Tests
Transcript of Tests
Quiz #1 - Chapter 1Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded 20
Points Missed 0
Percentage 100%
1. Until the 1980s, project management primarily focused on providing schedule and resource data to top management in the military, computer, and construction industries.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
2. One attribute that helps define a project is that a project has a unique purpose.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
3. The winners know that strong project managers—referred to as project leaders—are crucial to project success.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
4. Program managers are not responsible for coordinating the efforts of project teams, functional groups, suppliers, and operations staff.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
5. Project managers must be able to make effective use of technology as it relates to the specific project.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
6. Project managers often take on the role of both leader and manager.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
7. A 2001 report showed that the U.S. spends the equivalent of ____ of the nation’s gross
domestic product on projects every year.
A. 1/10
B. 1/5
C. 1/4
D. 1/2
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
8. In the example of the project of building a house, the sponsors would be the potential ____.
A. contractors
B. support staff
C. managers
D. new homeowners
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
9. Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
A. risk
B. procurement
C. communications
D. resource
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
10. ____ project management software integrates information from multiple projects to show the status of active, approved, and future projects across an entire organization.
A. Investment
B. Active
C. Enterprise
D. Budget
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
11. A(n) ____ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people to reach those goals.
A. assistant
B. CEO
C. leader
D. manager
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
12. A(n) ____ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific goals.
A. manager
B. leader
C. programmer
D. analyst
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
13. In ____, Henry Gantt developed the famous Gantt chart as a tool for scheduling work in factories.
A. 1897
B. 1917
C. 1927
D. 1957
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
14. A Gantt chart displays a project’s start and finish dates in a ____ format.
A. pie chart
B. line graph
C. bar graph
D. calendar
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
15. By the ____, the military had begun to use software to help manage large projects.
A. 1960s
B. 1970s
C. 1980s
D. 1990s
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
16. ____ was an early project management software product that helped managers analyze complex schedules for designing aircraft.
A. Artemis
B. Columbia
C. Vega
D. Oberlin
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
17. A PMO, or Project ____ Office, is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization.
A. Management
B. Money
C. Municipal
D. Marketing
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
18. PMI provides certification as a Project Management ____ (PMP), someone who has documented sufficient project experience and education, agreed to follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated knowledge of the field of project management by passing a comprehensive examination.
A. Producer
B. Practitioner
C. Professional
D. Professor
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
19. The Project Management ____, a Web site for people involved in project management, provides an alphabetical directory of more than 300 project management software solutions.
A. Center
B. Alliance
C. Consortium
D. Facility
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
20. ____ tools are often recommended for small projects and single users.
A. Low-end
B. Midrange
C. High-end
D. Expensive
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
Quiz #2 - Chapter 2Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded 19
Points Missed 1
Percentage 95%
1. Many of the theories and concepts of project management are difficult to understand.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
2. If project managers lead projects in isolation, it is unlikely that those projects will ever truly serve the needs of the organization.
A. True
B. False
Continue
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
3. Using a systems approach is critical to successful project management.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
4. Although it is easier to focus on the immediate concerns of a particular project, project managers and other staff must keep in mind the effects of any project on the interests and needs of the entire system or organization.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
5. An organization that uses a project organizational structure earns their revenue primarily from performing projects for other groups under contract.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
6. Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from various functional areas working on their projects.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
7. The best way to kill a project is to withhold the required money, human resources, and visibility for the project.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
8. It is rare for technical specialists or project managers to remain with the same company for a long time.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
9. Because of the nature of information technology projects, the people involved come from very similar backgrounds and possess similar skill sets.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
10. ____ describes a holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization.
A. Systems philosophy
B. Systems thinking
C. Systems analysis
D. Systems approach
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: D
11. The ____ focuses on different groups’ roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management.
A. structural frame
B. human resources frame
C. political frame
D. symbolic frame
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
12. The ____ focuses on producing harmony between the needs of the organization and the
needs of the people.
A. structural frame
B. human resources frame
C. political frame
D. symbolic frame
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
13. A ____ is the hierarchy most people think of when picturing an organizational chart.
A. project organizational structure
B. system organizational structure
C. matrix organizational structure
D. functional organizational structure
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
14. ____ is a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization.
A. Organizational politics
B. Organizational philosophy
C. Organizational culture
D. Organizational structure
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
15. ____ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment.
A. Means-ends orientation
B. Open-systems focus
C. Conflict tolerance
D. Risk tolerance
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
16. Many companies have realized that information technology is integral to their business and have created a vice president or equivalent-level position for the head of information technology, often called the ____.
A. CPO
B. CFO
C. CEO
D. CIO
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
17. A preliminary or rough cost estimate is developed in the ____ phase, and an overview of the work involved is created.
A. implementation
B. development
C. concept
D. close-out
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
18. In the ____ phase, the project team creates more detailed project plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS.
A. development
B. implementation
C. concept
D. close-out
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
19. The ____ model assumes that requirements will remain stable after they are defined.
A. spiral life cycle
B. waterfall life cycle
C. prototyping life cycle
D. RAD life cycle
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
20. Most trade schools, colleges, and universities did not start offering degrees in computer technology, computer science, management information systems, or other information technology areas until the ____.
A. 1950s
B. 1970s
C. 1980s
D. 1990s
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
Quiz #3 - Chapter 3Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded 15
Points Missed 5
Percentage 75%
1. Initiating processes are not required to end a project.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Continue
Your Response: B
2. The executing process group generally requires the most resources.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
3. You cannot tailor RUP to include the PMBOK process groups.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
4. The primary use of JWD’s current intranet is for human resource information.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: B
5. A milestone list is an output list associated with the Project Scope Management knowledge area.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
6. According to JWD’s scope statement, one hour per week will be allocated for system maintenance and other periodic maintenance, as appropriate.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: B
7. Human resource issues often occur during project execution, especially conflicts.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
8. ____ include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization’s needs.
A. Initiating processes
B. Planning processes
C. Executing processes
D. Monitoring and controlling processes
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
9. A common ____ is performance reporting, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track.
A. executing process
B. closing process
C. monitoring and controlling process
D. planning process
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
10. Usually, the project manager and key team members are selected during the ____ process group.
A. initiating
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
11. The project scope management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of scope verification and scope control.
A. initiating
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: B
12. The project procurement management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of requesting seller responses and selecting sellers.
A. initiating
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
13. The PMBOKGuide 2004 includes ____ items as outputs of the initiating process group.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: D
14. JWD Consulting’s core business goal is first presented in the ____ section of the business case.
A. Business Objective
B. Introduction/Background
C. Critical Assumption and Constraints
D. Current Situation and Problem/Opportunity Statement
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
15. The first step in JWD’s approach, listed in its project charter, is to ____.
A. develop a survey to determine critical features of the new intranet site and solicit input from consultants and customers
B. review internal and external templates and examples of project management documents
C. research software to provide security, manage user inputs, and facilitate the article retrieval and “Ask the Expert” features
D. develop the intranet site using an iterative approach, soliciting a great deal of user feedback
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
16. JWD decided to focus on the ____ during project planning.
A. work breakdown structure
B. project organization charts
C. staffing management plan
D. communications management plan
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
17. JWD’s team contract contains the following point: “Work together to create the project schedule and enter actuals into our enterprise-wide project management system by 4 p.m. every Friday.” This appears in the ____ section of the team contract.
A. Participation
B. Communication
C. Problem Solving
D. Meeting Guidelines
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
18. JWD’s scope statement lists ____ project deliverables.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: B
19. The majority of the costs for JWD’s project were ____.
A. internal labor
B. contracting
C. software
D. hardware
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
20. ____ is a closing process.
A. Develop project team
B. Contract closure
C. Risk response planning
D. Integrated change control
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
Quiz #4 - Chapter 4Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded 18
Points Missed 2
Percentage 90%
1. Many people consider project integration management the key to overall project success.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
2. Strategic planning involves determining long-term objectives by analyzing the strengths and weaknesses of an organization, studying opportunities and threats in the business environment, predicting future trends, and projecting the need for new products and services.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
3. Information systems can help an organization support a strategy of being a low-cost producer.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
4. Net present value and cash flow mean the same thing.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
5. The first step in creating a weighted scoring model is to assign a weight to each criterion.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
6. There are ____ main processes involved in project integration management.
A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 15
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
7. ____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project.
A. Developing the project charter
B. Developing the preliminary project scope statement
C. Developing the project management plan
D. Directing and managing project execution
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: B
8. Many people are familiar with “SWOT” analysis—analyzing Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats—that is used to aid in ____.
A. project initiation
B. project planning
C. strategic planning
D. strategic initiation
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
9. Author ____, who developed the concept of the strategic value of competitive advantage, has written several books and articles on strategic planning and competition.
A. James Bacon
B. Michael Porter
C. Robert Cooper
D. Carol Matlack
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
10. ____ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time.
A. Cost of capital
B. Net present value
C. Cash flow
D. Payback
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
11. In the mathematical formula for determining the NPV, the variable n is ____.
A. the year of the cash flow
B. the last year of the cash flow
C. the amount of cash flow each year
D. the discount rate
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
12. The ____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment.
A. return on investment
B. internal rate of return
C. external rate of return
D. required rate of return
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: A
13. A(n) ____ is a methodology that converts an organization’s value drivers, such as customer service, innovation, operational efficiency, and financial performance, to a series of defined metrics.
A. payback analysis
B. balanced scorecard
C. weighted scoring model
D. net present value analysis
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
14. A(n) ____ is a document used to develop and confirm a common understanding of the project scope.
A. business case
B. statement of work
C. scope statement
D. contract
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
15. A(n) ____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project’s execution and control.
A. project management plan
B. statement of work
C. scope statement
D. contact
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
16. The ____ section of the project management plan describes how to monitor project progress and handle changes.
A. management objectives
B. project controls
C. risk management
D. technical processes
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
17. The ____ section of the project management plan describes specific methodologies a project might use and explains how to document information.
A. management objectives
B. project controls
C. risk management
D. technical processes
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
18. The ____ section of the project management plan might include a Gantt chart.
A. introduction
B. management and technical approaches
C. project schedule information
D. budget
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
19. On large projects, many project managers say that ____ percent of the job is communicating and managing changes.
A. 50
B. 70
C. 90
D. 100
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
20. ____ should define the approval process for all project deliverables.
A. Administrative closure procedures
B. Contract closure procedures
C. Final products, services, or results
D. Organizational process asset updates
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
Quiz #5 - Chapter 5Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded 20
Points Missed 0
Percentage 100%
1. Project scope management includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what is or is not included in a project.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
2. The project’s size, complexity, importance, and other factors will not affect how much effort is spent on scope planning.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
3. Information from the project charter provides a basis for making scope management decisions.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
4. The project scope statement should provide basic scope information, and the preliminary project scope statement should continue to clarify and provide information that is more specific.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
5. A WBS is often depicted as a task-oriented pie chart.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
6. You can only enter duration estimates for work packages.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
7. If you want some time-based flow for the work, you can create a WBS using the project management process groups of initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing as level 1 in the WBS.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
8. Lack of user input leads to problems with managing scope creep and controlling change.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
9. The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project.
A. end-product
B. scope
C. deliverable
D. outcome
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
10. There are ____ main processes involved in project scope management.
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
11. ____ involves reviewing the project charter and preliminary scope statement created during the initiation process and adding more information during the planning process as requirements are developed and change requests are approved.
A. Scope planning
B. Scope definition
C. Scope control
D. Scope verification
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
12. ____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project scope. Key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables of the project during this process.
A. Scope planning
B. Scope definition
C. Scope control
D. Scope verification
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
13. Good ____ is very important to project success because it helps improve the accuracy of time, cost, and resource estimates, it defines a baseline for performance measurement and project control, and it aides in communicating clear work responsibilities.
A. scope planning
B. scope management
C. scope definition
D. scope verification
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
14. Of the following, it is much more difficult to describe, agree upon, and meet the ____ goal of many projects.
A. scope
B. time
C. cost
D. technical
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
15. The ____ level of a WBS represents the entire project and is the top level.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
16. Generally, each work package in a WBS should represent roughly ____ hours of effort.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
17. In the ____, you use a similar project’s WBS as a starting point.
A. top-down approach
B. bottom-up approach
C. mind-mapping approach
D. analogy approach
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
18. The ____ approach involves refining the work into greater and greater levels of detail.
A. analogy
B. bottom-up
C. top-down
D. mind mapping
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
19. The ____ approach is best suited to project managers who have vast technical insight and a big-picture perspective.
A. analogy
B. bottom-up
C. top-down
D. mind mapping
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
20. After discovering WBS items and structure using the ____ approach, you could then translate the information into chart or tabular form.
A. analogy
B. bottom-up
C. top-down
D. mind mapping
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
Quiz #6 - Chapter 6Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded 19
Points Missed 1
Percentage 95%
1. Managers often cite cost issues during the end phase of a project as one of their biggest challenges and the main cause of conflict.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
2. It only takes one activity to complete a milestone.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
3. Network diagrams are the preferred technique for showing activity discretionary
dependencies.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
4. It is important that the people who help determine what resources are necessary include people who have experience and expertise in similar projects and with the organization performing the project.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
5. Duration only includes the actual amount of time worked on an activity.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
6. A Tracking Gantt chart is based on the percentage of work completed for project tasks or the actual start and finish dates.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: B
7. The critical path always includes the most critical activities.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
8. One of PERT’s main disadvantages is that it involves more work than CPM.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
9. Project management software does not have the capacity to automatically generate network diagrams and calculate the critical path(s) for the project.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
10. ____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project.
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. External
D. Internal
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
11. ____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node.
A. Combinations
B. Conflicts
C. Merges
D. Bursts
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
12. In a(n) ____ relationship, the “from” activity must finish before the “to” activity can start.
A. start-to-start
B. finish-to-start
C. finish-to-finish
D. start-to-finish
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
13. In a(n) ____ relationship, the “from” activity cannot start until the “to” activity is started.
A. start-to-start
B. finish-to-start
C. finish-to-finish
D. start-to-finish
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
14. The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project.
A. activity definition
B. activity sequencing
C. schedule development
D. activity duration estimating
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
15. The critical path is the ____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the ____ time it takes to complete a project.
A. longest; longest
B. longest; shortest
C. shortest; longest
D. shortest; shortest
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
16. ____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date.
A. Total slack
B. Free float
C. Total time
D. Free slack
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
17. The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date.
A. early finish date
B. late finish date
C. late start date
D. early start date
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
18. ____ uses probabilistic time estimates—duration estimates based on using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of activity durations—instead of one specific or discrete duration estimate.
A. Critical Path Analysis
B. Gantt Charting
C. Critical Chain Scheduling
D. PERT
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
19. The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur.
A. activity duration estimating
B. schedule development
C. schedule control
D. activity resource estimating
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
20. Project management software highlights the critical path in ____ on a network diagram.
A. blue
B. yellow
C. green
D. red
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
Quiz #7 - Chapter 7Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded 20
Points Missed 0
Percentage 100%
1. Preparing cost estimates is a job for accountants.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
2. Any new technology or business process is untested and has inherent risks.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
3. Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
4. Learning curve theory does not apply to the amount of time it takes to complete some tasks.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
5. ROM estimates can be referred to as a ballpark estimate, a guesstimate, a swag, or a broad gauge.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
6. The cost management plan is part of the overall project management plan.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
7. The WBS is not a required input to the cost budgeting process.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
8. If the cost performance index is less than one or less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
9. Databases are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
10. The Standish Group’s CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2002.
A. 28
B. 43
C. 58
D. 73
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
11. Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent.
A. 13–14
B. 23–24
C. 33–34
D. 43–44
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
12. ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance.
A. Cost budgeting
B. Cost consolidation
C. Cost control
D. Cost estimating
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
13. ____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars.
A. Intangible costs
B. Direct costs
C. Tangible costs
D. Indirect costs
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
14. Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them.
A. sunk costs
B. indirect costs
C. direct costs
D. intangible costs
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
15. ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for.
A. Contingency reserves
B. Management reserves
C. Unknown unknowns
D. Direct reserves
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
16. ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
A. Contingency reserves
B. Management reserves
C. Known unknowns
D. Indirect reserves
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
17. A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost.
A. budgetary estimate
B. definitive estimate
C. rough order of magnitude estimate
D. final estimate
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
18. A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started.
A. budgetary estimate
B. definitive estimate
C. rough order of magnitude estimate
D. final estimate
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
19. The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity.
A. AC
B. EV
C. RP
D. PV
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
20. The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
A. AC
B. EV
C. RP
D. PV
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
Quiz #8 - Chapter 8Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded 19
Points Missed 1
Percentage 95%
1. When an information system does not function correctly, it is generally a slight inconvenience.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
2. Organizational policies related to quality, the particular project’s scope statement and product descriptions, and related standards and regulations are all important input to the quality assurance process.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: A
3. Continuous quality improvement is not a goal of quality assurance.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
4. In a Pareto chart, the variables described by the histogram are ordered chronologically.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
5. The term sigma means median.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
6. Testing needs to be done during almost every phase of the systems development life cycle.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
7. Many quality experts believe that lack of leadership is the main cause of quality problems.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
8. It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
9. The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, a quality baseline, and updates to the project management plan.
A. quality control
B. quality planning
C. quality assurance
D. quality certification
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
10. ____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.
A. Quality assurance
B. Quality control
C. Quality checking
D. Quality planning
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
11. The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.
A. quality planning
B. quality certification
C. quality assurance
D. quality control
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
12. ____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function.
A. Reliability
B. Performance
C. Maintainability
D. Functionality
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
13. ____ are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users.
A. Features
B. System outputs
C. Properties
D. Functions
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
14. ____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
A. Design of experiments
B. Quality auditing
C. Testing
D. Benchmarking
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
15. ____ is(are) action(s) taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations.
A. Process adjustments
B. Rework
C. Acceptance decisions
D. Auditing
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
16. A(n) ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
A. statistical sampling chart
B. Pareto chart
C. Six Sigma chart
D. control chart
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
17. The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for nonrandom problems.
A. ten run rule
B. six 9s of quality rule
C. seven run rule
D. Six Sigma rule
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
18. ____ is a comprehensive and flexible systemfor achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success.
A. Statistical sampling
B. Pareto analysis
C. Six Sigma
D. Quality control charting
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
19. ____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system.
A. Integration testing
B. Unit testing
C. User acceptance testing
D. System testing
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
20. ____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects.
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Deming
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
Quiz #9 - Chapter 9Submitted by kato328 on 7/14/2009 11:13:29 PM
Points Awarded 19
Points Missed 1
Percentage 95%
1. Most project managers agree that managing human resources effectively is one of the toughest challenges they face.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
2. Hiring managers say interpersonal skills are the least important soft skill for information technology workers.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
3. As the job market changes, people should upgrade their skills to remain marketable and flexible.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
4. Team-building skills are often not a challenge for many project managers.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
5. Project managers often do not have control over project staff who report to them.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
6. When resources are used on a more constant basis, they require more management.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: A
7. The first dimension of psychological type in the MBTI signifies whether people draw their
energy from other people (extroverts) or from inside themselves (introverts).
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
8. ____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project.
A. Human resource planning
B. Developing the project team
C. Acquiring the project team
D. Managing the project team
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
9. ____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs.
A. Frederick Herzberg
B. David McClelland
C. Abraham Maslow
D. Douglas McGregor
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
10. The highest level of needs in Maslow’s structure is referred to as a ____ need.
A. deficiency
B. growth
C. safety
D. physiological
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
11. ____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition.
A. Maslow
B. McGregor
C. McClelland
D. Herzberg
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
12. People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile.
A. affiliation
B. money
C. power
D. achievement
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
13. People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others.
A. affiliation
B. money
C. power
D. achievement
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
14. ____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y.
A. Frederick Herzberg
B. David McClelland
C. Abraham Maslow
D. Douglas McGregor
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
15. According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders.
A. authority
B. assignment
C. expertise
D. promotion
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
16. Which of Covey’s habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers?
A. Think win/win
B. Seek first to understand, then to be understood
C. Begin with the end in mind
D. Synergize
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
17. ____ is the matching of certain behaviors of the other person.
A. Empathic listening
B. Rapport
C. Synergy
D. Mirroring
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
18. A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time.
A. responsibility assignment matrix
B. resource histogram
C. RACI charts
D. organizational breakdown structure
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
19. In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process.
A. performing
B. norming
C. forming
D. storming
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
20. Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented.
A. “Expressives”
B. “Drivers”
C. “Analyticals”
D. “Amiables”
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
Quiz #10 - Chapter 10Submitted by kato328 on 7/16/2009 4:51:28 PM
Points Awarded 18
Points Missed 2
Percentage 90%
1. Instead of knowing the people working on their projects and developing a trusting relationship with them, many colleagues and managers should want to focus on getting information by reading technical documents.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
2. It is not important to document any changes in technical specifications that might affect product performance.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
3. Adding more people to a project that is falling behind schedule often causes more setbacks because of the increased complexity of communications.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
4. You can assume that a task originally scheduled to take two months of one person’s time can be done in one month by two people.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
5. Communicating badly exponentially increases the possibility of making fatal mistakes.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
6. Project managers cannot tailor the format of issue logs.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
7. When using the confrontation mode, project managers directly face a conflict using a problem-solving approach that allows affected parties to work through their disagreements.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
8. ____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.
A. Performance reporting
B. Information distribution
C. Managing stakeholders
D. Communications planning
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: D
9. The project’s ____ is a starting point for identifying internal stakeholders.
A. WBS
B. organizational chart
C. business case
D. communications management plan
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
10. Often, many non-technical professionals—from colleagues to managers—prefer to ____ about project information to try to find pertinent information.
A. read detailed reports
B. read e-mails
C. read Web pages
D. have a two-way conversation
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
11. Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings.
A. long, frequent
B. short, infrequent
C. short, frequent
D. long, infrequent
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
12. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is “excellent” for encouraging creative thinking.
A. phone call
B. e-mail
C. meeting
D. Web Site
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response:
13. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the most appropriate method for addressing many people.
A. phone call
B. e-mail
C. meeting
D. Web Site
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
14. Two people have ____ communications channel(s).
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
15. Four people have ____ communications channel(s).
A. 1
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
16. ____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends.
A. Progress reports
B. Status reports
C. Forecasts
D. Updates
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
17. The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode.
A. confrontation
B. compromise
C. smoothing
D. forcing
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
18. With the ____, project managers use a give-and- take approach to resolving conflicts.
A. confrontation mode
B. compromise mode
C. smoothing mode
D. forcing mode
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
19. “Many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible.” Which guideline to help improve time spent at meetings does this statement relate to?
A. Determine if a meeting can be avoided
B. Determine who should attend the meeting
C. Define the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting
D. Run the meeting professionally
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
20. The ____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail.
A. to
B. from
C. subject
D. cc
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
Quiz #11 - Chapter 11Submitted by kato328 on 7/21/2009 3:19:26 PM
Points Awarded 19
Points Missed 1
Percentage 95%
1. Risk management is a frequently overlooked aspect of project management.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
2. Good project risk management never goes unnoticed.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
3. By reviewing the project scope statement, project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets, project teams can discuss and analyze risk management activities for their particular projects.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
4. The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address this knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
5. A simple approach to using probability/impact information is to calculate risk factors.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
6. Increasing the project manager’s authority is a strategy for mitigating technical and cost risks.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
7. William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak’s study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of risk management.
A. Engineering/Construction
B. Telecommunications
C. Information Systems
D. Hi-tech Manufacturing
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
8. William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak’s study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of quality management.
A. Engineering/Construction
B. Telecommunications
C. Information Systems
D. Hi-tech Manufacturing
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: D
9. KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the organizations surveyed had a Project Management Office.
A. 64
B. 75
C. 85
D. 94
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
10. Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a(n) ____ person.
A. risk-seeking
B. risk-averse
C. risk-neutral
D. risk-indifferent
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
11. ____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project.
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Risk response planning
C. Risk monitoring and control
D. Qualitative risk analysis
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
12. ____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs.
A. Fallback plans
B. Contingency reserves
C. Contingency plans
D. Contingency allowances
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
13. ____ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective.
A. Fallback plans
B. Contingency reserves
C. Contingency plans
D. Contingency allowances
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
14. According to the Standish Group’s success potential scoring sheet, ____ has the highest relative importance.
A. executive management support
B. clear statement of requirements
C. proper planning
D. user involvement
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
15. “Will the project meet NPV, ROI, and payback estimates?” Which risk category does this question apply to?
A. Financial risk
B. Technology risk
C. Structure/process risk
D. Market risk
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
16. In a risk breakdown structure, competitors, suppliers, and cash flow fall under the ____ risk category.
A. business
B. technical
C. organizational
D. project management
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
17. Unenforceable conditions, unenforceable contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with which project management knowledge area?
A. Integration
B. Quality
C. Procurement
D. Human Resources
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
18. ____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions.
A. Brainstorming
B. SWOT analysis
C. The Delphi Technique
D. Interviewing
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
19. A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
A. decision tree
B. EMV
C. Monte Carlo analysis
D. watch list
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
20. ____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes.
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk acceptance
C. Risk transference
D. Risk mitigation
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
Quiz #12 - Chapter 12Submitted by kato328 on 7/22/2009 3:25:23 PM
Points Awarded 19
Points Missed 1
Percentage 95%
1. The cost savings and use of offshore resources lower inflation, increase productivity, and lower interest rates.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
2. When an organization outsources work, it often does not have as much control over those aspects of projects that suppliers carry out.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
3. Outputs to the selecting sellers process include contract documentation.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
4. If there is no need to buy any products or services from outside the organization, then there is no need to perform any of the other procurement management processes.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
5. Experts outside the company, including potential suppliers themselves, cannot provide
expert judgment.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
6. Some termination clauses state that the buyer can terminate a contract for any reason and give the supplier only 24 hours’ notice.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
7. Contents of the procurement management plan will vary with project needs.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
8. It is important to use appropriate words in a contract SOW such as may instead of must.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
9. The main sections of an RFP never include the statement of work and schedule information.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
10. It is customary to have contract negotiations during the source selection process.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
11. The term “e-procurement” often describes various procurement functions that are now done electronically.
A. True
B. False
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
12. An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)–sponsored
report stated that total savings from offshore resources during the 2005-2010 period are estimated to grow from $8.7 billion to ____.
A. $10.2 billion
B. $20.4 billion
C. $50.4 billion
D. $107.9 billion
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
13. “Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources.” Which benefit of outsourcing does this statement refer to?
A. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs
B. Provide flexibility
C. Access skills and technologies
D. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
14. There are ____ main processes of project procurement management.
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
15. ____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how.
A. Planning contracting
B. Selecting sellers
C. Requesting seller responses
D. Planning purchases and acquisitions
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: D
16. ____ involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs.
A. CPFF contracts
B. Lump sum contracts
C. Cost-reimbursable contracts
D. Time and material contracts
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
17. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus.
A. CPFF
B. CPIF
C. CPPC
D. CPPF
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: B
Your Response: B
18. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
A. CPFF
B. CPIF
C. CPPC
D. CPPF
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: A
Your Response: A
19. From the supplier’s perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract and the most risk with the ____ contract.
A. CPFF, FPI
B. FFP, CPPC
C. CPPC, FFP
D. CPFF, FFP
Points Earned: 1/1
Correct Answer: C
Your Response: C
20. The procurement management plan, contract statement of work, make-or-buy decisions,
and project management plan are all important inputs for the ____ process.
A. planning contracting
B. selecting sellers
C. requesting seller responses
D. planning purchases and acquisitions
Points Earned: 0/1
Correct Answer: D
Your Response: A