TS EAMCET (MEDICAL) MODEL GRAND … fileI) Guava - Leaves II) Legumes - Seedcoats III) Tea - Pulp of...

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TS EAMCET (MEDICAL) MODEL GRAND TESTNo. of Questions: 160 Marks: 160 Time: 3 Hrs.

BOTANY1. Stem modification in turmeric

1) Corm 2) Bulb 3) Rhizome 4) Stem tuber

2. In angiosperms, structures formed as a result of double fertilization are

I) Embryo II) Perisperm III) Endosperm

1) II and III are correct 2) I and III are correct

3) I only correct 4) I, II and III are correct

3. Find the wrong one.

1) An alga with isogametes is Cladophora

2) An alga with heterogametes is Fucus

3) A monoecious alga is Chara

4) A monoecious bryophyte is Marchantia

4. Geitonogamy even though is functionally cross pollination, genetically it is similar to autogamy since

1) The pollen grains reach from the same flower.

2) The pollen grains reach from flowers present on another plant.

3) The pollen grains reach from another flower of the same plant.

4) The pollen grains reach from two plants.

5. Assertion (A): Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of onegeneration and the next.

Reason (R): Life of every sexually reproducing organism begins as a single cell, the zygote.

1) A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

2) A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.

3) A is true, but R is false.

4) A is false, but R is true.

6. Plants A and B are tendrillar climbers of Liliaceae. Plant A in its leaf exhibits a character of dicot andPlant B has underground horizontal modified stem. Plant A and B respectively are

1) Smilax and Colchicum 2) Gloriosa and Smilax

3) Pisum and Lathyrus 4) Smilax and Gloriosa

7. Identify the correct combination.

I) Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is Golgi apparatus

II) Structure which plays important role in osmoregulation - Vacuole

III) The central proteinaceous part of the centriole is called - Hub

IV) A site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis is nucleolus

Correct combination is

1) I and II only 2) II, III and IV only 3) I, II and III only 4) I, II, III, IV

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8. Study the following lists and identify the correct bond.

List - I List - II

A) Peptide bond I) Phosphate group and sugar

B) Glycosidic bond II) COOH group of one aminoacid and NH2 group of next amino acid

C) Ester bond III) Two adjacent monosaccharides of a polysaccharide

D) Hydrogen bond IV) A purine and a pyrimidine of a complimentary base pair

The correct match is

A B C D A B C D

1) I III II IV 2) II III IV I

3) II III I IV 4) IV III II I

9. Splitting of centromere occurs in

1) Anaphase - I 2) Metaphase - I 3) Anaphase - II 4) Telophase - I

10. A marine dinoflagellate showing bioluminescence

1) Gonyaulax 2) Streptomyces 3) Noctiluca 4) Trichodesmium

11. Match the following lists

List - I List - II

A) Endospores I) Diatoms

B) Hormogonia II) Protista

C) Auxospores III) Blue green algae

D) Primarily aquatic IV) Archaebacteria

V) Eubacteria


A B C D A B C D

1) I II V IV 2) III IV II I

3) V III I II 4) V IV II I

12. Loosely arranged, non-suberised parenchyma cells in lenticle region are

1) Buliform cells 2) Subsidiary cells

3) Complementary cells 4) Epithem cells

13. Study the following and identify the correct combination with regard to sclereides

Taxon - Present in this plant part

I) Guava - Leaves

II) Legumes - Seedcoats

III) Tea - Pulp of fruits

The correct combination is

1) I and II 2) I only 3) III only 4) II only

14. Identify the mismatch.

1) Smilax - Sarsaparilla 2) Dracaena - Red dragon

3) Pterocarpous - Indian Rosewood 4) Derris - Kanuga



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15. The correct ascending sequence of taxonomic categories is

1) Kingdom - Division - Class - Order - Family - Genus - Species

2) Species - Division - Class - Order - Family -Genus - Kingdom

3) Genus - Family - Order - Class - Division - Kingdom

4) Kingdom - Division - Family - Order - Genus

16. Taxon is a ...

1) Highest rank in classification 2) Group of closely related organisms

3) A unit of classification 4) Lowest rank in classification

17. Match the following.

A) Silk cotton I) Underground runner

B) Australian Acacia II) Sucker

C) Mustard III) Two Whorls of Stamens

D) Banana IV) Phyllode

E) Strawberry V) Palmately compound leaf


A B C D E

1) V IV III II I

2) V IV I II III

3) I II III IV V

4) V IV II I III

18. In peach flowers the position of ovary is said to be

1) Superior 2) Inferior 3) Half inferior 4) All of them

19. Study the table and find out the correct combination.

List - I List - II List - III

Botanical name Type of fruit Edible part

I) Pyrus malus Pome Thalamus

II) Citrus sinensis Hesperidium Mesocarp

III) Oryza sativa Caryopsis Endosperm

IV) Mangifera indica Drupe Endocarp

1) I and II only 2) II and III only 3) I and III only 4) I, III and IV

20. Study the table and find out the correct combination.

List - I List - II List - III

Plant Corolla shape Family of the plant

I) Datura Funnel shaped Solanaceae

II) Pisum Papilionaceous Fabaceae

III) Helianthus Tubular Asteraceae

1) I and II only 2) II and III only 3) I and III only 4) All of them



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21. Select the major significances of Osmosis in plants from the following

I. Movement of water from one cell to another

II. Gaseous exchange in plants

III. Opening and closing of stomata

IV. Movement of water through tracheids

1) I, II and IV only 2) III and IV only

3) I, II, III and IV 4) I and III

22. Observe the following statements related to mineral elements.

A - is the micro element required in larger quantities than any other micro element.

B - is the micro element when becomes excess inhibits translocation of one of the macro element toshoot apex.

C - is a micro element maintains cation-anion balance along with a macro element.

Identify A, B, C respectively choosing following options given below.

1) Mn, B, Fe 2) Fe, Mn, Cl

3) Zn, Ni, Fe 4) Fe, Cu, Cl

23. Identify from the following which is not a beneficial element.

1) Silicon 2) Selenium 3) Gold 4) Sodium

24. Prosthetic groups distinguished from coenzymes in which the later is

1) Tightly bound to enzyme and forms coordination bonds with apoenzyme and substrate.

2) Transiently bound to apoenzyme only during catalysis.

3) Always bound to active site along with substrate during catalysis.

4) Inorganic compound and firmly bound to the active site permanently.

25. Pickup "incorrect" statement.

1) Dark phase do not depend on light phase

2) Light is not required for dark phase

3) Plant kept in dark fails to produce sugars due to lack of assimilatory power

4) Current available CO2 concentration in atmosphere is limiting factor for C3 plants.

26. The number of decarboxylations that occur in EMP pathway is

1) One 2) Two 3) There 4) Zero

27. The R.Q. value is less than 1, when the respiratory substrate is

1) Proteins and carbohydrates 2) Proteins and fats

3) Fats and carbohydrates 4) Sucrose Tripalmitin

28. Effects of ethylene on plants is ...

I. Swelling of axis

II. Horizontal growth of seeds

III. Apical hook formation in dicot seedlings

1) I, II, III 2) I, II only 3) II, III only 4) I, III only



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29. DNA of a bacterium is used in

I) Biomining

II) Alteration of genetic make up

III) Medical diagnosis

1) II, III 2) I, III 3) I, II 4) I, II, III

30. Eclipse period in Virus replication is present between

1) Attachment & penetration phases

2) Maturation & release phases

3) Penetration & Maturation phases

4) Biosynthesis & Maturation phases

31. The dominating trait studied by Mendel in pea plant related to vegetative character is

1) Violet 2) Dwarf 3) Tall 4) Yellow

32. Both phenotypic and genotypic ratio are 1 : 2 : 1 in

1) Monohybrid cross 2) Dihybrid cross

3) Incomplete dominance 4) Law of dominance

33. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being

1) degenerate 2) ambiguous 3) universal 4) specific

34. How many effective codons are there for the synthesis of twenty amino acids?

1) 64 2) 32 3) 60 4) 61

35. A specific nucleotide sequence to which RNA polymerase attaches to initiate transcription of mRNAfrom a gene is

1) promotor gene 2) structural gene 3) operon 4) regulator gene

36. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1) Products of restriction enzyme digestion are resolved by electrophoresis.

2) Ethanol is used to precipitate DNA from aqueous solutions.

3) Palindromes are segments of DNA molecules that read the same in the 5' → 3' direction as in the3' → 5' direction of the same strand.

4) DNA molecules because of an overall negative charge along their backbone, move to anode inelectrophoresis.

37. In genetic engineering, antibiotics like tetracycline, ampicillin are used

1) To select healthy vectors

2) As sequences from where replication starts

3) To keep the cultures free of infection

4) As selectable markers

38. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developingcountries is

1) flavr savr tomatoes 2) golden rice

3) roundup ready soyabean 4) Bt brinjal



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39. Pick out the correct combinations from the following.

I) pusa sadabahar - chilli - resistant to TMV II) pusa shubhra - cauliflower - black rot

III) pusa komal - cowpeas - fungal blight IV) pusa swarnim - wheat - white rust

1) I and III 2) II and IV 3) I and II 4) II, III and IV


A) Trichoderma I) Biogas production

B) Bacillus thuringiensis II) Probiotics

C) Methanobacterium III) Biological control

D) LAB IV) Insect resistant crops

V) Butyric acid formation

A B C D A B C D

1) IV III II V 2) IV III I V

3) III IV I V 4) III IV I II

ZOOLOGY

41. Assertion (A): The members of a family are comparatively genetically more similar than those of anorder.

Reason (R): Genetic similarity increases down the taxonomic hierarchy.

1) Both A and R are true, R explains A. 2) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A.

3) A is true, R is false. 4) Both A and R are false.


Name Location

A) Biodiversity hot spots in the world I) 3

B) Biodiversity hot spots of India II) 34

C) Biosphere reserves of India III) 448

D) National parks of India IV) 17

E) Sanctuaries of India V) 90

1) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - V, E - II 2) A - II, B - I, C - V, D - IV, E - III

3) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - V, E - II 4) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - V, E - III


List - I List - II

A) Hemichordates I) Enterocoel

B) Adult Arthropods II) Haemocoel

C) Embryonic molluscs III) Schizocoel

D) Nematodes IV) Blastocoel

1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV 2) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

3) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV 4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I



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44. Goblet cells are not associated with

1) non - ciliated simple columnar epithelium

2) ciliated simple columnar epithelium

3) non - ciliated pseudo stratified epithelium

4) ciliated pseudo stratified epithelium


Leucocyte Nucleus

A) Monocyte I) Bilobed

B) Lymphocyte II) Irregular lobes

C) Basophil III) Kidney shaped

D) Eosinophil IV) Trilobed

E) Neutrophil V) Spherical

The correct match

A B C D E

1) III IV I V II

2) II V III I IV

3) III V II I IV

4) II IV V III I

46. Gastrovascular cavity is partitioned by septa in

1) Medusoid forms

2) Hydrozoan polyp forms

3) Only Anthozoan polyp forms

4) Scyphozoan and Anthozoan polyp forms

47. A feature, which is not common in copulating hermaphroditic annelids

1) Setae 2) Definite number of segments

3) Suckers 4) Ectoparasites

48. Reptiles with edentulous jaws ...

1) Chelonians 2) Snakes 3) Lizards 4) Crocodiles

49. From the following birds, identify the one with copulatory organ ....

1) Columba 2) Corvus 3) Coracias 4) Casuarius

50. In anamniotic tetrapods 'hyomandibula' of the fish is modified into ...

1) Sternum 2) Columella auris 3) Tympanum 4) Jaws

51. The flagellum without 'naked' axial filament and 'lateral appendages' is present in ....

1) Chilomonas 2) Chlamydomonas 3) Monas 4) Urceolus

52. Delhi boils are caused by ...

1) Leishmania donovani 2) Trypanosoma gambiense

3) Toxocara 4) Leishmania tropica



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Drugs Mode of action on human systems

A) Barbiturates I) Pain reliever

B) Amphetamines II) Tranquilizers

C) Benzodiazepines III) Sleeping pills

D) Morphine IV) Sleeplessness

A B C D A B C D

1) IV III II I 2) III IV II I

3) I II III IV 4) I IV III II

54. Note the following.

a) fenestra b) pedicel c) lacinia

d) flagellum e) galea f) mentum

g) palpiger h) cardo i) glossa

Which of the above structures belong to the second pair of maxillae of cockroach

1) c, e, g and h 2) a, c, e and i 3) a, f, g and i 4) f, g and i

55. Subgenual organs in cockroach are sensitive to

1) ground vibrations 2) sound vibrations

3) chemical stimulus 4) movement of flagellum

56. Match the following and choose the correct answer.

List - I List - II

A. Ventral longitudinal muscles I. Circulatory movements

B. Dorsal longitudinal muscles II. Respiratory movements

C. Adductor and abductor muscles III. Mandibular movements

D. Alary muscles IV. Flight movements

1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

57. The adaptations in periplaneta to minimise water loss

i. Omnivorous insect ii. Chitinous cuticle

iii. Malpighian tubules iv. Tracheal respiratory system

Which of the above are reasons

1) All except i 2) All except ii 3) All except iii 4) All except iv

58. Assertion (A): Pyramid of energy is always upright.

Reason (R): When energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level, some energyis always lost as heat at every step.

1) Both A and R are true, R explains A.

2) Both A and R are true, R doesn't explain A.

3) A is true, R is false.

4) Both A and R false.



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59. The migratory behaviour in Siberian birds is an example for

1) Circadian rhythm 2) Circalunar rhythm

3) Circannual rhythm 4) Circa perannual rhythm

60. Make a matching of List - I with List - II.

List - I List - II

A) Nitrosomonas I) Symbiotic N2 fixation

B) Nitrobacter II) Denitrification

C) Pseudomonas III) Conversion of nitrites to nitrates

D) Rhizobium IV) Conversion of Ammonia to nitrites

A B C D A B C D

1) III IV II I 2) II IV III I

3) IV III II I 4) IV II III I

61. Which of the following events occur during ventricular systole?

A. AV valves are open

B. SL valves are open

C. AV valves are closed

D. LUB sound

E. DUP sound

F. Blood flow from ventricles to aortic arches

G. Blood flow from atria into ventricles

1) A, E, G 2) B, C, D, G

3) A, B, E, F 4) B, C, D, F

62. Auto catalysis in alkaline medium is exhibited by

1) Chymotrypsinogen 2) Pepsinogen

3) Trypsinogen 4) Both 2 & 3

63. Which of the following pulmonary volume can't be measured by spirometer directly?

1) Tidal volume 2) Vital capacity

3) Inspiratory capacity 4) Residual volume

64. Study the following processes that occur during urine formation near nephron

i. Active diffusion of NaCl ......... Thick segment of Al

ii. Passive diffusion of NaCl ......... Thin segment of Al

iii. Secretion of K+ ......... DCT

iv. Reabsorption of K+ ......... PCT

Identify the correct match.

1) All except i and ii 2) All except ii and iii

3) All except iii and iv 4) All are correct



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65. Identify the sequence of ventricles arrangement of the brain from anterior to posterior

A. Diocoel B. Foramina of Monro

C. Paracoels D. Aqueduct of Sylvius

E. Central canal F. Myelocoel

1) C B E F D A 2) C B A D E F

3) C B A D F E 4) A D F E B C

66. Gasserian ganglion is a part of

1) V cranial nerve only 2) VII cranial nerve only

3) VI cranial nerve only 4) both 1and 2

67. Arrange the following in correct sequence from the shoulder to the metacarpals of the forelimb

a. Gliding joint b. Ball and socket joint

c. Condyloid joint d. Hinge joint

1) b-d-c-a 2) b-d-a-c 3) a-b-d-c 4) b-a-c-d

68. Select the mismatch among the following.

1) Atrial natriuretic peptide - dialation of blood vessels

2) Insulin - hypoglycemic hormone

3) Vasopressin - promotes diuresis

4) Catecholamines - secreted in response to stress

69. Arrange the following events of humoral immunity in the correct sequence.

A) Binding of antigen to receptor of an immuno competent B - cell

B) Stimulation of B - cell

C) Processing of antigen

D) Display of antigen on class-II MHC molecules

E) Production of antibodies

F) Formation of plasma cell

1) A-B-C-D-E-F 2) A-C-D-B-F-E

3) A-C-B-F-E-D 4) A-B-D-C-F-E

70. The best description of natural selection is

1) The survival of the fittest.

2) The struggle for existence.

3) The reproductive success of the members of a population best adapted to the environment.

4) A change in the proportion of variation within a population.

71. The contraction of smooth muscles of female reproductive tract is stimulated by the followingsubstance present in semen

1) Fructose 2) Citric acid 3) Prostaglandins 4) Glucose

72. The first evidence of gastrulation during embryonic development is the formation of

1) hypoblast 2) yolksac 3) embryonic disc 4) primitive streak



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73. Identify the genotypes of A, C, D respectively by analyzing the pedigree given below based on yourknowledge in genetics.

1) XH Xh, XHY, XhXh 2) XHYh, XYh, XhXh

3) XHXh, XhY, XhXh 4) XHXh, XhYh, XHXH

74. A women is with blood type 'O'. She has two elder brothers with blood type 'A' and 'B'. What are thegenotypes of her parents with respect to this trait?

1) A X B 2) O X B 3) AB X O 4) A X A

75. Read the following with reference to Drosophila.

Chromosome Sex type Total number

complement of chromosomes

I) AAAXXX female 12

II) AA XXY female 9

III) AAAXX Inter sex 11

IV) AAXO Sterile male 7

V) AAAXY Meta male 11

Correct combination of the above

1) All are correct 2) III, IV & V only

3) I, II & III only 4) I, III & IV only


List - I List - II

A) Chicken pox I) Artificial acquired passive immunity

B) Vaccination II) Natural acquired passive immunity

C) Colostrum III) Artificial acquired active immunity

D) ATS IV) Natural acquired active immunity

V) Congenital immunity

1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 2) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-IV

77. If 9% of 1600 African population is born with a severe form of sickle-cell anaemia, how many peopleof the population will be more resistant to malaria and live reasonably healthy? (Assuming thepopulation to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.)

1) 768 2) 672 3) 800 4) 512



A

CB

D

E

→ Normal male

→ Normal female

→ Carrier female

→ Affected male

→ Affected female

→ Marriage

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List - I List - II

A) a-1 antitrypsin I) Inter cellular proteins

B) a-lactalbumin II) Tumour suppressing proteins

C) Cadherins III) Treatment of emphysema

D) pRB protein IV) Human milk protein


A B C D A B C D

1) I IV II III 2) III IV I II

3) III II I IV 4) II III I IV

79. In ECG the ST segment elevation indicates

1) First degree heart block

2) Myocardial infarction

3) Rheumatic fever

4) Myocardial ischemia


List - I List - II

A) CPBF I) Develop broiler strains

B) IVRI II) Flu virus

C) CRD III) Develop vaccines

D) H5N1 IV) Develop hybrid layers

V) Bacterial disease


A B C D A B C D

1) IV I III II 2) IV III V II

3) III I IV II 4) I III II IV

PHYSICS

81. Two resistors of resistances R1 = (100 ± 3)Ω and R2 = (200 ± 4)Ω are connected in parallel. Theequivalent resistance of the parallel combination is....

1) (66.7 ± 1.8) Ω 2) (66.7 ± 4.0) Ω 3) (66.7 ± 3.0) Ω 4) (66.7 ± 7.0) Ω

82. A man is watching two trains one leaving and the other coming in with equal speed of 3 ms−1. If theysound their whistles with equal frequency of 220 Hz, the number of beats heard by the man will be(Vsound = 330 ms−1)

1) 6 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1

83. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe of same length produce 2 beats / sec when they are set intovibrations together in fundamental mode. The length of open pipe is now halved and that of closed pipeis doubled. The number of beats produced will be

1) 7 2) 4 3) 8 4) 2



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84. The acceleration - time graph for a particle moving along X - axis is shown in figure. If the initialvelocity of particle is −5 m/s, the velocity at t = 8 s is

1) +15 m/s

2) +20 m/s

3) −15 m/s

4) −20 m/s

85. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope for relaxed vision is 16 and the distance betweenthe objective and eye lens is 34 cm. Then the focal length of objective and eye lens will berespectively

1) 17 cm, 17 cm 2) 20 cm, 14 cm 3) 32 cm, 2 cm 4) 30 cm, 4 cm

86. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm forms an image which is half the size of the object. Howfar is the object form the mirror?

1) 5 cm 2) 7.5 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 12.5 cm

87. A passenger in an open car travelling at 5 m/s throws a ball out over the bonnet relative to the car, theinitial velocity of the ball is 25 m/s at 53° to the horizontal. The angle of projection with respect to thehorizontal road would be

1) 60° 2) 45° 3) 37° 4) 75°

88. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and the springreads 49 N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an acceleration of 5 m/s2, thereading of the spring balance will be

1) 24 N 2) 74 N 3) 15 N 4) 49 N

89. Vector A→

and B→

include an angle θ between them. If (A→

+ B→

) and (A→− B→) respectively subtend

angles a and b with A→

, then (tan a + tan b) is

(AB sin θ) (2 AB sin θ) 1) 2)

(A2 + B2 cos2θ) (A2 − B2 cos2 θ)

(A2 sin2 θ) (B2 sin2 θ)3) 4)

(A2 + B2 cos2 θ) (A2 − B2 cos2 θ)

90. The coefficient of friction between two surfaces is µ = 0.8. The tension in the string shown in thefigure is

1) 0 N

2) 6 N

3) 4 N

4) 8 N

91. Young's double slit experiment is made in a liquid. The 10th bright fringe in liquid lies where 6th darkfringe lies in vacuum. The refractive index of liquid is1) 1.8 2) 1.54 3) 1.67 4) 1.2

92. Two bodies move towards each other and collide inelastically, the velocity of the first body beforeimpact is 2 m/s and of the second is 4 m/sec. The common velocity after collision is 1 m/s in thedirection of the first body. Ratio of KE of first to second body before collision

1) 4.25 2) 3.25 3) 2.25 4) 1.25



t(s)

a(m/s2)

2 4 68

10

-10

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93. A heart discharges 75 cc of blood at each beat against an average pressure of 10 cm of mercury.Assuming that the pulse frequency is 72 per minute. The rate of work in watt (density of mercury =13.6 gm/c.c)

1) 5.2 2) 2.4 3) 3.6 4) 1.2

94. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2 m diameter has a surface charge density of 88.5 µc/m2.The total electric flux leaving the surface of sphere is

(ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2/ N − m2)

1) 4π ×107 Nm2 /C 2) 2π ×107 Nm2 /C

3) 3π ×108 Nm2 /C 4) 5π ×108 Nm2 /C

95. A parallel plate condenser has initially air medium between the plates. If a slab of dielectric constant 5having thickness half the difference of separation between the plates is introduced, the percentageincrease in its capacity is

1) 33.3% 2) 66.7% 3) 50% 4) 75%

96. The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom is 3h2π

. Here 'h' is Planck's constant.

The kinetic energy of this election is

1) 4.35 eV 2) 1.51 eV 3) 3.4 eV 4) 6.8 eV

97. Two point charges 4 µC and 9 µC are separated by 50 cm. The potential at the point between themwhere the field has zero strength is

1) 4.5 × 105 V 2) 9 × 105 V 3) 9 × 104 V 4) Zero

98. Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on X-axis at distances 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m.......respectively from the origin. The resultant gravitational potential due to the system at the origin will be

8G 4G1) − 2) − 3) −4G 4) −G

3 3

99. Two flat plates are separated by layer 4 mm thick liquid. The upper plate is moved by force of 400 dynewith a velocity of 10 cm/s. If the area of the upper plate is 5 cm2, the coefficient of viscosity of theliquid is ...

1) 3.2 poise 2) 1.6 poise 3) 32 poise 4) 16 poise

100. A carbon resistor is marked with the rings coloured brown, black, silver and gold. The resistance(in ohm) is

1) 3.2 × 105 ± 5% 2) 1 × 10−1 ± 5% 3) 1 × 107 ± 5% 4) 1 × 106 ± 5%

101. In a potentiometer of 10 wires, the balance point is obtained on the sixth wire. To shift the balance pointto eighth wire, we should

1) increase resistance in the primary circuit

2) decrease resistance in the primary circuit

3) decrease resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be measured

4) increase resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be measured

102. A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω has a range of 10 mA. The resistance required to be added inparallel so that the range is increased to 100 mA is

501) 5 Ω 2) 450 Ω 3) 500 Ω 4) Ω

9



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103. The apparent coefficient of the same liquid in two different containers are in the ratio 1 : 2. If α1, andα2 are the coefficients of linear expansions of the containers, the real coefficient of expansion ofliquid is given by

1) 2α1 − α2 2) 6α1 − 3α2 3) α1 − 2α2 4) 3α1 − 6α2

104. Cooling curves 1 and 2 of two liquids of same mass specific heats S1 and S2 are cooled in identicalconditions as shown in the graph. Then

1) S1 = S2

2) S1 < S2

3) S1 > S2

4) S1 ≤ S2

105. A thin hollow sphere of mass 'm' is completely filled with a liquid of mass 'm'. When the sphere rollswith a velocity 'V' at center of mass, then kinetic energy of the system is (neglect friction)

7 5 1 4 1) [ mV2 ] 2) [ mV2 ] 3) [ mV2 ] 4) [ mV2 ]10 3 3 3

106. A and B are two metallic rings placed at the opposite sides of a straight current carrying conductor. Ifcurrent in the wire is slowly increased, the direction of the induced current will be

1) Clockwise in A and anticlockwise in B

2) Anticlockwise in A and clockwise in B

3) Clockwise in both A and B

4) Anticlockwise in both A and B

107. The elastic limit of an elevator cable is 2 × 109 N/m2. The maximum upward acceleration that anelevator of mass 2 × 103 kg can have when supported by a cable whose cross-sectional area is 10−4 m2, provided that the stress in the cable would not exceed half of the elastic limit would be

1) 10 m/s2 2) 40 m/s2 3) 50 m/s2 4) 60 m/s2

108. A diatomic gas does 200 J of work when it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the gas in theprocess is

1) 700 J 2) 1200 J 3) 1600 J 4) 2100 J

109. An heat engine working between 300 K and 600 K has a work output of 800 J/s. How much heatenergy is supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle?

1) 1400 J 2) 1500 J 3) 1600 J 4) 1700 J

110. A toroid coil has 3000 turns. The inner and outer diameters are 22 cm and 26 cm respectively. Themagnetic field inside the core of coil when it carries a current of 5 A is

1) 50 × 10−3 T 2) 25 × 10−3 T 3) 100 × 10−3 T 4) 75 × 10−3 T

111. The resonant frequency of a.c circuit is f, if the capacitance of capacitor is made 4 times the initialvalue, then resonant frequency will become

f f1) 2) 2 f 3) f 4)

2 4

112. If the energy released in the fission of one uranium nucleus is 200 MeV. Then the number of nucleifissioned per second in a power plant of 16 KW is

1) 5 × 1012 2) 5 × 1014 3) 0.5 × 1012 4) 0.5 × 1014



Temperature

Time

A B

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List - I List - II

A) p-n junction diode I) Transmission of electric power

B) Transistor II) Rectifier

C) Zener diode III) Amplifier

D) Transformer IV) Voltage stabilizer


1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

03) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

114. The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel to

1) E−

× B−

2) B−

× E−

3) B−

4) E−

115. A simple pendulum with a brass bob has a time period T in vacuum. The bob is now immersed in anon viscous liquid and oscillated. If the density of liquid is 5/9 times that of brass, the time period willbe

9 5 3T 2T1) √

T 2) √

T 3) 4)

5 9 2 3

116. In communication with the help of antenna, if height is doubled, then the range covered which wasinitially 'r' would become

1) √2 r 2) 3r 3) 4r 4) 5r

117. A compound slab is made with two different materials A and B with coefficient of thermalconductivity KA = 2KB and thickness xA = 1−

2xB. If the face of the 'A' surface is at 100 °C and that

of the 'B' surface is at 25 °C. The temperature of the common surface will be

1) 85 °C 2) 45 °C 3) 40 °C 4) 15 °C

118. The rms speed of the molecules of a gas in a vessel is 400 m/s, if half of the gas leakes out, at constanttemperature, the rms speed of the remaining molecules will be

1) 800 m/s 2) 400 √2 m/s

3) 400 m/s 4) 200 m/s

119. Two particles of masses 1 kg and 3 kg move towards each other under their mutual force of attraction.No other force acts on them. When the relative velocity of approach of the two particles is 2 ms−1, thevelocity of the centre of mass is 0.5 ms−1. When the velocity of approach becomes 3 ms−1, thevelocity of centre of mass is

1) 0.75 ms−1 2) 0.5 ms−1

3) 2.5 ms−1 4) 0 ms−1

120. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 λ and λ respectively. If initially they 1

have the same number of nuclei, the ratio of number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be after ae

time

1 1 11 11) 2) 3) 4)

10λ 11λ 10λ 9λ



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CHEMISTRY

121. Arrange in decreasing order, the energy of 2s orbitals in the following atoms

1) E2s (H) > E2s (Li) > E2s (Na) > E2s (K)

2) E2s (H) > E2s (Na) > E2s (Li) > E2s (K)

3) E2s (H) > E2s (Na) = E2s (Li) > E2s (K)

4) E2s (K) > E2s (Na) > E2s (Li) > E2s (H)

122. The wavelength of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is x. The wavelength of electron inthe third orbit and the circumference of the third orbit of hydrogen atom are respectively

x1) 3x, 9x 2) 9x, 27x 3) 3x, 3x 4) , x

3

123. M(g) → M+(g) + e−, ∆H = 100 eV

M(g) → M2+(g) + 2e−, ∆H = 250 eV

Which is incorrect statement?

1) I1 of M(g) is 100 eV 2) I1 of M+(g) is 150 eV

3) I2 of M(g) is 250 eV 4) I2 of M(g) is 150 eV

124. The As - Cl bond distance in AsCl3 is 2.20 A°. If radius of chlorine atom is 0.99 A° then radius of 'As'atom is

1) 0.24 A° 2) 3.19 A° 3) 1.21 A° 4) 2.09 A°


List - I List - II

Type of molecule Shape

(B - bond pair of e−)

(E - lone pair of e− )

1) AB3E A) Bent

2) AB5E B) Square planar

3) AB4E2 C) Square pyramidal

4) AB2E D) Pyramidal

1) 1 - D, 2 - C, 3 - B, 4 - A 2) 1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - A, 4 - B

3) 1 - D, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - B 4) 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - D, 4 - B

126. Which of the following expressions between the vander waals constant b and the radius 'r' of sphericalmolecules is correct?

4 41) b = ( π r3)NA 2) b = 2 ( π r3)NA3 3

4 43) b = 3( π r3)NA 4) b = 4 ( π r3)NA3 3

127. Which of the following property of water can be used to explain the spherical shape of rain droplets?

1) Viscosity 2) Surface tension

3) Critical phenomena 4) Pressure



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128. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO4 solution, and Na2S2O3 solution is added to it. Which of thefollowing statements is incorrect for the reaction?

1) Evolved I2 is reduced 2) CuI2 is formed

3) Na2S2O3 is oxidized 4) Cu2I2 is formed

129. The sublimation energy of I2 (s) is 57.3 kJ/ mol and the enthalpy of fusion is 15.5 kJ/ mol. The enthalpyof vaporization of I2 is

1) 41.8 kJ/ mol 2) −41.8 kJ/ mol 3) 72.8 kJ/ mol 4) −72.8 kJ/ mol

130. The solubility product of AgCl is

4.0 × 10−10 at 298 K. The solubility of AgCl in 0.04 M CaCl2 will be

1) 2.0 × 10−5 M 2) 1.0 × 10−4 M 3) 5.0 × 10−9 M 4) 2.2 × 10−4 M

131. For the following equilibrium

N2O4(g) 2 NO2 (g)

Kp is found to be equal to Kc. This is attained when:

1) T = 1 K 2) T = 12.18 K 3) T = 27.3 K 4) T = 273 K

132. Which of the following graphs describes the relationship between [H3O+] and [OH−] in 3 aqueoussolutions at a constant temperature?

1) [OH-] 2) [OH-] 3) [OH-] 4) [OH-]

133. Correct statement(s) in the following is/ are

1) Except for hydrides of Ni, Pd, Ce and Ac, other Interstitial Hydrides have lattice different from thatof the parent metal.

2) Metals Pd, Pt can accommodate a very large volume of hydrogen and, therefore, can be used as itsstorage Media for hydrogen.

3) At 1 atm ice crystallises in the hexagonal form, but at very low temperatures it condenses to cubicform.

4) All are correct

134. Assertion (A): The melting and boiling points of IA element halides always follow the trend:fluoride > chloride > bromide > iodide.

Reason (R): Order covalent nature of LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI

1) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2) Both A & R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

3) A is true but R is false.

4) A is false, but R is true.

135. Find the correct statements.

I) Two important man-made silicates are glass and cement.

II) Quartz is extensively used as a piezoelectric material.

III) Kieselguhr, an amorphous form of silica is used in filtration plants.

1) I & III 2) I & II 3) II &III 4) All are correct



[H3O+] [H3O+] [H3O+][H3O+]

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136. The correct statements among the following

i) H3BO3 is used as antiseptic

ii) In B2H6, Boron is sp2 hybridized

iii) Aqueous solution of Borax is alkaline in nature

1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i, ii and iii 4) i and iii

137. The exhaust gases containing unburnt fuel, CO and NOx, when pass through the converter at 573 K,are converted into

1) CO2 2) N2 3) 1 & 2 4) C, N2 and O2

138. IUPAC name of

1) 4 - Bromo - 2 - Hydroxy Benzoic acid 2) 1 - Bromo - 3 - Hydroxy Benzoic acid

3) 1 - Bromo - 3- Hydroxy - 4 - Benzoic acid 4) 1 - Carboxy - 2 - Bromo phenol

139. Hyperconjugation phenomenon is possible in

1) CH2 = CH2 2) C6H5CH = CH2

3) CH3CH2 − CH = CH2 4) (CH3)3C − CH = CH2

140. n - hexane can be converted to benzene by using

1) alkaline. KMnO4 2) alc. KOH

3) Cr2O3 at 773 K & at 10 atm 4) LiAlH4

2rd141. Atoms of element 'B' forms hcp lattice and those of the element 'A' occupy of tetrahedral voids.

3What is the formula of the compound formed by the elements 'A' and 'B'?

1) A4B3 2) AB2 3) A2B 4) A2B3

142. Calculate the osmotic pressure associated with 50.0 g of an enzyme of molecular weight 98,000 g/moldissolved in water to give 2600 mL of solution at 30.0°C.

1) 0.484 torr 2) 1.68 torr 3) 2.48 torr 4) 3.71 torr

143. Van't Hoff factor for very dilute solution of H3PO3

1) 7 2) 3 3) 5 4) 1.5

144. The following reaction occurs at the positive electrode during the charging of lead storage battery.

1) Pb2+ + 2 e− → Pb

2) Pb2+ + SO4−2 → PbSO4

3) Pb → Pb2+ + 2 e−

4) PbSO4(s) + 2 H2O → PbO2(s) + 4 H+ + SO4−2 + 2 e−

145. The standard emf of a cell involving one electron change is 0.591 V at 25 °C. The equilibriumconstant of the reaction is

1) 1.0 × 101 2) 1.0 × 105 3) 1.0 × 1010 4) 1.0 × 1030

146. The rate constant of a reaction increased by 3 times for every 10°C rise of temperature in the rangefrom 20°C to 80°C. Then the rate constant at 60°C, if the rate constant at 30°C is 'K'

1) 18 K 2) 6 K 3) 27 K 4) 36 K



COOH

OH

Br

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147. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

1) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration.

2) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration.

3) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride.

4) Aqueous solution of sugar.

148. Which of the following options are correct?

(i) Ni is refined in Mond's process.

(ii) Iron is purified by polling.

(iii) Ge is purified by zone refining.

(iv) Zr and Ti are purified by van Arkel method.

1) I, II & III 2) II & IV 3) II & III 4) I, III & IV

149. Xenon Hexa flouride reacts with potassium flouride to yield

1) [XeF4]2+ [KF3]2− 2) K+ [XeF7]−

3) [XeF5]+ [KF2]− 4) XeF4

conc.H2SO4150. C10H16 + Cl2 → x + y ; C12H22O11 → z + y; x + O2 → 2 Cl2 + 2 H2O. Here a is

a

1) HCl 2) C 3) CuCl2 4) H2O

151. What is used in the estimation of carbon monoxide?

1) I2O7 2) I2O6 3) I2O5 4) I2O4

152. Willkinson's catalyst is used in ....

1) Polymerisation 2) Condensation 3) Halogenation 4) Hydrogenation

153. The type of isomerism shown by [Co(en)2 (NCS)2]Cl and [Co(en)2(NCS)Cl]NCS is:

1) Coordination 2) Ionization 3) Linkage 4) All above

154. The correct order of intermolecular forces of the polymers

I) Nylon - 6

II) Neoprene

III) Poly vinyl chloride is

1) I > III > II 2) II > I > III 3) II > III > I 4) I > II > III

155. Lysine,O

H2N CH C OH

H2N CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2

(i) α - Amino acid (ii) Basic amino acid

(iii) Amino acid synthesized in body (iv) β - Amino acid

Correct answers are

1) i and ii 2) ii and iv 3) i, ii and iii 4) i, ii, iii and iv



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156. Equanil is

1) artificial sweetener 2) tranquilizer

3) antihistamine 4) antifertility drug

157. The Structure of the compound that gives a tribromo derivative on treatment with bromine water is

1) 2) 3) 4)

158. Oxidation of isopropyl benzene by oxygen in the presence of dilute acid gives

1) C6H5OH 2) CH3COCH3 3) C6H5CHO 4) 1 and 2

159. Identify (D) in the given reaction.

(i) LiAlH4CH3COOH →

(ii) PBr3

(i) KCN CHCl3/OH−

LiAlH4A → B → C → D

(ii) LiAlH4

1) CH3CH2OH 2) CH3CH2CH2NHCH3

3) CH3CH2CH2NH2 4) CH3CH2CH2COOH

160. this compound is

1) S− 2) R − 3) L − 4) D−

KEY

1-3; 2-2; 3-4; 4-3; 5-1; 6-4; 7-4; 8-3; 9-3; 10-3; 11-3; 12-3; 13-4; 14-3; 15-3; 16-3; 17-1; 18-3; 19-3; 20-4;21-4; 22-2; 23-3; 24-2; 25-1; 26-4; 27-2; 28-1; 29-1; 30-3; 31-3; 32-3; 33-2; 34-4; 35-1; 36-3; 37-4; 38-2;39-3; 40-4; 41-1; 42-4; 43-1; 44-3; 45-3; 46-3; 47-1; 48-1; 49-4; 50-2; 51-1; 52-4; 53-2; 54-4; 55-1; 56-4;57-1; 58-1; 59-3; 60-3; 61-4; 62-3; 63-4; 64-4; 65-3; 66-4; 67-2; 68-3; 69-2; 70-3; 71-3; 72-4; 73-3; 74-1;75-1; 76-3; 77-2; 78-2; 79-2; 80-2; 81-1; 82-3; 83-1; 84-1; 85-3; 86-3; 87-2; 88-1; 89-2; 90-1; 91-3; 92-4;93-4; 94-1; 95-2; 96-2; 97-1; 98-3; 99-1; 100-2; 101-1; 102-4; 103-2; 104-3; 105-1; 106-1; 107-2; 108-1;109-3; 110-2; 111-1; 112-2; 113-3; 114-1; 115-3; 116-1; 117-1; 118-3; 119-2; 120-4; 121-1; 122-1; 123-3;124-3; 125-1; 126-4; 127-2; 128-2; 129-1; 130-3; 131-2; 132-4; 133-4; 134-1; 135-4; 136-4; 137-3; 138-1;139-3; 140-3; 141-1; 142-4; 143-2; 144-4; 145-3; 146-3; 147-2; 148-4; 149-2; 150-3; 151-3; 152-4; 153-2;154-1; 155-1; 156-2; 157-1; 158-4; 159-2; 160-2.

(--Ñ -†-´‚-Ø√ -v°æ-¨¡o°æ-vû√-Eo -Xí¬-ßª’-vA -N-ü∆uÆæçÆæn-©èπ◊ -îÁç-C-† -E°æ¤-ù’-©’ ®Ω÷-§Òç-Cç--î√®Ω’)



OHOH

CH3 CH2OH CH3CH3

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