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CLASS - IX

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal of this booklet before being instructed to do so

by the invigilator.

2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional sheets

will be provided for rough work.

3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and electronic

gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

4. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

5. On breaking the seal of the booklet check that it contains 22 pages and all the 100questions.

6. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the

help of Black ball point pen as the correct answer of the question attempted.

7. Question Paper Format :

The question paper consists of 2 parts.Part-I : IQ(Mental Ability) & Part-II :Physics, Chemistry, Biology &

Mathematics

8. Marking Scheme :

Part-I : For each question of Part-I, you will be awarded 4 marksif you darken the bubble corresponding

to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negativemarks will be awarded for

incorrect answers in this part.

Part-II: For each question of Part-II, you will be awarded 4 marksif you darken the bubble corresponding to only

the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other casesminus one (1) markwill be awarded.

Time : 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 400

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

PAPER CODE FORM NUMBER

Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad | Jaipur

0 2 T O 9 1 4 0 0 1

X

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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1. A shepherd had 17 sheep. All but nine died. How many was he left with ?

(1) 0 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 17

2. Anusha remembers that her brother Kabir's birthday falls after 20 thMay but before 28thMay, while Pia

remembers that Kabir's birthday falls before 22ndMay but after 12thMay. On what date Kabir's birthday

falls ?

(1) 20th May (2) 21st May (3) 22nd May (4) 12th May

3. In a row of boys facing north, A is sixteenth from the left end and C is sixteenth from the right end. B,

who is fourth to the right of A, is fifth to the left of C in the row. How many boys are there in the row?

(1) 39 (2) 40 (3) 41 (4) 42

4. If ZIP = 30 and ZAP = 38, then how will you code VIP?

(1) 174 (2) 43 (3) 34 (4) 113

5. If '>' denotes '+', '', and '='

denotes '

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9. Neelam, who is Rohit's daughter, says to Indu, "Your mother Reeta is the younger sister of my father,

who is the third child of Sohanji." How is Sohanji related to Indu?

(1) Maternal uncle (2) Father

(3) Grandfather (4) Father-in-law

10. How many pairs of letters are there in the word 'LANGUISH' which have as many letters between

them in the word as in the alphabet?

(1) Nil (2) One (3) Three (4) Four

11. The given question consists of four figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the Problem Set. There is a definite

relationship between figures 1 and 2. Establish a similar relationship between figures 3 and 4 by

selecting a suitable figure from the options that would replace the question mark (?) in fig. (4).

Problem Set

?

1 2 3 4

(1) (2) (3) (4)

12. Figures (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) constitute the Problem Set. There is a definite relationship between figures

(i) and (ii). Establish a similar relationship between figures (iii) and (iv) by selecting a suitable figure

from the options that would replace the question mark (?) in fig. (iv).

Problem Set

?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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13. Count the number of triangles in the given figure.

(1) 20 (2) 22 (3) 23 (4) None of these

14. Select from amongst the options as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is

folded along the dotted line.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

15. Select the figure from the options which completes the Fig.(X)

Fig.(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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16. In the matrix there are eight designs and one space is

left blank as shown by a question mark. Which answer

figures will replace the question mark?

(1) (2)

?

(3) (4)

17. In the following question from amongst the options,

Fig.(X)

select the one which satisfies the same conditions of

placement of the dot as in Fig. (X).

(1) (2) (3) (4)

18. Match the given net with the correct picture.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

19. Which of the following options shows the mirror

Fig.(X)

image of Fig.(X), if mirror is placed vertically left.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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20. Select a figure from amongst the options which will continue the same series as established by the five

Problem Figures P, Q, R, S and T.

?C

+

S C

+

S C

+

S C

+

S C

+

S

P Q R S T

(1)C

+

S(2)

C

+ S

(3)

C

+

S(4)

C

+S

+

Direction (Q.21 & Q.22) :- A cube is coloured red on all faces. It is cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size.

21. How many cubes with three surfaces painted?

(1) 24 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 0

22. How many cubes have no face coloured ?(1) 24 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) None of these

Directions (Q.23 & Q.24) :- In the figure given below, the Square shows the no. of students in Std. VIII of

Mumbai. Parallelogram shows no. of girls in the school. The Triangle shows the no. of Kho-Kho playing

students and Circle shows the no. of boys playing cricket in the school. Now answer the following questions

with the help of this information.

15

97

34

17

456025 10

75

23. What is the total no. of students in Std. VIII?

(1) 33 (2) 15 (3) 55 (4) 108

24. What is the no. of students in Std. VIII playing Kho-Kho and Cricket?

(1) 4 (2) 21 (3) 25 (4) 29

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Directions(Q.25 & Q.26) : In each of the following questions, a number series is given. After series,

below it in the next line, a number is given following (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You have to complete

the starting with the number given following the sequence of given series. Then, answer the questions

given below it.

25. 535 366 245 164

817 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Which number will come in place of (E)?

(1) 648 (2) 507 (3) 446 (4) None of these

26. 3, 5, 18, 72

7 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Which number will come in place of (D)?

(1) 416 (2) 9 (3) 2100 (4) 96

Directions (Q.27 to Q.30) :- Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

J, K, H, R, F, L, N and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. H is third to the left

of L and is to the immediate right of K. R is third to the left of N but is not a neighbour of H or L. J is

second to the right of Q.

27 . Who is second to the left of N ?

(1) Q (2) K (3) J (4) For J

28. Which of the following groups of persons has the first person sitting between the next two ?

(1) LKN (2) QFL (3) KHR (4) JHF

29. Who is to the immediate left of R?

(1) Q (2) K (3) F (4) N

30. Which of the following is correct position of J with respect to K ?

(1) Third to the left (2) Third to the right (3) Second to the left (4) Second to the right

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PART - II

SECTION-A : PHYSICS

This section contains 15 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out

of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. The picture shows the circular path of a toy plane being swung around on a string. What path would

the toy take if the string broke ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

32. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall by applying a

///

///

///////

///

N F

f

mg

horizontal force of 5 N on the block (see fig.). If the

coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is

0.5, the magnitude of frictional force acting on the block is

_____ (Take g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 2.5 N (2) 0.98 N (3) 4.9 N (4) 0.49 N

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33. When electric current is passed through a cell having an electrolyte, the positive ions move towards

the cathode and the negative ions towards the anode. If the cathode is pulled out of the solution,

(1) the positive and negative ions will move towards the anode

(2) the positive ions will start moving towards the anode, the negative ions will stop moving

(3) the negative ions will continue to move towards the anode and the positive ions will stop moving(4) the positive and negative ions will start moving randomly

34. Lightning occurs because of

(1) Rain (2) Electric discharge (3) Wind (4) Shaking of earth

35. Two plane mirrors are inclined to one another at an angle of 60. A ray is incident on mirror M1 at an

angle i parallel to M2. The reflected ray from mirror M

2is parallel to mirror M

1as shown in figure. The

angle of incidence i is

60M

1

M2

ii

O

(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 30 (4) 40

36. Which small objects revolve between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter ?

(1) Satellites (2) Comets (3) Asteroids (4) Meteorites

37. A ball is dropped from rest from a height 6.0 meters above the ground. The ball falls freely and reaches

the ground 1.1 seconds later. What is the average speed of the ball?

(1) 5.5 m/s (2) 6.1 m/s (3) 6.6 m/s (4) 11 m/s

38. geand g

pdenote the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth and another planet whose

mass and radius are twice that of the earth. Then

(1) gp= ge (2) gp= ge/2(3) g

p= 2g

e(4) g

p= g

e/ 2

39. An object hangs from a spring balance. The balance indicates 30 N in air and 20 N when the object is

submerged in water. What does the balance indicate when the object is submerged in a liquid with a

density that is half that of water?

(1) 20 N (2) 25 N (3) 30 N (4) 35 N

40. If the K.E of a body is doubled, then the momentum of the body becomes

(1)1

2 times (2) 2 times (3) 2 2 times (4) none of these

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COMPREHENSION :- This section contains 2 comprehensions each describing theory, experiment, data

etc. Five questions related to two comprehensions with two questions on first comprehension and three

questions on second comprehension. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among

the four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Comprehension # 1 (Q.41 & Q.42) :- An object of mass 1.5 kg travelling in a straight line with a velocity of

5 m/s collides with a wooden block of mass 5 kg resting on the floor. This object sticks with wooden block

after collision and both move together in a straight line.

41. The total momentum after collision is

(1) 3.5 kg m/s (2) 1.5 kg m/s (3) 7.5 kg m/s (4) 2 kg m/s

42. The velocity of the combination of these object after collision is

(1) 8.5 m/s (2) 9.5 m/s (3) 1.15 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s

Comprehension # 2 (Q.43 to Q.45) :- Two tuning forks A,B vibrate with frequencies in the ratio 2:7 andtheir wavelength in the ratio 3:4 respectively.

43. Find the tuning fork producing greater velocity of sound.

(1) Tuning fork A (2) Tuning fork B

(3) Both A and B (4) cannot be determined

44. The tuning fork A produces relatively

(1) shrill sound than tuning fork B

(2) flat sound than tuning fork B

(3) louder sound than tuning fork B

(4) wave of more wavelength than that of tuning fork

45. The wave producing greater wavelength is

(1) Tuning fork A (2) Tuning fork B

(3) Both A and B (4) cannot be determined

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SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY



46. Which statement best describes the law of conservation of mass?

(1) The mass of the products is always greater than the mass of the materials that react in a chemical

change.

(2) The mass of the products is always less than the mass of the materials that react in a chemical

change.

(3) A certain mass of material must be present for a reaction to occur.

(4) Matter is neither lost nor gained during a chemical change.

47. How many outer-level electrons do lithium and potassium have?

(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four

48. Which elements are least likely to react with other elements?

(1) Metals (2) Noblegases

(3) Nonmetals (4) Transition elements

49.

Which metal would most likely replace lead in a solution?

(1) Potassium (2) Copper (3) Silver (4) Gold

50. What are the small units that make up polymers?

(1) monomers (2) crystal (3) unit cell (4) chain

51. Which property allows metals to be shaped into a musical instrument?

(1) conductivity (2) ductility (3) luster (4) malleability

52. Which is a balanced chemical equation?

(1) Na + Cl2NaCl (2) H

2O

22H

2O + O

2

(3) O2+ 2PC1

32POCl

3(4) Ca + H

2O Ca(OH)

2+ H

2

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53. The image below shows a mixture of sand and iron fillings being separated.

Which physical property is used to separate the sand and iron?

(1) density (2) ductility (3) magnetism (4) malleability

54. Which of these is NOT a cation?

(1) NH4

+ (2) Cl (3) Mg2+ (4) K+

55. Which of these decreases as a given volume of gas increases?

(1) Number of gas particles (2) Temperature

(3) Pressure (4) Kinetic energy


etc. Five questions related to two comprehensions with two questions on first comprehensions and three

questions on second comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer among

the four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Comprehensions # 1 (Q. 56 & Q.57) :- The temperature at which water boils depends on the pressure the

water is under. At sea level, where the pressure is 100 kPa, water boils at 100C. The pressure in a pressure

cooker is greater than 100 kPa, and the boiling point of water is greater than 100 C.

On a mountain top, at an altitude of 7700 m, a climber found that his fuel stove couldn't raise the temperature

of boiling water above 75 C.

56. The best explanation for this is that on the mountain top.

(1) the stove did not have sufficient oxygen to burn the fuel completely.

(2) the air was so cold it absorbed the heat from the water

(3) the air pressure was less than it was at sea level

(4) the air pressure was greater than it was at sea level

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57. A sample of rain water was collected and its boiling point determined at Shimla. It is found that the

boiling point is

(1)100C (2) 98.5C

(3) 102C (4) 105C

Comprehensions # 2 (Q. 58 to Q. 60) :- Read the passage given below and answer the questions that

follow.

Acid rain has resulted in corrosion of the marble of the monument. It is especially due to, the Mathura oil

refinery. So the Supreme court has taken steps to save the Taj. It has ordered the indurstries either switch to

cleaner fuels life CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) and LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) more-over, the

automobiles should switch over to unleaded petrol in Taj Zone.

58. The Taj Mahal is being effected due to

(1) Noise Pollution(2) Air Pollution

(3) Water Pollution

(4) None of these

59. What is Marble cancer ?

(1) Cancer disease in marbles

(2) Corrosion of marble by acid rain

(3) Cancer in any white animal

(4) None of these

60. Taj Mahal may be destroyed due to

(1) flood in Yamuna river

(2) decomposition of marble as a result of high temperature

(3) air pollutants released from oil refinery of Mathura

(4) all the above

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SECTION-C : BIOLOGY



61. Which best explains what a population is?

(1) A population is all of the animals in a habitat.

(2) A population is all of the carnivores in an ecosystem.

(3) A population is all of the animals of one specific species in an ecosystem.

(4) A population is all of the animals that an ecologist can count in a habitat.

62. In general, coral reefs benefit the environment most by

(1) making shorelines across the world beautiful.

(2) secreting their hard external skeletons.

(3) providing one of the most productive ecosystems.

(4) providing food for various types of tropical fish.63. The diagram shows an energy pyramid within an ecosystem. Only 10 percent of the available energy

is transferred from one level of the pyramid to the next. If the Sun provides 100,000 kilocalories

(kcals) of energy to the sunflower, how much energy is available for the wolf ?

Energy Pyramid

(1) 10 kcals (2) 100 kcals (3) 1,000 kcals (4) 10,000 kcals

64. In the diagram below, the phase of plant cell division is called

(1) telophase

(2) prophase

(3) interphase

(4) anaphase

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65. The pictures show simple smog-collecting disks hanging in four different locations. When collected

after hanging for one day, the disk from which location will have collected the most smog?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

66. Which of the following is an example of an antigen that might be recognized by the immune system of

an individual?

(1) a viral protein (2) a fat molecule (3) saline solution (4) oxygen molecule

67. The table below contains information about animal diets.

Which energy pyramid best represents the data in the table?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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68. The given figure represents the position of various endocrine glands in human body. Select the correctly

labelled parts from the codes given below.

Position of endocrineglands in the human body

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(1) Thyroid Pituitary Adrenal Pancreas Testis

(2) Pituitary Thyroid Adrenal Pancreas Testis

(3) Pituitary Thyroid Pancreas Adrenal Testis

(4) Thyroid Pituitary Testis Pancreas Adrenal

69. There is a rich variety of crops grown in different parts of the country during different seasons.

Accordingly, the vegetables belong to which of the following categories?

(1) Kharif crops (2) Rabi crops (3) Zayed crops (4) None of these

70. The diagram shows the changes in the thickness of the uterus lining of a woman during her menstrual

cycle. At which time is the woman most likely to be fertile?

Thicknessofthe uteruslining

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S

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etc. Ten questions related to four comprehensions with two questions on first two comprehensions and three

questions on last two comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer

among the four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Comprehension # 1 (Q.71 & Q.72) : What happens to the cells formed by meristematic tissue? They take up

a specific role and lose the ability to divide. As a result, they form a permanent tissue. This process of taking

up a permanent shape, size, and a function is called differentiation. Cells of meristematic tissue differentiate

to form different types of permanent tissue.

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

71. Find the mismatch pair

A- (i)- collenchyma , (ii)- parenchyma

B- (ii)- meristematic, (iii)- collenchyma

C- (ii) and (iii)- parenchyma

D- (i) and (iv)- collenchyma

E- (i)- collenchyma , (ii)- sclerenchyma

F- (ii)- meristematic, (iv)- sclerenchyma

(1) B, E and F (2) A, B, E and F (3) C and D (4) B, C, D, E and F

72. Name the process through which rapidly dividing cells take up a permanent shape and function?

(1) Mitosis (2) Dedifferentiation (3) Cell death (4) Differentiation

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Comprehension # 2 (Q.73 & Q.74) :- Observe and identify the figures given below and answer the questions

A

73. Identify the division of kingdom plantae to which these plants belong.

(1) Thallophyta (2) Bryophyta (3) Pteridophyta (4) Phanerogams

74. Characterstic feature of the division to which these plants belong.

(1) Well developed reproductive structure such as flower.

(2) Unicellular or multicellular thallus like plant body.

(3) Differentiated plant body, without mechanical and conducting tissues.

(4) Undifferentiated plant body, with mechanical and conducting tissues.

Comprehension # 3 (Q.75 to Q.77) :-

These animals are cold-blooded.

Have scales and breathe through lungs.

They lay eggs with tough coverings and do not need to lay their eggs in water.

75. Identify the class and phylum having such characterstic features

(1) phylum- chordata, class- amphibia.

(2) phylum- vertebrata, class- aves.

(3) phylum- chordata, class- reptilia.

(4) phylum- reptilia, class- crocodilia.

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76. Vertebrates of which class needs to lay eggs in water and why?

(1) Reptilia- because it does not have leathery covering around them.

(2) Amphibian - because it does not have leathery covering around them.

(3) Aves- because oxygen can easily diffuse through its shell.(4) Arthropoda- to prevent water loss.

77. Which statement is incorrect regarding this class?

(1) 3-chambered heart, only crocodiles have completely partitioned ventricles.

(2) Scales are hard and dry.

(3) Dorsal hollow nerve chord present.

(4) Respire by gills in water and lungs on land.

Comprehension # 4 (Q.78 to Q.80) :- Nitrogen is an essential nutrient for all life-forms. However, other

than a few forms of bacteria, life-forms are not able to convert the comparatively inert nitrogen molecule

into forms like nitrates and nitrites which can be taken up and used to make the required molecules. These

'nitrogen-fixing' bacteria may be free-living or be associated with some species of dicot plants. Other than

these bacteria, the only other manner in which the nitrogen molecule is converted to nitrates and nitrites is by

a physical process. During lightning, the high temperatures and pressures created in the air convert nitrogen

into oxides of nitrogen. These oxides dissolve in water to give nitric and nitrous acids and fall on land along

with rain.

78. Why do plants need nitrogen and in which form?

(1) synthesis of proteins ; ammonium ions, nitrates and nitrites.

(2) synthesis of carbohydrates, ammonium ions.

(3) synthesis of D.N.A, elementary nitrogen.

(4) synthesis of lipids, ammonium ions or urea.79. Plants need nitrogen to synthesize important biomolecules than why they cannot use atmospheric

nitrogen directly?

(1) Because it is highly reactive gas.

(2) Because it is toxic in nature when taken in elementary form.

(3) Because it is comparatively molecule.

(4) Because nitrogen do not diffuse into plant tissues.

80. Type of relationship between nitrogen fixing bacteria (Rhizobium) and plants (leguminous) ?

(1) Parasitism (2) Mutualism (3) Commensalism (4) Predation

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SECTION-D : MATHEMATICSThis section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out


81. What is the volume of the figure below?

x + 4

x + 1

x + 6

(1) x3 + 10x2 + 34x + 24 (2) x3 + 11x2 + 34x + 24

(3) x3 + 10x2 + 24x + 24 (4) x3 + 11x2 + 24x + 24

82. What are the x-intercepts of the graph of y = 12x 2 5x 2 ?

(1) 1 and 1

6(2) 1 and

1

6(3)

2 1and

3 4 (4)

2 1and

3 4

83. Which is the first incorrect step in simplifying (x2)3 ( x5)1?

Step 1: (x2)3 ( x5)1= x6x5 Step 2: = x6 51

x Step 3: =

6

5

x

xStep 4: = x

(1) Step 1 (2) Step 2 (3) Step 3 (4) Step 4

84. In the figure below, AB > BC.

A

BC

If we assume that mA = mC, it follows that AB = BC. This contradicts the given statement that

AB > BC. What conclusion can be drawn from this contradiction?

(1) m

A = m

B (2) m

A

m

B (3) m

A = m

C (4) m

A

m

C

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85. If ABCD is a parallelogram, what is the length of segment BD?

B

A D

C

E

5

6

7

(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 14

86. The rectangle shown below has length 20 meters and width 10 meters.

4 m

4 m

4 m

4 m 4 m

4 m

4 m

4 m

If four triangles are removed from the rectangle as shown, what will be the area of the remaining

figure?

(1) 136 m2 (2) 144 m2 (3) 168m2 (4) 184m2

87. The average age of 30 students in a class is 12 years. The average age of a group of 5 of the students

is 10 years and that of another group of 5 of them is 14 years. The average age of the remaining

students is _____

(1) 8 years (2) 10 years (3) 12 years (4) 14 years

88. A school has 378 girl students and 675 boy students. The school is divided into only boys or only girls

sections. All sections in the school have the same number of students. Given this information, what

are the number of sections in the school?

(1) 40 (2) 39 (3) 38 (4) 35

89. The median of first ten prime numbers is _____

(1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 20

90. If a + b + c = 9 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 35, then find the value of a3 + b3 + c3 3abc.

(1) 52 (2) 108 (3) 216 (4) 182

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etc. Ten questions related to four comprehensions with two questions on first two comprehensions and three

questions on last two comprehensions. Each question of a comprehension has only one correct answer

among the four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Comprehension # 1 (Q.91 & Q.92) :-If one end of a line segment is the origin and other end point is (x, y).

The distance between end points of the line segment = 2 2x y .

91. Which of the following points is not 10 units from the origin ?

(1) (6, 8) (2) (8, 6) (3) (6, 8) (4) (6, 4)

92. Which of the following points is the nearest to the origin ?

(1) (0, 6) (2) (8, 0) (3) (3, 4) (4) (7, 0)

Comprehension # 2 (Q.93 & Q.94) :-If in two right triangle the hypotenuse and one side of one triangle are

equal to the hypotenuse and one side of the other triangle, then the two triangles are congruent.

93. If the altitude from two vertices of a triangle to the the opposite sides are equal, then the traingle is

(1) isosceles (2) scalene (3) right-angled (4) equilateral

94. In the figure it is given that LM = MN, QM = MR, ML PQ and MN PR. Then

P

Q M R

NL

(1) PQ < PR (2) PQ > PR (3) PQ = PR (4) None of these

Comprehension # 3 (Q.95 to Q.97) :-In the formula a3

+ b3

+ c3

3abc = (a + b + c) (a2

+ b2

+ c2

ab bc ca)and if a + b + c = 0 then a3+ b3+ c3= 3abc.

95. Factorise : p3(q r)3+ q3(r p)3+ r3(p q)3

(1) 2pq(p + q)(q + r)(r p)

(2) 3pqr(p q)(r q)(r p)

(3) 2pqr(p q)(q r)(p r)

(4) 3pqr(p q)(q r)(r p)

96. Find the value of x3 8y3 36xy 216, when x = 2y + 6.

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4) 3

97. If p = 2 a, then what is the value of a3+ 6ap + p3 8 ?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1

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Comprehension # 4 (Q.98 to Q.100) :-A farmer divides its field in 3 parts for cropping. He wishes to plant

3 types of crops in part I, II, III and rest of field is used for greenery. A field is chosen at random for cropping.

What is the probability that

I

III

II3m 4m

5m4m

7m

5m

50m

60m

98. IIIrd field is chosen.

(1) 7600

(2)700

(3)1

150(4)

1

250

99. Ist field is chosen.

(1)7

600(2)

700

(3)1

150(4)

1

250

100. IInd field is chosen.

(1)7

600(2)

700

(3)1

150(4)

1

250

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