TestInside 640-801 V11

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TestInside 640-801 Cisco 640-801 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Q&A 2007-6-2 Version 11 English: www.TestInside.com BIG5: www.Testinside.net GB: www.Testinside.cn TestInside,help you pass any IT exam! Copyright TestInside reserves the right to take legal action against you according to the International Copyright Laws if the pdf file is being distributed by you.

Transcript of TestInside 640-801 V11

Page 1: TestInside 640-801 V11

TestInside 640-801

Cisco 640-801

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Q&A 2007-6-2 Version 11

English: www.TestInside.com

BIG5: www.Testinside.net

GB: www.Testinside.cn

TestInside,help you pass any IT exam!

Copyright

TestInside reserves the right to take legal action against you according to the International Copyright

Laws if the pdf file is being distributed by you.

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1. Which connections allow the use of full-duplex Ethernet?(Choose three.)

A. switch to host

B. switch to switch

C. hub to hub

D. switch to hub

E. host to host

Answer: ABE

2. Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose 3.)

A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.

B. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.

C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.

D. Switches have a higher number of ports than most bridges.

E. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.

F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

Answer: BDF

3. Which of the following host addresses are members of networks that can be routed across the public Internet?

(Choose three.)

A. 10.172.13.65

B. 172.16.223.125

C. 172.64.12.29

D. 192.168.23.252

E. 198.234.12.95

F. 212.193.48.254

Answer: CEF

4. Which command is required for connectivity in a Frame Relay network if Inverse ARP is not operational?

A. frame-relay arp

B. frame-relay map

C. frame-relay interface-dlci

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D. frame-relay lmi-type

Answer: B

5. After the show ip route command has been entered, the following routes are displayed. Which route will not be

entered into the routing table of a neighboring router?

A. R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0

B. R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.9.1, 00:00:03, Serial1

C. C 192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0

D. R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0

Answer: D

6. What is a global command?

A. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status

B. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode

C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols

D. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions

E. a command that is set once and affects the entire router

Answer: E

7. All WAN links inside the ABC University network use PPP with CHAP for authentication security. Which

command will display the CHAP authentication process as it occurs between two routers in the network?

A. show CHAP authentication

B. show interface serial0

C. debug PPP authentication

D. debug CHAP authentication

E. show ppp authentication chap

Answer: C

8. It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit.

Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A. Remove the IP address from the physical interface.

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B. Encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP.

C. Create the virtual interfaces with the interface command.

D. Configure each subinterface with its own IP address.

E. Disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks.

F. Configure static Frame Relay map entries for each subinterface network.

Answer: ACD

9. The RIP network shown in the graphic has been fully operational for two days. Each routing table is complete.

Which networks will be included in the next routing update from the Apples router to the Pears router?

A. A,B,C,D,E,F

B. A,C

C. A,B,C,D

D. B,D

E. D,E,F

F. A,B,C

Answer: F

10. How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay network be configured to avoid split horizon issues

from preventing routing updates?

A. Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface.

B. Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a point-to-point line to support multicast and broadcast traffic.

C. Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet.

D. Configure a single sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces.

Answer: A

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11. A Cisco router that was providing Frame Relay connectivity at a remote site was replaced with a different

vendor's frame relay router. Connectivity is now down between the central and remote site. What is the most

likely cause of the problem?

A. mismatched LMI types

B. incorrect DLCI

C. mismatched encapsulation types

D. incorrect IP address mapping

Answer: C

12. Given the partial outputs displayed in the graphic, which switch device would be the spanning tree root bridge

for a network of only these four devices?

A. Tampa

B. Miami

C. London

D. Cairo

Answer: D

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13. The administrator is unable to establish connectivity between two Cisco routers. Upon reviewing the

command output of both routers, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Authentication needs to be changed to PAP for both routers.

B. Serial ip addresses of routers are not on the same subnet.

C. Username/password is incorrectly configured.

D. Router names are incorrectly configured.

Answer: C

14. Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.

B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.

C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.

D. There are four collision domains in the network.

E. There are five collision domains in the network.

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F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: AF

15. Which of the following are characteristics of a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface? (Choose two.)

A. requires use of Inverse ARP

B. resolves NBMA split horizon issues

C. requires the frame-relay map command

D. maps one IP subnet per DLCI

E. maps one IP subnet across multiple DLCIs

Answer: BD

16. Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the

frames received by Host A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0

B. the MAC address of router interface e1

C. the MAC address of the server network interface

D. the MAC address of host A

Answer: A

17. When variable length subnet masking is used, what does the term route aggregation describe?

A. calculating the total number of available host addresses in the AS

B. combining routes to multiple networks into one supernet

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C. reducing the number of unusable addresses by creating many subnets from one supernet

D. reclaiming unused address space by changing the subnet size

Answer: B

18. On three different occasions an administrator configured a router, and after testing the configuration saved it to

NVRAM by issuing the copy running-config startup-config command. After each successful save the

administrator issued the reload command. Each time when the router restarted, the router appeared to have the

default blank configuration. What could cause such results?

A. The boot system commands were left out of the configuration.

B. The NVRAM is corrupted.

C. The configuration register setting is incorrect.

D. The upgraded IOS just loaded is not compatible with the hardware.

E. The upgraded configuration is not compatible with the hardware platform.

Answer: C

19. Based on the network shown in the graphic which option contains both the potential networking problem and

the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

A. routing loops, hold down timers

B. switching loops, split horizon

C. routing loops, split horizon

D. switching loops, VTP

E. routing loops, STP

F. switching loops, STP

Answer: F

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20. If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of

hosts allowed on this subnet?

A. 1024

B. 2046

C. 4094

D. 4096

E. 8190

Answer: C

21. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different

ports?

A. static NAT

B. dynamic NAT

C. overloading

D. overlapping

E. port loading

Answer: C

22. Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24

to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# router ospf 0

B. Router(config)# router ospf 1

C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0

D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0

E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Answer: BE

23. A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks

attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in

the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?

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A. The process id is configured improperly.

B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.

C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

D. The network number is configured improperly.

E. The AS is configured improperly.

F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Answer: C

24. ABC Company is merging with several local businesses that use routers from multiple vendors. Which routing

protocol would work best to connect ABC Company with the enterprise networks it has acquired by providing

scalability and VLSM support while minimizing network overhead?

A. RIP v1

B. RIP v2

C. IGRP

D. OSPF

E. EIGRP

Answer: D

25. What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT?

A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses

B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet

C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network

D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network

Answer: D

26. Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

A. buffering

B. cut-through

C. windowing

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D. congestion avoidance

E. load balancing

Answer: ACD

27. Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of Switch 1

B. the MAC address of Switch 1

C. the IP address of Host C

D. the MAC address of Host C

E. the IP address of the router's E0 interface

F. the MAC address of the router's E0 interface

Answer: CF

28. In the implementation of VLSM techniques on a network using a single Class C IP address, which subnet

mask is the most efficient for point-to-point serial links?

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.255.240

C. 255.255.255.248

D. 255.255.255.252

E. 255.255.255.254

Answer: D

29. If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use

for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?

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A. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface

B. the IP address of the console management interface

C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces

D. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces

E. the priority value until a loopback interface is configured

Answer: C

30. To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what

two requirements must be met? (Choose two.)

A. Each end of the trunk line must be set to IEEE 802.1E encapsulation.

B. The VTP management domain name of both switches must be set the same.

C. All ports on both the switches must be set as access ports.

D. One of the two switches must be configured as a VTP server.

E. A rollover cable is required to connect the two switches together.

F. A router must be used to forward VTP traffic between VLANs.

Answer: BD

31. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. The administrator wants HFD

to see this static route as the most reliable route . Which command should the administrator use?

A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0

B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6

C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0

D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6

E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0

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F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0

Answer: C

32. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?

A. point-to-point

B. broadcast multi-access

C. nonbroadcast multi-access

D. nonbroadcast multipoint

E. broadcast point-to-multipoint

Answer: C

33. Which of the following commands will configure a default route to any destination network not found in the

routing table?

A. Router(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0

B. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0

C. Router(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0

D. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0

E. Router(config)# ip route any any e0

Answer: D

34. When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?

A. By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk.

B. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the switchport mode command.

C. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vtp domain command.

D. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vlan database command.

Answer: A

35. Network users are complaining that they cannot access resources on the LAN attached to interface e0 of the

Production router. Which of the following commands will display current IP addressing and the Layer 1 and Layer

2 status of this interface? (Choose three.)

A. Production# show version

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B. Production# show protocols

C. Production# show interfaces

D. Production# show controllers

E. Production# show ip interface

F. Production# show startup-config

Answer: BCE

36. A network administrator needs to configure a router for a Frame Relay connection to a non-Cisco router.

Which of the following commands will prepare the WAN interface for this connection?

A. Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay q933a

B. Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ansi

C. Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay ietf

D. Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay isl

Answer: C

37. Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic. The corporate router receives an

IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of 192.168.22.3. What will the

router do with this packet?

A. It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117.

B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0.

C. It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message out interface serial

0/0.102.

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D. It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.

Answer: B

38. Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP ports?

A. FTP

B. SMTP

C. Telnet

D. DNS

Answer: D

39. Which statement describes a spanning-tree network that has converged?

A. All switch and bridge ports are in the forwarding state.

B. All switch and bridge ports are assigned as either root or designated ports.

C. All switch and bridge ports are in either the forwarding or blocking state.

D. All switch and bridge ports are either blocking or looping.

Answer: C

40. Refer to the graphic. How many collision domains are shown?

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

E. six

F. fourteen

Answer: B

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41. What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

E. 130

F. 170

Answer: C

42. Which routing protocols can be used within the enterprise network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.)

A. RIP v1

B. RIP v2

C. IGRP

D. OSPF

E. BGP

F. EIGRP

Answer: BDF

43. Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)

A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.

B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.

C. Successor routes are flagged as "active" in the routing table.

D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

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Answer: AD

44. The company internetwork is subnetted using 29 bits. Which wildcard mask should be used to configure an

extended access list to permit or deny access to an entire subnetwork?

A. 255.255.255.224

B. 255.255.255.248

C. 0.0.0.224

D. 0.0.0.8

E. 0.0.0.7

F. 0.0.0.3

Answer: E

45. An internetwork has been configured as shown in the diagram, with both routers using EIGRP routing for AS

44. Users on the Branch router are unable to reach any of the subnets on the HQ router. Which of the following

commands is necessary to fix this problem?

A. Branch(config-router)# version 2

B. Branch(config-router)# no auto-summary

C. Branch(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 44

D. Branch(config-router)# eigrp log-neighbor-changes

E. Branch(config-router)# default-information originate

Answer: B

46. After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch

LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?

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A. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.

B. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.

C. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.

D. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.

E. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.

Answer: B

47. This graphic shows the results of an attempt to open a Telnet connection to router ACCESS1 from router

Remote27. Which of the following command sequences will correct this problem?

A. ACCESS1(config)# line console 0

ACCESS1(config-line)# password cisco

B. Remote27(config)# line console 0

Remote27(config-line)# login

Remote27(config-line)# password cisco

C. ACCESS1(config)# line vty 0 4

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ACCESS1(config-line)# login

ACCESS1(config-line)# password cisco

D. Remote27(config)# line vty 0 4

Remote27(config-line)# login

Remote27(config-line)# password cisco

E. ACCESS1(config)# enable password cisco

F. Remote27(config)# enable password cisco

Answer: C

48. Refer to the diagram. Which three statements describe the router port configuration and the switch port

configuration as shown in the topology? (Choose three.)

A. The Router1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port.

B. The Router1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces.

C. The Router1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps.

D. The Switch1 port connected to Router1 is configured as a trunking port.

E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port.

F. The Switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex.

Answer: BDE

49. What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A. Administratively shut down the interface.

B. Physically secure the interface.

C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.

D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.

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E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Answer: DE

50. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the topology shown in the graphic?

A. Host 1 - 192.168.10.22/24; Host 2 - 192.168.10.23/24; Host 3 - 192.168.10.24/24

B. Host 1 - 192.168.10.22/24; Host 2 - 192.168.11.23/24; Host 3 - 192.168.10.23/24

C. Host 1 - 192.168.10.22/24; Host 2 - 192.168.10.23/24; Host 3 - 192.168.11.23/24

D. Host 1 - 192.168.11.22/24; Host 2 - 192.168.11.23/24; Host 3 - 192.168.10.24/24

Answer: B

51. The network administrator wants to upgrade the IOS of a router. The new image requires 64 MB of RAM and

16 MB for storage of the file. Given the output shown in the graphic, which of the following is true?

A. This router meets the requirements for the new image.

B. This router will require a DRAM upgrade to meet the requirements for the new image.

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C. This router will require a flash upgrade to meet the requirements for the new image.

D. This router will require an NVRAM upgrade to meet the requirements for the new image.

Answer: B

52. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the

switches?

A. one

B. two

C. six

D. twelve

Answer: A

53. An access list was written with the four statements shown in the graphic. Which single access list statement

will combine all four of these statements into a single statement that will have exactly the same effect?

A. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.0.255

B. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.1.255

C. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.3.255

D. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.15.255

E. access-list 10 permit 172.29.0.0 0.0.255.255

Answer: C

54. The access list shown in the graphic should deny all hosts located on network 172.16.1.0, except host

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172.16.1.5, from accessing the 172.16.4.0 network. All other networks should be accessible. Which command

sequence will correctly apply this access list?

A. routerA(config)# interface fa0/0

routerA(config-if)# ip access-group 10 in

B. routerA(config)# interface s0/0

routerA(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

C. routerB(config)# interface fa0/1

routerB(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

D. routerB(config)# interface fa0/0

routerB(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

E. routerB(config)# interface s0/1

routerB(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

Answer: D

55. Which command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?

A. Switch(config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1

B. Switch(config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1

C. Switch(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1

D. Switch(config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0

Answer: C

56. The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown in the graphic. What are possible causes

for this interface status? (Choose three.)

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A. The interface is shut down.

B. No keepalive messages are received.

C. The clockrate is not set.

D. No loopback address is set.

E. No cable is attached to the interface.

F. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

Answer: BCF

57. Assuming all hosts and servers are in the same VLAN, which statement is correct about the internetwork

shown in the diagram?

A. Switch2 is the root bridge.

B. Spanning Tree Protocol is not running.

C. Host D and Server 1 are in the same network.

D. No collisions can occur in traffic between Host B and Host C.

E. If Fa0/0 is down on Router1, Host A cannot access Server 1.

F. If Fa0/1 is down on Switch3, Host C cannot access Server 2.

Answer: C

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58. Which statement is correct about the internetwork shown in the diagram?

A. Switch 2 is the root bridge.

B. Spanning Tree is not running.

C. Host D and Server 1 are in the same network.

D. No collisions can occur in traffic between Host B and Host C.

E. If Fa0/0 is down on Router 1, Host A cannot access Server 1.

F. If Fa0/1 is down on Switch 3, Host C cannot access Server 2.

Answer: E

59. The EIGRP configuration in the Glencoe router uses a single network statement. From the output shown in the

graphic, which network statement would advertise these networks in EIGRP?

A. network 172.26.168.128 0.0.0.127

B. network 172.26.168.128 area 478

C. network 172.26.0.0

D. network 172.26.168.0 area 478

Answer: C

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60. A network administrator is configuring the routers in the graphic for OSPF. The OSPF process has been started

and the networks have been configured for Area 0 as shown in the diagram. The network administrator has several

options for configuring RouterB to ensure that it will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0

/24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference? (Choose three.)

A. Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface on the

Ethernet network.

B. Change the router id of Router B by assigning the IP address 172.16.1.130/24 to the Fa0/0 interface of

RouterB.

C. Configure a loopback interface on RouterB with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.

D. Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to zero.

E. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of RouterA and RouterC to zero.

F. No further configuration is necessary.

Answer: ACE

61. Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)

A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet

B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet

C. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet

D. a scheme to conserve public addresses

E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization

Answer: BD

62. Refer to the topology and partial switch command output shown in the graphic. The internetwork shown in the

diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Host A is unable to ping Host B. What needs to be done to enable

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these hosts to ping each another?

A. The gateway on Host A needs to be changed.

B. The IP address on Host B needs to be reconfigured.

C. VLAN 2 must be named.

D. The Fa0/1 interface on the ET-1 switch must be configured as a trunk port.

E. Switch port Fa0/1 must be moved to a different VLAN.

Answer: D

63. Refer to the graphic. A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the

NAT configuration to the proper interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. R1(config)# interface serial0/1

R1(config-if)# ip nat inside

B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1

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R1(config-if)# ip nat outside

C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0

R1(config-if)# ip nat inside

D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0

R1(config-if)# ip nat outside

E. R1(config)# interface serial0/1

R1(config-if)# ip nat outside source pool 200.2.2.18 255.255.255.252

F. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0

R1(config-if)# ip nat inside source 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0

Answer: BC

64. What kind of cable should be used to establish a trunked link between two Catalyst 2950 switches?

A. a straight-through cable

B. an EIA/TIA-232 serial cable

C. an auxiliary cable

D. a modem cable

E. a cross-over cable

Answer: E

65. Refer to the graphic. Computer 1 is consoled into switch A. Telnet connections and pings run from the

command prompt on switch A fail. Which of the following could cause this problem?

A. Switch A is not directly connected to router JAX.

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B. Switch A does not have a default gateway assigned.

C. Switch A does not have a CDP entry for switch B or router JAX.

D. Switch A does not have an IP address.

E. Port 1 on switch A should be an access port rather than a trunk port.

Answer: D

66. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would create the output shown at the bottom of the

graphic?

A. Router# show ip eigrp topology

B. Router# show ip route

C. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors

D. Router# show ip ospf route

E. Router# show ip ospf database

Answer: A

67. What is the purpose of a default route?

A. It is a route to be used when the routing protocol fails.

B. It is a route configured by an ISP that sends traffic into a corporate network.

C. It is a route used when a packet is destined for a remote network that is not listed in the routing table.

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D. It is a route manually configured for a specific remote network for which a routing protocol is not configured.

E. It is used to send traffic to a stub network.

Answer: C

68. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address

B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch

C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address

D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch

E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority

F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority

Answer: E

69. A workgroup switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as

full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?

A. The additions will create more collisions domains.

B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.

C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

E. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically.

Answer: D

70. A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in

the exhibit. The associate knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the necessary resources to support the user

hosts in the other VLANs. The associate needs to determine which interfaces are access ports. Which interfaces

are access ports? (Choose three.)

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A. Switch1 - Fa 0/2

B. Switch1 - Fa 0/9

C. Switch2 - Fa 0/3

D. Switch2 - Fa 0/4

E. Switch2 - Fa 0/8

F. Router - Fa 1/0

Answer: ACD

71. Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable

connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being

disconnected?

A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.

B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.

C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.

D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network

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function would resume.

Answer: D

72. When upgrading the IOS image, the network administrator receives the exhibited error message. What could

be the cause of this error?

A. The new IOS image is too large for the router flash memory.

B. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router.

C. The new IOS image is not correct for this router platform.

D. The IOS image on the TFTP server is corrupt.

E. There is not enough disk space on the TFTP server for the IOS image.

Answer: B

73. Assuming only one VLAN in the exhibit, which switch is acting as the root bridge?

A. Switch1

B. Switch2

C. Switch3

D. A root bridge is not required in this network.

Answer: C

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74. IP addresses and routing for the network are configured as shown in the exhibit. The network administrator

issues the show ip eigrp neighbors command from Router1 and receives the output shown below the topology.

Which statement is true?

A. It is normal for Router1 to show one active neighbor at a time to prevent routing loops.

B. Routing is not completely configured on Router3.

C. The IP addresses are not configured properly on the Router1 and Router3 interfaces.

D. The no auto-summary command configured on the routers prevents Router1 and Router2 from forming a

neighbor relationship.

Answer: B

75. The switches in the exhibit are configured with the default parameters. What can be determined from the

exhibit?

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A. Fa0/2 on Switch1 and Fa0/2 on Switch2 are nondesignated ports.

B. Fa0/3 on Switch1 and Fa0/3 on Switch2 are attached to the lowest-cost paths to the root bridge.

C. Switch1 is the backup designated root bridge.

D. Switch3 is the root bridge.

Answer: D

76. What should be done prior to backing up an IOS image to a TFTP server? (Choose three.)

A. Make sure that the server can be reached across the network.

B. Check that authentication for TFTP access to the server is set.

C. Assure that the network server has adequate space for the IOS image.

D. Verify file naming and path requirements.

E. Make sure that the server can store binary files.

F. Adjust the TCP window size to speed up the transfer.

Answer: ACD

77. The network shown in the exhibit was designed to provide reliability through redundancy. Both of the IDF

switches, S3 and S4, are connected to both of the MDF switches, S1 and S2. Which configuration scenario will

provide a loop-free switching environment?

A. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on all switches.

B. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on only the MDF switches S1 and S2.

C. Spanning Tree Protocol should be running on only the IDF switches S3 and S4.

D. Spanning Tree Protocol should be run only on the root bridge.

E. Spanning Tree Protocol is not needed in this network.

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Answer: A

78. Refer to the exhibit. Which ports could safely be configured with PortFast? (Choose two.)

A. Switch1 - port Fa1/2

B. Switch2 - port Fa1/2

C. Switch1 - port Fa1/3

D. Switch2 - port Fa1/3

E. Switch1 - port Fa1/1

F. Switch2 - port Fa1/1

Answer: CD

79. Refer to graphic and examine the output from the London switch . What VTP functions will this switch

perform?

A. create, change, and delete VLANs for the VTP domain

B. learn and save VTP configuration information in the running configuration only

C. forward VTP configuration information

D. backup the VTP database for the closest VTP server

E. prevent VTP information from reaching workgroup switches

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Answer: C

80. Which wild card mask will enable a network administrator to permit access to the Internet for only hosts that

are assigned an address in the range of 192.168.8.0 through 192.168.15.255?

A. 0.0.0.0

B. 0.0.0.255

C. 0.0.255.255

D. 0.0.7.255

E. 0.0.3.255

Answer: D

81. Refer to the topology and configuration information shown in the graphic. The router has been configured to

provide communication between the VLANs. Which IOS commands are required to configure switch port fa0/1 to

establish a link with router R1 using the IEEE standard protocol? (Choose three.)

A. Switch(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

B. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access

C. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

D. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

E. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl

F. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Answer: ACF

82. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port

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B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port

C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN

D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports

E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

Answer: C

83. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the

192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.

B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.

C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.

D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Answer: C

84. How can an administrator determine if a router has been configured when it is first powered up?

A. A configured router prompts for a password.

B. A configured router goes to the privileged mode prompt.

C. An unconfigured router goes into the setup dialog.

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D. An unconfigured router goes to the enable mode prompt.

Answer: C

85. What are three valid reasons to assign ports to VLANs on a switch? (Choose three.)

A. to make VTP easier to implement

B. to isolate broadcast traffic

C. to increase the size of the collision domain

D. to allow more devices to connect to the network

E. to logically group hosts according to function

F. to increase network security

Answer: BEF

86. Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are

operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)

A. Switch A - Fa0/0

B. Switch A - Fa0/1

C. Switch B - Fa0/0

D. Switch B - Fa0/1

E. Switch C - Fa0/0

F. Switch C - Fa0/1

Answer: BCD

87. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the

numbers shown?

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A. 1 - Ethernet crossover cable

2 - Ethernet straight-through cable

3 - fiber optic cable

4 - rollover cable

B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable

2 - Ethernet straight-through cable

3 - serial cable

4 - rollover cable

C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable

2 - Ethernet crossover cable

3 - serial cable

4 - null modem cable

D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable

2 - Ethernet crossover cable

3 - serial cable

4 - rollover cable

E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable

2 - Ethernet crossover cable

3 - serial cable

4 - Ethernet straight-through cable

Answer: B

88. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 sends a VTP advertisement and Switch2 receives it. Which statement accurately

describes how Switch2 will process this advertisement?

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A. Switch2 will ignore the summary advertisement.

B. Switch2 will delete all its VLANs because it has a lower revision number than Switch1.

C. Switch2 will increment the VTP revision number and forward the advertisement.

D. Switch2 will create two new VLANs in response to the information contained in the advertisement.

Answer: A

89. Refer to the exhibit. What is required to allow communication between host A and host B?

A. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with crossover cables

B. a router connected to the switches with straight-through cables

C. a router connected to the switches with crossover cables

D. a straight-through cable only

E. a crossover cable only

Answer: B

90. A network administrator needs to connect the main bank office to two branch offices. During business hours,

the bank requires a redundant connection to maintain connectivity between the branch offices and the main bank.

The primary connection to the branch offices should be cost effective and provide at least 512 kbps dedicated

access to the branch offices. The backup connection should only be used when the primary connection goes down.

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Also, the backup connection should have a relatively short setup time, and provide 128 kbps of bandwidth. Which

combination of technologies meets these requirements?

A. primary connection - ATM

backup connection - Frame Relay

B. primary connection - Frame Relay

backup connection - dialup

C. primary connection - dedicated leased line

backup connection - ISDN

D. primary connection - Frame Relay

backup connection - ISDN

Answer: D

91. Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses

will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?

A. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98

B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e

C. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e

D. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef

Answer: B

92. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp

neighbors command operate?

A. physical

B. data link

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C. network

D. transport

E. application

Answer: B

93. Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will

Switch-1 do with this data?

A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.

B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.

C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.

D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Answer: B

94. Why has the network shown in the exhibit failed to converge?

A. The no auto-summary command needs to be applied to the routers.

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B. The network numbers have not been properly configured on the routers.

C. The subnet masks for the network numbers have not been properly configured.

D. The autonomous system number has not been properly configured.

E. The bandwidth values have not been properly configured on the serial interfaces.

Answer: A

95. Refer to the exhibit. After the power-on self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber.

What is the status of the switch?

A. The POST was successful.

B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.

C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system of the switch from being loaded.

D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.

E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.

Answer: C

96. How does replacing a hub with a switch affect CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network?

A. It effectively eliminates collisions.

B. In increases the size of the collision domain by allowing more devices to be connected at once.

C. It decreases the amount of time that a jam signal must be sent to reach all network devices.

D. It reduces the total amount of bandwidth available to each device.

E. It eliminates Layer 3 broadcast traffic.

Answer: A

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97. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on R2. The technician

enters the show cdp neighbors command at the R2 console. If the network is composed only of Cisco devices, for

which devices should entries be displayed?

A. R1

B. SW-B and R1

C. SW-B, R1, and SW-C

D. R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C

E. SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C

F. Host A, SW-A, R3, SW-B, R1, and SW-C

Answer: B

98. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What source MAC address and source IP address are contained in

the frame as the frame leaves R2 destined for host B?

A. abcd.abcd.a001

B. abcd.abcd.b002

C. abcd.abcd.c003

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D. 10.2.0.15

E. 10.0.64.1

F. 10.0.128.15

Answer: BD

99. Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to

SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what

is the most likely problem?

A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.

B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.

C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.

E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Answer: C

100. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF.

Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration

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statement? (Choose three.)

A. FastEthernet0 /0

B. FastEthernet0 /1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Answer: BCD

101. Refer to the exhibit. What IP address should be assigned to Workstation A?

A. 192.168.1.143/28

B. 192.168.1.144/28

C. 192.168.1.145/28

D. 192.168.1.159/28

E. 192.168.1.160/28

Answer: C

102. Refer to the topology and router output shown in the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting host

connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with

hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN

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assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

A. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.

B. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.

C. At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.

D. Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.

E. A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on

Sw12.

Answer: B

103. In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

A. VLAN pruning

B. the process for root bridge selection

C. a method of VLAN trunking

D. the operation of VTP

E. an approach to wireless LAN communication

Answer: C

104. Refer to the topology and partial router configurations shown in the exhibit. The network is fully operational

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and all routing tables are converged. Which route will appear in the output of the show ip route command issued

on the Branch router?

A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.10.82

B. R 172.16.11.4/30 [120/1] via 192.168.10.82, 00:00:22, Serial0/0

C. R 192.168.10.80/30 [120/0] via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0

D. R 192.168.11.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.10.81, 00:00:22, Serial0/0

E. C 192.168.12.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

Answer: A

105. Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the

interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been

configured with the appropriate default gateway. What can be said about this configuration?

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router eigrp 123

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C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router ospf 1

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router rip

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

D. No further routing configuration is required.

Answer: D

106. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but

there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the

partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of

connectivity?

A. A loopback is not set.

B. The IP address is incorrect.

C. The subnet mask is incorrect.

D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.

E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large.

F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface.

Answer: B

107. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has the task of planning a Frame Relay implementation to replace

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the existing WAN infrastructure. The addresses for the North, East, and South branch offices have been assigned

as shown in the diagram. Which type of topology should be implemented?

A. bus

B. extended star

C. full mesh

D. hub and spoke

E. ring

Answer: D

108. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit

represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this

design?

A. This design will function as intended.

B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.

C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

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D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.

E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Answer: C

109. Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the Internet,

but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with this configuration?

A. Host B should be in VLAN 13.

B. The address of host C is incorrect.

C. The gateway for host B is in a different subnet than the host is on.

D. The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down.

E. The switch port connected to the router is incorrectly configured as an access port.

Answer: B

110. Why would an administrator change the value of the spanning-tree priority of a switch?

A. in order to optimize the path that frames take from source to destination

B. to increase the priority so a designated port will become a root port

C. to increase the BID, so the switch is more likely to become root bridge

D. in order to allow VLANs to be sent from one switch to another across a single link

E. to force a given switch to become an STP server

Answer: A

111. Refer to the exhibit. Configuration of both switches has been completed. During testing, the network

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administrator notices that users on SwitchA can not connect with users in the same VLAN on SwitchB. What

should be done to solve this problem?

A. Ensure that the IP address of SwitchA is on the same network as the IP address of SwitchB.

B. Ensure that the same interface number is used to connect both switches.

C. Ensure that the ports connecting the two switches are configured to trunk.

D. Ensure that SwitchA and SwitchB are connected with a straight-through cable.

Answer: C

112. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have been configured with static VLANs as shown. During testing, the

network administrator notices that VLAN 20 on SwitchA has no connectivity with VLAN 30 on SwitchB. What

should the network administrator do?

A. Configure the interconnected ports on SwitchA and SwitchB into access mode.

B. Connect the two switches with a straight-through cable.

C. Add a Layer 3 device to connect VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.

D. Configure the management VLAN with IP addresses.

E. Ensure that the VTP passwords match on both switches.

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Answer: C

113. Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow

communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config-if)# no shut down

B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)# no shut down

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1

Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10

Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2

Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20

Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100

Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0

D. Switch1(config)# vlan database

Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ

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Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server

E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1

Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Answer: BE

114. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of issuing the following commands?

A. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to the Switch2

VLAN database.

B. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to the Switch2

VLAN database.

C. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as a VLAN to

the Switch2 VLAN database.

D. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as a VLAN to

the Switch2 VLAN database.

Answer: A

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115. What is the purpose of the command shown below?

vtp password Fl0r1da

A. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches.

B. It is used to access the VTP server to make changes to the VTP configuration.

C. It allows two VTP servers to exist in the same domain, each configured with different passwords.

D. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to VTP server mode.

E. It is used to prevent a switch newly added to the network from sending incorrect VLAN information to the

other switches in the domain.

Answer: A

116. Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be

the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.

B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.

C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.

D. Ensure the switch has power.

E. Reboot all of the devices.

F. Reseat all cables.

Answer: BDF

117. A mid-sized company with five branch offices across Canada wants to create a WAN that will provide the

most cost effective fully meshed environment with at least 512 kbps throughput. What WAN service would meet

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this need?

A. Frame Relay

B. leased lines

C. ISDN BRI

D. ATM

E. PPP

Answer: A

118. A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the

root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role as

root bridge?

A. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network.

B. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have.

C. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network.

D. Configure the switch for full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex operation.

E. Connect the switch directly to the MDF router, which will force the switch to assume the role of root bridge.

Answer: C

119. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17?

A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.

B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.

C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.

D. DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.

Answer: C

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120. Refer to the exhibit. In the Frame Relay network, which IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces

with point-to-point PVCs?

A. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 17: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24

DLCI 28: 192.168.10.3 /24

B. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24

DLCI 99: 192.168.12.1 /24

DLCI 28: 192.168.13.1 /24

C. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24

DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24

DLCI 28: 192.168.11.2 /24

D. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 17: 192.168.10.2 /24

DLCI 99: 192.168.10.3 /24

DLCI 28: 192.168.10.4 /24

Answer: C

121. An administrator is configuring a router that will act as the hub in a Frame Relay hub-and-spoke topology.

What is the advantage of using point-to-point subinterfaces instead of a multipoint interface on this router?

A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.

B. Only one IP network address needs to be used to communicate with all the spoke devices.

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C. Point-to-point subinterfaces offer greater security compared to a multipoint interface configuration.

D. Only a single physical interface is needed with point-to-point subinterfaces, whereas a multipoint interface

logically combines multiple physical interfaces.

Answer: A

122. Refer to the exhibit. A router interface is being configured for Frame Relay. However, as the exhibit shows,

the router will not accept the command to configure the LMI type. What is the problem?

A. The interface does not support Frame Relay connections.

B. The interface does not have an IP address assigned to it yet.

C. The interface requires that the no shutdown command be configured first.

D. The interface requires that the encapsulation frame-relay command be configured first.

Answer: D

123. Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit is running the RIPv2 routing protocol. The network

has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly. The FastEthernet0/0 interface on R1 goes

down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change? (Choose two.)

A. All routers will reference their topology database to determine if any backup routes to the 192.168.1.0 network

are known.

B. Routers R2 and R3 mark the route as inaccessible and will not accept any further routing updates from R1 until

their hold-down timers expire.

C. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about

connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network.

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D. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by

sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.

E. R1 will send LSAs to R2 and R3 informing them of this change, and then all routers will send periodic updates

at an increased rate until the network again converges.

Answer: CD

124. Refer to the exhibit. The show ip route command was issued from one of the routers shown in the exhibit and

the following output was displayed:

Which router produced this output?

A. R1

B. R2

C. R3

D. R4

Answer: B

125. Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should

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this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

A. 192.168.1.56/26

B. 192.168.1.56/27

C. 192.168.1.64/26

D. 192.168.1.64/27

Answer: C

126. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this

network yet waste the fewest addresses?

A. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26

Network 2: 192.168.10.64/26

Network 3: 192.168.10.128/26

Serial link 1: 192.168.20.0/24

Serial link 2: 192.168.30.0/24

B. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26

Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28

Network 3: 192.168.10.80/29

Serial link 1: 192.168.10.88/30

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Serial link 2: 192.168.10.96/30

C. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26

Network 2: 192.168.10.64/27

Network 3: 192.168.10.96/28

Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30

Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30

D. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/27

Network 2: 192.168.10.64/28

Network 3: 192.168.10.96/29

Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30

Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30

Answer: C

127. Refer to the exhibit. S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in

this hub-and-spoke Frame Relay topology. While testing this configuration, a technician notes that pings are

successful from hosts on the 172.16.1.0/24 network to hosts on both the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25

networks. However, pings between hosts on the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 networks are not successful.

What could explain this connectivity problem?

A. The ip subnet-zero command has been issued on the R1 router.

B. The RIP v2 dynamic routing protocol cannot be used across a Frame Relay network.

C. Split horizon is preventing R2 from learning about the R3 networks and R3 from learning about the R2

networks.

D. The 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 networks are overlapping networks that can be seen by R1, but not

between R2 and R3.

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E. The 172.16.3.0/29 network used on the Frame Relay links is creating a discontiguous network between the R2

and R3 router subnetworks.

Answer: C

128. of using a multipoint interface instead of point-to-point subinterfaces when configuring a Frame Relay hub in

a hub-and-spoke topology?

A. It avoids split-horizon issues with distance vector routing protocols.

B. IP addresses can be conserved if VLSM is not being used for subnetting.

C. A multipoint interface offers greater security compared to point-to-point subinterface configurations.

D. The multiple IP network addresses required for a multipoint interface provide greater addressing flexibility

over point-to-point configurations.

Answer: B

129. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATUS=ACTIVE refer to in the output of the show frame-relay pvc

command?

A. The PVC is experiencing congestion.

B. The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational.

C. The router is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch.

D. The router is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.

Answer: B

130. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show

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frame-relay map command shown?

A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.

B. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.

C. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.

D. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.

E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.

Answer: E

131. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to

R2?

A. 172.1.0.0/22

B. 172.1.0.0/21

C. 172.1.4.0/22

D. 172.1.4.0/24

172.1.5.0/24

172.1.6.0/24

172.1.7.0/24

E. 172.1.4.0/25

172.1.4.128/25

172.1.5.0/24

172.1.6.0/24

172.1.7.0/24

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Answer: C

132. Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like

to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router

represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Answer: D

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133. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command.

Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26

B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25

C. Network A - 172.16.3.192/26

D. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30

E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30

F. Link A - 172.16.3.112/30

Answer: BD

134. Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by

EIGRP?

A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240

B. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252

C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

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D. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252

E. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240

F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

Answer: C

135. Based on the topology table that is shown in the exhibit and assuming that variance is not configured for

EIGRP, which route or routes should appear in the routing table?

A. D 192.168.8.20 (2707456/2195456), Serial0/1

B. D 192.168.2.0/24 [90/2707456] via 192.168.8.22, 00:27:50, Serial0/0

[90/3815424] via 192.168.8.18, 00:27:50, Serial0/2

C. D 192.168.2.0/24 [90/3815424] via 192.168.8.18, 00:27:50, Serial0/2

D. D 192.168.8.24/30 [90/2681856] via 192.168.8.22, 00:27:50, Serial0/0

Answer: D

136. The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?

A. The system is malfunctioning.

B. The system is not powered up.

C. The system is powered up and operational.

D. The system is forwarding traffic.

E. The system is sensing excessive collisions.

Answer: A

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137. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the debug command?

A. The output represents normal OSPF operation.

B. The interfaces of two OSPF routers connected to the Border router are in the same subnet.

C. The OSPF router connected to interface Serial0/1 has NOT formed a neighbor relationship with the Border

router.

D. A router is connected to interface Serial0/3 of the Border router. The OSPF router ID of the connected router is

the IP address of the connected interface.

Answer: C

138. The user of Host1 wants to ping the DSL modem/router at 192.168.1.254. Based on the Host1 ARP table that

is shown in the exhibit, what will Host1 do?

A. send a unicast ARP packet to the DSL modem/router

B. send unicast ICMP packets to the DSL modem/router

C. send Layer 3 broadcast packets to which the DSL modem/router responds

D. send a Layer 2 broadcast that is received by Host2, the switch, and the DSL modem/router

Answer: B

139. Refer to the exhibit. The network has been configured with STP disabled. HostA sends an ARP request for

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the IP address of a site on the Internet. What will happen to this ARP request? (Choose two.)

A. Because the ARP request is a broadcast, SW-A will not forward the request.

B. SW-A will convert the broadcast to a unicast and forward it to SW-D.

C. The switches will propagate the broadcast, creating a broadcast storm.

D. From a port on SW-A, HostA will receive an ARP reply containing the MAC address.

E. From the Ethernet interface of RouterX, HostA will receive an ARP reply that contains the MAC address.

F. The switches will propagate the broadcast until the TTL of the frame reduces to 0. Then the frame will be

discarded.

Answer: CE

140. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on workstation M uses Telnet to log in to the command line

interface of router A. The administrator wishes to discover information about active workstations on the LAN

attached to router A, including their IP and MAC addresses. Which command will provide this information?

A. show interfaces

B. show hosts

C. show running-config

D. show ip arp

E. show cdp neighbors

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Answer: D

141. Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what could be the

cause of this problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.

B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.

C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used.

D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.

E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

Answer: D

142. What three pieces of information can be used in an extended access list to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

A. protocol

B. VLAN number

C. TCP or UDP port numbers

D. source switch port number

E. source IP address and destination IP address

F. source MAC address and destination MAC address

Answer: ACE

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143. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the following line into the router.

Tidmore1(config)# access-list 106 deny tcp 192.168.254.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

What is the effect of this configuration?

A. The change has no effect on the packets being filtered.

B. All traffic from the 192.168.254.0 LAN to the Internet is permitted.

C. Web pages from the Internet cannot be accessed by hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN.

D. No hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN except 192.168.254.7 can access web pages from the Internet.

Answer: A

144. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the following lines into the router.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A. The change has no effect on the packets being filtered.

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B. All traffic from the 192.168.254.0 LAN to the Internet is permitted.

C. Web pages from the Internet cannot be accessed by hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN.

D. No hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN except 192.168.254.7 can telnet to hosts on the Internet.

Answer: A

145. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the following lines into the router.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A. The change has no effect on the packets being filtered.

B. All traffic from the 192.168.254.0 LAN to the Internet is permitted.

C. Web pages from the Internet cannot be accessed by hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN.

D. No hosts in the 192.168.254.0 LAN except 192.168.254.7 can access web pages from the Internet.

Answer: B

146. Refer to the exhibit. The partial frame in the graphic represents select header information within a frame

arriving at a destination host. What can be determined from this information?

A. The source host is a Telnet server.

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B. This frame contains the first segment in a Telnet session.

C. The Layer 2 address of the source host is 192.168.14.2.

D. The local host has received 42,335 bytes from the remote host as a part of this conversation.

Answer: B

147. Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the "Serial0/0 is down" interface status? (Choose

two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.

B. The bandwidth is set too low.

C. A protocol mismatch exists.

D. An incorrect cable is being used.

E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.

Answer: AD

148. Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN.

How can this problem be corrected?

A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.

B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.

C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.

D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.

E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.

Answer: A

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149. Refer to the exhibit. The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS.

What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?

A. 3 MB

B. 4 MB

C. 5 MB

D. 7 MB

E. 8 MB

Answer: B

150. Refer to the exhibit. To what does the 128 refer in the router output O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via

192.168.12.233,00:35:36, Serial 0?

A. OSPF cost

B. OSPF priority

C. OSPF hop count

D. OSPF ID number

E. OSPF administrative distance

Answer: A

151. Which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem?

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A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up

B. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down

C. Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down

D. Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down

Answer: C

152. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for

management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?

A. VLAN 1 on RTA

B. default gateway on SW-A

C. IP routing on SW-A

D. cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA

Answer: B

153. Refer to the exhibit. Two buildings on the San Jose campus of a small company must be connected to use

Ethernet with a bandwidth of at least 100 Mbps. The company is concerned about possible problems from voltage

potential differences between the two buildings. Which media type should be used for the connection?

A. UTP cable

B. STP cable

C. coaxial cable

D. fiber optic cable

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Answer: D

154. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing connection problems in the internetwork. What is the problem

indicated by the output from HostA?

A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.

B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.

C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.

D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.

Answer: D

155. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)

A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices

B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device

C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches

D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails

E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device

F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers

Answer: DE

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156. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is testing internetwork connection problems. What is the problem indicated

by the output from HostA?

A. The routing on Router2 is not functioning properly.

B. An access list is applied to an interface of Router3.

C. The Fa0/24 interface of Switch1 is down.

D. The gateway address of HostA is incorrect or not configured.

Answer: A

157. A large corporation that frequently integrates networks from newly acquired businesses has just decided to

use OSPF as the corporate routing protocol instead of EIGRP. What two benefits will the change from EIGRP to

OSPF provide to the corporation? (Choose two.)

A. the ability to use VLSM

B. the ability to support multi-vendor routers

C. the ability to automatically summarize networks

D. the ability to redistribute default and static routes

E. the ability to create a hierarchical design using areas

Answer: BE

158. Refer to the exhibit. Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Host C or Host D. What should the

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network administrator do to solve this problem?

A. Configure the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.

B. Configure a router to route between VLAN2 and VLAN3.

C. Configure two separate switches for the hosts on VLANs 2 and 3.

D. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.

Answer: B

159. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB?

(Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

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C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Answer: BC

160. Which router command can be used to verify the type of cable connected to interface serial 0/0?

A. show running-config

B. show controllers serial 0/0

C. show interfaces serial 0/0

D. show ip interface serial 0/0

Answer: B

161. Refer to the exhibit. Which routing protocol would an administrator use to connect the autonomous systems?

A. BGP

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. RIP

Answer: A

162. A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To ensure

maximum throughput for the phone data, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is on a different

network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which to directly connect

the phones and computers, and what technology should be implemented on this device? (Choose two.)

A. hub

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B. router

C. switch

D. STP

E. subinterfaces

F. VLAN

Answer: CF

163. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay as metrics?

A. RIP

B. BGP

C. OSPF

D. EIGRP

Answer: D

164. Refer to the diagram. What is the largest configuration file that can be stored on this router?

A. 191K bytes

B. 16384K bytes

C. 31369K bytes

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D. 114688K bytes

Answer: A

165. What is the result of adding this command to a router that is already configured for dynamic routing?

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

A. It configures the router as a firewall, blocking all packets from IP address 192.168.1.2.

B. It configures the router to block routing updates from being sent to IP address 192.168.1.2.

C. It configures the router to drop all packets for which the destination network is unknown.

D. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2.

E. It configures the router to send all packets to IP address 192.168.1.2 if the packets match no other entry in the

routing table.

Answer: E

166. Refer to the exhibit. When the hosts boot, hosts that are connected to the switches are having trouble getting

a DHCP address from the DHCP server. Which STP feature could minimize the effects of STP convergence for

the hosts?

A. port priority

B. PortFast

C. BID

D. path cost

E. hold-down timer

Answer: B

167. When a new trunk is configured on a 2950 switch, which VLANs by default are allowed over the trunk link?

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A. no VLANs

B. all VLANs

C. only VLANs 1 - 64

D. only the VLANs that are specified when creating the trunk

Answer: B

168. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other but are unable to

communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between VLANs?

A. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface that is connected to the switch

C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches

D. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch

Answer: D

169. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is unable to ping a

server connected to Switch_A. Based on the results of the testing, what could be the problem?

A. A remote physical layer problem exists.

B. The host NIC is not functioning.

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C. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.

D. A local physical layer problem exists.

Answer: D

170. Which statement is true about full-duplex Ethernet in comparison to half-duplex Ethernet?

A. Full-duplex Ethernet consists of a shared cable segment. Half-duplex Ethernet provides a point-to-point link.

B. Full-duplex Ethernet uses a loopback circuit to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet uses a jam signal.

C. Full-duplex Ethernet can provide higher throughput than can half-duplex Ethernet of the same bandwidth.

D. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two wires to send and receive. Half-duplex Ethernet uses one wire to send and

receive.

Answer: C

171. Refer to the exhibit. Two 2950 switches connect through ports fa0/24 using a straight-through cable. Based

on the output that is shown in the exhibit and the information that is given, what can be concluded about this

network?

A. STP can not be configured on a FastEthernet ports.

B. An IP address and default gateway must be configured on each switch.

C. The switches do not share the same VTP domain.

D. Port fa0/24 must be configured as a trunk in order for the switches to share neighbor information.

E. The switches are cabled incorrectly.

Answer: E

172. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem. The network uses

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the EIGRP routing protocol. Pings issued from SLC to 192.31.7.6 are successful but pings issued from SLC to the

192.31.7.64/26 network are not successful. Which two statements describe possible causes of this problem?

(Choose two.)

A. The command network 192.31.7.64 needs to be issued on the SLC router.

B. The hello and dead interval times are mismatched between SLC and Boise.

C. EIGRP is not enabled on Boise.

D. The Ethernet cable attached to fa0/1 on SLC is bad.

E. The EIGRP autonomous system numbers configured on the two routers do not match.

Answer: CE

173. Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose

two.)

A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.

B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.

C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.

D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address

192.168.2.4.

E. It uses the default administrative distance.

F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

Answer: AE

174. Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown.

Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the

technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified

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as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.

B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.

C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.

D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.

E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.

Answer: C

175. What are two effects on network performance of configuring a switch to store an entire frame before

forwarding it to the destination? (Choose two.)

A. increase in switch operating speed

B. increased latency

C. filtering of all frame errors

D. filtering of collision fragments only

E. propagation of corrupted or damaged frames

F. decreased latency

Answer: BC

176. What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)

A. decreasing the number of collision domains

B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses

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C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions

D. increasing the size of broadcast domains

E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

Answer: BC

177. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to configure the switches and router in the graphic so that the

hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2. Which two Ethernet

segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two.)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

F. F

Answer: CF

178. Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 782 represent in the exhibit?

A. the administrative distance or "trustworthiness" for the route entry that is shown

B. the metric that is used to determine which route entry is placed in the routing table when multiple paths to the

destination exist

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C. the amount of delay in milliseconds that will be incurred by a packet that is destined for network 192.168.24.0

D. the number of hops between network 192.168.24.0 and the router that produced the output in the exhibit

Answer: B

179. Refer to the exhibit. A packet from a host with the IP address 10.1.6.100 arrives on interface FastEthernet0/0

destined for a web server at IP address 10.1.8.5. How will the router handle the packet?

A. The packet will be dropped.

B. The packet will be routed through interface Serial0/0.

C. The packet will be routed through interface Serial0/1.

D. The packet will be routed through interface FastEthernet0/0.

Answer: C

180. Which two topologies are using the correct type of twisted-pair cables? (Choose two.)

A.

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B.

C.

D.

E.

Answer: DE

181. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must complete the connection between the RTA of the XYZ

Company and the service provider. To accomplish this task, which two devices could be installed at the customer

site to provide a connection through the local loop to the central office of the provider? (Choose two.)

A. WAN switch

B. PVC

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C. ATM switch

D. multiplexer

E. CSU/DSU

F. modem

Answer: EF

182. If the networking devices are properly configured, which topology will allow communication between Host1

and Host2?

A.

B.

C.

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D.

Answer: C

183. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming none of the switches autoconfigure, which of the topologies are properly

cabled to allow the administrator to ping Host1 from the router?

A.

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B.

C.

D.

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E.

Answer: A

184. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output of the Floor3 switch, what statement describes the operation of this

switch?

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A. VTP is disabled on this switch.

B. The switch can create, change, and delete VLANs.

C. The switch learns VLAN information but does not save it to NVRAM.

D. The switch can create VLANs locally but will not forward this information to other switches.

E. The switch learns VLAN information and updates the local VLAN data base in NVRAM.

Answer: C

185. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has entered the command that is shown in the graphic on

Switch2. What are the two purposes of this command? (Choose two.)

A. The command sets a password that must be supplied to change the VTP configuration on the switch.

B. The command supplies a VTP password that must match the VTP domain name to start the exchange of VTP

advertisements.

C. The command sets the VTP management domain to secure mode.

D. The command provides a unique identity to Switch2 because each switch in the domain must have a different

password.

E. The command sets a password that must be supplied to remove the switch from the VTP domain.

F. The command sets a password that incoming VTP advertisements must contain to be accepted by the switch.

Answer: CF

186. Which Frame Relay feature is responsible for reporting to the router the status of virtual circuits that are

known to the Frame Relay switch?

A. BECN

B. CIR

C. DLCI

D. FECN

E. LMI

F. PVC

Answer: E

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187. A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default

characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the

destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?

A. the route learned through EIGRP

B. the route learned through OSPF

C. the route learned through RIP

D. the route with the lowest metric

E. all three routes with the router load balancing

Answer: A

188. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring RTA to connect to a non-Cisco network.

Which two commands would be applied to the S0/0 WAN interface, but not to the Fa0/0 LAN interface? (Choose

two.)

A. speed

B. no shutdown

C. ip address

D. authentication pap

E. encapsulation ppp

Answer: DE

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189. While recovering a lost password on a Cisco router, the network administrator interrupts the boot process and

changes the configuration register in ROM monitor mode before continuing the boot process. What effect will this

change have?

A. decrypts the enable secret password

B. removes any passwords from the start-up configuration

C. deletes the start-up configuration from NVRAM

D. bypasses the start-up configuration in NVRAM

E. enters a dialog that will prompt the user to enter new passwords

Answer: D

190. Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)

A. amount of RAM

B. bridge priority

C. IOS version

D. IP address

E. MAC address

F. speed of the links

Answer: BE

191. A department decides to replace its hub with a Catalyst 2950 switch that is no longer needed by another

department. To prepare the switch for installation, the network administrator has erased the startup configuration

and reloaded the switch. However, PCs that are connected to the switch experience various connectivity problems.

What is a possible cause of the problem?

A. The VLAN database was not erased.

B. The management VLAN is disabled.

C. The running configuration should have been erased.

D. The "mode" button was not pressed when the switch was reloaded.

E. The switch was not configured with an IP address or a default gateway.

Answer: A

192. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured NAT as shown in the exhibit. Clients,

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however, cannot access the Internet. What two actions should the network administrator take to resolve this

problem? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the ip nat inside command on the S0/0 interface.

B. Configure only the ip nat inside command on the Fa0/0 interface.

C. Configure the ip nat inside command on both the Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 interfaces.

D. Configure the ip nat outside command on both the Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 interfaces.

E. Configure the ip nat outside command on the S0/0 interface.

F. Configure only the ip nat outside command on the Fa0/1 interface.

Answer: CE

193. A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the

configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set

of commands will accomplish this task?

A. service password-encryption

access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

line vty 0 4

login

password cisco

access-class 1

B. enable password secret

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line vty 0

login

password cisco

C. service password-encryption

line vty 1

login

password cisco

D. service password-encryption

line vty 0 4

login

password cisco

Answer: C

194. Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork that is shown in the exhibit is experiencing connectivity problems. The

host on VLAN 22 can neither ping nor communicate with the host on VLAN 23. Neither host can ping its default

gateway. Based on the output that is shown, what is the solution to these problems?

A. The mask for the hosts must be changed to 255.0.0.0.

B. VLANs 22 and 23 must be named VLAN0022 and VLAN0023.

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C. FastEthernet port 0/12 on the switch must be configured as a trunk port.

D. The default gateway needs to be the same IP address for VLAN 22 and VLAN 23 hosts.

E. FastEthernet port 0/12 on the switch must be programmed to be in VLAN 22 or VLAN 23.

Answer: C

195. Refer to the exhibit. The access list has been created to allow only selected hosts in the Sales network access

to the Research network. The list otherwise allows all other access throughout the internetwork. On which router

should the access list be configured and on which interface and which direction should the access list be applied?

A. Branch, F0/0, in

B. Branch, S0/0, in

C. Branch, S0/0, out

D. HQ, S0/0, in

E. HQ, F0/1, in

F. HQ, F0/1, out

Answer: F

196. The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on

the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be

supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 14

D. 16

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E. 30

F. 32

Answer: E

197. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could

be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

A. host 1 IP address: 192.168.1.79

B. host 1 IP address: 192.168.1.64

C. host 1 default gateway: 192.168.1.78

D. host 2 IP address: 192.168.1.128

E. host 2 default gateway: 192.168.1.129

F. host 2 IP address: 192.168.1.190

Answer: ACF

198. A network administrator changes the configuration register to 0x2142 and reboots the router. What are two

results of making this change? (Choose two.)

A. The IOS image will be ignored.

B. The router will prompt to enter initial configuration mode.

C. The router will boot to ROM.

D. Any configuration entries in NVRAM will be ignored.

E. The configuration in flash memory will be booted.

Answer: BD

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199. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial

interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line

protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause

of this problem?

A. The serial cable is bad.

B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.

C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.

D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.

Answer: C

200. An organization is concerned that too many employees are wasting company time accessing the Internet.

Which access list statement would stop World Wide Web access for employees on the range of subnets from

172.16.8.0/24 to 172.16.11.0/24?

A. access-list 103 deny tcp 172.16.8.0 0.0.0.3 any eq 80

B. access-list 103 deny tcp 172.16.8.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 80

C. access-list 103 deny http 172.16.8.0 0.0.7.255 any

D. access-list 103 deny tcp any 172.16.8.0 0.0.3.255 eq 80

E. access-list 103 deny tcp 172.16.8.0 0.0.11.255 any eq 80

Answer: B

201. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is investigating a problem with the network that is shown. The router is a

2800 model and all switches are 2950 models. These symptoms have been observed:

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What could cause these symptoms?

A. Switch2 is turned off.

B. Interface S0/0 on the router is down.

C. Interface Fa1/0 on the router is down.

D. Interface Fa0/5 on Switch3 is down.

E. Interface Fa0/4 on Switch3 is down.

F. Trunking is not enabled on the link between Switch1 and Switch3.

Answer: E

202. There are no boot system commands in a router configuration in NVRAM. What is the fallback sequence that

the router will use to find an IOS during reload?

A. TFTP server, Flash, NVRAM

B. ROM, NVRAM, TFTP server

C. NVRAM, TFTP server, ROM

D. Flash, TFTP server, ROM

E. Flash, NVRAM, ROM

Answer: D

203. Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a 192.168.176.0/21 route

and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to R2? (Choose two.)

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A. 192.168.194.160

B. 192.168.183.41

C. 192.168.159.2

D. 192.168.183.255

E. 192.168.179.4

F. 192.168.184.45

Answer: BE

204. An administrator is experiencing connectivity issues on a Frame Relay multipoint interface that has an access

list applied to it. Which three IOS commands would provide the most relevant troubleshooting information about

the status of the virtual links and the placement of the access list? (Choose three.)

A. show frame-relay multipoint

B. show ip interface

C. show access-lists

D. show interfaces

E. show frame-relay map

F. show frame-relay pvc

Answer: BEF

205. An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is

received, what does this confirm?

A. The PC has connectivity with a local host.

B. The PC has connectivity with a Layer 3 device.

C. The PC has a default gateway correctly configured.

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D. The PC has connectivity up to Layer 5 of the OSI model.

E. The PC has the TCP/IP protocol stack correctly installed.

Answer: E

206. An administrator is troubleshooting a problem between routers that are using different versions of RIP.

Which two commands would provide information about which version of RIP was being sent and received on an

interface? (Choose two.)

A. show ip protocols

B. show ip route rip

C. show interfaces

D. debug rip routing

E. debug ip rip

Answer: AE

207. A company wants to allow access to the Research network to hosts with IP addresses only in the range

192.168.12.64 through 192.168.12.71. Which ACL will accomplish this goal?

A. HQ(config)# access-list 15 permit 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.3

B. HQ(config)# access-list 15 permit 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.3

C. HQ(config)# access-list 15 permit 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.6

D. HQ(config)# access-list 15 permit 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.7

E. HQ(config)# access-list 15 permit 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.15

F. HQ(config)# access-list 15 permit 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.248

Answer: D

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208. Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Answer: BDE

209. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC STATUS=INACTIVE". What does this

mean?

A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been detected for more

than five minutes.

B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the address of the

remote router.

C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to trigger a call to

the remote router.

D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of the PVC.

E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Answer: D

210. The command show frame-relay map gives the following output:

Serial 0 (up): ip 192.168.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active

Which statements represent what is shown?(Choose three.)

A. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router

B. 192.168.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface

C. DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote serial interface

D. DLCI 122 represents the local number used to connect to the remote address

E. broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC

F. active indicates that the ARP process is working

Answer: ADE

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211. What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)

A. Disable Inverse ARP.

B. Create a full-mesh topology.

C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.

D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.

E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.

Answer: BD

212. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.

C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.

E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Answer: ADE

213. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router

from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding

this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other

vendors.

B. HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.

C. PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.

D. Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link

E. The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.

F. There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

Answer: AC

214. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address

192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

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A. The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.

B. The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.

C. The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.

D. The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.

E. The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

Answer: AC

215. The following commands are entered on the router:

What is the purpose of the last command entered?

A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process

B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files

C. to encrypt the enable secret password

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D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router

Answer: B

216. Refer to the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to host D.

What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.

B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.

C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.

D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to

host D.

Answer: A

217. What is the purpose of flow control?

A. to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received

B. to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device

C. to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender

D. to regulate the size of each segment

Answer: C

218. Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.

C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.

D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before

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transmitting.

E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE

219. A network administrator has been asked to explain to a new technician how the boot system and

configuration register commands modify the router boot-up sequence. What three things should the network

administrator tell the new technician? (Choose three.)

A. The order of the boot system commands is relevant.

B. Boot system commands are entered in boot system configuration mode on the router.

C. A configuration register setting of 0x2100 will cause the router to boot to ROM monitor mode.

D. The router checks for boot system commands without checking the configuration register setting.

E. The configuration register value can be verified with the show running-configuration command.

F. If NVRAM lacks boot system commands and the configuration register is set to 0x2102, the router, by default,

uses the IOS located in flash memory.

Answer: ACF

220. Because of a security advisory, Cisco releases an IOS version with a security patch. An administrator needs

to rapidly deploy this temporary version of the IOS to routers in the internetwork. The administrator prepares a

server with this image for distribution to the routers. Which three commands are needed to configure a router to

run this image as soon as possible? (Choose three.)

A. router# reload

B. router(config)# service config

C. router# copy tftp startup-config

D. router(config)# boot system tftp

E. router(config-line)# logging synchronous

F. router# copy running-config startup-config

Answer: ADF

221. What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a

spanning-tree topology?

A. path cost

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B. lowest port MAC address

C. VTP revision number

D. highest port priority number

E. port priority number and MAC address

Answer: A

222. When is a switched network that is running the Spanning Tree Protocol considered to be fully converged?

A. when all switches have the same BID as the root switch

B. when all switches have received the MAC address of each neighboring switch

C. when every enabled switch port has been assigned a unique identifier

D. when every operating switch port is in either the blocking or forwarding state

E. when all switches are in either client, server, or transparent mode

Answer: D

223. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot

establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip

ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of

this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.

C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.

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F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Answer: D

224. The network administrator has configured NAT as shown in the graphic. Clients still cannot access the

Internet. What should the network administrator do to resolve this problem?

A. Configure an IP NAT address pool.

B. Properly configure the ACL.

C. Apply the ip nat command to the S0 interface.

D. Configure the ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands on the interfaces.

Answer: D

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225. Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)

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226. Routing has been configured on the local router with these commands:

Drag each destination IP address on the left to its correct next hop address on the right.

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227. In order to complete a basic switch configuration, drag each switch IOS command on the left to its purpose

on the right.

Answer:

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228. All hosts in the same subnet with 172.16.5.118/26 must be denied Telnet access to hosts outside the LAN. To

complete the bracketed command, [ access-list list-number deny tcp 172.16.5.__ address 0.0.0.__ mask___ any eq

port__], drag each appropriate option on the left to its proper placeholder on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Answer:

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229. A host with the address of 192.168.125.34 /27 needs to be denied access to all hosts outside its own subnet.

To accomplish this, complete the command in brackets, [access-list 100 deny protocol address mask any ], by

dragging the appropriate options on the left to their correct placeholders on the right.

Answer:

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230. If a Cisco router has learned about network 10.1.1.0 from multiple sources, the router will select and install

only one entry into the routing table. Indicate the order of preference that the router will use by dragging the

routes on the left to the order of preference category on the right.

231. Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route. (Not all options

are used.)

232. Drag the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms are used.)

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233. From the partial router output below, match the output information to the OSI layer. (Not all options apply).

Answer:

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234.

235.

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236.

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237.

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238.

Answer:

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239.

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240.

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