Total Marks : 200 Mock Test 21 (Prelims Revision Test 3) 1 ......Mock Test 21 (Prelims Revision Test...

Mock Test 21 (Prelims Revision Test 3)Total Marks : 200

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1 Who famously remarked in 1853: "It was the British intruder who broke up the Indian handloom anddestroyed the spinning-wheel. England began with depriving the Indian cottons from the Europeanmarket; it then introduced twist into Hindustan and in the end inundated the very mother country ofcotton with cottons”?

Adam SmithA.Karl Marx B.James MillC.Abbot, JamesD.

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Learning: Marx's theories about society, economics and politics—collectively understood asMarxism—hold that human societies develop through class struggle. In capitalism, this manifestsitself in the conflict between the ruling classes (known as the bourgeoisie) that control the means ofproduction and the working classes (known as the proletariat) that enable these means by sellingtheir labour power in return for wages.

In the same line of though, the colonial policies of the East India Company destroyed the traditionaleconomic fabric of the Indian society. The peasantry were never really to recover from thedisabilities imposed by the new and a highly unpopular revenue settlement.

Impoverished by heavy taxation, the peasants resorted to loans from moneylenders/traders atusurious rates, the latter often evicting the former on non-payment of debt dues. Thesemoneylenders and traders emerged as the new landlords. While the scourge of indebtedness hascontinued to plague Indian society to this day.

British rule also meant misery to the artisans and handicraftsmen. The annexation of Indian statesby the Company cut off their major source of patronage. Added to this, British policy discouragedIndian handicrafts and promoted British goods. The highly skilled Indian craftsmen were forced tolook for alternate sources of employment .

Q Source: Chapter 7: Spectrum: Modern India: Rajiv Ahir

2 Consider the following statements.The UN General Assembly decided to develop a global compact for safe, orderly and regular1.migration through the adoption of the New York Declaration for Refugees and Migrants in 2016.The Global Compact for Migration (GCM) is the first, intergovernmentally negotiated agreement,2.prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover international migrationcomprehensively.As of today, there are over 500 million migrants around the world living outside their country of3.birth.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 only A.

Join Our Telegram Channel https://t.me/UPSCMaterials For Instant Updates


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1 onlyB.2 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3D.

Correct Answer : A


Justification: Statement 1: In September 2016 the General Assembly decided, through theadoption of the New York Declaration for Refugees and Migrants, to develop a global compact forsafe, orderly and regular migration.

The process to develop this global compact started in April 2017. The pages in this section detail 18months of consultation and negotiation, and provide the relevant documentation for each of theevents.

On 13 July 2018 UN Member States finalized the text for the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly andRegular Migration.

Statement 2: The Global Compact for Migration is the first-ever UN global agreement on a commonapproach to international migration in all its dimensions. The global compact is non-legally binding.

It is grounded in values of state sovereignty, responsibility-sharing, non-discrimination, and humanrights, and recognizes that a cooperative approach is needed to optimize the overall benefits ofmigration, while addressing its risks and challenges for individuals and communities in countries oforigin, transit and destination.

The global compact comprises 23 objectives for better managing migration at local, national,regional and global levels. The compact:

aims to mitigate the adverse drivers and structural factors that hinder people from buildingand maintaining sustainable livelihoods in their countries of origin;

intends to reduce the risks and vulnerabilities migrants face at different stages of migrationby respecting, protecting and fulfilling their human rights and providing them with care andassistance;

seeks to address the legitimate concerns of states and communities, while recognizing thatsocieties are undergoing demographic, economic, social and environmental changes atdifferent scales that may have implications for and result from migration;

strives to create conducive conditions that enable all migrants to enrich our societies throughtheir human, economic and social capacities, and thus facilitate their contributions tosustainable development at the local, national, regional and global levels.



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Statement 3: Today, there are over 258 million migrants around the world living outside theircountry of birth. This figure is expected to grow for a number of reasons including populationgrowth, increasing connectivity, trade, rising inequality, demographic imbalances and climatechange. Migration provides immense opportunity and benefits – for the migrants, host communitiesand communities of origin. However, when poorly regulated it can create significant challenges.These challenges include overwhelming social infrastructures with the unexpected arrival of largenumbers of people and the deaths of migrants undertaking dangerous journeys.

Q Source: Additional Research:http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/11/21/insights-daily-current-affairs-21-november-2018/

https://refugeesmigrants.un.org/migration-compact

3 The revolt of 1857 nearly coincided or followed certain events in which the British suffered seriouslosses; these included?

The First Afghan War1.Punjab Wars (1845-49)2.Crimean Wars3.Santhal rebellion4.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.2, 3 and 4 only B.1, 3 and 4 onlyC.1, 2, 3 and 4 D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: Statement 1: The First Anglo-Afghan War (also known as Disaster in Afghanistan)was fought between the British East India Company and the Emirate of Afghanistan from 1839 to1842. The war is notorious for the loss of 4,500 British and Indian soldiers, plus 12,000 of theircamp followers to Afghan tribal fighters. It was one of the first major conflicts during the GreatGame, the 19th century competition for power and influence in Central Asia between Britain andRussia. You can go through the causes in detail herehttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Anglo-Afghan_War#Causes

Statement 2: The First Anglo-Sikh War was fought between the Sikh Empire and the East IndiaCompany between 1845 and 1846. It resulted in partial subjugation of the Sikh kingdom.

The Sind was annexed and the British established a cantt. at Ferozpur and amid the accusationsand mutual demands, the British side. The outcome of this war was a peace pact called Treaty ofLahore signed on March 9, 1846.

Statement 3: Crimean War, (October 1853–February 1856), war fought mainly on the CrimeanPeninsula between the Russians and the British, French, and Ottoman Turkish, with support from



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January 1855 by the army of Sardinia-Piedmont. The war arose from the conflict of great powers inthe Middle East and was more directly caused by Russian demands to exercise protection over theOrthodox subjects of the Ottoman sultan. Another major factor was the dispute between Russia andFrance over the privileges of the Russian Orthodox and Roman Catholic churches in the holy placesin Palestine.

Statement 4: We have already covered this in a previous test.

Q Source: Chapter 7: Spectrum Modern India: Rajiv Ahir

4 Consider the following statements.In Bombay, the Paramhans Mandali was founded in 1940 to work for the abolition of caste.1.The Satnami movement in Central India was founded by Ghasidas who worked among the2.leatherworkers and organised a movement to improve their social status.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 onlyA.2 only B.Both 1 and 2C.NoneD.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1: Paramahansa Mandali was a secret socio-religious group, established in1849, in Bombay and is closely related to Manav Dharma Sabha which was found in 1844 in Surat.It was started by Mehtaji Durgaram, Dadoba Pandurang and a group of his friends. DadobaPandurang assumed leadership of this organisation after he left Manav Dharma Sabha. He outlinedhis principles in Dharma Vivechan in 1848 for Manav Dharma Sabha and "ParamhansikBramhyadharma" for Paramahansa Mandali.

It was the first socio-religious organization of Maharashtra. Founded in 1849 Maharashtra, thefounders of these mandli believed in one god. They were primarily interested in breaking casterules. At their meetings food cooked by lower caste people was taken by the members. The mandalialso advocated women's education and widow remarriage.

Statement 2: The most-important Satnami group was founded in 1820 in the Chattisgarh region ofmiddle India by Ghasidas, a farm servant and member of the Chamar caste (a Dalit caste whosehereditary occupation was leather tanning, a task regarded by Hindus as polluting). His SatnamPanth (“Path of the True Name”) succeeded in providing a religious and social identity for largenumbers of Chattisgarhi Chamars (who formed one-sixth of the total population of the region), indefiance of their derogatory treatment by upper-caste Hindus and their exclusion from Hindutemple worship.

Q Source: Ch9: 8th History – P3



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5 Most of the rivers of the Indo-Gangetic Plains are of

Radial drainage patternA.Trellis drainage patternB.Superimposed drainage pattern C.Dendritic drainage pattern D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification & Learning: Dendritic drainage pattern gives the appearance of branching lookinglike a tree.

Thus, a dendritic pattern develops in a terrain which has uniform lithology, and where faulting andjointing are insignificant; e.g., massive crystalline rocks or thick plains consisting of clays.

This is why most of the rivers of the Indo-Gangetic Plains are of dendritic type.

It is a distinctive feature of the regions having horizontally bedded sedimentary rocks or massiveigneous rocks.

Since we have already dealt with this concept in a previous test, this does not require furtherexplanation.

Q Source: Additional Research: 9th NCERT Geography: Chapter on Drainage

6 The Supreme Court of India has directed all the states to implement the draft witness protectionscheme framed by the Centre in consultation with the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).What are Objectives of the Witness Protection Scheme-2018?

To enable a witness to give testimony in a judicial setting or to cooperate with law enforcement and1.investigations without fear of intimidation or reprisal.To identify a series of measures that may be adopted to safeguard witnesses and their family2.members from intimidation and threats against their lives, reputation and property.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 onlyA.2 onlyB.Both 1 and 2 C.NoneD.

Correct Answer : C


Background: In April this year, the Centre had informed the top court that it had framed a draft



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witness protection scheme and it was circulated among the states and Union Territoriesadministration for comments. The court had asked the Centre to finalise the scheme after gettingresponse from the states and Union Territories.

In November last year, the court had asked the Centre as to why a draft scheme cannot beformulated for witness protection in the country when specific provisions in this regard werealready there in the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act.

Justification: Other objectives are:

To ensure that the investigation, prosecution and trial of criminal offences is not prejudiced becausewitnesses are intimidated or frightened to give evidence without protection from violent or othercriminal recrimination.

To promote law enforcement by facilitating the protection of persons who are involved directly orindirectly in providing assistance to criminal law enforcement agencies and the overalladministration of Justice.

To give witnesses the confidence to come forward to assist law enforcement and Judicial Authoritieswith full assurance of safety.

Q Source:http://www.insightsonindia.com/2018/11/21/insights-daily-current-affairs-21-november-2018/

7 Which of these happen in the event of appearance of a La Nina?

Warmer-than-usual sea surface temperature and winds across the central and eastern tropicalA.Pacific OceanReduced convection and cloudiness over tropical Australia and IndonesiaB.A decrease in strength of the trade winds across the tropical Pacific OceanC.None of the above D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: None of these happen, in fact these happen when La nina does not appear.

La Nina conditions are opposite to that of El Nino.

It refers to the extensive cooling of the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, oftenaccompanied by warmer than normal sea surface temperatures (SSTs) in the western Pacific, and tothe north of Australia.

Other changes include:

Sustained cooler-than-usual SSTs across the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.



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Increased convection or cloudiness over tropical Australia, Papua New-Guinea, and Indonesia.

An increase in strength of the trade winds (easterlies) across the tropical Pacific Ocean (butnot necessarily in the Australian region).

Q Source: Glossary: Fundamentals of Physical Geography: 11th NCERT

8 Consider the following statementsThe Sarda Act (1930) pushed up the marriage age to 18 and 14 for boys and girls respectively.1.The Bengal regulations of 1795 and 1804 declared infanticide illegal and equivalent to murder.2.The Age of Consent Act (1891) which forbade the marriage of girls below the age of 12.3.

Assuming the dates for these acts/regulations to be correct, which of the above is/are correct?1 and 2 onlyA.3 only B.1 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3 D.

Correct Answer : D


Learning: The practice of murdering female infants immediately after birth was common amongupper class Bengalis and Rajputs who considered females to be an economic burden. The Bengalregulations of 1795 and 1804 declared infanticide illegal and equivalent to murder, while an Actpassed in 1870 made, it compulsory for parents to register the birth of all babies.

The Brahmo Samaj had the issue of widow remarriage high on its agenda and did much to -popularise it. But it was mainly due to the efforts of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820-91),the principal of Sanskrit College, Calcutta, that the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856, whichlegalised marriage of widows and declared issues from such marriages as legitimate, was passed bythe Government. Vidyasagar cited Vedic texts to prove that the Hindu religion sanctioned widowremarriage.

Jagannath Shankar Seth and Bhau Daji were among the active promoters of girls' schools inMaharashtra. Vishnu Shastri Pandit founded the Widow Remarriage Association in the 1850s.Another prominent worker in this field was Karsondas Mulji who started the Satya Prakash inGujarati in 1852 to advocate widow remarriage.

The Native Marriage Act (or Civil Marriage Act) signified the coming of legislative action inprohibiting child marriage in 1872. It had a limited impact as the Act was not applicable to Hindus,Muslims and other recognised faiths.

The relentless efforts of a Parsi reformer, B.M. Malabari, were rewarded, by the enactment of theAge of Consent Act (1891) which forbade the marriage of girls below the age of 12. The Sarda Act



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(1930) further pushed up the marriage age to 18 and 14 for boys and girls respectively. In freeIndia, the Child Marriage Restraint (Amendment) Act, 1978 raised the age of marriage for girlsfrom 15 to 18 years and for boys from 18 to 21.

Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 7: Spectrum Modern India: Rajiv Ahir

9 Which of these best characterizes a “nation-state”?

A nation with a large geographical expanseA.Any political entityB.A legal or political entity which is also a cultural and social entity C.Any body that has a constitution governing itD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: Option A: Nation-states can have small or large areas, small or large polities, or befascists or democratic or monarchical; there is no set-rule.

Option B: Even a political party of its affiliates are political entities. So, B is wrong.

Option C: A nation-state is a mix of several ethnicities.

A nation refers only to a socio-cultural entity, a union of people sharing who can identifyculturally and linguistically. This concept does not necessarily consider formal politicalunions.

A state refers to a legal/political entity that is comprised of the following: a) a permanentpopulation; b) a defined territory; c) a government; and d) the capacity to enter into relationswith other states.

Combination of both is known as a nation-state.

Option D: Even political parties like INC have constitution, but they can’t be called as nation-state.

Q Source: General Concepts: Polity

10 Which of these is/are correct differentiation(s) between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats?Western Ghats are at a lower average elevation than Eastern Ghats.1.While Western Ghats host mainly evergreen vegetation, deciduous vegetation is predominant in the2.Eastern Ghats.Western Ghats is a source of many rivers, whereas no river rises from Eastern Ghats.3.



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Western Ghats are continuous whereas Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and broken at several4.places.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1, 2 and 4 onlyA.2 and 4 only B.2, 3 and 4 onlyC.1, 3 and 4 onlyD.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: S1: Average height of WG is between 900-1500 m whereas that of EG is around 600m. Highest peak of WG is Anaimudi which is at around 2595 m.

Statement 3: The Eastern Ghats are the source points for many small and medium rivers along theeast coastal plains of South India. Western Ghats are the source for some major rivers like Cauvery.

Rivers flowing through Eastern Ghats include:

Godavari

Kaveri

Krishna

Mahanadi

Tungabhadra

Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats include, inter alia,

Rushikulya River

Vamsadhara River

Palar River

S2: This is because it is perpendicular to monsoon winds and receives high rainfall, unlike Eastern



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Ghats which are parallel to Monsoon winds.

S3: Eastern Ghats are broken at several places.

Q Source: Additional Research: 11th NCERT: Geography: Indian Physical Geography

11 “Forced Savings”, a term often used by policymakers, refers to

A non-desirable tax imposed on taxpayersA.Excessive Provident Fund (PF) contribution by private sector employeesB.Reduction of consumption consequent to a steep rise in prices C.Savings generated by large capital goods investmentsD.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: These are important economic concepts found in the standard curricula ofMacroeconomics that could be easily picked up by UPSC.

When someone decides to put some of their income into a savings account or other form ofinvestment, it is normal or voluntary savings.

But, when people spend less (and save more) than they earn because there are not enough goodsavailable to buy or because goods are too expensive, it is called as forced savings.

This forced savings constitutes an increase in the supply of loanable funds, and thereby pushesinterest rates down, which increases investment in the economy.

Forced saving plays an important role in explaining how expansionary monetary policy generatesartificial booms.

Q Source: Additional Research: Past year UPSC papers

12 Consider the following about Half-an-hour discussions in Lok Sabha.The speaker is not obliged to admit the motion if it focuses on changing an existing government1.policy.A member wishing to raise a matter need not give any notice in advance.2.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 only A.2 onlyB.Both 1 and 2C.None D.



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Correct Answer : A


Justification: Statement 2: A member wishing to raise a matter shall give notice in writing to theSecretary-General three days in advance of the day on which the matter is desired to be raised, andshall shortly specify the point or points that he wishes to raise: Provided that the notice shall beaccompanied by an explanatory note stating the reasons for raising discussion on the matter inquestion.

Statement 1: The speaker is not obliged to admit the motion if it focuses on changing an existinggovernment policy, since it no half-hour discussion motions are passed by the house and thus theyare admitted entirely on the request of the member.

Q Source: http://parliamentofindia.nic.in/ls/rules/rules.html

13 Consider the following about the newly established International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) ofIndia.

An IFSC cannot be located in a Special Economic Zone (SEZ).1.The Government had recently announced setting up of a Unified Regulator for International2.Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in India.


Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1: The SEZ Act 2005 allows setting up an IFSC in an SEZ or as an SEZafter approval from the central government.

India’s first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) became operational at GujaratInternational Finance Tec (GIFT) City in Gandhinagar as a part of SEZ.

Statement 2: Currently, the financial services provided at GIFT-IFSC involves multiple regulatorybodies including insurance regulator, IRDA, banking regulator RBI and stock market regulatorSEBI.

The announcement of setting up of Unified Regulator for IFSC in India would help India achieve itsfull potential in the Global Financial markets. Globally, most of the financial centers host UnifiedRegulator in the same Centre which helps it to promote the financial center.

Learning: Any financial institution (or its branch) set up in the IFSC



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shall be treated as a non-resident Indian located outside India,

shall conduct business in such foreign currency and with such entities, whether resident ornon-resident, as the Regulatory Authority may determine

With an IFSC in India, India now competes against global financial hubs like Dubai and Singaporeto attract foreign investors who are willing to trade in foreign currencies.

You can read more herehttp://www.livemint.com/Industry/XmEtCCZklNL5w0LmQ9K7lJ/What-is-an-IFSC-and-how-does-it-work.html

Q Source:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/budget-2018-international-financial-services-centres/article22619522.ece

14 Consider the following statements.Cold water corals, in general, have greater amount of zooxanthellae than warm water corals and1.does not build reef-like structures.Cold-water corals differ from warm water corals because the former does not contain symbiotic2.algae for photosynthesis and grow more slowly.


Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1: Corals that inhabit the colder deep waters of continental shelves andoffshore canyons, ranging from 50 to over 1000m depths. They lack zooxanthellae and may buildreef-like structures or occur solitarily.

Statement 2: Cold-water corals are different from their warm-water counterparts because they donot contain symbiotic algae for photosynthesis and grow more slowly. Cold-water corals obtain alltheir energy from organic matter and zooplankton, which they catch from the currents drifting past

Cold-water corals can be found over a wide range of latitudes, from tropical to Polar Regions, andfrom the shallow to the deep seas.

Their distribution is largely defined by water temperatures, which must generally be between 4°and 12°C. At high latitudes, these conditions are generally found in relatively shallow waters.



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Q Source: http://wwf.panda.org/about_our_earth/blue_planet/coasts/coral_reefs/coldwater_corals/

15 Consider the following statements related to the Central fund allocations to states.The Central Sector Schemes (CSS) can be formulated for the subjects of the Union List.1.The Centrally ‘Sponsored’ Schemes are funded and implemented in states completely by the Central2.government.The states are entitled to receive Central assistance for development under Article 282 of the3.constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 3 only A.2 onlyB.2 and 3 onlyC.1 and 2 onlyD.

Correct Answer : A


Justification: Statement 1: Under Central sector schemes, it is 100% funded by the Uniongovernment and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Central sector schemes aremainly formulated on subjects from the Union List.

Statement 2 and 3: Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are schemes that are implemented by stategovernments but are largely funded by the Central Government with a defined State Governmentshare.

They are basically special purpose grants (or loans) extended by Central Government to statesto encourage them to plan and implement programmes that help attain national goals andobjectives.

CSS are basically extended by the Central Government to States under Article 282 of theConstitution. It mainly covers items listed in states list.

Q Source: Schemes and Programmes of Government of India

16 Taylor’s Rule, sometimes seen in news, is related to

Energy consumption by state utilitiesA.Monetary policy interest rate rules B.Size of administrative staff with respect to populace servedC.Generation of solid non-biodegradable wastes from metropolitan regionsD.



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Correct Answer : B


Learning: It is a highly acclaimed rule for monetary policy. It says that the central bank shouldincrease interest rates by a margin slightly exceeding the current inflation rate to stabilise GDP.

The Taylor Rule was formulated through a post facto analysis of US Fed monetary policy,culminating in a statistical relationship that best fitted past successful monetary policy.

Interest rate = inflation rate +0.5*(actual GDP minus potential GDP) +0.5*(inflation rate minus 2)+2

The rule states that when inflation goes up 1 point above the target, the Central Bank shouldcounteract the increase by raising interest rates by 1 .5 points.

By increasing nominal interests by more than the increase in inflation, Taylor’s rule increasesreal interest rates—cooling oil the economy—when inflation increases.

Q Source:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/what-is-taylor-rule-in-economics/article19926888.ece

17 Which of these are of equal lengths?

All parallels of latitudeA.All meridians B.All isotherms drawn on earthC.All isobars drawn on earthD.

Correct Answer : B


Learning: Unlike parallels of latitude, all meridians are of equal length. This made numbering ofmeridians difficult.

Hence, all countries decided that the count should begin from the meridian which passed throughGreenwich, where the British Royal Observatory is located.

This meridian is called the Prime Meridian.

Option C and D: These curves depend on the climatic profile of the zones in question that variesconsiderably over earth. For e.g. southern hemisphere will have straighter and more equal



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isotherms than northern hemisphere, for the reason that extreme temperature variation in southernhemisphere is less common than northern.

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

18 Which of the following crops is/are a kharif crop in North India and rabi crop in South India?Groundnut1.Sesamum2.Mustard3.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 only A.2 only B.1 and 3 onlyC.3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1: Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the majoroilseeds produced in the country.

Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of groundnut followed by Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujaratand Maharashtra.

Statement 2: Sesamum is a kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south India. Castor seed is grownboth as rabi and kharif crop.



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Q Source: 9th NCERT: Geography

19 An aggrieved party can move the Supreme Court, under Article 32 of the Constitution, for theenforcement of which of the following rights?

Statutory rights1.Rights conferred through executive resolutions, rules or regulations2.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 onlyA.2 onlyB.Both 1 and 2C.None D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the FundamentalRights and not for other purposes.

The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamentalrights but also for other purposes.

We have dealt with this issue in detail in previous tests, and need not elaborate on it here.

Q Source: Chapter on FRs: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth



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20 The BRICS nations that has an observer status at the South Asian Association for RegionalCooperation (SAARC)?

BrazilA.RussiaB.China C.South AfricaD.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: States with observer status include Australia, China, the European Union, Iran, Japan,Mauritius, Myanmar, South Korea and the United States.

Myanmar has expressed interest in upgrading its status from an observer to a full member ofSAARC. Russia has applied for observer status membership of SAARC. Turkey applied for observerstatus membership of SAARC in 2012. South Africa has participated in meetings.

Q Source: International and Regional Organizations

21 Consider the following about Dr. B R Ambedkar.He founded the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha.1.He resigned from the first Cabinet due to differences on the Hindu Code Bill.2.He converted to Buddhism.3.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.2 and 3 onlyA.1 onlyB.1 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3 D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: Ambedkar was elected (and not merely appointed) as the Chairman of the DraftingCommittee of the Constituent Assembly, and so He is called as the father of the Indian Constitution.

Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha was the first organization formed by Dr. Ambedkar in 1924.Ambedkar was appointed as the first Law Minister of Independent India, but he resigned fromthe Cabinet in 1951 due to differences with Nehru on the Hindu Code Bill.

Ambedkar got himself converted to Buddhism in 1956. After his death, his political party



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Scheduled Caste Federation was renamed as Republican Party of India in 1957 by hisfollowers.

Some of his famous books are: ‘The Untouchable: Who are They and Why They Have BecomeUntouchables’; ‘Buddha and His Dhamma’; ‘The Rise and Fall of Hindu Women‘,‘Emancipation of Untouchables’, ‘The Evolution of Provincial Finance in British India’;‘Pakistan or Partition of India‘, ‘Thoughts on Linguistic States’, etc.

Q Source: 12th NCERT: Politics in India After Independence

22 Which of the following techniques for soil conservation is NOT well suited for soil conservation inhilly areas?

Sheltered belts A.Terrace farmingB.Countour barriersC.Countour ploughingD.

Correct Answer : A


Justification: All techniques mentioned above in B, C and D are used in hilly terrains. For e.g.terrace farming is used to cut flat steps in hilly farms to reduce water erosion and make farmcultivable. They are not suited to flat dry (where water erosion is not significant) and coastal areas.

In the coastal and dry regions, rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soilcover. These are known as shelter belts. These trees also yield valuable resources and supplementfarm income.


23 Consider the following statements.Assertion (A): The trade winds change their direction in different seasons.Reason (R): Wind experiences coriolis force due to the rotation of the earth.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.A.A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A. B.A is correct, but R is incorrect.C.A is incorrect, but R is correct. D.

Correct Answer : D



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Justification: The trade winds, westerlies and easterlies are the permanent winds. These blowconstantly throughout the year in a particular direction.

The coriolis force acts in the same direction irrespective of the seasons. So, A is incorrect evenwhile R is correct.

It is the seasonal winds like Monsoon which change their direction in different seasons.


24 Which of these do NOT form a part of “Reserve Money” in India?

Net Foreign Exchange Assets of RBIA.Banker’s deposit with RBIB.Currency in circulationC.All deposits with Post Office Savings Banks including National Savings Certificates D.

Correct Answer : D


Learning: The Reserve Bank of India defines the monetary aggregates as:

Reserve Money (M0): Currency in circulation + Bankers’ deposits with the RBI + ‘Other’ depositswith the RBI = Net RBI credit to the Government + RBI credit to the commercial sector + RBI’sclaims on banks + RBI’s net foreign assets + Government’s currency liabilities to the public – RBI’snet non-monetary liabilities.

M1: Currency with the public + Deposit money of the public (Demand deposits with the bankingsystem + ‘Other’ deposits with the RBI).

M2: M1 + Savings deposits with Post office savings banks.

M3: (Broad concept of money supply)M1+ Time deposits with the banking system = Net bank creditto the Government + Bank credit to the commercial sector + Net foreign exchange assets of thebanking sector + Government’s currency liabilities to the public – Net non-monetary liabilities ofthe banking sector (Other than Time Deposits).

M4: M3 + All deposits with post office savings banks (excluding National Savings Certificates).

Q Source: Concepts covered in previous tests

25 Consider the following timeline.12th March, 1930: Gandhi began his famous March to Dandi from Sabarmati1.5th April, 1930: Gandhi reached the coast of Dandi2.



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6th April, 1930: Salt Law broken at Dandi3.

Based on the above timeline, when was the Civil Disobedience movement formally launched?At Sabarmati on 12th MarchA.At Dandi on 5th AprilB.At Dandi on 6th April C.At Mumbai on a later date after approval from the Indian National CongressD.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: He reached the coast of Dandi on 5 April 1930 after marching a distance of 200 milesand on 6 April formally launched the Civil Disobedience Movement by breaking the salt laws.

On 9th April, Mahatma Gandhi laid out the programme of the movement which includedmaking of salt in every village in violation of the existing salt laws; picketing by women beforethe shops selling liquor, opium and foreign clothes etc.

He also organised the bonfires of foreign clothes; spinning clothes by using charkha fightinguntouchability; boycotting of schools and colleges by students and resigning from governmentjobs by the people.

Over and above all these, the programme also called upon the people not to pay taxes to thegovernment.

Q Source: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History – III

26 Consider the following statements.Gangotri glacier, the primary source of the Ganges, is situated in Garhwal Himalayas.1.Gangotri Glacier lies between 25° N to 26° N latitudes.2.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 only A.2 onlyB.Both 1 and 2C.NoneD.

Correct Answer : A


Justification: S2: A latitude passing 25 degrees N would pass through the states of Rajasthan or



21

Gujarat, and not touch the Northern hilly states of India.

S1: Gangotri glacier perched in the magnificent Garhwal Himalayas is situated in the Uttarkashidistrict of Uttarakhand. This glacier originates at the northern slope of Chaukhamba range of peaks.

This glacier serves as a vital source of Ganga river and is the largest glacier in the Himalayas,having an estimated volume of about 27 cubic km. This glacier lies between 30°43’22” - 30°55’49”latitude and 79°4’41” - 79°16’34” longitude, extending in height from 4120 to 7000 m.a.s.l.

The total ice cover of Gangotri glacier is approximately 200 km and has about 20 km of ice involume. This glacier is about 30 km long and about 2 to 4 km wide. The Gangotri glacier issurrounded by majestic peaks of Gangotri Group - Thalay Sagar, Maru and Bhagirathi III.

Q Source: Additional Research: 9th NCERT: Geography

27 Consider the following statements.Scientists can define a kilogram in terms of the amount of electricity needed to counteract the1.weight of a platinum-based ingot (a block of metal).Scientists have been able to accurately determine the value of Planck’s constant.2.General Conference on Weights and Measures (CGPM) is the highest international body of the3.world for accurate and precise measurements and comprises India as a member country.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.2 onlyB.2 and 3 only C.1 and 3 only D.



22

Correct Answer : D


Justification: Statement 1: Currently, it is defined by the weight of a platinum-based ingot called“Le Grand K” which is locked away in a safe in Paris.

Le Grand K has been at the forefront of the international system of measuring weights since 1889.Several close replicas were made and distributed around the globe. But the master kilogram and itscopies were seen to change – ever so slightly – as they deteriorated.

Statement 2: A photon's energy is equal to the Planck constant times its frequency. The Planckconstant is of fundamental importance in quantum mechanics.

Since energy and mass are equivalent, the Planck constant also relates mass to frequency. By 2017,the Planck constant had been measured with sufficient accuracy (not complete accuracy however)in terms of the SI base units, that it was central to replacing the metal cylinder, called theInternational Prototype of the Kilogram (IPK), that had defined the kilogram since 1889.

For this new definition of the kilogram, the Planck constant, as defined by the ISO standard, was setto 6.626 070 150 × 10-34 J⋅s exactly.

In July 2017, the NIST measured the Planck constant using its Kibble balance instrument with anuncertainty of only 13 parts per billion, obtaining a value of 6.626069934(89)×10−34 J⋅s. Thismeasurement, along with others, allowed the redefinition of SI base units.

The two digits inside the parentheses denote the standard uncertainty in the last twodigits of the value.

The speed of light has an exactly defined value in SI units, and the fine-structure constant can bedetermined more accurately than the Planck constant. Thus, the uncertainty in the value of theelectron rest mass is due entirely to the uncertainty in the value of the Planck constant

Statement 3: India became its member in 1997, CGPM has over 60 member countries.


28 Consider the following about Eco-sensitive zones.The Environment Protection Act (EPA), 1986 defines the term - “Eco-sensitive Zones”.1.As per EPA, 1986, the Central Government can restrict areas in which any industrial operations2.shall not be carried out or shall be carried out subject to certain safeguards.The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has petitioned the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate3.Change (MoEF&CC) to consider declaring all elephant corridors in the country as eco-sensitivezones.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.2 and 3 only B.



23

1, 2 and 3 C.1 and 3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : B


Background: The MoEF (Ministry of Environment & Forests) has approved a comprehensive set ofguidelines laying down parameters and criteria for declaring ESAs. A committee constituted byMoEF put this together. The guidelines lay out the criteria based on which areas can be declared asESAs. These include Species Based (Endemism, Rarity etc), Ecosystem Based (sacred groves,frontier forests etc) and Geomorphologic feature based (uninhabited islands, origins of rivers etc).

Justification: S3: The observations came while the NGT was hearing a plea that highlighted theincreasing number of unnatural elephant deaths taking place in the state. The petition said, “Owingto the increased denudation and loss of their forest habitats, elephants have come increasingly intoconflicts with humans and faced deliberate retaliatory killings and accidents at railway crossings,high tension power lines, power fences and trenches.”

S1 and S2: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not mention the word “Eco-sensitive Zones”.

The section 3(2)(v) of the Act, says that Central Government can restrict areas in which anyindustries, operations or processes or class of industries, operations or processes shall not becarried out or shall be carried out subject to certain safeguards

Besides the section 5 (1) of this act says that central government can prohibit or restrict thelocation of industries and carrying on certain operations or processes on the basis ofconsiderations like the biological diversity of an area, maximum allowable limits ofconcentration of pollutants for an area, environmentally compatible land use, and proximity toprotected areas.

The above two clauses have been effectively used by the government to declare Eco-SensitiveZones or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFA). The same criteria have been used by thegovernment to declare No Development Zones.


29 Consider the following early political associations in British India.The British Indian Association1.The Bombay Association2.East India Association, London3.Poona Sarvojanik Sabha4.



24

What is the correct chronological order in which they were formed?1234 A.4321B.1432C.2314 D.

Correct Answer : A


Learning: The details are:

The British Indian Association – 1851 Bengal

The Bombay Association — 1852 Dadabhai Naoroji

East India Association 1856 London

Madras Native Association 1852

Poona Sarvojanik Sabha—1870

The Madras Mahajana Sabha—1884

Among the above, Madras Mahajana Sabha and Poona Sarvojanik Sabha were influentialorganizations serving as important precursors to the Indian National Congress which wasestablished in 1885.

Q Source: Additional Research: Organizations appearing in UPSC papers

30 The harmful emissions that are identified for regulations in different Bharat Stages (BS) areCarbon dioxide (CO2)1.Methane2.Particulate Matter3.Unburnt hydrocarbons (HC)4.Nitrogen Oxides (NOx)5.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.3, 4 and 5 only B.1, 2 and 5 onlyC.



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1, 2, 3, 4 and 5D.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: The Supreme Court recently ordered that only vehicles with engines compliant withBS IV standards must be sold from April 1, 2017. Authorities have also been prohibited fromregistering vehicles that don’t meet BS IV norms henceforth, except on proof that the vehicle wassold on or before March 31.

The government has set target of ushering in BS-VI fuel by April 2020 by skipping BS-V fuel.

BS-IV fuels contain far less sulphur than BS-III fuel.

Sulphur in fuel makes it dirtier and lowers the efficiency of catalytic converters, which controlemissions.

The BS-IV complaint vehicles release less pollutants Carbon Mono-oxide (CO), Hydrocarbon(HC), Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx), Sulphur (SOx) and particulate matter (PM) compared to BSIII complaint vehicles.

Learning: BS emission standards are emission standards instituted by the Union Government toregulate output of air pollutants from internal combustion engines and spark ignition enginesequipment, including motor vehicles.

The standards and the timeline for implementation are set by the Central Pollution ControlBoard under the Union Ministry of Environment & Forests and climate change (MoEFCC).

The standards, based on European regulations were first introduced in 2000. Since then,various stages Bharat Stage compatible fuel and ungraded and modified vehicles wereintroduced throughout the country.

Q Source: Frequently in news

31 The first state of British India to grant votes to wealthy and educated women, under the same termsthat applied to men was

BengalA.United ProvincesB.Madras C.



26

BombayD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: In 1921, Madras was the first legislature in British India to pass the women’ssuffrage resolution by a considerable majority.

This meant that for the first time, women were recognised as ‘people’ by the State, therebygiven the right to vote on the same condition as men.

Women suffrage movement in India dates back to the First world war days.

The other provinces followed, but not the princely states (which did not have votes for meneither).

Learning: 1917: The Women’s Indian Association (WIA), with links to the women’s suffragemovement, was formed by Annie Besant, Dorothy Jinrajadasa and Margaret Cousins.

In 1918, the Montagu-Chelmsford commission was sent by the British government to suggestchanges to the franchise in India where the WIA, led by Sarojini Naidu, petitioned forwomen’s right to vote

Q Source: Improvisation: 8th NCERT: Social and Political Life

32 Which of these regions of India is popular for its pashmina shawls and tourism due to being called aslittle Tibet?

Apatani ValleyA.Ladakh B.Mizo ValleyC.MustangD.

Correct Answer : B


Learning: An easy question to reckon with!

People in Ladakh rear sheeps which are special because they produce pashmina wool.



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The wool comes from four distinct breeds of the Cashmere goat; namely the Changthangi orKashmir Pashmina goat from the Changthang plateau in Kashmir region, the Malra fromKargil area in Kashmir region, the Chegu from Himachal Pradesh in northern India andPakistan, and Chyangara or Nepalese Pashmina goat from Nepal.

These expensive Pashmina shawls are chiefly woven in Kashmir.

Ladakh is also called Little Tibet. Islam was introduced in this region more than four hundredyears ago and there is a significant Muslim population here.

Ladakh has a very rich oral tradition of songs and poems. Local versions of the Tibetannational epic the Kesar Saga are performed and sung by both Muslims and Buddhists.

Q Source: 6th NCERT: Social and Political Life

33 Consider the following statements with reference to Article 123 of the Constitution.The Union executive can promulgate ordinances only from the subjects in the Union List.1.All ordinances made by the state executive are null and void if made without the prior2.recommendation of the President.


Correct Answer : D


Justification: Ordinances are temporary laws that are promulgated by the President of India on therecommendation of the Union Cabinet. They can only be issued when Parliament is not in session.They enable the Indian government to take immediate legislative action.

Statement 1: They can also be made on subjects in concurrent list, and those subjects in state listfor which Parliament is making laws under special circumstances.

Statement 2: Such recommendation is not required in all cases, but those for e.g. where anordinance is likely to endanger position of state high court or against DPSPs.

Q Source: Chapter on President: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

34 The correct order of abundance of these gases in the atmosphere is



28

Nitrogen> Oxygen> Argon> Carbon Dioxide> Methane> Hydrogen A.Nitrogen> Oxygen> Hydrogen > Carbon Dioxide> Methane> ArgonB.Nitrogen> Hydrogen > Oxygen > Carbon Dioxide> Methane> ArgonC.Nitrogen> Methane> Hydrogen > Argon> Oxygen > Carbon DioxideD.

Correct Answer : A


Learning: Nitrogen accounts for 78% of the atmosphere, oxygen 21% and argon 0.9%. Gases likecarbon dioxide, nitrous oxides, methane, and ozone are trace gases that account for about a tenth ofone percent of the atmosphere.

Water vapor accounts for roughly 0.25% of the atmosphere by mass.


35 Consider the following about Agrinnovate India Limited (AgIn).It is a “not for profit” company owned by Department of Agricultural Research & Education (DARE).1.It aims to promote Research and Development (R&D) outcomes in agriculture through IPR2.protection in India and abroad.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 onlyA.2 only B.Both 1 and 2 C.NoneD.



29

Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1: It was incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 in 2011. It is a “forprofit” Company owned by Department of Agricultural Research & Education (DARE), Ministry ofAgriculture.

Statement 2: It aims to work on the strengths of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) andpromote the development and spread of R&D outcomes through IPR protection, commercializationand forging partnerships both in the country and outside for the public benefit.

The Company has been set up with an authorized share capital of Rs. 100 crore. The initial paid upcapital would be met by DARE/ICAR from its budgetary allocations, without recourse to anyadditional funds from the Government.

Q Source: ICAR Website

36 A Monetary Union is such a region where

A common currency is followed. A.Fiscal policies of member nations are tied to the parent body. B.Trade is completely free and liberalized.C.No member nation is allowed to have an independent sovereign government of its own.D.

Correct Answer : A


Learning: A currency union (also known as monetary union) involves two or more states sharingthe same currency without them necessarily having any further integration (such as an economicand monetary union, which would have, in addition, a customs union and a single market).

A "customs union" introduces unified tariffs on the exterior borders of the union (CET,common external tariffs).

A "monetary union" introduces a shared currency.

A "common market" adds to an FTA the free movement of services, capital and labor.

An "economic union" combines customs union with a common market.

A "fiscal union" introduces a shared fiscal and budgetary policy.



30

Q Source: Based on concepts covered in previous tests

37 Consider the following statements.Deoband movement aimed at the welfare of Muslims through western education and support of the1.British Government.Aligarh movement emphasised reconciliation of Islamic teachings with the needs of the modern age.2.


Correct Answer : B


Justification: The Deoband Movement was established in Deoband in Saharanpur district (UnitedProvinces) in 1866 by Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi (1832-80) and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi (1828-1905) to train religious leaders for the Muslim community.

In contrast to the Aligarh Movement, which aimed at the welfare of Muslims through westerneducation and support of the British Government, the aim of the Deoband Movement was moral andreligious regeneration of the Muslim community. The instruction imparted at Deoband was inoriginal Islamic religion.

On the political front, the Deoband School welcomed the formation of the Indian National Congressand in 1888 issued a fatiua (religious decree) against Syed Ahmed Khan’s organisations,

Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 7: Spectrum Modern India: Rajiv Ahir

38 Virtual Currencies are a type of unregulated digital money that is neither issued by a central banknor is necessarily attached to a fiat currency. Which of these is/are examples of such virtualcurrencies circulating across the world?

Bitcoin1.Daggerdime2.Limbu3.Peercoin4.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 only A.3 and 4 onlyB.1 and 4 only C.1, 2, 3 and 4D.



31

Correct Answer : C


Justification: They are also called as digital/crypto-currencies as they are used and acceptedamong the members of a specific virtual community.

They are capable of being transferred, stored or traded electronically. The examples of virtualcurrencies are Bitcoin, Litecoin, Darkcoin, Peercoin, Dogecoin, Primecoin etc.

The Union government has constituted a time-bound inter-disciplinary committee to come upwith an action plan for dealing with virtual currencies so as to fix the regulatory gaps in theexisting framework governing virtual currencies.

The nine-member inter-disciplinary committee will be chaired by Dinesh Sharma, specialsecretary in the economic affairs department.

You can read about them herehttp://www.investopedia.com/articles/investing/121014/5-most-important-virtual-currencies-other-bitcoin.asp


39 The 123rd Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2017 was passed recently by Rajya Sabha to grantconstitutional status to

National Commission for WomenA.Gram NyalayasB.National Commission for Backward Classes C.Authorities under the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act (PESA), 1996D.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: The Rajya Sabha had earlier passed the measure on July 31 last year (2017), along withan amendment and sent it to the Lower House. The Lok Sabha had passed the bill last week withalternate amendments as well as some more changes unanimously with over two-thirds majority.

The Constitution 123rd Amendment Bill seeks to insert a new article 338B in the constitution whichprovides for NCBC, its composition, mandate, functions and various officers.

It also inserts a new article 342-A which empowers the president to notify the list of socially



32

and educationally backward classes of that state / union territory.

In case of a state, president will make such notification after consultation with the Governor.

Under the same article, it is proposed that parliament by making a law can include or excludethe classes from the central list of backward classes.

Q Source:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/rajya-sabha-passes-bill-to-grant-constitutional-status-to-ncbc-5294529/

40 The Himalayan Subtropical Pine Forests are the largest in the Indo - Pacific region. How are thesepine forests being utilized and managed in the state of Uttarakhand?

Pine needles are being locally used for power generation using biomass gasification technology.1.Pines are crucial in controlling forest fires in Uttarakhand since these woods contain a lot of2.moisture.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 only A.2 onlyB.Both 1 and 2 C.NoneD.

Correct Answer : A


Justification: These pine forests produce about twenty lakhs tonnes of dry biomass every year inthe state.

In the summer season, forest fires are common in these areas as pine needles, which keepfalling off the trees from the middle of March till the onset of the rains in July, are highlyinflammable.

Avani Bio Energy, an NGO based out of Uttarakhand, thought of helping the villagers to getrid of the problem of unreliable power supply using the locally available pine needles forpower generation using biomass gasification technology for its conversion into electricalenergy.

The motivation for implementing such initiative, apart from overcoming problems being facedby poor villagers was also to minimize the menace of fire hazard in hot dry summer season inhills of Uttarakhand.



33

Apart from electricity generation, the high energy content residue of biomass gasificationprocess is briquetted into cooking charcoal using a locally available binder.

Q Source:http://vikaspedia.in/energy/best-practices/electricity-generation-using-pine-needles-in-uttarakhand

41 Which of these places were known for hosting revolts in the British Indian Army before the 1857revolt happened?

Vellore1.Barrackpore2.Singhbhum3.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 only A.2 and 3 onlyB.1 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3 D.

Correct Answer : A


Justification: Some of these revolts happened in Bengal (1764), Vellore (1806), Barrackpore (1825)and during the Afghan Wars (1838-42) indicating that a general discontentment against Britishpolicies was not only realized during the 1857 revolt; only to remark that the latter was much moresuccessful than all the others.

Learning: We wanted to highlight this information from the book: To the religious Hindu of thetime, crossing the seas meant loss of caste. In 1856 Lord Canning's Government passed the GeneralService Enlistment Act which decreed that all future recruits to the Bengal Army would have to givean undertaking to serve anywhere their services might be required by the Government. This causedresentment.


42 Sustained high revenue deficit in the Union budget can lead to gradual weakening of the rupeebecause

The confidence of foreign investors in the economy reduces.1.Injection of high liquidity for consumption purposes may inflate prices rendering our exports2.uncompetitive.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 onlyA.2 onlyB.Both 1 and 2 C.



34

NoneD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: Statement 1: As the confidence reduces, FIIs start withdrawing and the capitalaccount deficit increases. Moreover, new FDI may not come due to poor macroeconomic conditions,and CAD will not be financed leading to a weakening of the rupee.

Statement 2: If the same money would have been used for investment, it would have reduce supplyside bottlenecks, and generated significant demand leading to economic growth.

But, only consumption spending (as in the case of revenue deficit) would put greater pressure onsupply side and inflate price leading to uncompetitive products. Exports fall, trade deficit willincrease and rupee will weaken.

Q Source: Based on the issues covered before

43 Which of these Non-governmental organizations does NOT primarily work towards safeguardinghuman rights?

Amnesty InternationalA.International Committee of the Red CrossB.UN WatchC.ENGO D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: Option B: It directs and coordinates international relief and works to promote andstrengthen humanitarian law and universal humanitarian principles.

Option C: N Watch is a non-governmental organization based in Geneva whose mandate is tomonitor the performance of the United Nations by the yardstick of its own Charter.

Option D: ENGO is a generic term for NGO in the field of environmentalism. Examples of ENGOsinclude the WWF, Greenpeace, Conservation International, The Nature Conservancy and theEnvironmental Investigation Agency.is an environmental organization.

Q Source: Global NGOs

44 The strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the moon on the earth’s surface causes the tides.Tides will be highest when the sun, moon and earth are



35

In the same line A.In a right triangular relationshipB.In an obtuse triangular relationshipC.In a circle with earth as the CentreD.

Correct Answer : A


Learning: The water of the earth closer to the moon gets pulled under the influence of the moon’sgravitational force and causes high tide.

During the full moon and new moon days, the sun, the moon and the earth are in the same line andthe tides are highest. These tides are called spring tides.

But when the moon is in its first and last quarter, the ocean waters get drawn in diagonally oppositedirections by the gravitational pull of sun and earth resulting in low tides. These tides are calledneap tides.

Q Source: Standard 7th NCERT: Geography

45 Which of the following seems a logical reason as to why most of the private investment in Indianagriculture is on labour-saving mechanization?

Government is subsidizing and supporting private players in this endeavour.A.Feminization of agriculture has picked up pace.B.



36

Wages in the rural agricultural market have risen significantly in last decade. C.All of the aboveD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: There are many reasons as to why the rural wages have grown in past decade or so.

The movement of labour away from agriculture has gathered momentum in recent decades.

Schemes like MGNREGA are pumping in additional money and purchasing power in ruralIndia.

In the last decade, India has seen rapid growth of its economy and agricultural productivity,and a rise in the share of the non-agricultural sector in income and employment.

Food constitutes a large share of the rural consumption basket, so high food inflation mayraise the socially accepted minimum nominal wage.

All of these contributed to wage hikes and growing capitalist interested in cutting down labour costby mechanization.

Q Source:https://www.businesswire.com/news/home/20180822005474/en/India-Demand-Outlook-Farm-Agriculture-Equipment-Market

46 Consider the following statements.A line segment joining Saudi Arabia and Egypt will cut Persian Gulf.1.Gulf of Oman is an extension of Red Sea near Iran.2.


Correct Answer : D


Justification: Statement 1: The line segment should actually join Saudi Arabia and Iran.



37

Statement 2: It is not an extension of Red Sea, but it lies on the way from Persian Gulf to ArabianSea near Iran, Oman and UAE.

Q Source: Map based questions

47 Consider the following statements about the physiography of India.The core of the Great Himalayan is made up of limestone rocks.1.The trough of the Narmada river is interposed between the Vindhyan and the Satpura ranges.2.The Deccan Plateau receives heavy rainfall throughout the year as it falls on the windward side of3.major hills of Central and Southern India.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 3 onlyA.2 only B.3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1: Limestones can’t bear the heavy weight of Himalayas. The core isactually made of granite rocks.

Statement 2: It is one of the rivers in India that flows in a rift valley, flowing west between the



38

Satpura and Vindhya ranges.

Statement 3: The Deccan Plateau is a large triangular plateau, bounded by the Vindhyas to thenorth and flanked by the Eastern and Western Ghats.

This region is mostly semi-arid as it lies on the leeward side of both Ghats. Much of the Deccan iscovered by thorn scrub forest scattered with small regions of deciduous broadleaf forest. Climate inthe Deccan ranges from hot summers to mild winters.

Q Source: Additional Research: 11th NCERT: Indian Physical Geography

48 A vote of credit is granted by the Parliament to the executive toIncur expenditures that cannot be clearly stated or explained1.Sanction money for spending during the first part of the financial year when the budget has not2.been approved

Which of the above is/are correct?1 only A.2 only B.Both 1 and 2C.NoneD.

Correct Answer : A


Learning: S2 is vote on account by which Government obtains the Vote of Parliament for a sumsufficient to incur expenditure on various items for a part of the year. Normally, the Vote onAccount is taken for two months only.

Vote on Credit is like a blank cheque by Lok Sabha to government of India. It is granted when anunexpected demand has arisen upon resources of India whose magnitude or character of servicecannot be stated clearly. For e.g. in case of a rescue operation, the cost to be incurred cannot bedescribed clearly.

Q Source: Chapter on Parliament: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

49 Why the extraction of mineral from Manganese Nodules from Indian Ocean is of crucial importanceto India?

India is heavily dependent on imports to meet its requirements of cobalt and nickel both of which1.are strategic minerals in nature.These metals are fast depleting from the face of the earth which increases the importance of ocean2.resources.

Which of the above is/are correct?1 onlyA.



39

2 onlyB.Both 1 and 2 C.NoneD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: Manganese Nodules is a type of sediment scattered on the ocean floor, consistingmainly of manganese and iron, and usually containing small amounts of copper, nickel and cobalt.

Statement 1: Presently, there is no production of cobalt in the country from indigenous ores. Therefined production of cobalt is from imported feed material.

Cobalt is used in medical treatment and nickel in batteries. Thus,mining for these is of strategicimportance as there is no terrestrial source of these metals in India.

Learning: The nodules on the Indian Ocean bed are found at a depth of about six thousand metresand the closest point of the nodule fields is at a distance of about two thousand five hundred km offthe Kanyakumari coast.


50 What is the ‘Quantum size effect’ that is often talked about in the context of nanotechnology?As particles approach sub-atomic levels they display unusual physical and chemical properties.1.Grain growth in particles becomes abnormal on subjecting them to ultra low or ultra high2.temperatures


Correct Answer : A


Justification: Statement 1: This is the scale at which the basic functions of the biological worldoperate.

These profoundly different properties are due to an increase in surface area compared tovolume as particles get smaller.

It is also known as the quantum confinement effect. Unusual properties of extremely small



40

crystals arise from confinement of electrons to small regions of space in one, two, or threedimensions.

It can be observed once the diameter of the particle is of the same magnitude as thewavelength of the electron's wave function.

Q Source: Emerging technologies: Nano-technology

51 Which of these systems, either under development or functional, intend to rival or parallel the US’sGlobal Positioning System (GPS)?

Chinese BeiDou Navigation System (BDS)1.Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)2.Japanese Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS)3.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 onlyA.2 and 3 onlyB.1 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3 D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: Statement 1: It consists of two separate satellite constellations – a limited testsystem that has been operating since 2000, and a full-scale global navigation system that iscurrently under construction.

Statement 2: IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS)which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted serviceprovided only to the authorised users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracyof better than 20 m in the primary service area.

Statement 3: France and Japan are in the process of developing regional navigation systems. It is aproposed three-satellite regional time transfer system and the satellite-based augmentation systemfor the Global Positioning System.

Q Source:http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/irnss-launch-indias-own-regional-navigation-satellite-system-takes-shape/article8531388.ece

52 International immigration maySlow down the ageing process of host societies in the short-run1.Contribute to economic development of the host country2.Put pressure on limited civic resources of the host nation3.



41

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.2 and 3 onlyB.1, 2 and 3 C.1 onlyD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: While declining fertility and increasing longevity are the key drivers of populationageing globally, international migration has also contributed to changing population age structuresin some countries and regions.

Option A: In countries that are experiencing large immigration flows, international migration canslow the ageing process, at least temporarily, since migrants tend to be in the young working ages.However, migrants who remain in the country eventually will age into the older population.

Option B: USA is a living example where skilled Indian immigrants are leading large softwarecompanies and even generating employment.

Option C: This is one of the reasons why Europe is turning to an anti-immigrant policy andtightening its borders.

Q Source: http://www.un.org/en/sections/issues-depth/ageing/index.html

53 The Indian states with the longest and shortest international borders are

Assam and ManipurA.Rajasthan and SikkimB.J&K and Nagaland C.West Bengal and PunjabD.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: Jammu and Kashmir has longest international border length of 3176 Km while WestBengal has second longest international border length of nearly 2510 Km (with Bangladesh). Indianstate with smallest (least) international border length is Nagaland.



42

Q Source: Map based questions

54 The Muslim League celebrated the “Deliverance Day” in British India in the wake of

Passage of the Government of India Act 1935 without including the Muslim League membersA.in the drafting committeeCongress Ministries resigning from the Provinces in 1939 on account of the British involvingB.Indians in the Second World War without consulting them Khilafat agitation movement in 1919 on account of the dethroning of the spiritual leader ofC.the Islamic worldBoycott of the Swadeshi movement as organized by the Indian National Congress (INC) whichD.did not appeal to the Muslim elite of Calcutta

Correct Answer : B


Justification: An elimination based question; rest of the options pertain to events after or before1939.

In 1937 elections were held under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935. CongressMinistries were formed in seven states of India. In 1939 the Second World War broke out.



43

The British Government without consulting the people of India involved the country in the war. TheCongress vehemently opposed it and as a mark of protest the Congress Ministries in the Provincesresigned on 12 December 1939.

The Muslim League celebrated that day as the Deliverance Day. In March 1940 the Muslim Leaguedemanded the creation of Pakistan.

Q Source: 12th NCERT: Themes in India History – III

55 Energy price elasticity measures the percentage change in energy consumption against a percentagechange in energy price. Why are generally energy prices relatively inelastic?

Energy as a commodity of consumption comes in the category of basic necessities.1.Energy as an overall commodity does not have close substitutes of its own.2.


Correct Answer : C


Justification: Statement 1 and 2: It is generally accepted that energy price is likely to be inelasticdue to its basic nature of necessity (since people won’t reduce their consumption much) and thelack of fuel substitutes (if there were substitutes, competition would have led to an overall pricereduction).

Learning: Price elasticity for India ranges from -0.06 to -0.15. This means that price is inelastic orinsensitive. The inelastic price in India could be explained by several reasons such as fuel subsidyby the state and lack of alternative mode of fuel substitution especially for the transportation sector.

Q Source: Additional Research: Past year UPSC Qs on elasticity

56 Consider the following statements.The President is an integral part of the Parliament.1.The President is not required to attend the sessions of Parliament.2.




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Correct Answer : C


Justification: The Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

So, the President forms an integral part of the Parliament, since no bill can become an act withouther consent.

But, the President is not required to attend the sessions of Parliament at all. He only presentswelcome address which is passed as motion of thanks every time a new house is constituted.

Q Source: Chapter on President: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

57 Consider the following statements.The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is a binding agreement, on parties, that aims to1.phase out Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by 2020.UN Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) specializes in the transfer to substances with low2.or zero global warming potential, as well as the safe management of flammable substances

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 onlyA.2 onlyB.Both 1 and 2 C.None D.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: The Kigali Amendment amends the 1987 Montreal Protocol that was designed toclose growing ozone hole by banning ozone-depleting coolants like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Statement 1: Amending the Protocol it aims to phase out HFCs, a family of potent greenhouse gasesby the late 2040s.

Under Kigali Amendment, in all 197 countries, including India have agreed to a timeline to reducethe use of HFCs by roughly 85% of their baselines by 2045.

The Kigali Agreement or amended Montreal Protocol for HFCs reduction will be binding oncountries from 2019. It also has provisions for penalties for non-compliance. Under it, developedcountries will also provide enhanced funding support estimated at billions of dollars globally.

Statement 2: UNIDO is perfectly positioned to assist developing countries and countries witheconomy in transition to shift from HFCs to ozone- and climate-friendly alternatives and to improveenergy efficiency. UNIDO specializes in the transfer to substances with low or zero global warmingpotential, as well as the safe management of flammable substances. We are experienced in



45

promoting energy efficiency, and introducing low-carbon and low-emission technologies andpractices.

Q Source:https://www.unido.org/our-focus/safeguarding-environment/implementation-multilateral-environmental-agreements/montreal-protocol/montreal-protocol-evolves-fight-climate-change

58 These days devices come with various levels of protection such as IP 57 or IP 68, where each digit ofthe “two digit number standard” separately demonstrates protection against

Heavy impact and electric insulationA.Air pressure and water absorptionB.Explosion and excessive heating C.Dust ingress and water resistance D.

Correct Answer : D


Learning: You will often see this rating with iPhones or newly released phones that boast theirlevel of protection.

International Protection (IP) Marking classifies and rates the degree of protection providedagainst intrusion (body parts such as hands and fingers), dust, accidental contact, and waterby mechanical casings and electrical enclosures.

It is published by the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC).

The standard aims to provide users more detailed information than vague marketing termssuch as waterproof. For e.g. many phones are water resistant, rather than water proof, andthus provide a peculiar IP rating to claim the same.

For example, a cellular phone rated at IP58 is "dust resistant" and can be "immersed in 1.5meters of freshwater for up to 30 minutes".

Similarly, an electrical socket rated IP22 is protected against insertion of fingers and will notbe damaged or become unsafe during a specified test in which it is exposed to vertically ornearly vertically dripping water.

You can read about the code breakdown here:

Q Source: Occurs frequently in everyday news



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59 Which of the following situations led to the Congress constituting a committee for that ultimatelyproduced the Nehru report in 1928?

Lord Montague and Chelmsford gave an assurance to the Indian National Congress (INC) thatA.their draft constitution would be admitted by the British governmentThe Morley Minto Act 1919 provided for the establishment of an Indian committee that wouldB.determine the future course of constitutional reformsThe Simon Commission exhorted Indians to produce an all inclusive constitution that will beC.considered by the British in the first Round Table Conference.The then Secretary of State, Lord Birkenhead, challenged the Indians to produce aD.Constitution that would be acceptable to all.

Correct Answer : D


Learning: This challenge was accepted by the Congress, which convened an all party meeting in1928.

A committee consisting of eight was constituted to draw up a blueprint for the future Constitution ofIndia. It was headed by Motilal Nehru.

The Report published by this Committee came to be known as the Nehru Report. The Reportfavoured: Dominion Status as the next immediate step; certain fundamental rights that would begiven to Indians etc. We have covered this up in an earlier test.

Q Source: 12th TN History Textbook

60 Consider the following statements.These are known as anti-trade winds.1.They blow in temperate regions.2.They are experienced as warm winds.3.

The above refer to?Westerlies A.Furious EightiesB.EasterliesC.Gulf StreamD.

Correct Answer : A


Learning: They originate from the high-pressure areas in the horse latitudes and tend towards thepoles and steer extra-tropical cyclones in this general manner.



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The westerlies are strongest in the winter hemisphere and times when the pressure is lowerover the poles, while they are weakest in the summer hemisphere and when pressures arehigher over the poles.

Tropical cyclones which cross the subtropical ridge axis into the Westerlies recurve due to theincreased westerly flow.

The westerlies are particularly strong, especially in the Southern Hemisphere, in areas whereland is absent, because land amplifies the flow pattern, making the current more north-southoriented, slowing the westerlies.

The strongest westerly winds in the middle latitudes can come in the roaring forties, between40 and 50 degrees latitude.

Q Source: Additional Research: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

61 In 1953, she became the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly. She has alsoserved as a member of the Constituent assembly and the first Indian woman to hold a cabinet post.She is?

Sarojini NaiduA.Rajkumari Amrit KaurB.Vijaya Laxmi Pandit C.Aruna Asaf AliD.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: In 1937 she was elected to the provincial legislature of the United Provinces and wasdesignated minister of local self-government and public health.

She held the latter post until 1939 and again from 1946 to 1947.

In 1946 she was elected to the Constituent Assembly from the United Provinces.

Following India's freedom from British occupation in 1947 she entered the diplomatic serviceand became India's ambassador to the Soviet Union from 1947 to 1949

Between 1946 and 1968, she headed the Indian delegation to the United Nations and in 1953served as the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly.



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Q Source: Improvisation: Past year UPSC papers: Syllabus related to Spectrum Modern India: RajivAhir

62 Consider the following statements.The Gram Sabha keeps a track of the work of Gram Panchayat and prevents misuse of money.1.The Gram Sabha can be assigned responsibility for the identification of persons as beneficiaries2.under the poverty alleviation programmes.


Correct Answer : C


Justification: Statement 1: Every Panchayat at the village level are required to obtain from theGram Sabha a certification of utilisation of funds by that Panchayat for such plans, programmes andprojects implemented.

Statement 2: They also approve of the plans, programmes and projects for social and economicdevelopment before such plans, programmes and projects are taken up for implementation by thePanchayat at the village level.

Learning: The term Gram Sabha has been defined in the Constitution of India under Article 243(b)and some of its powers and responsibilities have been mentioned in acts like PESA and FRA.

Some other powers of GS include:

the power to enforce prohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of anyintoxicant;

the ownership of minor forest produce;

the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas

Q Source: Chapter on PRIs: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

63 Consider the following statements.The Religious Disabilities Act, 1856 provided that a change of religion did not debar a son from1.inheriting the property of his heathen father.



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The Caste Disabilities Removal Act, 1850 abolished all laws affecting the rights of Indian persons2.converting to another religion or caste.


Correct Answer : C


Justification: Statement 1: From the early decades of the 19th CE, the British had abandoned itspolicy of non-interference in the socio-religious life of the Indians. Abolition of Sati in 1829 underLord Bentinck, the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856, and western education all led todisruption in the social world of the people After the Charter of 1813, the Christian missionarieswere allowed to enter India and carry on with their mission of proselytizing.

This, combined with the Religious Disabilities Act of 1856, which sought to do away with theprevious ban on Christian converts from Hinduism in inheriting property, created a feeling amongstthe people of threat to their religion and way of life.

Statement 2: The Caste Disabilities Removal Act, 1850, was a law passed in British India under EastIndia Company rule, that abolished all laws affecting the rights of persons converting to anotherreligion or caste. The new Act allowed Indians who converted from one religion to another religionequal rights under no law, especially in the case of inheritance.

Q Source: Additional Research: Chapter 7: Spectrum: Modern India: Rajiv Ahir

64 Consider the following statements.Fungi can be used in the bioremediation of radioactively polluted sites.1.Fungi can act as bio-fertilizers by actively competing for nutrients and space with pathogenic2.microorganisms.


orrect Answer : C


Justification: Statement 1: In agriculture, fungi are useful if they actively compete for nutrients



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and space with pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria or other fungi. For example, certainfungi may be used to eliminate or suppress the growth of harmful plant pathogens, such as insects,mites, weeds, nematodes.

Statement 2: Certain fungi, in particular "white rot" fungi, can degrade insecticides, herbicides,pentachlorophenol, creosote, coal tars, and heavy fuels and turn them into carbon dioxide, water,and basic elements.

Fungi have been shown to biomineralize uranium oxides, suggesting they may have application inthe bioremediation of radioactively polluted sites.

Q Source: Additional Research: Past year UPSC papers

65 Consider the following with reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).A major objective of the IUCN is to mobilize the public in large numbers to create a movement in1.support of nature conservation.It is the only international observer organization in the UN General Assembly with expertise in2.issues concerning the environment.It financially assists governments across the world in establishing protection reserves for3.threatened and endangered species.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 3 onlyA.2 only B.1 only C.3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: IUCN is a non-government organization working in the field of nature conservationand sustainable use of natural resources.

Statement 1: Unlike other international NGOs, IUCN does not itself aim to mobilize the public insupport of nature conservation.

It tries to influence the actions of governments, business and other stakeholders by providinginformation and advice, and through lobbying and partnerships.

Statement 2: IUCN has observer and consultative status at the United Nations, and plays a role inthe implementation of several international conventions on nature conservation and biodiversity.

Statement 3: It produces the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species and the IUCN Red List ofEcosystems but does not fund their protection in reserves or national parks as such.

Learning: It was involved in establishing the World Wide Fund for Nature and the World



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Conservation Monitoring Centre.

IUCN provides advice to environmental conventions such as the Convention on Biological Diversity,CITES and the Framework Convention on Climate Change. It advises UNESCO on natural worldheritage.


66 The delta region of the Indus is largely a wasteland because

It experiences year round wind erosion due to Mediterranean anti-cyclones.A.It does not receive any precipitation over the year.B.Large amount of freshwater is diverted towards the delta denuding the region of its top soil.C.It is usually flooded with brackish water. D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: Option A: There are no such anti-cyclones that blow around Indus delta throughoutthe year.

Option B: While the climate is arid, the region receives paltry 25 to 50 cm of rainfall in a normalyear. So, B is incorrect. However, this is a factor adding to the wasteland problem.

Option C: Since the 1940s, the delta has received less water as a result of large-scale irrigationworks capturing large amounts of the Indus water before it reaches the delta. So, C is incorrect.

The result has been catastrophic for both the environment and the local population.

Option D: The lack of freshwater (from both rainfall and rivers) and high amount of brackish waterin the Indus region have led to the region turning into a wasteland.

However, the delta is still home to the largest arid mangrove forests in the world, as well as manybirds, fish and the Indus Dolphin.



52

Q Source: Additional Research: 11th NCERT: Geography: Indian Physical Geography

67 The Integrated Action Plan (IAP) of the Government of India, is often heard in the context of

Development of selected tribal and Backward Districts A.Mining rare earth minerals across IndiaB.Promoting education to illiterate adults in the unorganized sectorC.Upgradation of infrastructure in urban areas to convert them into Smart citiesD.

Correct Answer : A


Learning: The Integrated Action Plan (IAP) for Selected Tribal and Backward Districts was run



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under the Backward Region Grants Fund (BRGF) programme.

A Committee headed by District Collector / District Magistrate and consisting of the Superintendentof Police of the District and the District Forest Officer is responsible for implementation of thisscheme.

The District-level Committee has the flexibility to spend the amount for development schemesaccording to need as assessed by it.

Highest Priority is given to most deprived/LWE affected areas.

Q Source: Important Government Schemes, Programmes

68 The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of ‘electoral rolls’ for themunicipalities is vested in the

Election Commission of IndiaA.District Planning Committee (DPC)B.State Election Commission C.State Department of Urban AffairsD.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: The state legislature makes provision with respect to all matters relating to elections tothe municipalities. But, the conduct of elections is vested with the SEC, not the ECI which conductselections at the Union and state levels.

DPCs are bodies constituted by indirect elections by bodies like municipalities and panchayats. Itcan never conduct or supervise their polling.

Q Source: Chapter on Municipalities: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

69 Consider the following statements.The Brahmo Samaj, formed in 19th CE, prohibited all forms of idolatry and sacrifice.1.Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, a teacher at Hindu College, Calcutta, in the early 19th CE, encouraged2.his pupils to question all authority.The Prarthana Samaj sought to remove caste restrictions, abolish child marriage, encourage the3.education of women and rejected the Hindu and Christian texts.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 only A.2 and 3 onlyB.1 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3D.



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Correct Answer : A


Justification: Statement 1: The Brahmo Samaj, formed in 1830, prohibited all forms of idolatry andsacrifice, believed in the Upanishads, and forbade its members from criticising other religiouspractices. It critically drew upon the ideals of religions – especially of Hinduism and Christianity –looking at their negative and positive dimensions.

Statement 2: Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, a teacher at Hindu College, Calcutta, in the 1820s,promoted radical ideas and encouraged his pupils to question all authority. Referred to as theYoung Bengal Movement, his students attacked tradition and custom, demanded education forwomen and campaigned for the freedom of thought and expression.

Statement 3: Established in 1867 at Bombay, the Prarthana Samaj sought to remove casterestrictions, abolish child marriage, encourage the education of women, and end the ban on widowremarriage. Its religious meetings drew upon Hindu, Buddhist and Christian texts.

Q Source: Ch9: 8th History – P3

70 The assumption of the Government of India by the sovereign of Great Britain, after the 1857 revolt,was announced

By Lord Dufferin1.At a durbar at Allahabad2.In the 'Queen's Proclamation' issued in 18573.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 onlyA.2 only B.2 and 3 onlyC.3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: These were some of consequences of the 1857 revolt:

The direct responsibility for the administration of the country was assumed by the British Crownand Company rule was abolished. The assumption of the Government of India by the sovereign ofGreat Britain was announced by Lord Canning at a durbar at Allahabad in the 'Queen'sProclamation' issued on November 1, 1858.

The era of annexations and expansion ended and the British promised to respect the dignity andrights of the native princes.



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The Indian states were henceforth to recognise the paramountcy of the British Crown and were tobe treated as parts of a single charge.

The Army, which was at the forefront of the outbreak, was thoroughly reorganised and Britishmilitary policy came to be dominated by the idea of "division and counterpoise".


71 More than fifty per cent of the land area of India is presently being occupied as

ForestsA.Cultivable land B.IndustriesC.Inland water resourcesD.

Correct Answer : B


Learning: The total cultivable area in India is nearly 57% of its total land area, which is shrinkingdue to population pressures and rapid urbanisation.

India has a total water surface area of nearly 10% of its total area. So, D is incorrect.

Forests account for nearly 19-23% of area, depending on whether they are actual forests or forestcover.

Industries, as a total proportion of land use do not occupy a very large area, but cause the maximumdamage to other land use categories.


72 World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business index ranks 190 countries based on which of the followingparameters?

Getting construction permits1.Getting credit and electricity2.Ease of trade across borders3.Resolving insolvency4.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 only A.2, 3 and 4 onlyB.1 and 4 onlyC.1, 2, 3 and 4 D.



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Correct Answer : D


Justification: World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business index ranks 190 countries based on 10parameters, including starting a business, construction permits, getting electricity, getting credit,paying taxes, trade across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency.

In World Bank’s Doing Business Report (DBR, 2019), India has recorded jump of 23 positionsagainst its rank of 100 in 2017 to be placed at 77th rank among 190 countries. India has improvedits rank by 53 positions in the last two years and 65 positions in the last four years (2014-18).

Learning: About Ease of Doing Business Grand Challenge:

The objective of this challenge is to tap potential of young Indians, startups and other privateenterprises to provide solutions to complex problems using current technology. It is in pursuance ofGovernment’s resolve to make India one of the easiest places to conduct business in the world.

This challenge is aimed at attracting innovative ideas on artificial intelligence (AI), Internet ofThings (IoT), big data analytics, blockchain and other cutting edge technology to reformgovernment processes. The platform for this grand challenge will be on Start Up India portal.


73 Consider the following statements.#00000

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum1.and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is cheaper than petrol, diesel and LPG in India.2.India's state-owned companies account for the bulk of natural gas production.3.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.2 and 3 onlyB.1 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3 D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: Statement 1: The Act provide for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural GasRegulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activitiesrelating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets andfor matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.



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The board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation,distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excludingproduction of crude oil and natural gas so as and to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply ofpetroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country.

S2: Natural gas is a superior fuel as compared with coal and other liquid fuels being anenvironment friendly, safer and cheaper fuel. Natural Gas is supplied through pipelines just like onegets water from the tap. There is no need to store cylinders in the kitchen and thus saves space.

Natural Gas (as CNG) is cheaper by 60% as compared with petrol and 45 % w.r.t. Diesel. Similarly,Natural Gas (as PNG) is cheaper by 40 % as compared with market price LPG and price of PNGalmost matches with that of subsidised LPG (based on prices in Delhi).

S3: As in the oil sector, India's state-owned companies account for the bulk of natural gasproduction. ONGC and Oil India Ltd. (OIL) are the leading companies with respect to productionvolume, while some foreign companies take part in upstream developments in joint-ventures andproduction sharing contracts. The Gas Authority of India Ltd. (GAIL) holds an effective control onnatural gas transmission and allocation activities.


74 MANPADS, recently seen in news, is a(n)

Inter-continental ballistic missileA.Long range sniper recently imported by Indian armed forcesB.Air defence system C.Underwater radar systemD.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: Indian Army has picked Russia’s Igla-S missile system as choice for its multibillion dollarcontract for man-portable air defence systems (MANPADS).

About IGLA-S missile system:

It is latest model of Russian MANPADS (Man-portable air-defense system) technology. It offerssuperior performance over earlier supplied SA-18 missiles to India. It is designed for use againstvisible aerial targets at short range such as tactical aircraft, helicopters, unmanned aerial vehicle(UAVs), cruise missile, head-on or receding, in presence of natural (background) clutter andcountermeasures.

As per requirements of Indian Army, it will have maximum range of 6km, altitude of 3km along withall-weather capability. Igla-S missile system will replace the existing Igla in service which is inurgent need of replacement.



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75 As per the UNESCO Global Education Monitoring Report 2019, in IndiaInter-State migration rates have nearly doubled between 2001 and 2011.1.The construction sector absorbs the majority of short-term migrants.2.


orrect Answer : C


Justification: Statement 1: Inter-State migration rates have doubled between 2001 and 2011. Anestimated 9 million migrated between States annually from 2011 to 2016. The report also warns ofthe negative impact on education for children who are left behind as their parents migrate.

Statement 2: The construction sector absorbs the majority of short-term migrants. A survey inPunjab state of 3,000 brick kiln workers in 2015-16 found that 60% were inter-State migrants.Between 65% and 80% of all children aged five to 14 living at the kilns worked there seven to ninehours per day. About 77% of kiln workers reported lack of access to early childhood or primaryeducation for their children.

Learning: In India, 10.7 million children aged 6 to 14 lived in rural households with a seasonalmigrant in 2013. About 28% of youth aged 15 to 19 in these households were illiterate or had notcompleted primary school, compared to 18% of the cohort overall.

About 80% of seasonal migrant children in seven cities lacked access to education near work sites,and 40% are likely to end up in work rather than education, experiencing abuse and exploitation.


76 If you want to grow a crop that requires moisture to be well retained in soil, you would select

Alluvial SoilA.Loamy Soil B.Black Soil C.Desert SoilD.

Correct Answer : C



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Justification: All the soils listed above other than black soil are quite porous and easily drain water(i.e. don’t retain water).

The black soils are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material. They are well-known for theircapacity to hold moisture.

In addition, they are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime.

Learning: These soils are generally poor in phosphoric contents. They develop deep cracks duringhot weather, which helps in the proper aeration of the soil. These soils are sticky when wet anddifficult to work on unless tilled immediately after the first shower or during the pre-monsoonperiod.

Q Source: 9th NCERT Geography

77 Consider the following statements.“No-development zones” are areas where no construction, including commercial or residential1.buildings can come up.An area of 100 metres from the edge of the Ganga between Haridwar and Unnao has been declared2.a “No Development Zone”, by the National Green Tribunal (NGT) sometime ago.


Correct Answer : C


Justification: Statement 1: This has been defined in several policy documents, for e.g. in thisCoastal Regulation Zone notification of the MoEFCC:

Following shall be permissible / regulated in the NDZ:

(a) No construction shall be permitted within NDZ in CRZ III, except for repairs or reconstruction ofexisting authorized structure not exceeding existing Floor Space Index, existing plinth area andexisting density; for permissible activities under the notification including facilities essential foractivities and construction/reconstruction of dwelling units of traditional coastal communitiesincluding fisher folk, incorporating necessary disaster management provisions and propersanitation arrangements.

(b) Agriculture, horticulture, gardens, pastures, parks, playfields and forestry, etc.

Statement 2: The order said, “Till the demarcation of floodplains and identification of permissible



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and non-permissible activities by the State government, we direct that 100 meters from the edge ofthe river would be treated as no development/construction zone between Haridwar to Unnao inUttar Pradesh.”

The green court reiterated its earlier order of ban on mechanical mining in the Ganga and said “noin-stream mechanical mining is permitted and even the mining on the floodplain should be semi-mechanical and preferably more manual”.

“The Uttar Pradesh government is duty-bound to shift tanneries, within six weeks, from Jajmau inKanpur to leather parks in Unnao or any other place it considers appropriate,” the Bench said.


https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/no-development-zone-near-river-ganga/article19269513.ece

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=175306

78 Which of the following find mention in the constitution?All Parliamentary Committees1.Cabinet Committees2.Committees established by President to report on the condition of SCs and STs3.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.3 only B.2 and 3 onlyC.1, 2 and 3D.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1:They are established based on the rules of Parliament by the speaker.

Statement 2: These are constituted based on the Rules of Business of the government of India. Theyare extra-constitutional in nature.

Statement 3: The Constitution requires the president to appoint a commission to report on theadministration of the scheduled areas and the welfare of the scheduled tribes in the states. He canappoint such a commission at any time but compulsorily after ten years of the commencement of theConstitution.

Q Source: Various Chapters: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

79 Which of these North Indian states shares boundaries with the maximum number of Indian States?



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Himachal PradeshA.Uttar Pradesh B.PunjabC.UttarakhandD.

Correct Answer : B


Learning: Himachal Pradesh is bordered by 5 states - Jammu and Kashmir on the north, Punjaband Chandigarh on the west, Haryana on the south-west, Uttarakhand and UP on the south-east.

Uttarakhand shares it with 3 states – HP, UP and Haryana.

Uttar Pradesh is bordered by 8 states - Rajasthan to the west, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Delhito the northwest, Uttarakhand and Nepal to the north, Bihar to the east, Madhya Pradesh to thesouth, and touches the states of Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh to the southeast.

Q Source: Map-based questions

80 The Cornwallis Code of 1793 provided forTaking away the police power from the Zamindars1.The restriction of the application of English law to Englishmen only2.Accommodation of personal laws of Hindus and Muslims together in a new secular law3.Streamlining revenue and judicial administration in British India4.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.



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1, 2 and 3 onlyA.4 only B.2 and 4 only C.1 and 3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : C


Learning: The code dealt with many issues: revenue, judiciary, police etc.

The best known provision of the code was the Permanent Settlement (the zamindari system),under which revenue assessment was fixed permanently with zamindars.

The code also provided that the East India Company’s service personnel be divided into threebranches: revenue, judicial, and commercial.

The judiciary was reorganized; there were district judges with magisterial powers responsibleto provincial courts in civil cases and to courts of circuit in criminal cases.

Cornwallis changed the police system as well and took away the police power from theZamindars and divided the district in the small units.

Q Source: Based on topics covered earlier and past year UPSC papers

81 River Cauvery forms three big islands, on her journey from Talacauvery to join the Bay of Bengal Sea,which are major pilgrimage centres. These islands are

Baratang, Elephanta and MausuniA.Shriharikota, Anjediva, BetdwarkaB.Agatti, Keeling and MajuliC.Srirangapatna, Shivanasamudra and Srirangam D.

Correct Answer : D


Learning: At every point where the River Kaveri (Cauvery) splits to form an island, there is aRanganathaswamy temple.

The first one is at Srirangapatna ('Adi Ranga'), the second one is here at Shivanasamudram



63

('Madhya Ranga') and the third at Tiruchirapalli in Srirangam ('Antya Ranga').

The uniqueness of Sri Ranganthaswamy Temple in Shivasamudra is that Adiseshan, the snake,is seven-headed whereas in the other two temples that form the trio, the snake is a five-headed one.

The icon is believed to be a Shaligrama Shila or in other words a Black Fossil Stone.

Q Source: Based on topics covered earlier and past year UPSC papers

82 Foot and Mouth Disease is one of the most devastating contagious viral animal diseases affecting allsusceptible cloven-footed animals from India. Why efforts of vaccination against the disease have notbeen very successful?

The disease is caused by a fungus that thrives well in all mediums whether acidic or basic.A.The bacterium for the disease has developed anti-biotic resistance in many pockets of India.B.The disease affects only those animals which cannot be vaccinated.C.The virus responsible for the disease is genetically highly variable. D.

Correct Answer : D


Justification: The virus responsible for the disease is a picornavirus. The virus is genetically highlyvariable, which means no single vaccine targeting only one gene type of this virus may besuccessful. This limits the effectiveness of vaccination.

Option C: Humans can be infected with foot-and-mouth disease through contact with infectedanimals, but this is extremely rare.

Learning: The disease spreads very quickly if not controlled. The severe symptoms include fever;blisters in the mouth, feet and teats; drastic drop in milk production; weight and appetite loss;quivering lips; frothing in the mouth; and even lameness.

The agriculture ministry has conceived a ‘FMD Mukta Bharat‘ (FMD Free India) programmeto cover all the states.

FMD vaccination in these states and UT will be taken up under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana(RKVY).

Q Source:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/pune/toddlers-more-vulnerable-to-hand-foot-mouth-disease/articleshow/65140207.cms



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83 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Preamble of the constitution?It was not enacted by the constituent assembly.1.It is a source of power to legislature.2.Its provisions are not directly enforceable in courts of law.3.The Supreme Court has never considered Preamble as a part of the constitution.4.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1, 3 and 4 onlyA.1 and 3 onlyB.3 only C.2 and 4 onlyD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: S1: It was enacted after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. The reasonfor inserting the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitutionas adopted by the Constituent Assembly.

S2: The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers oflegislature.

S3: It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

S4: For the first time in the historic case of Kesavananda Bharati (1973). It was urged that thePreamble cannot be amended as it is not a part of the Constitution.

The Supreme Court, however, held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. The Court statedthat the Preamble can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basicfeatures’.

Q Source: Chapter on Features of Indian constitution: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

84 One way of incorporating different desirable characters into crop varieties is by hybridisation. Such ahybridisation will involve crossing between

Plants from different climatic conditions but same genus and speciesA.Plants of same species but different ages B.Genetically similar plantsC.Genetically dissimilar plants D.

Correct Answer : D




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Learning: This crossing may be intervarietal (between different varieties), interspecific (betweentwo different species of the same genus) or intergeneric (between different genera).

Another way of improving the crop is by introducing a gene that would provide the desiredcharacteristic. This results in genetically modified crops.

Varieties or strains of crops can be selected by breeding for various useful characteristics such asdisease resistance, response to fertilisers, product quality and high yields.

Q Source: Based on topics covered before

85 The committee that selects the CBI Director does NOT include

Prime Minister of IndiaA.Leader of the single largest opposition partyB.Chief justice of India or his nomineeC.Speaker, Lok Sabha D.

Correct Answer : D


Learning: The amended Delhi Special Police Establishment Act empowers a committee to appointthe director of CBI. The committee consists of:

Prime Minister – chairperson

Leader of Opposition – member

Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge recommended by the Chief Justice – member

When making recommendations, the committee considers the views of the outgoing director.

Above Selection committee was constituted under The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.

Q Source: In news sometimes due to CBI appointments

86 Which of these personalities was/were associated with founding of the Home Rule Movement (1916)?Annie Besant1.Madame Blavtasky2.A.O. Hume3.Bal Gangadhar Tilak4.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.



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1 and 2 onlyA.2 and 4 onlyB.1 and 4 only C.1, 2 and 3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: Two Home Rule Leagues were established, one by B.G. Tilak at Poona in April 1916and the other by Mrs. Annie Besant at Madras in September 1916.

The aim of the Movement was to get self-government for India within the British Empire. It believedfreedom was the natural right of all nations.

Moreover, the leaders of the Home Movement thought that India’s resources were not being usedfor her needs.

The two Leagues cooperated with each other as well with the Congress and the Muslim League inputting their demand for home rule.

Q Source: 12th NCERT: Themes in Indian History – III

87 Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRSs) are being established by the government with a focus onthe welfare of

Illiterate Women in urban areasA.Tribal population B.Below Poverty Line (BPL) students in Upper Primary SchoolC.Adolescent girls in rural areasD.

Correct Answer : B


Learning: Ministry of Tribal Affairs has recognised over hundred priority districts having 25% ormore Scheduled Tribe (ST) population for implementation of tribal development programmesincluding establishment of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRSs).

EMRSs is a demand driven project based on the proposals received from State Governments andsubject to availability of land.

This Ministry releases funds for construction and recurring cost of EMRSs. However, as per extantguidelines of EMRSs, each State Government/ UT Administration is solely responsible for themanagement and effective functioning of the EMRSs, school admissions, appointment ofteachers/staff and personnel matters.



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Q Source: Based on topics covered earlier

88 Seasonal unemployment in rural areas of India is largely due to

Smaller geographical area of rural India when compared to urban areasA.Inadequate number of administrative authorities in such areasB.Heavy dependence on agriculture in these regions C.Lack of regulation of formal employment in rural areasD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification & Learning: Seasonal unemployment happens when people are not able to find jobsduring some months of the year. People who are dependent upon agriculture usually face such kindof problems.

In regions where only two crop seasons (kharif and rabi) exist, the months after harvest largelywitness unemployment for the farmers.

So, in case of rural areas, there is seasonal and disguised unemployment (where a lot of peoplework on farms who aren’t required to). Urban areas have mostly educated unemployment.

Q Source: 11th NCERT: Indian Economic Development

89 It is India's largest inland salt lake and source of most of Rajasthan’s salt production. It is a keywintering area for thousands of flamingos and other birds that migrate from northern Asia. It is?

Chilka LakeA.Sambhar Lake B.Kanwar LakeC.Chandubi LakeD.

Correct Answer : B


Learning: The Lake is actually an extensive saline wetland. It has been designated as a Ramsarsite.

It is located south west of the city of Jaipur and north east of Ajmer in Rajasthan.

It is not a part of the Ganga river basin area and is geographically a separate land locked riverbasin.

The circumference of the lake is surrounded on all sides by the Aravali hills.



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Q Source: Important Wetlands: India

90 The Parliament exercises ‘post-budgetary’ control over the executive i.e. control ‘after’ theappropriation of grants by all of these committees except

Estimates CommitteeA.Departmental Standing Committees B.Public Accounts CommitteeC.Committee on Public UndertakingD.

Correct Answer : B


Learning: The parliamentary control over the Executive in financial matters operates in two stages:

Budgetary control, that is, control before the appropriation of grants through the enactmentof the budget; and

Post-budgetary control, that is, control after the appropriation of grants through the threefinancial committees – PAC, Estimate Committee and CoPU.

Option B: The Departmental standing committees consider the demands for grants of the concernedministries /departments before they are discussed and voted in the Lok Sabha. It also considers theannual reports of the Ministries and departments.

Option C: The function of the PAC is to examine the annual audit reports of the CAG, which are laidbefore the Parliament by the president. This is a kind of post-mortem of the executive expenditures.


91 Treasury Bills areShort term securities issued for upto an year of duration1.Issued on behalf of the government by the RBI and are used in managing short term liquidity needs2.of the government


Correct Answer : C



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Justification: T-bills are short term securities issued on behalf of the government by the RBI andare used in managing short term liquidity needs of the government.

91-day T-bills are auctioned every week on Wednesday and 182-day and 364-day T-bills areauctioned every alternate week on Wednesdays.

Treasury bills are issued at a discount and are redeemed at par.

Learning: The National Stock Exchange (NSE) has launched an app and web-based platform, ‘NSEgoBID’, for retail investors to buy government securities.

About ‘NSE goBID’:

The app would allow investors to invest in treasury bills (T-Bills) of 91 days, 182 days and 364 daysand various government bonds from one year to almost 40 years.

The retail investors would be able to make payment directly from their bank accounts using UnifiedPayments Interface (UPI) and Internet banking.

While investment could be done almost every week after a one-time registration, the app would beavailable to all investors registered with NSE’s trading members.

The launch assumes significance as government securities are among the safer investment optionsavailable to retail investors as such securities are credit risk free instruments while providingportfolio diversification with longer investment durations.


92 Which of the following was a salient feature of the Act of 1892?

It increased the functions of legislative councils and gave them the power of discussing theA.budget. It introduced responsible governments in provinces where governor was required to act withB.the advice of ministers.It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and established it at the Centre.C.It introduced bicameralism in many eleven provinces.D.

Correct Answer : A


Justification: All options other than A are of the Government of India Act 1935 Only Option A wasprovided for in Act of 1892.



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The Act of 1892 also increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Centraland provincial legislative councils, but maintained the official majority in them.

The act made a limited and indirect provision for the use of election in filling up some of thenonofficial seats both in the Central and provincial legislative councils. The word “election”was, however, not used in the act.

The process was described as nomination made on the recommendation of certain bodies.

Q Source: Chapter on Historical background: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

93 Based on a rough estimate, which of these inter-governmental organizations listed below is mostlikely to represent around 85% of global GDP and 65% of global population?

Council of Europe (CoE)A.Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)B.Group of Twenty (G20) C.Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)D.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: Since you know India and China collectively represent more than 35% of globalpopulation, no grouping that excludes India and China can contribute to over 65% of globalpopulation.

OECD and ASEAN exclude India and China and can’t be the answer. COE is too small an economicunit to represent 85% of global GDP. So, A, B and D can’t be the answer. C is the clear answer.

Learning: The Group of Twenty (G20) is a deliberating forum for the governments and central bankgovernors from 20 major economies on economic issues and other important developmentchallenges.

It was started in 1999 as a meeting of Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors in theaftermath of the Southeast Asian (Tiger economies) financial crisis.

It comprises total 19 countries plus the European Union (EU), representing 85% of globalGDP, 80% of international trade, 65% of world’s population. Its members include Australia,Argentina, Brazil, Canada, China, India, France, Germany, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, SouthKorea, Mexico, Saudi Arabia, Russia, Turkey, South Africa, UK, US and EU.

Q Source: International Organizations



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94 Which of the following rivers originate in India?Parvati1.Sutlej2.Beas3.Chenab4.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1, 3 and 4 only A.2 and 3 onlyB.3 and 4 onlyC.1, 2 and 3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : A


Justification: Statement 1: It rises in the Parvati Valley in Himachal Pradesh, northern India thatflows into the Beas River at Bhuntar.

Statement 2: It rises in Lake Rakshastal which lies in Tibet, China, lying just west of LakeManasarovar.

Statement 3: The river rises in the Himalayas in central Himachal Pradesh.

Statement 4: It forms in the upper Himalayas in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradeshand flows through the Jammu region of Jammu and Kashmir into the plains of the Punjab, Pakistan.The waters of the Chenab are allocated to Pakistan under the terms of the Indus Waters Treaty.


95 Consider the following statements.The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and expenditure made from the1.Consolidated Fund of India needs to be shown separately in the estimates of expenditure in thebudget.The budget must distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure to better2.reflect allocation of public money.


Correct Answer : C




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Learning: As underlying principles of the above, these are followed in the budget (as alsomentioned in the constitution):

Some other such provisions are:

No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.

No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriationmade by law.

No money bill imposing tax shall be introduced in the Parliament except on therecommendation of the President, and such a bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.


96 The term “High Seas” is often used in maritime jurisdiction meaning all those areas that are

Not included in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), or in the territorial sea or in the internalA.waters of a State A part of High inter-tidal zones witnessing largest variation in tidal rangeB.A part of Inland waterways connected to coastal lagoons and estuariesC.Not included in those International watersD.

Correct Answer : A


Learning: The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) provides that the areasbeyond the limits of national jurisdiction (ABNJ) include:

the water column beyond the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), or beyond the Territorial Seawhere no EEZ has been declared, called the High Seas; and

the seabed which lies beyond the limits of the continental shelf

Q Source: Important Terminologies: Diplomacy

97 Consider the following factors of soil formation and their effect on the soil.



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Parent Rock: A. Rate of weathering of humus1.Climate: B. Determines accumulation of soil2.Relief: C. Affects chemical properties and permeability3.

Select the most appropriate matches using the codes below.1C, 2B, 3AA.1C, 2A, 3B B.1A, 2B, 3CC.1A, 2C, 3BD.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1: This refers to the mineral material, or organic material from which thesoil is formed. Soils will carry the characteristics of its parent material such as color, texture,structure, mineral composition and so on.

Statement 2: Temperature and precipitation influence the speed of weathering of parent materialsand thus soil properties such as mineral composition and organic matter content. Temperaturedirectly influences the speed of chemical reactions. The warmer the temperature, the fasterreactions occur.

Statement 3: The steepness of the slope affects the amount of deposition or erosion of soil material.A soil that is level is the most developed as there is no loss or gain of material to slow the soilforming process. The aspect of the slope affects the amount of water that moves through the soil.


98 Which of these planets takes the longest time to complete one spin or rotation on its own axis?

JupiterA.MercuryB.SaturnC.Venus D.

Correct Answer : D


Learning: Jupiter has the shortest days of all the planets in the solar system. Venus rotates onceevery 243 days - by far the slowest rotation period of any of the major planets. So, Venus has thelongest day of any planet in our solar system. A day on Saturn is nearly 11 hours long.



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99 Match the following trees to the type of climate they are found in.Deodar: A. Himalayan moist1.Sandalwood: B. Tropical Deciduous2.Rosewood: C. Tropical Evergreen3.Oak: D. Temperate Evergreen4.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1C, 2A, 3D, 4BA.1A, 2B, 3C, 4D B.1D, 2B, 3A, 4CC.1B, 2A, 3D, 4CD.

Correct Answer : B


Justification: Statement 1: Between 1500 and 3000 metres, temperate forests containingconiferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar, are found. These forests cover mostlythe southern slopes of the Himalayas, places having high altitude in southern and north-east India

Statement 2: These regions experience seasonal changes. Trees shed their leaves in the dry seasonto conserve water.

Trees like sandalwood, teak, sal, ebony, bamboo, etc. are the common trees found here.



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Forests are not very dense thus; commercial exploitation of these forests is possible.

Statement 3: Maximum varieties of trees are found. Trees are tall with large trunks. The thickcanopies of the closely spaced trees do not allow the sunlight to penetrate inside the forest even inthe day time. Thus, grass is not found in these forests.

Hardwood trees like rosewood, teak, sal, ebony, and mahogany are the common trees found here.

Statement 4: Temperate evergreen regions have cool winters and receive rainfall throughout theyear.

They comprise both hard and soft wood trees like oak, pine, eucalyptus, etc.

They look like Tropical Forest in thickness and variety.

Timber (wood) from these forests is used for commercial purpose.


100 The August Offer, 1940 proposed which of the following?A national Government shall be set up at the centre led by the Indian National Congress1.“Constitution Making Body” shall be appointed immediately after the war2.Viceroy’s Legislative Council to be turned into a representative Parliament3.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.1 and 2 onlyA.2 and 3 onlyB.2 only C.1 and 3 onlyD.

Correct Answer : C


Justification: After the Congress ministries (in the Provinces) resigned in 1939, the British askedagain for the support of the Congress in WW-II.

Later in 1940, INC passed a resolution offering the British Government support in war, if aprovisional National Government is setup at Centre.

This was responded by Lord Linlithgow in the sort of a proposal which is called August Offer.



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The August offer turned down the demand of the Congress to set up a national Government at thecentre but proposed the following:

A representative “Constitution Making Body” shall be appointed immediately after the war.

The number of the Indians in the Viceroy’s Executive council will be increased.

A war advisory Council would be set up.

The Congress did not approve the August Offer.

Q Source: Additional Research: Table 1.1: Chapter 1: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth


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