foreign port. He informs the Chief Officer that he won't return. After the vessel sails, the Chief Officer finds the seaman's work clothes in his locker. How should the Master handle this matter?

Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take?

Your vessel is chartered under a time charter party. Under this type of charter party, your responsibility is __________.

a. solely to the charterer for all matters pertaining to cargo and ship administrationb. solely to the cargo shippers and consigneesc. solely to the owner, as under normal conditions d. to the owner for vessel administration and to the charterer for cargo operations and schedule*****************

At least one reinspection shall be made on each vessel holding a Certificate of Inspection valid for two years. This inspection shall be held between the tenth and fourteenth months of the duration period of the certificate and shall be __________.

a. at the discretion of the inspector, but in no greater detail than required for original certificationb. at the discretion of the inspector, but in no lesser detail than required for original certificationc. generally similar in scope to the inspection required for certification, but in less detail*****************d. equivalent to the inspection required for certification

To determine the number of able seamen required on an inspected vessel, you should check the __________.

a. Load Line Certificateb. operations manual c. Safety of Life at Sea Certificated. Certificate of Inspection*******************

Your vessel is required to have a slop chest. Which of the following articles is NOT required by law to be carried in the slop chest? #

a. Foul weather clothing

C)  A Purser with an MMD only endorsed "See certificate of registry"D)  A Chief Steward with an MMD only endorsed as "Steward's Dept. (FH)"

A)  After sign on, the articles are presented at the nearest Marine Inspection/Safety Office for signature.B)  The space is left blank.C)  A marine notary public must sign after sign on is complete.D)  The Master.**************

A)  Log the seaman as a deserter.************B)  Log the seaman as a fail to join.C)  Log the seaman for misconduct.D)  Take no action.

A)  Inventory his gear and send it and a pay voucher ashore with the agent.B)  Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails.C)  Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a deserter after the vessel sails.D)  Pay the seaman's fine.**************

b. Candy***************c. Tobacco productsd. Blankets

The S.S. Microwave has been chartered to the Longline Steamship Company. The Longline Steamship Company agrees to pay all expenses and employ and pay the crew. Which type of contract is involved? #

a. Bareboat Charter Party********************b. Lease Charter Partyc. Time Charter Partyd. Voyage Charter Party

Which statement concerning the carriage of containers is TRUE?

a. The Chief Mate and Master of a container ship should have the proposed stowage plan ready for the stevedore upon arrival in port.b. When stowed on deck of a break bulk ship, the bottom of the container must be evenly supported throughout.c. With tiered containers, a 40-foot container may be stowed on top of two 20-foot containers.**************d. Deck load calculations must take into account the square footage of the entire container bottom.

A copy of the Articles of Agreement, less the signatures, is required to be posted. This document is called the __________.

A holder of a license as Master of towing vessels may work each 24 hours for a period not to exceed __________.

Deckhands onboard towing vessels shall be divided into 3 watches when on a trip exceeding __________.

A)  direct performance of deck or engine operations in a scheduled and fixed rotation************B)  performance of maintenance work necessary for the vessel's safe operation, on a daily basis

On which vessels are the officers and deck crew allowed to operate under a two-watch system on voyages of less than 600 miles?

The terminology "able to understand any order spoken by the officers" refers to all of the following situations EXCEPT __________ .

Which statement, concerning offshore supply vessel operations, correctly defines the length of a voyage?

You are signing on a crew. You can determine the minimum number and qualifications of the crew that you are required to carry by consulting which document?

A seaman is entitled by law to a release from Foreign Articles when __________.

When may a seaman on a vessel engaged in foreign trade be paid before earning the wages?

You are signing on a crew. Which person is presenting a Merchant Mariner's Document (MMD) that you should suspect as being invalid?

C)  for deck department crew members to understand the terminology used in the engine room***********

B)  The distance from the point of departure to the most distant point offshoreC)  The total distance from the port of departure to the port of arrival, not including stops at offshore points************D)  The shortest measurable distance from the port of departure to the port of arrival

B)  Wages up to fifty percent of the seaman's base wage maybe advanced upon proof of serious family illness.C)  Wages equivalent to three days base wage may be advanced upon arrival in a foreign port.D)  The advance of wages is at the discretion of the master; however, a seaman cannot be in an overpaid status at signoff.

A)  An AB with an endorsement of "Any unlicensed rating in the deck department including Able Seaman"

You are the Master signing on a crew. In completing the articles, who should sign in the various places indicated for the Shipping Commissioner's signature?

A seaman leaves a vessel before it sails from a foreign port. He informs the Chief Officer that he won't return. After the vessel sails, the Chief Officer finds the seaman's work clothes in his locker. How should the Master handle this matter?

Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take?

Your vessel is chartered under a time charter party. Under this type of charter party, your responsibility is __________.

a. solely to the charterer for all matters pertaining to cargo and ship administration

d. to the owner for vessel administration and to the charterer for cargo operations and schedule*****************

At least one reinspection shall be made on each vessel holding a Certificate of Inspection valid for two years. This inspection shall be held between the tenth and fourteenth months of the duration period of the certificate and shall be __________.

a. at the discretion of the inspector, but in no greater detail than required for original certificationb. at the discretion of the inspector, but in no lesser detail than required for original certificationc. generally similar in scope to the inspection required for certification, but in less detail*****************

To determine the number of able seamen required on an inspected vessel, you should check the __________.

Your vessel is required to have a slop chest. Which of the following articles is NOT required by law to be carried in the slop chest? #

A)  After sign on, the articles are presented at the nearest Marine Inspection/Safety Office for signature.

B)  Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a fail to join after the vessel sails.C)  Leave the seaman in jail and log him as a deserter after the vessel sails.

The S.S. Microwave has been chartered to the Longline Steamship Company. The Longline Steamship Company agrees to pay all expenses and employ and pay the crew. Which type of contract is involved? #

a. The Chief Mate and Master of a container ship should have the proposed stowage plan ready for the stevedore upon arrival in port.b. When stowed on deck of a break bulk ship, the bottom of the container must be evenly supported throughout.c. With tiered containers, a 40-foot container may be stowed on top of two 20-foot containers.**************d. Deck load calculations must take into account the square footage of the entire container bottom.

A seaman leaves a vessel before it sails from a foreign port. He informs the Chief Officer that he won't return. After the vessel sails, the Chief Officer finds the seaman's work clothes in his locker. How should the Master handle this matter?

Your vessel is in a foreign port and you find that one of the crew members has been incarcerated for drunkenness. The Official Logbook shows that the seaman doesn't have funds to cover the costs of the fine. Which action should the Master take?

At least one reinspection shall be made on each vessel holding a Certificate of Inspection valid for two years. This inspection shall be held between the tenth and fourteenth months of the duration period of the certificate and shall be __________.

The S.S. Microwave has been chartered to the Longline Steamship Company. The Longline Steamship Company agrees to pay all expenses and employ and pay the crew. Which type of contract is involved? #

A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.

After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.

For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.

Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is called __________.

That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.

The average of the forward and after drafts is the __________.

The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.

A)  listB)  heel************C)  trimD)  flotation

A)  change, depending on the location of the LCGB)  increaseC)  decreaseD)  remain constant***********

A)  waterline****************B)  freeboard deckC)  Plimsoll markD)  amidships section

A)  list**************B)  heelC)  trimD)  flotation

A)  tipping center**************B)  center of buoyancyC)  center of gravityD)  turning center

A)  mean draft*************B)  true mean draftC)  mean of the calculated draftsD)  draft at the center of flotation

The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.

The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.

The maximum mean draft to which a vessel may be safely loaded is called __________.

A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.

A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed?

As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.

A)  trimB)  change of trim************C)  final trimD)  change of draft

A)  listB)  heel************C)  trimD)  flotation

A)  tonnageB)  reserve buoyancyC)  draft************D)  freeboard

A)  mean draftB)  calculated draftC)  deep draftD)  load line draft**************

A)  low in the vesselB)  completely emptyC)  completely fullD)  slack********

A)  The tanks lie above the waterline and are filled.B)  The tanks are partially filled with dry cargo.C)  The tanks are partially filled with liquid cargo.************D)  The tanks are filled and lie below the waterline.

A)  increasesB)  decreases*************C)  remains the same

Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.

Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.

Increasing free surfaces has the effect of raising the __________.

Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the __________.

Reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduces the __________.

The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon __________.

The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.

D)  may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the vessel's form

A)  length and width of space*************B)  length of space onlyC)  width of space onlyD)  neither length nor width

A)  off-center***********B)  on the centerlineC)  completely floodedD)  open to the sea above and below the waterline

A)  uncorrected KGB)  virtual height of the center of gravity*************C)  metacenterD)  metacentric height

A)  uncorrected KGB)  virtual height of the center of gravity*************C)  metacenterD)  metacentric height

A)  roll period**************B)  metacentric heightC)  waterplane areaD)  vessel's draft

A)  the amount of liquid in the compartmentB)  the dimensions of the liquid surface and the vessel's displacement*****************C)  only the length of the compartmentD)  the vertical position of the liquid in the vessel

The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.

To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.

To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should __________.

What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?

When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks __________.

Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?

A)  volume of liquid in the tankB)  displacement of the vessel**************C)  location of the tank in the vesselD)  height of the center of gravity of the vessel

A)  depthB)  lengthC)  displacementD)  breadth**************

A)  total weight of liquid loadsB)  total displacement*****************C)  lightweightD)  deadweight

A)  close the cross-connection valve between the off-center tanksB)  completely flood high center tanksC)  ballast double bottom wing tanksD)  close any opening to the sea in an off-center tank*****************

A)  Width of the tankB)  Length of the tankC)  Registered tonnage************D)  Specific gravity of the liquid in the tank

A)  increaseB)  decrease****************C)  are directly proportionalD)  remain unchanged

A)  The width of the tank**************B)  The length of the tank

Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?

You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?

A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?

A vessel is "listed" when it is __________.

A vessel trimmed by the stern has a __________.

Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

C)  The draft of the vesselD)  The specific gravity of the liquid in the tank

A)  It has the same affect on initial stability whether the tank is 75% full or 25% full.****************B)  The free surface effect usually increases at angles of heel above 25°.C)  The effect increases if the tank is off the centerline.D)  The effect can be reduced by shifting weights vertically.

A)  Shutting off electricity to damaged cablesB)  Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard***************C)  Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee sideD)  Removing burned debris from the cargo hold

A)  The vessel has negative GM.B)  The center of gravity is on the centerline.C)  The list can be corrected by reducing KM.D)  The vessel has asymmetrical weight distribution.******************

A)  down by the headB)  down by the sternC)  inclined due to off-center weight**************D)  inclined due to wind

A)  listB)  drag***************C)  setD)  sheer

A)  vertical momentsB)  transverse position of the center of gravity*****************C)  inclining momentsD)  righting moments

Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?

During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. To correct the list, you should __________.

If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will __________.

If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by __________.

In the absence of external forces, adding weight on one side of a floating vessel causes the vessel to __________.

In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.

The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely is __________.

A)  Empty double-bottoms and lower holds, and a heavy deck cargo*********************B)  Flooding the forepeak to correct the vessel's trimC)  Having KG smaller than KMD)  Having a small positive righting arm

A)  shift weight to the high sideB)  shift weight to the centerlineC)  add weight in the lower holds or double bottoms***************D)  remove weight from the lower holds or double bottoms

A)  move to port***************B)  move to starboardC)  move directly downD)  stay in the same position

A)  negative GM***************B)  off-center weightC)  pocketing of free surfaceD)  excessive freeboard

A)  heel until the angle of loll is reachedB)  list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity***************C)  trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equalD)  decrease draft at the center of flotation

A)  center of gravity****************B)  amidships stationC)  center of flotationD)  geometric center of the waterplane area

A)  list***************

When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the __________.

With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.

With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly above the __________.

Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.

Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.

The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.

B)  heelC)  trimD)  flotation

A)  shape of the vessel's underwater hull remains the sameB)  vessel's center of gravity shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hullC)  vessel's center of buoyancy shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull***************D)  vessel's mean draft increases

A)  longitudinal centerlineB)  center of flotationC)  original vertical centerlineD)  metacenter******************

A)  longitudinal centerlineB)  center of buoyancy*****************C)  original vertical centerlineD)  center of flotation

A)  a decrease in reserve buoyancyB)  a decrease in the maximum draftC)  the vessel to flop to port and starboardD)  None of the above***************

A)  list should be easily removed****************B)  mean draft is affectedC)  vessel may flopD)  vessel is trimmed

A)  necessary to change the angle of list 1° at a given draftB)  necessary to change trim 1 inch at a given draftC)  pressure per square inch on the vessel's hull at a given draftD)  necessary to further immerse the vessel 1 inch at a given draft********************

A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.

A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.

A vessel is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

A vessel's LCG is determined by __________.

Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.

Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's __________.

A)  coupleB)  lever arm**************C)  moment of inertiaD)  point of application

A)  has no more than two compartmentsB)  has two compartments in addition to the engine roomC)  will sink if any two compartments are floodedD)  will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded***************

A)  positiveB)  negativeC)  zero******************D)  vertical

A)  dividing the total longitudinal moment summations by displacement*****************B)  dividing the total vertical moment summations by displacementC)  multiplying the MT1 by the longitudinal momentsD)  subtracting LCF from LCB

A)  inclining momentsB)  righting momentsC)  vertical momentsD)  longitudinal position of the center of gravity****************

A)  TCGB)  transverse moment***************C)  righting momentD)  transverse free surface moment

Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.

If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?

Intact buoyancy is a term used to describe __________.

Of the following, the most important consideration for a tank vessel is __________.

Reserve buoyancy is __________.

The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance between the __________.

A)  ability to float************B)  deadweightC)  freeboardD)  midships strength

A)  bulwarkB)  deck line**************C)  gunwale barD)  sheer strake

A)  Compression***********B)  TensionC)  ThrustD)  Racking

A)  the volume of all intact spaces above the waterlineB)  an intact space below the surface of a flooded area***************C)  an intact space which can be flooded without causing a ship to sinkD)  the space at which all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are considered to be concentrated

A)  GMB)  the vertical center of gravityC)  the longitudinal center of gravityD)  the stress on the hull****************

A)  also called GMB)  the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed and watertightC)  affected by the number of transverse watertight bulkheadsD)  the watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline***************

A)  LCB and LCFB)  LCF and LCGC)  LHA and LCG

The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

The center of flotation of a vessel is __________.

The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is called the __________.

The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.

The geometric center of the waterplane area is called the __________.

The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.

The normal tendency for a loaded tanker is to __________.

D)  LCB and LCG***************

A)  initial stabilityB)  free surfaceC)  stability at large angles of inclination************D)  permeability

A)  the center of volume of the immersed portion of the vesselB)  the center of gravity of the water plane*************C)  that point at which all the vertical downward forces of weight are considered to be concentratedD)  that point at which all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are considered to be concentrated

A)  center of buoyancy***********B)  center of flotationC)  center of gravityD)  tipping center

A)  amidships planeB)  longitudinal reference planeC)  baselineD)  waterplane*************

A)  center of buoyancyB)  center of gravityC)  metacenterD)  center of flotation***************

A)  floodable lengthB)  factor of subdivisionC)  compartment standardD)  permissible length***********

The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage is known as __________.

The result of multiplying a weight by a distance is a __________.

The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the __________.

The tendency of a vessel to return to its original trim after being inclined by an external force is __________.

The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called __________.

The time required to incline from port to starboard and back to port again is called __________.

A)  hogB)  sag***********C)  have a permanent listD)  be very tender

A)  one compartment standardB)  center of flotationC)  permeability*************D)  form gain

A)  moment*************B)  forceC)  coupleD)  center of gravity location

A)  deepsB)  domesticsC)  peaks************D)  settlers

A)  equilibriumB)  buoyancyC)  transverse stabilityD)  longitudinal stability************

A)  rolling periodB)  amplitude momentC)  inclining momentD)  pitching period*************

A)  initial stabilityB)  range of stability

The two points that act together to trim a ship are the __________.

The volume of a vessel's intact watertight space above the waterline is its __________.

The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.

Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for trimming the ship are the __________.

To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could __________.

What is NOT a motion of the vessel?

C)  inclining momentD)  rolling period*************

A)  LCF and LCBB)  LCG and LCB*************C)  metacenter and LCGD)  VCG and LCG

A)  free surfaceB)  marginal stabilityC)  reserve buoyancy*************D)  freeboard

A)  baselineB)  vertical reference planeC)  hull************D)  horizontal reference plane

A)  domesticsB)  settlersC)  deepsD)  peaks**************

A)  ballast the vesselB)  increase reserve buoyancy************C)  lower the center of gravityD)  raise the center of gravity

A)  PitchB)  RollC)  Trim*************D)  Yaw

When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?

Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?

Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no sheer?

Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is __________.

A)  compression stressB)  tension stress***********C)  shear stressD)  racking stress

A)  compression stressB)  racking stressC)  shear stressD)  tension stress**********

A)  Metacentric heightB)  Righting momentC)  Rolling periodD)  Freeboard*************

A)  GMB)  The longitudinal center of gravityC)  The stress on the hull**********D)  The vertical center of gravity

A)  Lighter draftB)  Raised fo'c'sle headC)  Raised poopD)  Higher bulwark***************

A)  sagging with tensile stress on main deckB)  sagging with compressive stress on main deckC)  hogging with tensile stress on main deck*************D)  hogging with compressive stress on main deck

A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.

After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.

For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.

Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is called __________.

The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.

The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.

A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.

A vessel is equipped with cross-connected deep tanks. In which situation should the cross-connection valve be closed?

As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.

Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.

The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.

B)  the dimensions of the liquid surface and the vessel's displacement*****************

The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank carrying liquids is __________.

To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the free-surface moments by the __________.

You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?

A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?

Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

A)  It has the same affect on initial stability whether the tank is 75% full or 25% full.****************

Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a vessel, which condition could cause a list?

During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to the center of gravity rising above the transverse metacenter. To correct the list, you should __________.

If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by __________.

In the absence of external forces, adding weight on one side of a floating vessel causes the vessel to __________.

In the absence of external forces, the center of buoyancy of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly below the __________.

The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by shifting a weight transversely is __________.

A)  Empty double-bottoms and lower holds, and a heavy deck cargo*********************

B)  list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of gravity***************

With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the __________.

With no environmental forces, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned directly above the __________.

Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list will cause __________.

Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading of material on deck. The __________.

The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.

C)  vessel's center of buoyancy shifts to the center of the vessel's underwater hull***************

D)  necessary to further immerse the vessel 1 inch at a given draft********************

A vessel is inclined at an angle of loll. In the absence of external forces, the righting arm (GZ) is __________.

Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

Aboard a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity from the centerline results in the load's __________.

A)  dividing the total longitudinal moment summations by displacement*****************

D)  the space at which all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are considered to be concentrated

The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its __________.

The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of the water and the hull of a vessel is the __________.

The maximum length allowed between main, transverse bulkheads on a vessel is referred to as the __________.

C)  that point at which all the vertical downward forces of weight are considered to be concentratedD)  that point at which all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are considered to be concentrated

The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by damage is known as __________.

The tendency of a vessel to return to its original trim after being inclined by an external force is __________.

The time required to incline from bow down to stern down and return to bow down again is called __________.

The time required to incline from port to starboard and back to port again is called __________.

The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.

Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for trimming the ship are the __________.

To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer without sinking, you could __________.

When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the main deck is under __________.

Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is __________.

A towing hawser is readied for service by __________.

A towing hawser should be stowed __________.

A)  spooling it on a winch catheadB)  coiling it in a counterclockwise direction on the fantailC)  faking it on deck in a fore and aft direction*************(ÇIKMIŞ SORU)D)  spooling it on a reel lying on its side to prevent rolling

A)  in a sealed locker with adequate air circulation*************B)  by spooling it on the winchC)  by coiling it on deckD)  by hanging it in the engineroom