TISSNET 2014 Solutions -...

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TISSNET 2014 Solutions

General Awareness

Q.1. What is Archipelago? (1) It is a group of free floating islands. (2) It is a group of islands that are in close proximity to each other. (3) It is a group of islands with one island keeping the rest in a place. (4) It is a very big island

Answer : (2). An archipelago, sometimes called an island group or island chain, is a chain, cluster or collection of islands. Indonesia, Japan, the Philippines, New Zealand, the British Isles, The Bahamas, Greece, Hawaii, Azores and New York City are examples of well-known archipelagos. The largest archipelagic state in the world by area and population is Indonesia.

Q.2 What is the main feature of the Dead sea ? (1) It is the sea that was once a sea but now it's just a dried up sea bed. (2) It is the sea that has an extremely high density of salt. (3) It has the most acidic content & therefore can kill anyone who enters it. (4) It is the sea where dead sailors were given a burial at sea.

Answer : (2) The Dead Sea, also called the Salt Sea, is a salt lake bordered by Jordan to the east and Israel and the West Bank to the west. With 34.2% salinity (in 2011), it is also one of the world's saltiest bodies of water.

Q.3 Theodolite is a precision instrument used for measuring? (1) Buoyancy (2) Surface tension (3) Angles (4) Frequency of light

Answer: (3). A theodolite is a precision instrument for measuring angles in the horizontal and vertical planes. Theodolites are used mainly for surveying applications, and have been adapted for specialized purposes in fields like meteorology and rocket launch technology.

Q.4. Which of these is a name never used to describe India in the ancient period? (1) Akhanda Bharat (2) Bharata Varsha (3) Bharata Kanda (4) Jamboo Dvipa

Answer: (1) Akhand Bharat is an irredentist term literally meaning Undivided India. (At the time of the Indian Independence Movement, K.M. Munshi advocated for Akhand Hindustan, a proposition that Mahatma Gandhi, believing that "as Britain wanted to retain her empire by pursuing a policy of divide and rule, Hindu-Muslim unity could not be achieved as long as the British were there.") It was never used to describe India in the ancient period.

Q.5. Which of the following dynasties was a Brahmin dynasty? (1) The Kakatiyas (2) The Vijayanagara Dynasty (3) The Satavahanas (4) The Kushans

Answer: (3) The Satavahanas. The Satavahana dynasty ruled from Pune in Maharastra to Coastal Andhra Pradesh in the second century BC onwards. This dynasty was built up on the ruins of the

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Maurya Empire and around 1st century AD, they were the most prominent in the Modern Andhra Pradesh Region. Q.6. The grand constructions of Madurai are attributed to which Chola king? (1) Elara Chola (2) Rajendra Chola (3) Karikala Chola (4) Raja Raja Chola Answer: Incorrect question. The Cholas were mostly associated with constructions in Tanjore. The Pandyas and Nayaks are associated with the temples in Madurai. Q.7 Who was the first Sultan of Delhi? (1) Iltutmish (2) Babur (3) Allauddin Khilji (4) Qutbuddin Aibak Answer: (4) Qutb-ud-din Aibak, a former slave of Muhammad Ghori, was the first sultan of Delhi Q.8 Meru which is to be considered to be the abode of Lord Vishnu is to be found today in which one of the following countries? (1) China (2) Thailand (3) Indonesia (4) Cambodia Answer: Ambiguous question. No clear answer. Q.9. In which year did the Glorious revolution occurred in England? (1) 1789 (2) 1688 (3) 1715 (4) 1776 Answer: (2) The Glorious Revolution, also called the Revolution of 1688, was the overthrow of King James II of England by a union of English Parliamentarians with the Dutch stadtholder William III of Orange-Nassau. Q.10. Who actually wrote the Declaration of Independence of America? (1) John Adams (2) Samuel Adams (3) Thomas Jefferson (4) George Washington Answer: (3) The Declaration of Independence is the statement adopted by the Continental Congress meeting at Philadelphia, Pennsylvania on July 4, 1776, which announced that the thirteen American colonies, then at war with Great Britain, regarded themselves as thirteen newly independent sovereign states, and no longer a part of the British Empire. It was drafted by Thomas Jefferson. Q.11. As per the American declaration of Independence the true meaning of freedom of speech is referred to (1) citizen's right to express their views. (2) right of the government of United States of America to negotiate terms of trade with any other nation. (3) permission given to people to hold public meetings. (4) governments right to clearly state its goals to people. Answer: (1) citizen’s right to express their views Q.12 Adolf Hitler's rule in Germany is referred to as (1) Sittlichkeit (2) Deutsches Reich (3) Gesselschaft (4) Vorstellung Answer. (2). The official name of the state was Deutsches Reich (German Reich) from 1933 to 1943 and Großdeutsches Reich (Greater German Reich) from 1943 to 1945.



Q.13 The head of the Church of England or the Protestant church is (1) The Monarch of England (2) Archbishop of Canterbury (3) The Pope (4) The Cardinal of Westminster Answer: (2). The Archbishop of Canterbury is the senior bishop and principal leader of the Church of England, the symbolic head of the worldwide Anglican Communion. Q.14. Which of the following as a French Monarchial Dynasty? (1) The Lancastrians (2) The Girondins (3)The Jacobins (4) The Bourbons Answer: (4) The House of Bourbon is a European royal house of French origin, a branch of the Capetian dynasty. Bourbon kings first ruled France and Navarre in the 16th century. Q.15 Russian revolution of 1917 is called as (1) The Czarist revolution (2) The Bolshevik revolution (3) The Bolshoi revolution (4)The Menshevik revolution Answer: (2) In the October Revolution (November in the Gregorian calendar), the Bolshevik party, led by Vladimir Lenin, and the workers' Soviets, overthrew the Provisional Government in Petrograd and established the Russian SFSR, eventually shifting the capital to Moscow in 1918. Q.16 Who among the following has been the Brand Ambassador of National Tobacco Control Campaign? (1) Mahendra Singh Dhoni (2) Sachin Tendulkar (3) Rahul Dravid (4) Kapil Dev Answer. (3). On Sep 5, 2013, the Union Health Ministry announced former Indian cricket team captain Rahul Dravid as brand ambassador for its National Tobacco Control campaign. Q.17. Which one of the following is not a G-4 country? (1) Australia (2) Brazil (3) India (4) Japan Answer: (1).The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany,India and Japan are four countries which support each other's bid for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. Q.18. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Government of India’s ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority’? (1) President (2) Prime minister (3) Vice President (4) Home minister Answer: (2) National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is a financing, planning, implementing, monitoring and coordinating authority for the Ganges River, functioning under the water resource ministry of India. The Prime Minister is the chair of the Authority. Q.19. The world Consumer's Rights day is celebrated across the world on? (1) 15th March (2) 8th April (3) 14th January (4) 5th August Answer. (1) 15th March is World Consumer Rights Day (WCRD), an annual occasion for celebration and solidarity within the international consumer movement. It marks the date in 1962 President John F Kennedy first outlined the definition of Consumer Rights.



Q.20 Dr. Baba Saheb Ambedkar converted to Buddhism in the following year (1) 1956 (2) 1957 (3) 1936 (4) 1959 Answer: (1) After publishing a series of books and articles arguing that Buddhism was the only way for the Untouchables to gain equality, Ambedkar publicly converted on 14 October 1956, at Deekshabhoomi, Nagpur Q.21. ____________ has been on a fast for over a decade to protest against the Armed Forces Special Powers Act in Manipur. (1) Vrinda Karat (2) Irom Sharmila (3) Arundhati Roy (4) Soni Sori Answer: (2) Irom Chanu Sharmila, also known as the "Iron Lady of Manipur" is a civil rights activist, political activist, and poet from the Indian state of Manipur. On 2 November 2000, she began a hunger strike which is still ongoing. Q.22. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 applies to (1) Only Public Sector (2) Only Private Sector (3) Public and private sector (4) All of the above Answer: The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 is a legislative act in India that seeks to protect women from sexual harassment at their place of work. The Act ensures that women are protected against sexual harassment at all the work places, be it in public or private. Q.23. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) that was in the news for the controversy over issue of alleged Human Rights violations was hosted by? (1) Pakistan (2) India (3) Sri Lanka (4) None of these Answer. (3) The CHOGM in 2013 was hosted by Sri Lanka. Q.24. Recent decision of the Supreme Court to give Indian voters an option for negative voting is called? (1) NOTA (2) NTOA (3) NATOA (4) NOTE Answer: The Supreme Court, in September last year, upheld the right of voters to reject all candidates contesting the elections, saying it would go a long way in cleansing the political system of the country. The apex court directed the Election Commission to have an option of 'None Of The Above' (NOTA) on the electronic voting machines (EVMs) and ballot papers in a major electoral reform. Q.25. The 16th Non-Alignment summit was held in 2012 was hosted by one of these countries? (1) Iran (2) Pakistan (3) India (4) Nepal Answer: (1) The 16th Non-Alignment summit was held in Iran in 2012. Q.26. The Supreme Court of India recently gave a verdict against one of the following companies on patent claims for cancer drugs? (1) Glaxo (2) Ranbaxy (3) Novartis (4) None of these Answer: (3). Supreme Court rejected Novartis’ attempt to win patent protection for its blockbuster cancer drug Glivec.



Q.27. The painting ‘Hamsa Damayanti’ is a masterpiece of ? (1) Nandalal Bose (2) Raja Ravi Varma (3) Jagdish Swaminathan (4)Ram Kumar Answer: (2) Hamsa Damayanti painting is one of the masterpieces by the Indian painter Raja Ravi Varma. Q.28. “India wins Freedom” is an autobiography written by? (1) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (2) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (3) Zakir Hussain (4) C. Rajagopalachari Answer: (1) It is a book by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. Q.29. The author of the novel “Walden Two” is? (1) Ivan Pavlov (2) Abraham Maslow (3) B.F.Skinner (4) Sigmund Freud Answer: (3) Walden Two is a utopian novel written by behavioral psychologist B. F. Skinner, first published in 1948. Q.30. Which among the following economists is the author of the book ‘Development as Freedom’? (1) Jean Dreze (2) Jagadish Bhagwati (3) T.N. Srinivasan (4) None of the above Answer: (4) Development as Freedom is a 1999 book by economist Amartya Sen, which focuses on international development.

Mathematical and Logical Reasoning

Q.1. On a certain day when interviews for Master Degree courses were going on, it was found that 35 students attended interviews for MA Education, 47 students attended interviews for MSW and among the 2 groups, 12 students attended both. What is the total number of students who attended either of the interviews? (1) 82 (2) 70 (3) 94 (4) 58 Answer: (2) 70 Q.2. Among a group of 60 people who like Indian classical music, 38 like Hindustani music & 46 like Carnatic music. How many like both Hindustani & Carnatic? (1) 24 (2) 84 (3) 0 (4) not possible to say as the required information is not given Answer : (1) 24 Q.3. Riaz distributes 20 copies of The Hindu and 25 copies of Deccan Chronicle in an apartment building that has 40 apartments. If he distributes at least one newspaper to each apartment, the number of apartments that buy only The Hindu is (1) 5 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) Cannot say Answer: (3) 15



Q.4. Among a group of children, 6 children like only chocolate ice cream and 5 children like only butter scotch ice cream and 5 like either of the two. If each child gets an ice cream, how many ice creams should we order? (1) 11 (2) 21 (3) 16 (4) 6 Answer: (3) 16 Q.5. Of the 850 students who wrote an entrance examination at a center, 550 did very well in the Mathematics and Logical reasoning paper, 600 did very well in English language proficiency and 350 did very well in both. How many students did not do very well in Mathematics and Logical reasoning? (1) 300 (2) 650 (3) 50 (4) 250 Answer: (1) 300 Q.6. Find the odd one out: 24, 42, 54, 62, 78 (1) 24 (2) 42 (3) 62 (4) 78 Answer: (3) 62. All others have 8 factors. Q.7 What is the next number in the series 5, 7, 10, 14, 19, … (1) 25 (2) 23 (3) 20 (4) 24 Answer: (1) 25. Difference between the numbers increases by 1 in each step. Q.8. Find the odd one out: 6, 12, 20, 26, 30 (1) 6 (2) 12 (3)20 (4) 26 Answer: (4) 26. Other numbers are multiples of consecutive numbers. Eg. 6=2*3, 12=3*4 etc. Q.9. What is the next number in the series 3, 10, 29, 66…. (1) 99 (2) 127 (3) 133 (4) 148 Answer: (2) 127. The difference between the numbers increases in multiples of 6. Also, n^3 + 2 Q.10. Find the odd one out 204, 315, 425, 531, 624 (1) 204 (2) 315 (3) 425 (4) None of the above Answer: (3) 425. Not divisible by sum of digits Q.11. Look at this series: 664, 332, 340, 170, …, 89. What number should fill the blank? (1) 85 (2) 97 (3) 109 (4) 178 Answer: (4) 178. Divide by 2 and add 8. Q.12. Using digits 5, 3, 2, 1 without repetition, how many odd numbers can be made? (1) 18 (2) 24 (3) 256 (4) 192 Answer: (1) 18 Q.13. Using the digits 6,5,4,3,2,1 without repetition, how many three digit numbers can one make?



(1) 120 (2) 20 (3) 60 (4) 36 Answer: (1) 120 Q.14. In how many ways can four people be seated at a circular dining table? (1) 6 (2) 24 (3) 60 (4) 92 Answer: (1) 6 Q.15. MA education students have to choose one pedagogy course from an option of three (Mathematics, Science and Language) and one thematic course from an option of two (Leadership, Social justice) along with the compulsory courses. How many different combinations of optional courses are possible? (1) 24 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 6 Answer: (4) 6 Q.16. If 6 people working 8 hours a day can finish a work in 12 days, how many days will it take for 4 people working 8 hours a day to finish the same work? (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 14 (4) 18 Answer: (4) 18 Q.17. If 8 people work 8 hours a day and finish a work in 8 days, how long will it take to finish the work if 4 people work 4 hours a day? (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 32 Answer: (4) 32 Q.18. If machine A needs 2 hours to finish a work, machine B 3 hours and machine C 6 hours to finish the same work, how long will it take for machines A, B and C to complete the work if they work simultaneously? (1) 15 minutes (2) half an hour (3) 1 hour (4) 1 hour 15 minutes Answer: (3) 1 hour Q.19. A and B working together finish a work in 6 hours. A can finish the work in 10 hours. How long will it take for B to finish the same work alone? (1) 15 hours (2) 16 hours (3) 18 hours (4) 24 hours Answer: (1) 15 hours Q.20. A car takes 25 minutes to travel from one point to another at an average speed of 40 km/hr. What is the approximate distance between the 2 points? (1) 15 kms (2) 17 kms (3) 20 kms (4) 38 kms Answer: (2) 17 kms Q.21. It took Ramya 15 minutes more than the usual time to travel the distance from her home to office today. If her speed today was 2/3rd of her usual speed, what is the usual time it takes for her to travel the same distance?



(1) 10 minutes (2) 23 minutes (3) 27 minutes (4) 30 minutes Answer: (4) 30 minutes Q.22. Rashmi got into a city bus at 12:50 pm and travelled a distance of about 27 kms and reached her destination at 1:35 pm. What is the average speed at which the bus was moving? (1) 30 km/hr (2) 36 km/hr (3) 40 km/hr (4) 32 km/hr Answer: (2) 36 km/hr Q.23 In a larger circular pool of 20 feet diameter, two frogs start swimming from east and west ends of the pool (named A & C respectively) towards a worm on the northern edge of the pool at point B. What is the measure of the angle ABC? (1) 20 degrees (2) 70 degrees (3) 90 degrees (4) 30 degrees Answer : 90 degrees (angle made in a semi circle is a right angle) Q.24. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have? (1) 10 sides (2) 8 sides (3) 12 sides (4) 9 sides Answer: (1) 10 sides Q.25. A rectangular field has an area of 20 sq. km. If the perimeter of the field is 18 km, what is the length of the longer side of the field? (1) 10 km (2) 3 km (3) 8 km (4) 5 km Answer: (4) 5 km Q.26. Ratio of men to women at a party was 6: 7. If there were 28 women, than calculate the total number of people at the party? (1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 52 (4) 104 Answer: (3) 52 Q.27. A certain amount of money is divided amongst three friends, Amar, Akbar and Anthony in the ratio 2:3:7 respectively. If Anthony gets Rs. 15 more than Amar, how much money does Akbar get? (1) 36 (2) 9 (3) 25 (4) 6 Answer: (2) 9 Q.28 A metal is made of Copper, Zinc and Lead which were in the ratio of 13: 6: 1. The mass of Zinc is 90 kg. What is the mass of copper in the metal? (1) 300 kg (2) 210 kg (3) 285 kg (4) 195 kg Answer: (4) 195 kg Q.29. Ramesh invests Rs. 1400 in an account that earns simple interest. After 9 months, the balance is Rs. 1421. What is the annual interest rate? (1) 2% (2) 5% (3) 1% (4) 8%



Answer: (1) 2% Q.30. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 1352 in 2 years at 4% per annum of compound interest. What is the sum? (1) 1200 (2) 1250 (3) 1280 (4) 1296 Answer: (2) 1250 Q.31. A sum of money lent at simple interest amounts to Rs. 880 in 2 years and to Rs. 920 in 3 years. What is the sum of money? (1) 700 (2) 760 (3) 784 (4) 800 Answer: (4) 800 Q.32. If some bags are packets and no packet is a pouch. (1) No bag is a pouch and no packet is a bag (2) No bag is a pouch and some packets are bags (3) Some bags are not pouches and some packets are bags. (4) Some bags are not pouches and no packet is a bag. Answer: (3) Q.33. What is the next item in the series: FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH,.. (1) JAK (2) HAL (3) HAK (4) JAI Answer: (1) JAK Q.34. What is the missing term in the following series: ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, ….., MLNA (1) OLPA (2) KLMA (3) LLMA (4) KLLA Answer: (4) KLLA Q.35. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together? (1) 4 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 16 Answer: (4) 16. The bells commence tolling together which is the first instance. Hence, 1 + 30 minutes/LCM(2,4,6,8,10,12) seconds = 1 + 15 = 16

English Proficiency 1. SHARD:GLASS (1) Cream:Butter (2) Twine:Rope (3) Crumb:Bread (4) Pages:Book Answer: (3) 2. STRING:GUITAR



(1) Reed:Flute (2) Board:Billiards (3) Font:Letter (4) Plot:Book Answer: (2) 3. MIRROR : REFLECTION (1) Water : Refraction (2) Picture : Representation (3) Chaos : Confusion (4) Sound : Dispersion Answer: (1) 4. ASHEN : COLOR (1) Pallid : Complexion (2) Insipid : Flavor (3) Enigmatic : Puzzle (4) Corpulent : Weight Answer: (2) 5. AFTER : BEFORE (1) Present : Past (2) Successor : Predecessor (3) 1st : 2nd (4) Contemporary : History Answer: (2) 6. DESTITUTE : WEALTHY (1) Scholarly : Erudite (2) Angry : Rich (3) Tacky : Graceful (4) Native : Affluent Answer : (3) 7. TACITURN:VOLUBLE (1) Indolence : Work (2) Ecstatic : Excitement (3) Significant : Insightful (4) Speechless : Effusive Answer: (1) 8. I was certain she had visited this place because it was _________ with her smells. (1) Satiated (2) Fragrant (3) Redundant (4) Redolent Answer: (4)



9. After several ______ attempts to send the missile into space, the spacecraft was finally launched successfully. (1) experimental (2) abortive (3) difficult (4) preliminary Answer: (2) 10. All other issues are __________ to the need to provide food and medical supplies. (1) subsistent (2) subtended (3) subsumed (4) subsidiary Answer: (3) 11. Curiously enough instead of inviting _________ their deviousness was regarded by many as being ________. (1) applause … crude (2) derision …. Injudicious (3) antipathy….assimilative (4) opprobrium….ingenious Answer: (4) 12. The decision taken by the board was perceived as being ______ leading to widespread _________ among the workers who were already disillusioned with the management. (1) judicious ….. celebration (2) momentous …. appreciation (3) iniquitous….discontent (4) discriminatory….panic Answer: (3) 13. The recent steps to _________ the prices of essential commodities has resulted in a _______ atmosphere with regard to the future of the economy. (1) regulate….buoyant (2) restrict….surcharged (3) deflate….pessimistic (4) enhance….diffident Answer: (1) 14. A political party is a political organization that typically seeks to _____ and ______ political power over government. (1) find …show (2) attain….maintain (3) create…define (4) bring….bestow



Answer: (2) 15. TRAVESTY: The trial was a travesty of justice leading to widespread disillusionment with the entire process. (1) Mockery (2) Genuine (3) Accurate (4) Caricature Answer: (1) 16. Popular culture continues to generate _________ amounts of name-calling and countless wars across the Internet, such as the _________ debates between fans of Star Trek and Star Wars. (1) reduced…intermittent (2) large…constant (3) ridiculous ….insulting (4) obsequious….encouraging Answer: (2) Instructions: Pick the word from the alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context: 17. DEFICIENT: He was not hired for the job since he was found to be deficient in his understanding of the business. (1) complete (2) lacking (3) inadequate (4) authentic Answer: (1) 18. COMPLICIT: The judge handed him a punishment since the evidence showed that he was complicit in the crime that led to the death of the victim. (1) innocent (2) ignorant (3) organized (4) opposed Answer: (1) 19. ESCHEW: My policy has always been to eschew speaking ill of others since it creates unnecessary negativity. (1) Embrace (2) Deliberate (3) Espouse (4) Associate Answer: (3) 20. FLUSTERED: He was so flustered when he realized what was going on that he wouldn’t have recognized his own mother. (1) excited (2) involved (3) composed (4) dismayed Answer: (3) 21. SPECIOUS: His arguments and specious comparisons are bogus and not worth seriously entertaining, in my humble opinion. (1) inaccurate (2) genuine (3) baseless (4) unfounded



Answer: (2) 22. A. Their chests were puffed out like those of pouter penguins and they had battle-ready vigour. B. After about ten minutes the designated soldiers on each side lowered their flags and the sunset showdown was over for the day. C. Soldiers on each side marched up to their opposite numbers D. As the bugles sounded loud and clear, the ceremony began. E. The crowd on both sides erupted into a frenzy of shouting cheering their own country. (1) ACDEB (2) DCAEB (3) DECAB (4) ECADB Answer: (2) DCAEB 23. A. A tactile though indirect connection bound the giver with the receiver. B. On the heels of the bread servers came others carrying steel buckets. C. Instead of using spoons or ladles, the servers simply took out handfuls of the pilaf from their bucket and deposited it on our plates. D. They ladled out large portions of ‘kali dal’ – legumes that had not been husked. E. After that, came the rice that was a pilaf-like concoction glistening with ghee. (1) ECABD (2) BADEC (3) ABECD (4) BDECA Answer: (4) BDECA 24. A. Many an accident has taken place on this route. B. Today again, driving enthusiasts wait with bated breath for the Rohtang La to open to take a jaunt to Leh. C. And yet the beauty of the place and the thrill of adventure beckon many a tourist every year. D. The landscape remains as beguiling and awe-inspiring as ever. E. Even 10 years ago, this epic Himalayan journey was a risky endeavor. (1) AEDCB (2) BDEAC (3) EACDB (4) DAECB Answer: (2) BDEAC 25. A. He chewed it and noted its quality and its good taste. B. There was no stringiness in it and he knew that it would bring the highest price in the market. C. But there was no way to keep it from going bad. D. It was firm and juicy, like meat, but it was not red. E. He leaned over the side and pulled loose a piece of the meat of the fish. (1) EDBAC (2) BEDCA (3) EADBC (4) CEDAB Answer: (3) Q.26-30: Reading Comprehension The strength of the pharmaceutical industry is evident in the existence of 5,877 manufacturing units in India producing 20,000 formulations under 8,000 branded names. This rosy picture of the pharmaceutical industry however is reflected neither in availability of drugs for important public health problems nor in the affordability of drugs for domestic users. The innumerable formulations



produced, packaged and sold by pharmaceutical companies do not reflect the seriousness of important public health requirements in India. Take for example, formulations to treat iron deficiency anemia, a highly prevalent public health problem affecting the majority of adolescent girls and pregnant women. If we examine the iron preparations that are in the 300 top selling drugs in India, none of them is the simple iron sulphate and folic acid tablet that the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) recommends. In addition, a course of drugs to treat this ailment could cost a wage laborer up to two months wages. There are over 20,000 drug formulations in India. Their prices are poorly regulated, if at all. There is wide variation between the minimum and maximum cost of drugs for a range of medicinal classes. Among commonly used drugs in clinical practice, such as antibiotics, anti-hypertensives and diabetic drugs, prices often vary from 2 to 20 times between the minimum and maximum price bands. Drugs for conditions like cancer, rheumatological diseases and erectile dysfunction have a 20-fold price variation across brands. The pharmaceutical sector is the only one in India (and probably in the world) where government tender procurement prices are 1 to 3 per cent of the retail market prices! This if anything indicates the level of overpricing at the retail level. An example: a drug company bids to supply albendazole 400 mg tablets, a medicine for worms, to the Tamil Nadu government at a mere 35 paise per tablet, while brands of this drug sell for Rs.16 in the open market. Thus, while the markets have been profitable for the pharmaceutical industry, they have been disastrous for the end-users who are hit both by the disease and the unaffordable medications that they are made to buy. We may infer therefore that the cost of branded medications (or branded generics) is several times the cost of the unbranded generics of the same drug. For drug companies, the only criterion seems to be – both logically and internationally – to sell at what the market can take, and this means at the perceived (not the same as real, scientific) value of the drug. Further in India, the same drug is sold at vastly different prices by equally reputed companies and often by the same company. 26. According to the author what does the availability of drugs with over 20,000 formulations indicate in the present scenario? (1) Strength of the pharmaceutical industry (2) Poor regulation leading to profits for the pharmaceutical industry (3) The importance given to public health requirements in India (4) The importance of the 8000 branded names that produce these formulations. Answer: (3) 27. In the overall context of the passage, what does the example of iron deficiency illustrate? (1) Anemia is a widely prevalent public health problem that affects adolescent girls and pregnant women. (2) There are 300 top selling drugs in India to treat iron deficiency. (3) None of the available drugs has the simple formulation recommended by the National List of Essential Medicines. (4) Treatment of iron deficiency becomes a financial burden for the poor. Answer: (3) 28. What is the clearest indicator of overpricing of drugs? (1) Wide variation between minimum and maximum price for the same class of medicines. (2) Drug companies sell at a lower price to the Tamil Nadu government. (3) Branded drug costs much more than the generic drug.



(4) Treatment of an ailment would cost a laborer up to two months wage. Answer: (3) 29. What is the main argument extended by the author in the passage given above? (1) The 20000 and above formulations of drugs produced do not meet public health requirements in India. (2) Generic drugs are available at lower costs and the government should procure them for the poor (3) Markets have profited the pharmaceutical industry (4) The expansion of the pharmaceutical industry has been at the cost of public health requirements. Answer: (3) 30. How may we understand the author’s use of the phrase “perceived value of the drug”? (1) As the ability of people to purchase drugs across a price band (2) As the importance given to a particular brand of drugs (3) As the willingness of people to pay due to their belief in the drug’s healing powers (4) As the notion that the drug will effectively cure health problems. Answer: (3) Q.31-35 Reading Comprehension Social psychology is as old as homosapiens on this earth. Throughout the recorded history, social nature of man has intrigued scholars, artists, and social reformers. Their work has significant bearing on understanding how people relate with others and conduct their social life. Scriptures, artifacts, music, poetry, all have contributed to this endeavour. What has intrigued scholars is the evidence of both, universality and uniqueness of social behaviour in different cultures. People have lived together in all cultures as family, community and nation, though they may not have learned to live together in peace. Human nature has essentially remained the same ever since. It seems that many of the questions which ancient social psychology raised are the same which contemporary social psychology is striving to answer. However, rapid social, economic, and political changes sweeping across the oceans and continents have thrown up many new questions for social psychologists. Many new theories and methods are being developed to unravel general principles of social interaction. It is therefore, not surprising that the quests and concerns in discourses of Plato and Aristotle were similar to those of the ancient Indian thinkers, like Manu, Gautam, Yagyavalkya and Kautilya. They were all concerned with the sustenance of social institutions to uphold the social code of conduct, while preserving human freedom. It was always considered important that people get socialized to conform to social authority and internalize family values and traditions. At the same time all societies have experimented with various systems to strike a match between social norms and individual aspirations. Social conflicts, violence, exploitations throughout the ages had kept social thinkers busy to examine geneses and expound solutions. Social psychology has evolved as a discipline to grapple with the issues of understanding social interactional process. The endeavour is to find ways to maintain ideal social conditions in which people can live together in peace and harmony. However, apart from this common quest to understand and transform human behaviour, there are differences in the world-views; the ways in which the social reality is analyzed, explained and rendered meaningful in western and non-western cultures, like India. The difference is not just in



terms of the methods of inquiry but more basic in terms of ontological reality of human existence. The comparison is further complicated by the fact that whereas Indian sages concentrated on the 'ideal' state, the Western scholars focused on observed reality of the interaction between man and society. The purpose of juxtaposing world-views of these different societies here is to examine the progress of western social psychology and its implications for understanding social issues and problems we are facing in India. A critical appraisal would enable us to view the knowledge base of social psychology with particular reference to Indian work. 31. Scholars of social psychology have been fascinated by (1) individualistic cultures (2) the static nature of human psychology (3) universality and uniqueness of social behavior (4) new challenges in the 21st century Answer: (3) 32. Why is it that many of the questions which ancient social psychology raised (seem to be) the same which contemporary social psychology is striving to answer? (1) Researchers have not found answers to previous questions (2) Human nature has essentially remained the same ever since (3) Social psychology is as old as homosapiens on this earth (4) People have lived together in all cultures Answer: (2) 33. Who was concerned with the sustenance of social institutions? (1) Plato and Aristotle (2) Manu, Gautam, Yagyavalkya (3) Aristotle and Kautilya (4) All of the above Answer: (4) 34. What is the role of ‘family values and traditions’ in social psychology? (1) they oppose social authority (2) their adoption is crucial to maintaining social norms (3) they reduce social conflicts, violence, exploitations (4) they explain the social interactional process Answer: (2) 35. Why do the authors intend to critically analyse western research in social psychology? (1) to unravel general principles of social interaction (2) to examine the progress of western social psychology (3) to understand the social issues and problems in India (4) to view the knowledge base of social psychology with particular reference to Indian work. Answer: (4)


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