IDBI PO Model Paper

No. of Questions: 200 TIME: 2 Hours

TEST - I: REASONING1. Village Chimur is 20 km to the North of village Rewa, Village Rahate is 18 km to the Est of Village Rewa.

Village Angne is 12 km to the West of Chimur. If Sanjay starts from village Rahate and reaches to village Angne, in which direction is he from his starting point?(1) North (2) North-West (3) South (4) South -East (5) none of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 2 – 3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.

A, B, C, D, E and F live on different floors in the same building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbred1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6).A lives on an even numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which D and F live. F lives on a floor above D’s floor. D does not live on floor number 2. B does not live on an odd numbered floor. C does not live on any of the floors below F’s floor. E does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below the floor on which B lives.

2. Who amongst the following live on the floors exactly between D and F?(1) E, B (2) C, B (3) E, C (4) A, E (5) B, A

3. On which of the following floors does B live?(1) 6th (2) 4th (3) 2nd (4) 5th (5) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. Nos. 4 – 5): Study the following information to answer the given questions.In a five letter English word (which may or may not be a meaningful English word), there are two letters between L and P. S is not placed immediately next to L. There is only one letter between S and A. S is towards the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to E.

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to the word thus formed?(1) E is at one of the extreme ends of the word(2) P is not placed immediately next to A(3) There are two letters between A and E in the word thus formed(4) P is placed second to the right of E (5) None is correct

5. Which of the following words will be formed based on the given conditions?(1) SPAEL (2) PEALS (3) LEAPS (4) SEPAL (5)LAPSE

Directions (Q. Nos. 6 – 10): Study the following information to answer the given questions.A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.Input: 52 peak 91 snow freeze 46 cold 15 high 31 73 trekStep I: 15 52 peak snow freeze 46 cold high 31 73 trek 91Step II: 15 31 52 peak snow freeze 46 cold high trek 73 91 Step III:15 31 46 peak snow freeze cold high trek 52 73 91Step IV: 15 31 46 cold peak snow freeze high trek 52 73 91 Step V: 15 31 46 cold freeze peak snow high trek 52 73 91 Step VI: 15 31 46 cold freeze high peak snow trek 52 73 91 Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above st3eps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input for the questions.Input: 67 hot sun 19 best 83 ice 49 ace 77 cut 37

6. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?(1) X (2) VIII (3) IX (4) VII (5) None of these

7. Which step number would be the following output?19 37 49 ace best hot sun ice cut 67 77 83(1) II (2) VI (3) V (4) IV (5) None of these

8. Which of the following would be the Step I ?(1) 19 37 49 hot sun best ice ace cut 67 77 83(2) 83 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace 77 cut 37 19

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(3) 19 67 ace best hot sun ice 49 77 cut 37 83(4) 19 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace 77 cut 37 83

(5) None of the above

9. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?(1) 67 77 ace best cut hot ice sun 19 37 49(2) 19 37 49 ace best cut hot ice sun 67 77 83(3) 19 37 49 67 83 ace best cut hot ice sun (4) 19 37 49 ace ice best cut hot sun 67 77 83

(5) None of the above

10. In Step IV, which of the following word / number would be on 7th position (from the right) ?(1) Sun (2) Best (3) 67 (4) Cut (5) None of these

Directions ( Q. Nos. 11 – 15): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.11. How many daughters does P have?

I. B and D are sisters of MII. M’s father T is husband of P.III. Out of the three children which T has, only one is a boy.(1) I and III (2) II and III (3) I and II (4) All of these (5) None of these

12. Who among A, B, C, D, E and F each having a different height, is the tallest?I. B is taller than A but shorter than E. II. Only two of them are shorter than C.III.D is taller than only F.

(1) I and II (2) I and III (3) II and III (4) All of these (5)None of these

13. Towards which direction is village J from village W?I. Village R is to the West of village W and to the North of village T.II. Village Z is to the East of village J and to the South of village T.III. Village M is to the North – East of village J and North of village Z.(1) Only III (2) II and III (3) All of these (4) cannot be determined (5) None of these

14. On which day of the week starting from Monday did Manoj visit Chennai?I. Manoj took leave on WednesdayII. Manoj visited Chennai the day after his mother’s visit to his house, he visited in 1st half of week.III. Manoj’s mother visited Manoj’s house neither on Monday nor on Thursday.(1) II and III (2) I and II (3) I and III (4) Cannot be determined (5) All of these

15. How is ‘go’ written in a code language?I. ‘Now or never again’ is written as ‘tom ka na sa’ in that c ode languageIi. ‘You come again now’ is written as ‘ja ka ta sa ‘in that code language.III. ‘Again go now or never ‘ written as ‘na ho ka sa tom’ in that code language.(1) I and III (2) II and III (3) I and II (4) All of these (5)None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 16 – 20): In each question below are two / three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. you have to take the two / three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

(1) If only conclusion I follows(2) If only conclusion II follows(3) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows(4) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows(5) If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

(Q. Nos. 16 and 17 )Statements: All gliders are parachutes. No parachute is an airplane. All airplanes are helicopters.

16. Conclusions:I. No helicopter is a glider II. All parachutes being helicopters is a possibility

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17. Conclusions:I. No glider is an airplaneII. All gliders being helicopters is a possibility

18. Statements: Some mails are chats. All updates are chats.Conclusions:I. All mails being updates is a possibility II. No update is a mail.

(Q. Nos. 19 and 20 ) Statements: No stone is a metal. Some metals are papers. All papers are glass

19. Conclusions:I. No glass is a metal II. Atleast some glass is metal.

20. Conclusions:I. All stones being glass is a possibility II. No stone is a paper.

Directions (Q. Nos. 21 – 25): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.Representatives from eight different banks viz., A, B, C, D, E, F, F and H are sitting around a circular tablefacing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a different bank viz., UCOBank, Oriental Bank of commerce, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank, Punjab NationalBank, Bank of India and Dena Bank.F sits second to right of the representative from Canara Bank, Representative from ‘Bank of India is animmediate neighbor of the representative from Canara Bank. Two people sit between the representative ofBank of India and B, C and E are immediate neighbors of each other. Neither C nor E is an immediateneighbor of either B or the representative from Canara Bank. Representative from Bank of Maharashtra sitssecond to right of D. D is neither the representative of Canara Bank nor Bank of India. G and therepresentative from UCO Bank are immediate neighbors of each other. B is not the representative of UCOBank. Only one person sits between C and the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce.H sits third to left of the representative from Dena Bank. Representative from Punjab National Bank sitssecond to left of the representative from Syndicate Bank.

21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?(1) H – UCO Bank (2) A – Canara Bank (3) D – Bank of Maharashtra (4) E – Syndicate Bank(5)F – Punjab National Bank

22. Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?(1) B is the representative from Bank of Maharashtra(2) C sits third to right of H(3) The representative from Dena Bank sits to the immediate left of the representative from UCO Bank(4) A sits second to right of the representative from Bank of India.

(5) The representatives from Bank of Maharashtra and Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbors of each other

23. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the representative from Bank of India?(1) A and the representative from UCO Bank (2) F and G (3) H and the representative from Bank of Maharashtra (4) H and G

(5) Representatives from Syndicate Bank and Oriental Bank of commerce

24. Who amongst the following is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce?(1) A (2) C (3) H (4) G (5) D

25. Who amongst the following sits second to left of B?(1) C (2) H (3) The representative from Canara Bank(4) The representative from Punjab National Bank (5) G

Directions (Q. Nos. 26 – 30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

P, Q, R, S, T , V, W, and Z are travelling to three destinations Delhi, Chennai and Hyderabad in three different vehicles – Honda City, Swift D’Zire and Ford Ikon. There are three females among them one in each car. There are atleast two persons in each car.

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R is not travelling with Q and W, T a male, is travelling with only Z and they are not travelling to Chennai. Pis travelling to Honda city to Hyderabad. S is sister of P and travels by Ford Ikon. V and R travel together. W does not travel to Chennai.

26. Members in which car are travelling to Chennai?(1) Honda City (2) Swift D’Zire (3) Ford Ikon (4) Either Swift D’Zire or Ford Ikon (5) None of the

above

27. In which car are four members travelling?(1) Honda City or Ford Ikon (2) Honda City (3) Swift D’Zire (4) Ford Ikon (5) None of these

28. Which of the following combinations represents the three female members?(1) QSZ (2) WSZ (3) PSZ (4) Cannot be determined (5) None

of these

29. Who is travelling with W?(1) Only Q (2) Only P (3) P and Q (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

30. Members in which of the following combinations are travelling in Honda City ?(1) PRS (2) PQW (3) PWS (4) Data inadequate (5) None

of these

31. It has been reported in recent years that a very large number of seats in the engineering colleges in the country remain vacant at the end of the admission session.Which of the following may be the probable cause of the above effect?(1) There has been a considerable decrease in hiring of engineering graduates due to economic slowdown

in the recentyears(2) Students have always preferred to complete graduation in three years time instead of four years for

engineering(3) The Government has recently decided to provide post qualification professional training to all engineering

graduates at its own cost(4) There has always been a very poor success rate among the engineering students(5) None of the above

32. The condition of the roads in the city has deteriorated considerably during the first two months of monsoon and most of the roads have developed big pot holes.Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause?(1) The municipal corporation had repaired all the roads in the city before onset of monsoon with good

quality material(2) A large number of people have developed spine related injuries after regularly commuting long distances

by road within the city(3) The municipal corporation has been careful in choosing he contractors for repairing roads in the past(4) People always complain about potholed roads during the monsoon months(5) None of the above

33. Majority of the students who appeared in the final examination of post graduate course in management in the local college have secured first class which is comparatively higher than the performance of students of other management colleges in the state.Which of the following may indicate that the results are not in line with the general trend?(1) The students of the local college are qualitatively better than those of other colleges(2) The authorities of the other management colleges in the state are stricter in their standard of evaluation

for their students(3) The students of other management colleges in the state performed better than the students of the localcollege in all the previous examinations(4) The local management college recently retrenched many of its regular faculty members(5) None of the above

34. It has been reported in many leading newspapers that the current year’s monsoon may be below the expected level as many parts of the country are still not getting adequate rainfall.Which of the following can be a possible fallout of the above situation?

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(1) People from those affected areas with less rainfall may migrate to urban areas(2) Government may announce ex-gratia payment to all the farmers affected in these areas (3) Government may declare these areas as drought affected areas (4) People may blame the Government and agitate for not getting adequate water for cultivation(5) None of the above

35. There has been a spate of rail accidents in India in the recent months killing large numbers of passengers and injuring many more. This has raised serious doubts about the railway’s capability of providing safety to travelers.Which of the following statements substantiates the views expressed in the above statement?(1) Indian Railways has come to be known to provide best passenger comfort in the recent years(2) People have no option other than travelling by rail over long distances(3) The railway tracks at may places have been found to be stressed due to wear and tear in the recent

times.(4) Local residents are always the first to provide a helping hand to the passengers in the event of such

disasters (5) None of the above

36. A few travelers were severely beaten up by villagers recently in a remote rural part of the state as the villagers found the movement of the travelers suspicious. The district authority has sent a police team to nab the culprits.Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statement?(An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts)(1) The villagers dislike presence of strangers in their vicinity(2) Villagers are generally suspicious in nature(3) Travellers prefer to visit countryside(4) The Government generally provides protection to travellers across the country(5) None of the above

37. There has been a considerable drop in sales of four wheelers during the past six months when compared tothe number of four wheelers sold during this period last year.Which of the following can be the probable cause of the above phenomenon?I. The Government has imposed higher excise duty on four wheelers at the beginning of this year.II. The petrol prices have risen considerably during the past eight months.III. The rate of interest on home and car loans have been rising for the past seven months.(1) Only I (2) I and III (3) II and III (4) Only II (5) All of these

38. There is an alarming trend of skewed sex ratio against women in Indian during the past decade and situation may get out of hand if adequate steps are not taken to stop female feticide.I. The Government should immediately completely ban use of scanners/sonography on expectant mothers at all health centres.II. The Government should announce substantial incentive scheme for couples who have atleast one girl child.III. The Government should launch a nationwide campaign to create awareness against female feticide.(1) Only I (2) I and II (3) II and III (4) All of these (5) None of these

39. A very large number of technically qualified young Indians are coming out of colleges every year though there are not enough opportunities for them to get gainful employmentWhich of the following contradicts the views expressed in the above statement?(1) Technically qualified persons are far superior to those with standard degrees like BA/B. Sc./ B. Com.

Etc.,(2) The Government has not done effective perspective planning for engaging technically qualified personnel

while authorizing the setting up of technical colleges(3) A huge gap exists between the level of competence of technically qualified graduates and requirement of

the Industry.(4) Majority of the technically qualified persons are migrating from India to developed countries for better opportunities.

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(5) None of the above40. The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the

country on build operate transfer basis. Which of the assumptions is / are implicit in the above statement?I. An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification,II. Many private entities in the country are capable of construction highway within reasonable timeIII. The Govt. ‘s proposal of build-operate – transfer may financially benefit the private entities.(1) I and II are implicit (2) II and III are implicit (3) Only II is implicit (4) I and III are implicit (5) none of these

(Q. Nos. 41 – 45): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.In a certain code language, ‘government is ready for disaster management’ is written as ‘ti cu ko mo je pe’, ‘management less government’ is written as ‘de cu ko’, ‘less organised management’ is written as ‘cu pa de’ and ‘government ready in management’ is written as ‘cu ti ko su’.

41. Which of the following is the code for ‘disaster’?(1) je (2) ti (3) mo (4) can’t be determined (5) None of these

42. What does ‘su’ stand for?(1) government (2) ready (3) for (4) in (5) can’t be determined

43. Which of the following is the code for ‘management in government?(1) su cu ti (2) su ko cu (3) ti ko cu (4) ko mo su (5) None of these

44. Which of the following may be the possible code for ‘government should ready in management’?(1) cu ti ko su ye (2) ye ti su ko mo (3) cu ti mo su ye(4) ti ko cu ye je (5) None of these

45. If ‘organised’ is related to ‘pa’, ‘less’ is related to ‘de’ and ‘ready’ is related to ‘ti’ , then ‘for’ is related to which of the following?(1) je (2) Pe (3)mo (4) Either ‘je’ or ‘pe’ (5) can’t be determined

Directions(46 – 50): In the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given them is/are definitely true. Given answer

(1) If only conclusion I is true.(2) If only conclusion II is true.(3) If either conclusion I or II is true.(4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.(5) If both conclusion I and II are true.

46. Statements: P = E, Q P, V < Q≥Conclusion: I. E P ≤ II. E > P

47. Statements: A > B, B C, C < D≥Conclusion: I. A > C II. A = C

48. Statements: M A, V > M, S V≤ ≥Conclusion: I. A S≤ II. S < A

49. Statements: P Q, Q R, T > Y≤ ≥Conclusion: I. Q = P II. Q > P

50. Statements: O T, X < O, T > V≤Conclusion: I. X T≤ II. V = X

TEST - II: ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Q. 51 – 60): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a country where consumers have traditionally had a raw deal, the Consumer Protection Act was one of the most progressive acts of legislative introduced in 1986. Before this, a shop could get away easily with the line “goods once sold will not be taken back or exchanged” or a car parking constructor with “park at your own risk”. It is not that things have changed now but at least a legislation is in place and a forum is available to seek redressal. One of the basic limitations of this act is its mystification and general Ignorance. No consumer agency or group has made its provisions general, nor has any redressal commission or forum.Restricted as it is by a “lack of infrastructure and personnel and great verdicts” to encourage consumers. The legislation is comprehensive. It gives consumers the right to redress against defective goods, deficient services and unfair trade practices. Consumers courts must deliver their judgments within 40 days, but rarely is this deadline adhered to. This reviewer had a first – hand experience of the chairman of a consumercourt in Delhi who adjourned a case against a foreign airline for two years on the grounds that he did not

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have staff to type the orders. His replacement found the backing so shocking that he did not have staff to type the orders. His replacement found the backlog so shocking that he dismissed several cases without applying his mind, in the process working against the interests of consumers. But what is more important is that the law has it that a consumer can approach court on his own without having to pay legal fees. In practice, this does not happen. The chairperson of the National Commission, who is a sitting judge, is so attuned to delivering judgements which can stand scrutiny in a civil court of law that t is insisted upon that a consumer must be represented by a lawyer. If not, cases are adjourned with impurity and set for another day. Girimaji’s attempt is creditable in that it is the first of its kind and has addressed almost all possible angles. She has discussed redressals in complaints about housing, basic telephony, rail transportation, power supply, life insurance and medical negligence. There are even tips on how to file a complaint. But it is mired in the case files of the National/State Commissions of the Consumer Forum. A useful dimension would have been a comparison with the Law of Torts practiced abroad. It is necessary here also, especially in an area of economic liberalization, when the consumer is likely to be swept off his feet by free – market forces.

51. Why is the consumer likely to be swept off his feet?(1) He is easily taken by the deceptive publicity.(2) He is wooed by the charm of foreign brands readily available in the market.(3) He is not aware of the Law of Torts as practiced abroad.(4) He is not aware of the benefits of the consumer rights.(5) The Consumer Protection Act has been implemented and he can seek redressal

52. What does ‘lack of ……… verdicts’ imply?(1) A lack of the basis of the system, trained staff decisions based on fact(2) A paucity of funds, jury and judgement(3) A lack of resources, employees and final decision based on facts(4) Not having the required manpower, economy and decisive ruling(5) None of these

53. Which of the following statements is/are true?A. Girimaji’s attempt is comprehensive but could have done with an angle or two more.B. Though the Act allows the consumer to approach the court on his own, yet a lawyer to represent him is insisted upon.

C. Despite the Act, much remains the same.(1) Only A and C (2) Only A and B (3) All A, B and C(4) Only B and C (5) None of these

54. What does the author mean by ‘mystification of the Act’?(1) The mysterious Act is yet to be resolved.(2) The consumer is wary of the Act.(3) The Act is easily accessible. (4) The consumer remains unaware of his rights and privileges.(5) The plight of the consumer is yet to end.

55. Which of the following best describes the judge’s replacement?(1) He was partial towards the airline as it was a foreign one.(2) He never bothered to safeguard the interests of the reviewer.(3) He dismissed cases without even giving a second thought to what cases to him.(4) He was apathetic and uninterested about the direction the case might head in.(5) He passed irrelevant verdicts indifferently.

56. What does the Act broadly cover?(1) It protects the right to redress.(2) It is a forum that protects the redresser.(3) It shields the consumer from deceptive and unfair trade practices.(4) It enables the plaintiff to fight his case free of cost.(5) None of these

57. Which of the following is a limitation of the Act?(1) It does not cover the international law of torts.(2) It is not comprehensive with regard to liberal economy.

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(3) No forum or commission has come forward to bring it to light.(4) Its red-tapism(5) None of these

58. How has Girimaji’s attempt been creditable?(1) It has given the Act a new dimension.(2) She has brought all the loopholes in the Act to the consumer’s notice.(3) She as looked at the Act in a very disinterested and impersonal manner.(4) She has discussed the law in the most explicit manner.(5) Her implicit dialogue with the consumer has made him aware of his rights.

59. What is the functionary role of the chairman of the National Commission?(1) To be the titular head of the commission(2) To be accountable to the public (3) To prevent any dissent arising out of his verdicts and Acts(4) To adjourn the cases with impurity(5) None of these

Directions (Q. 60): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage. 60. Forum

(1) Dias (2) Podium (3) Platform (4) Stage (5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 61 – 65): In each of the following questions, a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing as represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices givento have the passage complete and coherent.61. Even the extremely inhospitable deserts are not totally devoid of plant life. For instance, the Atacama

Desert in Western Chile ranks highest in the world according to the degree of aridity. For little over 50 yearsthere is no record of any rainfall whatsoever during that period. Nevertheless there are ……… even in this exceptionally harsh climate. These trees acquire water for their survival by leaf drinking.(1) trees were growing (2) trees are unwantedly cutting (3) forests are destroying(4) trees that manage to grow (5) human being vanished the trees

62. In scientific jargon, the phenomenon of leaf drinking is called ‘reverse transpiration’. Transpiration is the process by which the roots take in water, which then flows up through the stems and exits the leaves. Molecular movement without any natural or ……………. Always occurs from the substance with the higher concentration to the substance with the lower concentration until both substances hold equal concentrations and movement ceases (equilibrium).(1) movement without any natural (2) stems, roots and leaves exist(3) phenomenon of leaf drinking(4) unnatural source of pressure (5) pressure was sourceful

63. Relative Humidity (RH) is the factor that directly affects the rate of transpiration . RH is the percentage of water the air is holding to how much the air could hold. RH is affected by air temperature. The higher the air temperature, the more water it can hold. ………..at night due to the setting sun and its associated heat. Therefore, as the night air cools, the relative humidity rises until the coolest temperature is reached, usually an hour or two before sunrise. If the air temperature cools enough, the result is dew, snow or frost. As RH rises, transpiration slows until at some point (90% - 100%) it eases because equilibrium between the moisture concentrations in the air equals the concentration exiting the leaves.Approaching 100%, the concentration in the air may exceed that in the leaves. Then reverse transpiration sets in, that is, leaves begin to take in moisture from the air.(1) Affected by air temperature (2) Air temperature the more water(3) Generally temperature is lower (4) Concentration in the air may exceed(5) Parley spell of drought

64. The trees of the Atacama Desert are not the sole practitioners of this curious business of leaf drinking. There are many other plants that use the same trick for their existence for instance, the pygmy cedar (Peucephyllum schottii), during a prolonged spell of drought, is capable of living on moisture from night air alone. This …………….. family and blooms during mid-February to end – June.(1) trees and software are different (2) living sunflower was plant family

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(3) plant belongs to the sunflower (4) sunflower is the family of plant(5) sunflower belongs to plant

65. Leaf drinkers are of special interest to drought-prone countries because the distilled water they gather from the air washes the salt away from their roots. This helps to counter the serious problem of salt building up from irrigation water. Furthermore, these plants may be used as food to maintain herds of useful animals. In fact, a ……………. Phenomenon shall be of much help in selection and breeding of improved varieties of leaf drinkers. Superior assortment of leaf drinkers may also be of help in arresting the spreading out of deserts.(1) interest must known by them (2) interest shared be better understand(3) better understand of interest (4) better understanding of this interesting(5) they should understand better

Directions (Q. Nos. 66 – 70): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow.

(A) According to it, organized retail stores are not wolves at the doors of friendly neighborhood grocery stores as there is room for expansion of both.(B) Many have been crying foul over the entry of organized retail stores expressing concern over their impact on small store owners.(C) The final winner in the competition, however, is the common man who gets to choose between the most suitable options and in turn fights with the runaway inflation in prices of essential commodities.(D) In spite of this potential for expansion, It is doubtless that the small store owners face a decline in profit in initial years if organized retailers set up stores in the vicinity.(E) But a study conducted over a period of two years goes a long way towards allaying these fears.(F) This impact, however wears off once they learn to take on the competition which in turn enhances efficiency all around

66. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after rearrangement?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

67. Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD after rearrangement?(1) A (2) E (3) D (4) F (5) C

68. Which of the following sentences should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E (5) F

69. Which of the following sentences should be the SECOND after rearrangement?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E (5) F

70. Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after rearrangement?(1) D (2) B (3) C (4) E (5) F

Directions (Q. Nos. 71 – 85): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

In these days of economic liberalization, globalization etc. Materialistic values have assumed (71) importance. Money, physical (72) and luxuries are the most sought after aspects. There has been (73) competition. Such competition (74) undue stress. The stress leads to (75) of (76) of the people. Indian culture has (77) its striking (78) as against the Western culture, in the fact that there is a (79) place for spiritualism in the value (80) in all walks of life. The spirituality is a very (81) force which helps us in our physical and mental health. It gives us (82) to cope with the stress. Westerners have now (83) the importance of (84) and therefore they have started (85) us in the matter of spirituality.

71. (1) usual (2) little (3) tangible (4) least (5) greater72. (1) comforts (2) comfortable (3) comforting (4) uncomforted (5) normal73. (1) critical (2) unhealthy (3) unequalled (4) no (5) absolute74. (1) releases (2) deserves (3) generates (4) demonstrates (5) suppresses75. (1) neglect (2) illness (3) generation (4) deterioration (5) encroachment 76. (1) healthy (2) health (3) heavily (4) medicine (5) medical77. (1) maintained (2) illustrated (3) marginalized (4) bestowed (5) forsaken78. (1) unique (2) different (3) uniqueness (4) antique (5) any one 79. (1) vast (2) brief (3) formal (4) clean (5) distinct

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80. (1) systematically (2) system (3) rule (4) regulation (5) arrangement 81. (1) dormant (2) dedicated (3) vital (4) common (5) dynamic 82. (1) strength (2) tips (3) clearance (4) sermons (5) ideals83. (1) informed (2) narrated (3) intensified (4) realized (5) invented84. (1) goodness (2) spiritless (3) spiritually (4) religions (5) praying85. (1) encouraging (2) imitating (3) blaming (4) preaching (5) assuming

Directions (Q. Nos. 86 – 94): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.Hiero, King of Syracus, had commissioned from a goldsmith of the town a crown of pure gold, but, havingtaken delivery of the finished article, he was suspicious. There was reason to believe that the craftsman hadmixed with the gold a certain amount of other metal of inferior value. But how to find out? There was nodirect evidence, and it was therefore obviously a case for the learned men of the city. And who more learnedthan Archimedes?The mathematician was, therefore charged with the task which would now-a-days be considered a simpleone, but was then a matter for serious thought. Nothing known to science could be brought forward to provefraud or otherwise on the part of the goldsmith. It is more than probable that the human side of the probleminterested Archimedes not at all, but the scientific puzzle worried him intensely. This worry pursued himeverywhere he went for days, and persisted through the routine acts of his daily round.In the normal course of that routine he went to the public baths. We can imagine him standing at the edgeof the bath tub as he prepared to enter it. Absently allowing the water to flow until he cannot help noticing it.Suddenly, he splashed out of his tub, shouting at the top of his voice, “Eureka! Eureka! ( I have found it! Ihave found it!) Without waiting, or even thinking of such a detail” as clothes, he tore out of the building andrushed through the streets of Syracuse, still shouting. “Eureka! Eureka!”. Arrived at his house, themathematician put his newly found discovery to a practical test, and found indeed that a body plunged in afluid loses an amount of its weight which is equal to the weight of the flued displaced by it. With this as astarting point – as it was to prove the starting point of many subsequent discoveries to importance –Archimedes was able to tell his king how much pure gold was his crown. Thus, was the first fundamentallaw in hydrostatics enunciated.Archimedes was by this time well-known to his fellow townsmen, and his sometimes strange appearanceand unusual actions probably met with indulgent smiles. He came from a good family, his father Pheidiaswas an astronomer; he was on intimate terms with, and according to some was even a kinsman of kingHiero himself.

86. Why could the king not punish the fraudulent goldsmith?(1) By that time Archimedes had not discovered the law of hydrostatics(2) The king did not have concrete evidence to prove the fraud(3) The finishing of the crown was perfect, but deceptive (4) The king had lot of faith in the goldsmith(5) None of the above

87. Why was Archimedes charged with the task of finding out if there was any impurity in the crown?(1) Archimedes was famous as the most learned man and mathematician(2) The king was worried that the goldsmith will tell the truth of Archimedes(3) The finishing of the crown was perfect but deceptive (4) The king had lot of faith in the goldsmith(5)None of the above

88. What was the king’s suspicion?(1) The goldsmith had made a crown with some inferior metal instead of gold(2) The craftsman had replaced gold with a cheaper metal (3) The goldsmith had mixed a cheaper metal with gold in the crown(4) The finishing of the crown was not upto the mark (5) None of the above

89. Which of the following statements is definitely True in the context of the passage?(1) Archimedes action of running nude through public places was not taken lightly by the onlookers(2) Archimedes eccentric actions used to create anguish among the public(3) The goldsmith has mixed inferior quality metal in the crown(4) Archimedes could prove that there was no impurity in the gold used by the goldsmith in the crown (5) Archimedes could measure the purity of gold in the king’s crown

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90. When Archimedes was entrusted with the task, he was curious because(1) he was thrilled by the human side of the problem (2) he used to forget all his routine matter’s and concentrate on the problem(3) he had never worked on such scientific challenged in the past(4) it was challenge to unearth scientific(5) None of the above

91. “Eureka! Eureka”! as spelt out by Archimedes was(1) an outburst of unreasonable ride of inventing a novel principle(2) a spontaneous reaction of excitement due to a discovery(3) an immature expression of half baked idea(4) an exhibition of encouragement for a useful discovery

(5) None of the above

92. What was the impact of Archimedes tremendous mental involvement in solving the king’s riddle?(1) He was worried but able to take care of his daily routine(2) The involvement ultimately led to a failure in completing the assignment(3) He was not able to think of the details of the problem entrusted to him(4) Because of his involvement he forgot to put the discovery to a practical test

(5) None of the above

93. A body submerged in a liquid loses its weight equal to (1) the weight of the liquid in which it is submerged(2) the volume of the liquid in which it is submerged(3) the weight of the body which is submerged in the liquid(4) the weight of the liquid displaced by it

(5) None of the above94. Which of the following is False in the context of the passage?

A. Archimedes father was not an astronomerB. Before ‘Archimedes discovery’ science had limitation to detect the goldsmith’s fraud.C. Archimedes discovered his principle while he was in the tub for bath.(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) Only A (5) Only B

Directions (Q. Nos. 95 – 100): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Jagir Singh has sold red onions at a market in south Delhi every day for the past half-century. Perched onan upturned crate, wrapped tight against the chill air, he offers pyaz, a staple for much Indian cooking, forRs. 60 a kilo, the most he can remember. Business is brisk but most customers pick up only a small handfulof onions. That is just as well. Wholesale supplies are tight, he says, and the quality is poor.As India’s economy grows by some 9% a year, food prices are soaring. In late December, the commerceministry judged that food inflation had reached 18.3%, with pricey vegetables mostly to blame. Officialshave made some attempts to temper the rise in the past month – scrapping import taxes for onions,banning their export and ordering low-priced sales at Government-run shops. But there is no quick fix.Heavy rain in the west of India brought a rotten harvest. Vegetables from farther afield – including apolitically sensitive delivery from a neighboring country -- are costly to move on India’s crowded, pot-holedroads. Few refrigerated lorries and poor logistics mean that much of each harvest is wasted. Newspapersallege hoarders are cashing in.The biggest problems are structural. Food producers, hampered by land restrictions, archaic retailnetworks and bad infrastructure, fail to meet extra demand from consumers. It was estimated in Octoberthat a 39% rise in income per person in the previous five years might have created an extra 220 millionregular consumers of milk, eggs, meat and fish. Supplies have not kept up with this potential demand.The broader inflation rate may be a less eye-watering problem than the onions suggest. The central bankhas lifted interest rates steadily in the past year and is expected to do so again later this month. Headlineinflation fell to 7.5% in November, down by just over a percentage point from October, though it is still abovethe central Bank’s forecast of 5.5% for March.

95. What is responsible for the increased demand of certain food items amongst consumers?(1)There has been an increase in the wholesale supplies of this food stuff(2) The vegetables in the market are very highly priced

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(3) There has been an increase in the incomes of people(4) There is a lack of availability of vegetables in the market

(5) There has been a surge in population

96. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?(1) The overall inflation is not as bad as the food inflation in India(2) Help from other countries to counter food inflation has prove to be quite encouraging(3) Government is banning the export of certain types of vegetable sin order to check food inflation(4) Highly priced vegetables are mostly responsible for the increased food inflation(5) All the above statements are true

97. Which of the following is / are the reasons / for increase in food / vegetable prices?A. Bad weatherB. Land restrictionsC. Poor infrastructure for storage and transportation(1) Only B (2) A and C (3) A and B (4) B and C (5) All of these

98. Which of the following is / are TRUE in the context of the passage?A. Interest rates are being raised in IndiaB. India is witnessing a steady economic growthC. It has been proven that the food inflation is mainly because of hoarding.(1) A and B (2) Only C (3) B and C (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

99. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?(1) Food inflation in India (2) Onions And Vendors (3) Food Deficit World wide(4) Food Imports in India (5) Benefits to Indian Consumers

100. What can be said about the sale of onions at present as given in the passage?(1) Vegetable vendors are unwilling to sell onions(2) People are not buying as much as they used to (3) The sale of onions has picked up and is unprecedented(4) People are buying more onions than they used to

(5) None of the above

TEST - III: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections (101 – 105): In each of these questions two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve boththe equations and give answer

(1) If x > y (2) If x y≥ (3) If x < y(4) If x y≤ (5) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y

101. I. 81x² – 108x + 35 = 0II. 81y² – 72y + 15 = 0

102. I. x² – 16x + 63 = 0II. y² – 2y – 35 = 0

103. I. 2x² – 15x + 28 = 0II. 5y² – 34y + 24 = 0

104. I. 7x – 5y = 25II. 2x + 9y = 28

105. I. II.

106. Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 5 : 3 and 2 : 3. When these mixtures are mixed to form a new mixture containing half milk half water, they must be taken in the ratio :(1) 2 : 5 (2) 3 : 5 (3) 4 : 5 (4) 7 : 3 (5) None of these

107. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is the ratio between speed in still water and speed of current?(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (5) None of these

108. In a 120 L of mixture of milk and water, water is only 25%. The milkman sold 20 L of this mixture and then he added 16.2 L of pure milk and 3.8 L of pure water in the remaining mixture. What is the percentage of water in the final mixture?(1) 22 (2) 21 (3)24 (4) 25 (5) 20

109. The speed of boat A is 2 km/h less than the speed of the boat B. The time taken by boat A to travel a

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distance of 20 km downstream is 30 min more than time taken by B to travel the same distance downstream. If the speed of the current is one third of the speed of the boat A, what is the speed of boat B?(1) 4 km/h (2) 6 km/h (3)12 km/h (4) 10 km/h (5) 8 km/h

110. Ravi and Ajay start simultaneously from a place A towards B. 60 km apart. Ravi’s speed is 4 km/h less than that of Ajay. Ajay after reaching B, turns back and meets Ravi’s at a place 12 km away from B. Ravi’s speed is(1) 12 km/h (2) 10 km/h (3) 8 km/h (4) 6 km/h (5) none of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 111 – 115): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?111. 17 18 22 31 47 ?

(1) 72 (2) 77 (3) 83 (4) 68 (5) 65112. 13 14 17 22 29 ?

(1) 33 (2) 35 (3) 36 (4) 38 (5) 37113. 6 8 4 12 4 ?

(1)28 (2) - 26 (3) 24 (4) – 22 (5) 32114. 222 198 178 162 150 ?

(1) 148 (2) 142 (3) 144 (4) 150 (5) 146115. 53 318 1590 6360 19080 ?

(1) 38165 (2) 38170 (3) 38160 (4) 38175 (5) 38106

Directions (Q. Nos. 116 – 120): Study the following diagrams carefully and answer the given questions.

Total Polio cases in India

116. What is the average difference between Polio cases in 2011 and that in 2012?(1) 35 (2) 37 (3) 38 (4) 39 (5) None of these

117. In which state the difference between Polio cases in 2011 and 2012 is 11 and which had zero incidence in 2010?

(1) Bihar (2) West Bengal (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Delhi (5) Haryana118. Approximately what per cent of Polio cases was reported in Bihar in 2011 with respect to total cases reported in India

that year?(1) 6% (2) 6.5% (3) 7% (4) 7.5% (5) None of these

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119. Polio cases in Haryana in 2012 and Bihar in 2010 together is what per cent of the Polio cases in Delhi in 2011?

(1) 120% (2) 80% (3) 125% (4) 75% (5) 95%120. Find the ratio between the total numbers of cases in the five given states to that in the rest of country in 2010

(1) 9 : 67 (2) 2 : 29 (3) 29 : 4 (4) 9 : 58 (5) None of these121. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs. 536 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for

Rs. 426. What is the cost price of the article?(1) Rs. 448 (2) Rs. 470 (3) Rs. 481 (4) Rs. 500 (5) None of these

122. In an examination there are 30 questions. 1 mark is given for each correct answer and 0.25 is deducted for every incorrect answer. Ankur attempted all the questions and scored 13.75. How many incorrect answers did he have?(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 15 (5) None of these

123. Mrs. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary, i.e., Rs. 4428 in Mutual Funds. Later she invests 18% of her monthly salary on Pension Policies also she invests another 9% of her salary on Insurance Policies. What is the total monthly amount invested by Mrs. Sharma?(1) Rs. 113356.8 (2) Rs. 12398.4 (3) Rs. 56678.4 (4) Can’t determined (5) None of these

124. In how many ways can 5 colours be selected out of 9?(1) 98 (2) 142 (3) 72 (4) 126 (5) None of these

125. Ratio of earnings of A and B is 4 : 5 respectively. If the earnings of A increase by 20% and the earnings of Bdecrease by 20%, the new ratio of their earnings becomes 6 : 5 respectively. What are A’s earnings?(1) Rs. 22000 (2) Rs. 27500 (3) 26400 (4) Can’t determined (5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 126 – 130): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.Number of Males and Females Staying in Various Societies

Societies Males FemalesABCDEF

250400300280180325

350150275300250300

Percentage of Males and Females Children in the Societies

Societies Children Male Children Female Children

ABCDEF

25%40%16%25%40%24%

40%75%25%80%50%46%

60%25%75%20%50%54%

126. What is the total number of female children staying in all the societies together?(1) 314 (2) 433 (3) 410 (4) 343 (5) None of these

127. What is the respective ratio of the number of adult females to the total number of female children staying in all the

societies together?(1) 243: 82 (2) 112: 71 (3) 82: 243 (4) 71: 112 (5) None of these

128. What is the total number of members staying in all the societies together?(1) 3520 (2) 3360 (3)4100 (4) 3000 (5) None of these

129. What is the respective ratio of the total number of adult males in societies A and B together to the total number of adult males in societies E and F together? (1) 75: 79 (2) 14: 17 (3) 79: 75 (4) 17: 14 (5) None of these

130. What is the difference between the number of male children in society B and the number of male children in society F ?

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(1) 84 (2) 14 (3) 96 (4) 26 (5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 131 – 135): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions given below.Out of a total number of commuters commuting daily in a city, 17171 commuters commute only by trains daily. 7359 commuters commute only by bikes and 22077 commuters commute only by bus, 14718 commuters commute only by cars. 4906 commuters commute only by autos, 7359 commuters commute only by taxies. 26983 commuters commute by bus as well as trains daily. 9812 commuters commute by autos as well as train daily. 12265 commuters commute by bus as well as autos daily.

131. The total number of commuters commuting by trains from what per cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?

(1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 14 (4) 36 (5) None of these132. The total number of commuters commuting by autos from what per cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?

(1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 14 (4) 36 (5) None of these133. The total number of commuters commuting by bikes and taxies together from what per cent of the total

number of commuters commuting daily?(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 16 (5) None of these

134. What is the total number of commuters in the city commuting daily?(1) 122650 (2) 126250 (3) 162250 (4) 152260 (5) None of these

135. The number of commuters communing only by bus from what per cent of the total number of commuters commuting daily?

(1) 40 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 18 (5) None of these136. The numbers are less than the third number by 50% and 54% respectively. By how much per cent is the

second number less than the first number?(1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these

137. In how many different way can the letters of the word ‘BLOATING’ be arranged?(1) 40320 (2) 5040 (3) 2520 (4) 20160 (5) None of these

138. The average of 5 numbers is 306.4. The average of the first two numbers is 431 and the average of the last two numbers is 214.5. What is the third number?(1) 108 (2) 52 (3) 321 (4) Can’t determined (5) None of these

139. 56 men can complete a piece of work in 24 days. In how many days can 42 men complete the same piece of work?

(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 98 (4) 48 (5) None of these140. A man takes 6 h 35 min in walking to a certain place and riding back. He would have taken 2 h less by

riding both ways. What would be the time he would take to walk both ways?(1)4 h 35 min (2) 8 h 35 min (3) 10 h (4) 8 h 25 min (5) None of these

141. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator of the faction is increased by 150%,the resultant fraction is. What is the original fraction?(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) None of these

142. Samiara, Mahira and Kaira rented a set of DVDs at a rent of Rs. 578. If they used it for 8 h, 12 h and 14 h respectively, what is Kaira’s share of rent to be paid?(1) Rs. 238 (2) Rs. 204 (3) Rs. 192 (4) Rs. 215 (5) None of these

143. A pole hare to be erected on the boundary of a circular park of diameter 13 m in such a way that the difference of its distances from two diametrically opposite fixed gates A and B on the boundary is 7 m. The distance of the police from one of the gates is (1) 8 m (2) 8. 25 m (3) 5 m (4) 6 m (5) None of these

144. A spiral is made up of 13 successive semi-circles with centre alternately at A and B starting with centre at A. The radii of semi-circles thus developed are 0.5 cm, 1.0 cm, 1.5 cm and 2.0 cm and so on. The total length of the spiral is (1) 144 cm (2) 143 cm (3) 174 cm (4) 194 cm (5) None of these

145. The game of “chuck – a - luck” is played at carnival in some parts of Europe. Its rules are as follows. If you pick a number from 1 to 6 and the operator rolls three dice. If the number you picked comes up on all three dice, you are paid € 3; if it comes up on two dice, you are paid €2; and if it comes up on just one dice, you

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are paid €1. Only if the number you picked does not come up at all, you pay the operator €1. The probabilitythat you will win money playing in this game is (1) 0.52 (2) 0.753 (3) 0.42 (4) 0.67 (5) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 146 – 150): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below.

(Values are given in crores)146. What is the average number of units sold over the years?

(1) 440000000 (2) 4400000 (3) 440000 (4) 44000000 (5) None of these147. What is the respective ratio of the difference between the number of units manufactured and sold in the year

2009 to the difference between the number of units manufactured and sold in the year 2010?(1) 2: 3 (2) 1: 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 5 (5) None of these

148. What is the respective ratio of the number of units manufactured in the year 2007 to the number of units manufactured in the year 2011?(1) 7: 11 (2) 9: 14 (3) 7 : 9 (4) 9 : 11 (5) None

of these 149. What is the approximate per cent increase in the number of units sold in the year 2011 from the previous year?

(1) 190 (2) 70 (3) 60 (4) 95 (5) 117150. What is the difference between the number of units manufactured and the number of units sold over the years?

(1) 40000000 (2) 4000000 (3) 400000000 (4) 400000 (5) None of these

TEST – IV: GENERAL AWARENESS151. All commercial banks including branches of foreign banks functioning in India, local area banks and regional

ural anks are insured by the DICGC. What is the full form of DICGC?(1) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Company(2) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation(3) Direct Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation(4) Direct Insurance and Credit Guarantee Company

(5) None of the above152. According to the Reserve Bank’s instructions on banking matters. The banks can accept interest free

deposits in which of the following accounts?(1) Only savings accounts (2) Only current accounts (3) Savings and current accounts(4) Savings, current and RD accounts (5) None of the above

153. Which price control measure is more effective during long period?(1) Surplus budget (2) Reduction in indirect taxation (3) Increase in production(4) Increase in literacy (5) None of the above

154. Which of the following is not helpful in controlling money supply ?(1) Free market policy (2) CRR (3) Bank rate(4) Change in margin requirement (5) None of the above

155. Sensex is related with the value of a few selected companies. The number of companies is (1) 300 (2) 150 (3) 100 (4) 50 (5) 30

156. In which of the following situations the ‘investment’ will increase?(1) Increase in output and decrease in capital stock(2) Decrease in output and increase in capital stock(3) Increase in output and increase in capital stock(4) Decrease in output and decrease in capital stock(5) None of the above

157. GDR means(1) Gross Domestic Ratio which is a macro aggregate (2) Global depository Receipt which is the mechanism to raise funds from international market(3) Global Development Range which has been set up by UNO for developing countries(4) Geographically Developed Regions as defined by the UNDP(5) None of the above

158. Which of the following is a fundamental commercial bank accounting identity?

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(1) Assets plus capital equals liabilities (2) Assets plus liabilities equals capital(3) Assets minus liabilities equals capital (4) Either 1 or 2(5) None of the above

159. Which of the following is a source of commercial bank funds?(1) Deposits (2) Capital (3) Non-deposit borrowing (4) All of these (5) None of these

160. Which of the following is a use for commercial bank funds?(1) Loans (2) Securities (3) Reserves (4) All of these (5) None of these

161. On the commercial bank balance sheet, which of the following is an asset?(1) Capital accounts (2) Deposits with RBI (3) Transactions deposits (4) All of these (5) None of thse

162. According to the Banking Regulation Act, RBI can fix SLR upto the ceiling of (1) 40% (2) 50% (3) 30% (4) 45% (5) 35%

163. Name a Poverty Eradication Programme in which banks played the dominant role(1) IRDP (2) MNP (3) Rojgar Bima Yojana (4) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (5) None of the

above164. CRISIL

(1) Evaluates the credit documents of a company (2) Provides financial assistance to industries(3) Provides finances for rural areas (4) Promotes exports (5) Promotes imports

165. Which state has maximum branches of public sector commercial banks?(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Maharashtra (3) Karnataka (4) Gujarat (5) Andhra Pradesh

166. India Development Bond was issued in 1991 – 92 by (1) SBI (2) RBI (3) UTI (4) NHB (5) SEBI

167. Which of the following bank assets is the most liquid?(1) Consumer loans (2) State and local Government securities(3) Physical capital (4) Government securities (5) None of the above

168. Commercial banks obtain funds by (1) issuing demand deposits (2) Borrowing from other Banks(3)Issuing ownership claims (equity) (4) All of the above (5) None of the above

169. If a bank has total assets of Rs. 100 billion and capital accounts of Rs. 8 billion, then (1) Its total liabilities are Rs. 92 billion (2) Its total liabilities are Rs. 108 billion(3) It has an equity multiplier of 10 (4) Either 1 or 3 (5) None of the above are true

170. When a bank writes off a loan as bad, is (1) Total assets and total liabilities decrease by that amount(2) Total liabilities and capital decrease by that amount(3) Total assets and capital decrease by that amount(4) Total assets, total liabilities and capital decrease by that amount(5) None of the above

171. Who was recently sacked as the chairman of the Tata Group? (1) Cyrus Barocha (2) Cyrus Mistry (3) Sanders Rawal (4) Sanjay Duggal (5) None of these

172. India’s GMR has been awarded $270 mn (Rs 1,780 cr) in compensation by a three-member international arbitral tribunal in its dispute with the govt of(1) Nepal (2) Sri Lanka (3) Bhutan (4) Bangladesh (5) Maldives

173. The one-man judicial panel of justice L Narasimha Reddy submitted its report to the govt recently. The panelwas set up by the govt on the issue of(1) Fencing of Indo-Pak border (2) Defence Acquisition (3) FDI in defence(4) Acquisition of nuclear submarine (5) OROP

174. The govt recently notified a new Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between India and South Korea. The currency of South Korea is(1) Won (2) Peso (3) Dollar (4) Euro (5) Pound

175. The World Development Information Day is observed on(1) 17 Oct (2) 20 Oct (3) 24 Oct (4) 27 Oct (5) 31 Oct

176. Raj Begum, who died recently, was a legendary singer from(1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Sikkim (3) Uttar Pradesh(4) Jammu and Kashmir (5) Maharashtra

177. The govt has given in-principle nod to disinvestment and strategic sale of PSUs and the methods and valuation for PSUs up for sale would be examined by DIPAM which stands for(1) Disinvestment of Investment and Public Asset Management(2) Development of Investment and Public Asset Management(3) Derivation of Investment and Public Asset Management(4) Department of Investment and Public Asset Management(5) None of these

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178. Mehmood Akhtar, who was caught by Delhi Police with sensitive defence documents, recently, is a staff of the High Commission of(1) Bangladesh (2) Afghanistan (3) Pakistan (4) Iran (5) Maldives

179. Who among the following has authored the book “The Sellout” for which he has won the Man Booker Prize 2016?(1) Deborah Levy (2) Graeme Macrae Burnet (3) Madeleine Thien(4) Amanda Foreman (5) Paul Beatty

180. What is India’s ranking on the World Economic Forum’s Global Gender Gap Report 2016?(1) 142nd (2) 99th (3) 108th (4) 87th (5) 76th

181. The High Court of which of the following states has ordered a complete ban on the sale of whitener in the state?(1) Bihar (2) Kerala (3) Nagaland (4) Gujarat (5) Uttarakhand

182. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) recently declined to fund the $14-bn Diamer- Bhasha dam situated in which of the following countries?(1) Syria (2) Yemen (3) North Korea (4) Pakistan (5) Afghanistan

183. The RBI has permitted startups to raise external commercial borrowings (ECBs) of up to _________ in a financial year.(1) USD 1 mn (2) USD 3 mn (3) USD 5 mn (4) USD 10 mn (5) USD 15 mn

184. Kaziranga National Park is a national park in the Golaghat and Nagaon districts in the state of?(1) Assam (2) West Bengal (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Odisha (5) Tripura

185. Capital of Austria is? (1) Tehran (2) Vienna (3) Canberra (4) Thimphu (5) Brussels

186. Gugga dance is the folk dance of which of the following state?(1) Odisha (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Haryana (4) Gujarat (5) Goa

187. Bargi Dam is in which of the following state? (1) Karnataka (2) West Bengal(3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Maharashtra(5) Uttarakhand

188. Which of the following country is not a member of G20?(1) France (2) Italy (3) Pakistan (4) Argentina (5) Turkey

189. Headquarter of Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries(OPEC) is in which of the following city?(1) Colombo, Sri Lanka (2) Vienna, Austria (3) Washington, D.C., USA(4) The Hague, Netherlands (5) Geneva, Switzerland

190. Who is the Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh? (1) Raman Singh (2) Vijaybhai R. Rupani (3) OkramIbobi Singh(4) Virbhadra Singh (5) Nara Chandrababu Naidu

191. The VISAKA scheme launched by the Union Ministry for Human Resource Development is aimed at making people aware about(1) cleanliness (2) importance of vaccination (3) cashless economic system(4) disaster management (5) None of these

192. The Hornbill Festival began was observed recently in which state? The festival coincides with the Statehood Day of the state which is observed on Dec 1.(1) Nagaland (2) Sikkim (3) Tripura (4) Manipur (5) Assam

193. The US President-elect Donald Trump has named Mary Barra to his economic and job-creation panel. She is the present CEO of(1) Yahoo (2) IBM (3) Boeing (4) Walt Disney (5) General Motors

194. Which of the following women’s cricket teams won the Asia Cup T20 in Bangkok recently?(1) India (2) Pakistan (3) Bangladesh (4) Sri Lanka (5) Afghanistan

195. What was the theme of the sixth “Heart of Asia” ministerial conference held in India recently?(1) Ending Terrorism, Achieving Prosperity (2) Achieving Prosperity and Fraternity(3) Addressing Challenges of Poverty and Terrorism (4) Addressing Challenges, Achieving Prosperity(5) None of these

196. __________ has been named the most admired leader in the technology space, in a survey conducted by VC firm First Round Capital involving over 700 startup founders.(1) Steve Jobs (Apple) (2) Mark Zuckerberg (Facebook) (3) Jeff Bezos (Amazon)(4) Elon Musk (Tesla and SpaceX) (5) None of these

197. The Indian Navy celebrates “Navy Day” on which day every year?(1) 1 Dec (2) 2 Dec (3) 3 Dec (4) 4 Dec (5) 5 Dec

198. Who among the following has been crowned Miss Supranational 2016?(1) Asha Bhat (2) Srinidhi Shetty (3) Priyadarshini(4) Priyanka Yoshikawa (5) None of these

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199. India and which country signed four agreements on visas, cyberspace and investments during the visit of PM Sheikh Abdullah bin Nasser bin Khalifa Al Thani to India?(1) UAE (2) Qatar (3) Saudi Arabia (4) Iran (5) Iraq

200. Which of the following countries is hosting the FIFA World Cup 2022? India will train its police for handling the security during the event.(1) Malaysia (2) Indonesia (3) Philippines (4) Thailand (5) Qatar

KEY

1 (2) 2 (4) 3 (1) 4 (4) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9 (2) 10 (1)11 (2) 12 (4) 13 (5) 14 (5) 15 (1) 16 (2) 17 (5) 18 (1) 19 (2) 20 (1)21 (2) 22 (2) 23 (3) 24 (5) 25(4) 26 (3) 27 (5) 28 (4) 29 (3) 30 (2)31 (1) 32 (2) 33 (3) 34 (3) 35 (3) 36 (4) 37 (5) 38 (2) 39 (4) 40 (2)41 (4) 42 (4) 43 (2) 44 (1) 45 (5) 46 (3) 47 (1) 48 (3) 49 (3) 50 (4)51 (2) 52 (2) 53 (4) 54 (4) 55 (3) 56 (3) 57 (5) 58 (4) 59 (5) 60 (4)61 (4) 62 (4) 63 (3) 64 (3) 65 (4) 66 (2) 67 (5) 68 (1) 69 (5) 70 (4)71 (5) 72 (1) 73 (2) 74 (3) 75 (4) 76 (2) 77 (2) 78 (3) 79 (5) 80 (2)81 (3) 82 (1) 83 (4) 84 (4) 85 (2) 86 (2) 87 (1) 88 (3) 89 (5) 90 (4)91 (2) 92 (3) 93 (4) 94 (4) 95 (3) 96 (2) 97 (5) 98(1) 99 (1) 100 (2)101 (2) 102 (2) 103 (5) 104 (1) 105 (3) 106 (3) 107 (2) 108(3) 109 (5) 110 (3)111 (1) 112 (4) 113 (1) 114 (2) 115 (3) 116 (2) 117 (3) 118 (4) 119 (3) 120 (1)121 (3) 122 (5) 123 (2) 124 (4) 125 (4) 126 (3) 127 (1) 128 (2) 129 (4) 130 (3)131 (2) 132 (1) 133 (1) 134 (1) 135(4) 136 (5) 137 (1) 138 (5) 139 (2) 140 (2)141 (2) 142 (1) 143 (3) 144 (2) 145 (3) 146 (4) 147 (3) 148 (5) 149 (5) 150 (1)151 (2) 152 (2) 153 (3) 154 (1) 155 (4) 156 (3) 157 (2) 158 (3) 159 (4) 160 (4)161 (2) 162 (1) 163 (1) 164 (1) 165 (1) 166 (1) 167 (4) 168 (4) 169 (1) 170 (3)171 (2) 172 (5) 173 (5) 174 (1) 175 (3) 176 (4) 177 (4) 178 (3) 179 (5) 180 (4)181 (5) 182 (4) 183 (2) 184 (1) 185 (2) 186 (3) 187 (3) 188 (3) 189 (2) 190 (4)191 (3) 192 (1) 193 (5) 194 (1) 195 (3) 196 (4) 197 (4) 198 (2) 199 (2) 200 (5)

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SOLUTIONS1. According to the question, we have following direction chart

From figure it is clear that A and B denote the starting are finishing points respectively B is to the North – West of point A.

2. A and E live on the floors exactly between D and F. Hence, the option (4) is correct.3. B live on fifth floor numbered sixth.

Sol . (Q. Nos. 4 and 5 ) According to given information in the question we have L - - PL - - - P SL – A P S

4. Here clearly shown P is placed second to the right of E. Hence, the option (4) is correct.5. The formed word is LEAPS.

Sol. (Q. Nos. 6 – 10 ) There are six numbers and six words in the input. The three numbers are placed in the beginning and the remaining three numbers are placed in the last. The numbers arerearranged in ascending order. The six words are rearranged in alphabetical order in the middle.Input 67 hot sun 19 best 83 ice 49 ace 77 cut 37Step I 19 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace 77 cut 37 83Step II 19 37 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace cut 77 83Step III19 37 49 hot sun best ice ace cut 67 77 83Step IV 19 37 49 ace hot sun best ice cut 67 77 83]Step V 19 37 49 ace best hot sun ice cut 67 77 83Step VI 19 37 49 ace best cut hot sun ice 67 77 83Step VII 19 37 49 ace best cut hot ice sun 67 77 83

6. Seven steps are needed to complete the arrangement.7. It is Step V.8. Option (4) is Step I 9. Option (2) is the final arrangement10. In Step IV ‘Sun’ would be seventh from the right.11. Statement II and III are required to answer the question.

Father of M, T has three children, in them one is the boy. So, P has two daughter.12.

13. Statement I

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14. Follow the all three statements Manoj’s mother visited his house on Tuesday and Manoj did visit Chennai on Wednesday. Hence, the option (5) is correct.

15. We have following code arrangement

16. According to statements venn diagram is as Statement I

Statement II

Statement III

Conclusion I, from statements I and III

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Conclusion II, from statements I, II and III

Therefore, only conclusion II follows.17. Conclusion I, from statements I and II

Conclusion II

Therefore, both conclusion I and II follow.18. According to statements,

Statement I

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Statement II

Conclusion I, from statements I and II

Conclusion II, from statements I and II

Therefore, only conclusion I follows.Sol. (Q. Nos. 19 and 20 )

According to statements,

Statement II

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Statement III

19. Conclusion I, from Statements II and III

Conclusion II, from statements II and IIITherefore, only conclusion II follows.

20. Conclusion I, from statements I, II and III

Conclusion II, from statements I and II.

Therefore, only conclusion I followsSol. (Q. Nos. 21 – 25 )

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21. Except in A - Canara Bank pair, In all others the first person is second to the left of the second person.22. B is the representative from Syndicate Bank

C sits third to the right of HThe representative from the Dena Bank. C is to the immediate right of the representative from the UCO Bank, F.A is second to the left of G, the representative from Bank of India.A, the representative from Bank of Maharashtra and B, the representative from Syndicate Bank are immediate neighbours of each other.

23. H, the representative from Canara Bank and A, the representative from Bank of Maharashtra, sit between B, the representative from Syndicate Bank and G, the representative from Bank of India.

24. D is the representative from Oriental Bank of Commerce.25. E, the representative from Punjab National Bank sits second to the left from B, the representative

from Syndicate BankSol. (Q. Nos. 26 – 30 ) According to the given information in the question we have following table

Person Sex Vehicle DestinationPQRSTVWZ

Male M/FMaleFemaleMaleMaleM/FFemale

Honda CityHonda CityFord IkonFord IkonSwift D’zireFord IkonHonda CitySwift D’zire

HyderabadHyderabadChennaiChennaiDelhiChennaiHyderabadDelhi

26. R, S and V are travelling to Chennai in car Ford Ikon27. Four members are travelling in no car28. S and Z are female members. The third female member is either Q or W.29. P and Q are travelling with W.30. P, Q and W are travelling in Honda City31. Option (1) may be the cause of vacant seats in the engineering colleges.32. Option (2) may be a possible effect of big pot holes developed on the roads.33. Option (3) indicates that the results are not in line with the general trend

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34. Option (3) may be a possible fallout of the given situation.35. Option (3) substantiates the views expressed in the statement.36. The district authority sent a police team to nab the culprits. It shows that the Government is

committed to provide protection to travelers a cross the country.37. All the three statements are probable causes of drop in sales of four wheelers during the past six

months.38. All the three statements can be effective steps to reverse the trend.39. Option (4) contradicts the views expressed in the statement.40. Only II and III assumptions are implicit because these two are relevant with situation while I is not

relevant for the statement.41. (4)

42. (4)43. (2)44. (1)45. (5)46. (3)47. (1)48. (3)49. (3)50. (4)101. (2)

102. (2)

103. (5)

104. (1)

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105. (3)

106. (3)

107. (2)

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108. (3)

109. (5)

110. (3)

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111. (1) The pattern of the number series is 112. (4) The pattern of the number series is

13 + 1 = 1414 + 3 = 1717 + 5 = 2222 + 7 = 2929 + 9 = 38

113. (1) The pattern of the number series is 6 + 2 = 88 – 4 = 44 + 8 = 12

114. (2) The pattern of the number series is 222 – 24 =198198 – 20 = 178178 – 16 = 162162 – 12 = 150150 – 8 = 142

115. (3) The pattern of the number series is 116. (2) Required difference

= 37117. (3) In MP Polio cases (2011 – 2012 ) = 21 – 10 11118. (4) Total Polio cases I Bihar (2011) = 121

Total Polio cases in India (2011) = 1600Required answer =

119. (3) Required percentage = 120. (1) Total cases of Polio in 2010 in the given 5 states

= 5 + 1 + 27 + 0 + 3 = 36Total number of cases of Polio in 2010 in India= 268 Required ratio =

121. (3) The cost price of article Rs. 481

122. (5) Suppose correct answer = x Incorrect answer = (30 – x ) Then,

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Incorrect answer = 30 – 17 = 13 123. (2) Monthly income of Mrs. Sharma

= Rs. Total monthly amount invested by Mrs. Sharma

= = Rs. 12398.40

124. (4) Number of ways of selecting=

125. (4) Let the earnings of A and B be Rs. 4x and Rs. 5x respectively.From this the value of x cannot be determined.

Sol. (Q. Nos. 126 – 130 )

Male Female Total Children Male Children

Female Children

ABCDEF

250400300280180325

350150275300250300

600550575580430625

15022092145172150

60165231168669

905569298681

Total 1735 1625 3360 929 519 410

126. (3) Total number of female children = 410127. (1) Required ratio = 1625 : 410

= 325 : 82128. (2) Required number = 3360129. (4)

= 425 : 350= 17 : 14

130. (3) Required difference = 165 – 69 = 96131. (2) Number of commuters commuting by train

17171 + 26983 + 9812 = 53966and number of total commuters commuting daily = 122650

Required percentage = 132. (1) Number of commuter commuting by autos

= 4906 + 9812 + 12265 = 26983 Required percentage =

133. (1) Required percentage = 134. (1) Required number = 122650135. (4) Required percentage = 136. (5) Let the third number be x.

First number = and second number =

Required percentage = =

137. (1) Required number of ways = 8! = 40320138. (5) Third number =

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= 1532 – 862 – 429 = 241139. (2) Required number of days = 140. (2) Let the time taken by walking one way be x h and that by riding one way be y h.

Then, according to questionX + y = 6 h 35 min …….. (i)Again, according to question,Now, putting the value of y in Eq. (i) or 4 h 17.5 min

141. (2) Let the original fraction be 142. (1) Kiara’s share = 143. (3) Let P be the pole at boundary erected in such a way that if it is x m away from A, then it is

(x + 7 ) m away from B.Now, AB is diameter.Therefore, So, we can use Pythagorean theorem,

144. (2) The total length of spiral = Sum of all the 13 semi-circlers

= = 143 cm

145. (3) Probability of winning the game = 1 probability of losing the gameYou will lose the game when none of the three diceWill show your choosen.Therefore, probability of losing the game =Thus, the probability of winning the game =

146. (4) Average = = 44000000

147. (3) Required ratio = 148. (5) Required ratio = 4.5 : 7 = 9 : 14149. (5) Percentage increase =

= (approx..)150. (1) Required different

= (4.5 + 5 + 5.5 + 5+7) – (3.5 + 4 + 5 + 3+6.5)

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= Rs. (27 – 22) croreRs. 50000000

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