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Sure Success Series- CAIIB- Bank Financial Management -4th Edition-Vaibhav Awasthi

Sure Success Series

Bank

Financial Management

( For CAIIB Examination)

4th Edition By: Vaibhav Awasthi


The content of this book has been developed keeping in view courseware for the

Second paper of Bank Financial Management of CAIIB.

An attempt has been made to cover fully the syllabus prescribed for each

module/subject and the presentation of topics may not always be in the same

sequence as given in the syllabus. Candidates are also expected to take note of

all the latest developments relating to the subjects covered in the syllabus by

referring to RBI circulars, financial papers, economic journals, latest books and

publications in the subjects concerned.

Although due care has been taken in publishing this study material, yet the

possibility of errors, omissions and/or discrepancies cannot be ruled out.

We welcome suggestion for improving the book and its contents. You may write

back to us at [email protected]

About the Author:

Vaibhav Awasthi, is a professional banker and academician at heart who

has experience of 11 years in Banking. He has done his graduation from

Kanpur University and MBA (Finance) from Delhi. He also holds the

distinction of being part of maiden batch of “Certified Banking Compliance

Professional” conducted by IIBF & ICSI.

He has been mentoring students for JAIIB/CAIIB since last 10 years and

presently works as Senior Manager with a leading Public Sector Bank. He

can be reached at [email protected]

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted, in any form or by

any means, without permission. Any person who does any unauthorized act in relation to this

publication may be liable to criminal proceedings and civil claim for damages.

This book is meant for educational and learning purpose. The author of this book has taken all reasonable care to ensure that the contents

of the book do not violate any existing copyright or other intellectual property rights of any person in any manner whatsoever.


To the thought

“It always seems impossible, till it gets done”


Preface Dear Students,

At the outset I would like to express my thanks to thousands of students who have chosen Sure

Success Series for preparing for CAIIB.

Our last 3rd edition of BFM was a runaway hit and response received by our students was more

than overwhelming and humbling.

We have always understood and believed that Banking students are very bright and

hardworking, so what is causing such high failure rates in CAIIB?

The answer was lack of good material and lack of time students faced due to taxing banking

hours and responsibilities.

So while we wrote Sure Success Series- BFM, we had focus on two things (i) The material

should be concise (ii) Material should be precise.

The result was phenomenal as our concise book helped student clear the dreaded exam of

BFM sometime in time as less than a week. There were many who were skeptical when they

received the concise book thinking whether such thin book can help them clear the gigantic

BFM and they were in for a big surprise when they cleared the exam with great numbers.

Your expectation from us increases our responsibility. The exam of Dec 15 and June 16 had

Basel III, and we received many requests from our students to incorporate Basel III in our book.

The task of incorporating Basel III was a tough exercise as the whole concept is huge and

complex and incorporating it in our book in an easy manner would require increase in length of

our book something which we as a policy avoid. Also the number of questions and types of

question which will be asked was also not clear as official Macmillan book does not contain

Basel III.

However our team at Sure Success Series took up the challenge and in our this edition we

have brought Basel III along with Numericals and simplified understanding

We have also doubled the case studies/numerical from existing 100 to 200. Also many printing

error, outdated information of the previous edition have been done away with.

We are more than hopeful that this edition will prove to be extremely beneficial to the CAIIB

aspirant and will prove to be the Easiest and Surest way to crack the exam in a single attempt.

We have also launched our revamp website www.jaiibcaiib.co.in and mobile app SURE

SUCCESS SERIES in google play store. We request all of you to download the app and very

shortly we are coming up with objective test series for CAIIB subjects on our app and website

which will prove to be the ultimate practice ground and check your preparedness for taking the

final exam.

Wish you all the best !!

http://www.jaiibcaiib.co.in/


Foreword

Bank Financial Management is the second paper of CAIIB exam. Typically, this is considered

as the toughest paper amongst all the three paper of CAIIB because of the numerical portion

which often occupy as much as 60% of the question paper.

The subject is divided into four module and questions are evenly asked from all the modules.

Thus while preparing students must not ignore any module.

Having said that, Module B, C & D are inter related and having understanding of one module

is necessary for progressing to another.

Aim of BFM subject is to enable student to have high level of understanding of how banks

operate on Macro level, how funds are managed, how capital is arranged and managed and

how treasury operates and helps the bank in making profits.

When students take up this subject, they are worried about the numerical and how they will

solve it. We assure you that numerical asked in BFM are of very basic nature and little

understanding will make sure that you not only crack but enjoy the numerical part.

The book has been written based on our experience about prior year question papers. We have

tried to keep the book concise and most relevant by explaining all the important points’ chapter

wise along with case studies and numerical.

The aim of our Sure Success Series- is to make sure that students are able to finish the course

in minimum possible time.

To boost their preparation students may stay in touch with us by visiting our website

www.jaiibcaiib.co.in our download our android app SURE SUCCESS SERIES. They can also

join us on facebook for regular updates and questions

We wish you all the best for your exams.


Sure Success Series- CAIIB- Bank Financial Management -Vaibhav Awasthi

Module A

International Banking

What to Focus in this module Module A is based on Foreign exchange. Students are expected to know various

facilities available to NRIs, various kinds of deposits like NRE, NRO, FCNR along

with details of foreign exchange which can be remitted.

Another important area to be focussed is foreign trade and role of LC in it.

Students should understand in deep, concept of LC and various articles

governing it

Foreign trade means export and import. Export requires funds which are granted

in the form of pre shipment and post shipment finance. Students should

understand various financial facilities like PCFC, PSFC, etc. which can be given.

Import involves giving away of valuable foreign exchange. There are various

guidelines on release of funds and how to monitor it. Students should be aware

of it.

Finally Forex numerical. They essentially require calculation of correct rate to be

quoted to export and import customer for various kind of transactions-

spot/forward. We have covered various types of numerical calculation to give

student a clear picture of how to calculate the various rates.


Unit-1 Exchange Rates and Forex Business

Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, (Section 2) defines foreign

exchange as: "Foreign Exchange means foreign currency, and includes:

(i) All deposits, credits and balances payable in foreign currency, and any drafts,

traveler’s cheques, letters of credit and bills of exchange, expressed or drawn in Indian

currency and payable in any foreign currency,

(ii) Any instrument payable at the option of the drawee or holder, thereof or any other

party thereto, either in Indian currency or in foreign currency, or partly in one and partly

in the other." Thus, broadly speaking, foreign exchange is all claims payable abroad,

whether consisting funds held in foreign currency with banks abroad or bills, checks

payable abroad.

Major participants of forex markets are:

(i) Central Banks

(ii) Commercial Banks

(iii) Investment Funds/Banks

(iv) Forex Brokers

(v) Corporations

(vi) Individuals

Major Factors which affect exchange rates are:

(1) Fundamental reasons- relate to general economic condition and include balance of

payment, interest rates, economic growth, political conditions etc.

(2) Technical reasons: Capital moves from low yielding currency to high yielding

currency

(3) Speculation

Exchange rate mechanism: The delivery of FX deals can be settled in one or more of

the following ways:

Ready or Cash: Settlement of funds takes place on the same day (date of deal),

Tom: Settlement of funds takes place on the next working day of the date of deal

Spot: Settlement of funds takes place on the second working day after/following the

date of

Contract/deal.

Forward Delivery of funds takes place on any day after Spot date.

Forward rate = Spot rate + Premium (or - Discount).


If the value of the currency is more than that being quoted for Spot, then it is said to be

at a Premium, while if the currency is cheaper at a later date than spot, than it is called

at a Discount

The forward price of a currency against another can be worked out with the following

factors:

(i) Spot price of the currencies involved.

(ii) The interest rate differentials for the currencies.

(iii) The term, i.e., the future period for which the price is worked out

FEDAI Guidelines relating to Forex business:

1. All export bills to be allowed standard transit period.

2. Export bills drawn in foreign currency, purchased/discounted/negotiated, must be

crystallized into rupee liability, in case of delay in realization of export bills. The same

would be done at TT selling rate. The prescription of crystallisation of export bills on the

30 th day from the due date /notional due date, has since been relaxed for bank's to

decide on the days for crystallisation on their own , based on nature of commodity,

country of export etc. The crystallisation period can vary from bank to bank, customers

to customers, etc, but cannot exceed 60 days.

3. Sight Bills drawn under Import letters of credit would be crystallized on the tenth day

after

the date of receipt if not yet paid.

4. All forward contracts must be for a definite amount with specific delivery dates.

5. Option period can be specified by the customer, in case of option contracts, but in

any case the delivery period under the option contract shall not exceed beyond one

month. All such contracts must state the start and end dates.


Unit 2 Basics of Forex Derivatives

Types of Risks in foreign business are given as under:

(1) Exchange Risk: Exchange risk means risk on account of adverse movement in

prices which affects your position. There can be two position overbought and oversold.

Understand through an example. A merchant buys 100 dollars @ Rs 50 but is able to

sell only 60 at the end of the day. He has 40 dollars which he has not been able to sell.

This is overbought position. Now let’s say price of dollar next day is Rs 49 only. This

means he faces loss of Rs 1 on each 40 dollar. This is exchange risk

Another case can be a deal buys 100 dollars but enters into a contract to sell 120 dollars.

Here his position is oversold.

Foreign exchange exposure has been classified into:

(i) Transaction Exposure: Arising due to normal business operations consequent to

which the value of transactions will be affected. This is affected by the transactions

undertaken which may expose the company/firm to currency risk, when compared to

the value in home currency.

(ii) Translation Exposure: This arises when firms have to revalue their assets and

liabilities or receivables and payables in home currency, at the end of each accounting

period. Also arises due to consolidating the accounts of all foreign operations. These

are not actual costs or gains, but notional, as the actual loss or gain is booked at the

time of actual translation of the exposure.

(iii) Operating Exposure: This affects the bottom-line of the firm /company, not directly

due to any foreign exchange exposure of the firm /company, but due to other external

factors in the market/ economy, like changes in competition, reduction in import duty

increasing competition from imported goods, reduction in prices by other country

exporters- effecting exports, increase in import duty by other country -trade tariff, etc.-

causing reduction in exports, etc.

(2) Settlement Risk: When one party of trade fails to performs its part due to difference in

time is called settlement risk

(3) Liquidity Risk: when one party is unable to meet its funding requirement or not able to

exit or or offset positions quickly at reasonable prices.

(4) Country Risk /Sovereign Risk: is a situation when the foreign counter party is

unwilling or unable to fulfill its obligations for reasons other than usual risks. One recent

example of the same is crisis of Greek. Greece during times of boom borrowed more and

now faces the problem of repaying. All the Eurozone countries which had lent to Greece

now faces the country or sovereign risk.

(5) Interest Rate Risk: Interest rate affects the value of currencies. Generally, higher

interest rates increase the value of a given country's currency. The higher interest rates

that can be earned tend to attract foreign investment, increasing the demand for and value


of the home country's currency. Conversely, lower interest rates tend to be unattractive for

foreign investment and decrease the currency's relative value. Understand it like this.

Suppose present rate is 1USD = Rs 45.00. Now interest rate in USA rises. This means

higher return can be earned in USA and thus there will be more demand for the dollars.

This higher demand means value of USD will rise and thus new exchange rate is let’s say

after 3 month is 1USD= Rs 50. Suppose in the above example only, a bank has entered

into a forward agreement to buy 1000 USD at Rs 48 after 3 months, the bank will stand to

gain Rs 2 per dollar as actual market rate is 1USD= Rs 50 while bank can buy the same at

Rs 48 by virtue of its forward agreement. Same way if the rate of interests have declined

in USA dollar would have depreciated and bank would stood to lose.

(6) Operational Risk: The risk arising on account or deficiencies in information system or

internal control or human errors or other infrastructure problems

(7) Legal Risk: When the counter party with whom transaction has been undertaken

doesn’t have the legal authority to enter into the transaction arises legal risk.

This is a sample preview. All pages of the book

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Unit 4- Documentary Letter of Credit

It is an instrument by which a bank undertakes to make payment to a seller on

production of documents stipulated in the credit (Refer to article 2 of UCPDC)..

Parties to LCs

a: Applicant: - The Buyer or importer of the goods.

b: Issuing bank: - Importer’s or buyer’s bank who lends its name or credit.

c: Advising bank: - Issuing bank’s branch (or correspondent in exporter’s country)

to whom the letter of credit is sent for onwards transmission to the seller or

beneficiary, after authentication of genuineness of the credit.

d: Beneficiary :- The Party to whom the credit is addressed i.e. seller or supplier or

exporter.

e: Negotiating bank: - The Bank to whom the beneficiary presents his documents

for negotiation or acceptance under the credit.

f: Reimbursing bank: - Third bank which repays, settles or funds the negotiating

bank at the request of its principal, the issuing bank.

g: Confirming bank: - The bank adding confirmation to the credit. Which under

takes the responsibility of payment by the issuing bank and on his failure to pay.

Operation of letter of credit

1. Buyer and seller enter into a contract for sale of goods or providing of services.

The transaction is Covered by L.C.

2. On request of the buyer i.e. applicant, LC is issued by Opening Bank in favors of

Beneficiary and sent to advising bank instead of sending directly to beneficiary.

3. After authentication of LC, the advising bank sends the LC to beneficiary.

4. After receiving LC, the beneficiary manufactures the goods and makes

shipments and prepares documents as mentioned in LC.


5. Documents are Presented by beneficiary to nominated bank for negotiation.

Negotiating Bank makes payment against these documents and claims payment

on due date from opening bank.

6. Opening bank makes payment to negotiating bank and recovers the payment

from applicant.

TYPES OF LETTERS OF CREDIT


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Uniform Customs and Practices for Documentary Credits - 600 (referred to as

UCP-600), prepared by ICC; Paris by revising the UCPDC-500, is being

implemented wef July 01, 2007.

It is 6th revision of the Rules since first promulgation in 1933. The new document

has 39 Articles (against 49 of UCPDC-500) with supplement for Electronic

Presentation covering 12 e Articles. UCPDC-600 shall be applicable to LCs that

expressly indicates that these are subject to UCPDC-600.

ARTICLES OF UCPDC-600

Article-1: UCPDC-600 applies to any LC when its text expressly indicates that it is

subject to these rules. The rules are binding on all parties thereto unless expressly

modified or excluded by the credit.

Article-2: It contains important Definitions such as: Advising bank, Applicant,

Banking day, Beneficiary, Complying presentation, Confirmation, Confirming bank,

Credit, Honour, Issuing bank, Negotiation, Nominated, Presentation and Presenter.


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Unit 5- Facilities for Exporters and Importers

EXPORTS FROM INDIA

Importer-exporter code number: All persons engaged in export-import trade are

required to

obtain IEC number from DGFT. It is a registration number and is to be quoted in all

declarations etc.

General Guidelines for exports are given as under

1.Realisation and Repatriation of export proceeds:

It is obligatory on the part of the exporter to realise and repatriate the full value of goods / software / services to India within a stipulated period from the date of export, as under:

(i) It has been decided in consultation with the Government of India that the period of realization and repatriation of export proceeds shall be nine months from the date of export for all exporters including Units in SEZs, Status Holder Exporters, EOUs, Units in EHTPs, STPs & BTPs until further notice.

(ii) Goods exported to a warehouse established outside India: As soon as it is realised and in any case within fifteen months from the date of shipment of goods.

2.Diamond Dollar Account (DDA)

(i) Under the scheme of Government of India, firms and companies dealing in purchase / sale of rough or cut and polished diamonds / precious metal jewellery plain, with a track record of at least 2 years in import / export of and having an average annual turnover of Rs. 3 crores or above during the preceding three licensing years (licensing year is from April to March) are permitted to transact their business through Diamond Dollar Accounts.

(ii) They may be allowed to open not more than five Diamond Dollar Accounts with their banks.

3.Exchange Earners’ Foreign Currency (EEFC) Account

(i) A person resident in India may open with, an AD Category – I bank in India, an account in foreign currency called the Exchange Earners’ Foreign Currency (EEFC) Account,

(ii) Resident individuals are permitted to include resident close relative(s) as defined in the Companies Act 1956 as a joint holder(s) in their EEFC bank accounts on former or survivor basis. However, such resident Indian close relative, being made eligible to become joint account holder, shall not be eligible to operate the account during the life time of the resident account holder

.



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Supplier's Credit

Under supplier credit contracts the exporter supplier extends a credit to the buyer

importer of capital goods. The terms can be down payment with the balance payable in

instalments. The interest on such deferred payments will have to be paid on the rates

determined at the time of entering into such arrangement. The deferred payments are

supported by the promissory notes or bills of exchange often carrying the guarantee of

importer's bank.

Buyer Credit

In a buyer credit transaction, the buyer importer raises a loan from a bank in the

exporter's country under the export credit scheme in force on the terms conforming to

the OECD consensus. The loan is drawn to pay the exporter in full and thus for the

exporter, the transaction is a cash sale. Another form of the buyer credit arrangement

is, for a bank in the exporter's country, to establish a line of credit in favour of a bank or

financial institutions, in the importing country. The later makes available, loans under

the line of credit to its importer clients for the purchase of capital goods from the credit

giving country. In India EXIM Bank makes available supplier/buyer credits and also

extends line of credit toforeign financial institutions to promote exports of capital goods

from India.


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Unit 6- Risk in Foreign Trade &Role of ECGC

Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited (ECGC)- Role

and Products

ECGC Ltd. (Formerly Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd.), wholly

owned by Government of India, was set up in 1957 with the objective of promoting

exports from the country by providing Credit Risk Insurance and related services for

exports. It functions under the administrative control of Ministry of Commerce &

Industry, and is managed by a Board of Directors comprising representatives of the

Government, Reserve Bank of India, banking, and insurance and exporting

community.

ECGC is essentially an export promotion organization, seeking to improve the

competitiveness of the Indian exporters by providing them with credit insurance

covers.

What does ECGC do?

o Provides a range of credit risk insurance covers to exporters against loss in export

of goods and services

o Offers Export Credit Insurance covers to banks and financial institutions to enable

exporters to obtain better facilities from them

o Provides Overseas Investment Insurance to Indian companies investing in joint

ventures abroad in the form of equity or loan

ECGC Policies for exporters

1. SCR or Standard Policy

An exporter whose annual export turnover is more than Rs.500 lakhs is eligible for

this Policy. This is a Standard Wholeturnover Policy wherein all shipments are

required to be covered under the Policy.

Period of Policy: 12 Months

Risks Covered:

Commercial risks

o Insolvency of the buyer.

o Failure of the buyer to make the payment due within a specified period, normally

four months from the due date.


o Buyer's failure to accept the goods (subject to certain conditions).

Political risks:

o Imposition of restrictions by the Government of the buyer's country or any

Government action which may block or delay the transfer of payment made by the

buyer;

o War, civil war, revolution or civil disturbances in the buyer's country;

o New import restrictions or cancellation of a valid import license;

o Interruption of voyage outside India resulting in payment of additional freight or

insurance charges which cannot be recovered from the buyer.

Percentage of Cover: 90%

Minimum Premium: Rs. 10,000/- shall be adjusted towards premiums falling due

on the shipments effected under the policy and is non-refundable.

2. Small Exporters Policy


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Unit 7- RBI & EXCHANGE CONTROL, EXIM

Bank, FEDAI

FOREIGN EXCHANGE DEALERS' ASSOCIATION OF INDIA (FEDAI)

FEDAI, a non-profit making body was established during 1958 to take over the functions

of the then Exchange Banks Association.

Objective of FEDAI: To regulate the dealings of and between ADs.

Functions of FEDAI: Major functions include (1) to frame uniform rules for a level

playing field (b) granting accreditation to forex brokers.

All ADs are required to mandatorily abide by the FEDAI rules. FEDAI rules relate to

operations in foreign exchange for having uniformity in dealings. Important rules are

provided asunder:

Rules 1 Hours of

business

1.1 The exchange trading hours for Inter-bank forex market in

India would be from 9.00 a.m. to 5.00 p.m. No customer

transaction should be undertaken by the Authorised Dealers after

4.30 p.m. on all working days.

1.2 Cut-off time limit of 05.00 p.m. is not applicable for cross

currency transactions. In terms of paragraph 7.1 of Internal

Control Guidelines over Foreign Exchange Business of Reserve

Bank of India (February 2011), Authorised Dealers are permitted

to undertake cross currency transactions during extended hours,

provided the Managements lay down the extended dealing hours.

1.3 For the purpose of Foreign Exchange business, Saturday will

not be treated as a working day. 1.4 “Known holiday” is one which

is known at least 4 working days before the date. A holiday that is

not a “known holiday” is defined as a “suddenly declared holiday”..

Rule 2 Exports Crystallisations of export bills - Banks have discretion to

crystallise the export bills. Earlier it used to be 30 days on expiry

of normal transit period.For crystallisation into Rupee liability, the

Authorised Dealer shall apply its TT selling rate of exchange.


Normal transit period - Normal Transit Period Concepts of

normal transit period and notional due date are linked to

concessional interest rate on export bills. Normal transit period

comprises of the average period normally involved from the date

of negotiation/purchase/discount till the receipt of bill proceeds. It

is not to be confused with the time taken for the arrival of the

goods at the destination.

Normal transit period for different categories of export business

are laid down as below

a) Fixed Due Date In the case of export usance bills, where due

dates are fixed or are reckoned from date of shipment or date of

bill of exchange etc, the actual due date is known. Therefore in

such cases, normal transit period is not applicable.

b) Bills in Foreign Currencies – 25 days

c) Exports to Iraq under United Nations Guidelines – Max. 120

days

d) Bills drawn in Rupees under Letters of Credit (L/C) i)

Reimbursement provided at centre of negotiation - 3 days ii)

Reimbursement provided in India at centre different from centre

of negotiation - 7 days iii) Reimbursement provided by banks

outside India - 20 days iv) Exports to Russia under L/C where

reimbursement is provided by RBI - 20 days.

e) Bills in Rupees not under Letter of Credit - 20 days

Payment of interest - AD to pay interest to exporter for delay in

payment on export bill sent for collection and realized if the delay

is more than the prescribed period.


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Direct quote is when a unit of foreign currency is expressed in terms of home currency

e.g. SD/INR 45.00. Indirect quotes is when a unit of home currency is expressed in

terms of a foreign currency e.g. 1 unit of euro is equal to USD 1.40 – only a few

currencieslike GBP/Euro, Euro/USD and AUD/USD are quoted in this manner.

In cross currency quotes where home currency (say, INR) is not involved, the currency to

the right side of the quote is known as terms currency and the currency to the left side is

base currency. The usage applies to direct as well as indirect quotes.

TOD (or cash) is delivery on the same day (today) and TOM is delivery next day (tomorrow)

All the rates quoted by banks are interbank rates i.e. these rates are applicable between

banks. For a customer margin is added or deducted When a customer wishes to buy

currency

Base currency is the currency which is being bought and sold and the other currency is

incidental.

Forwards are quoted as follows

• Spot/1 month 17/18

• Spot/ 2 months 35/37

• Spot/ 3 months 53/56

If forward differentials are in the ascending order (1st figure is lower than the 2nd) the

base currency is at premium.

Fedai prescribed types of rates of merchant transactions:

• TT (buying)- clean inward remittances

• Bill (buying)- purchase/discount of export bills

• TT (selling) clean outward remittances

• Bill (selling) remittance for import bills

Numericals 1. Based on the data given below answer the questions from (i) to (iii)

Following are interbank quotes on certain date Spot USD/INR 45.70/75

1 month 5/7

2 month 8/10

3 month 12/15

Spot GBP/USD 1.8000/8010

1 month 30/25

2 month 50/45

3 month 60/65

Margin of the bank is 3 paise

Numerical on Foreign exchange


(i) An exporter presents a sight bill. What rate will be quoted to the exporter.

Ans. Spot USD/INR is 45.70/75. This means bank is willing to buy USD at 45.70 and sell

at 45.75. When an export customer goes to bank he will be selling currency to bank thus

bank will be buying currency from the customer. The basic principle followed by bank

is buy low sell high. Whenever bank buys currency it deducts margin from the spot

so that it has to pay lower to the customer. In this case bank will buy at Spot –

Margin ie. 45.70 -0.05 = 45.65. Thus rate quoted to the customer will be 45.65

(ii) Another exporter submitted 3 month usance bill. What rate will be quoted to the

customer.

Ans: Usance bills mean payment will be made after a specified period. 3 month export

usance bill means foreign exchange will be received by the bank 3 months from now. To

arrive at this forward rate add premium to the spot rate ie 45.70+0.12 = 45.82 from this

deduct margin hence rate given to customer will be 45.79

(iii) Calculate GBP/INR rate

Ans: This is the example of calculating cross rate.

Here USD/INR is 45.70/75 & GBP/USD is 1.8000/8010. Now we need to calculate

GBP/INR which means how many INRs will be equal to 1 GBP.

Here 45.70 INR= 1 USD and 1.8000USD equals 1 GBP . It means 1.8000* 1 USD = 1 GBP

. Thus 1.8000* 45.70 = 1 GBP thus GBP/INR is 82.26/40


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Though students find these questions tough they are not really so and just need basic

understanding of the concepts.

First understand one basic concept that is exchange rates are determined. Various

factors determine exchange rate most important being demand of currency. So a

currency with higher demand will be a stronger currency. Dollar has very high demand

and is thus a strong currency. Kuwaiti Dinar is the strongest currency the world

1 KWD = 3.42 USD 1 KWD = 2.80 Euro 1 KWD = 217.97 Indian Rupee –

Another factor which determines exchange rate between two countries is the interest

rate between two countries. Remember one rule a country with high interest rates has

weak currency and country with low interest rate has strong currency. A country like

India which has interest rate of 8-9% has weak currency while a country like US has

interest rate of around 0.25 %

Intensive understanding - Foreign exchange Numerical:


So suppose you want to buy one dollar now you can buy it a spot Rate lets say that

rate is 1$= Rs 62. But what if you want to know what would be rate of this dollar 3

months from now? This will depend upon premium or discount. If a country has lower

interest rate it will be at premium, if currency has higher rate of interest it will be at

discount.

We add premium to the spot rate and deduct discount from spot rate to arrive at the

future rate known as forward rate.

Calculation of Rates:

Illustration 1: Spot USD is Rs 44.80/85. If forward premium is given as under

1M – 0234/0239

2M-0303/0307

3M – 0323/0327

What rate will be quoted to an export customer who books 1 month forward contract .

Ans 1: Spot rate is given as 44.80/85 here 44.80 is the bid rate and 44.85 is the ask

rate. Now always remember that questions here are to be solved from the point of view

of bank and not of customer. 44.80 which is bid rate means bank is willing to buy one

dollar for Rs 44.80 from a customer but will sell one dollar for Rs 44.85 to a customer.

Now always remember export customer means a customer who has made exports and

receives foreign exchange. He will go to bank to sell this foreign exchange to the bank

which in other language means bank will buy foreign exchange from the exporter.

So when quoting rates to an exporter buy rate of bank is to be considered which Rs

44.80 in this case. However forward contract for 1month to be booked which means

bank will buy this exchange one month from now and hence one month rate is to be

arrived.

The premium for one month is 0234.

We will add this premium to the spot rate to arrive at one month forward rate, thus one

month forward rate at which contract is to be booked is

Spot rate --- ------------ 44.8000

Add- 1M Premium----- 0.0234

-------------

44.8234


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Module B

Risk Management

What to Focus in this module Module B is based on Risk in banking sector. It tracks the evolution of Basel and

various risks defined as per Basel accord and how they are to be handled by

Banks.

The most important pillar of Basel accord is keeping of minimum capital. Students

must get themselves fully acquainted with various components of capital and how

to calculate eligible capital as numerical are asked from it.

There are three major risks faced by banks (i) Credit risk (ii) Market risk & (iii)

Operational risk. This unit dwells in detail upon all these risks and how they are

calculated.

Numerical from this portion are based on calculation of capital, calculation of Risk

weights, calculating capital charge for market and operational risk.

At the end of this unit student must be fully aware about Basel II accord and how

it affects the banking Industry in terms of risk management. Remember this unit

is precursor to module D so students should be fully conversant with this unit

before they move ahead.


Unit-8 Risk and Basic Risk Management

Framework

What is risk? To understand it in financial terms, a business is done keeping in mind

certain expected cash flows. These cash flows represent money which will be generated

by doing that business. The money generated should cover all costs incurred and

estimated profits. Now let’s say a business is expecting the following net flows which will

cover all its costs and give required profits for survival and expansion:

Year I II III IV

Expected net

flow

1000 2000 3000 4000

Actual net flow 1100 1900 3100 3500

Variance 100 (100) 100 (500)

As can be seen cash flows in Year I & III is more than expected but cash flow in Year II

& IV is lower than expected. Why cash flows are different from as projected? Because

of various uncertainties, these uncertainties can either be favourable or unfavorable,

only the unfavourable variance in cash flow is known as risk.

Few points need to be understood in this regard:

1. Risk is not bad.

2. Risk cannot be completely eliminated

3. Risk needs to be managed.

4. Higher the risk, higher the return and thus higher is the capital.

First to understand that risk is not bad. Risk also returns in higher reward and often

results in better and unique methods to do a business. Secondly risk cannot be

completely eliminated while doing a business, risk will always be there, it is for a firm to

decide its goal and risk appetite. Why risk needs to be managed? Reckless risk taking

can result into losses which cannot be afforded and business has to shut down. How

risk and capital are related? Capital

“represents that amount of fund in the business which is necessary to start and grow

the business and which is assumed to be in the business as long as the business is run.

Capital is necessary to absorb losses. If a business involves high risk, losses could be

high and thus capital needed would be high to cover those losses.

Basic Risk Management Framework:

As already explained earlier, risk cannot be eliminated altogether and thus it has to be

managed based upon the risk appetite of the firm. For this there must be a risk

management framework, the basic spirit of which is common to all organizations. From

now, onwards we will study risk management framework with respect to banks.

A risk management framework basically involves the following 6 steps:

1. Organization for risk management:

2. Risk Identification


3. Risk measurement

4. Risk pricing

5. Risk Monitoring and control

6. Risk Mitigation.


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Unit 9- Risks in Banking Business

Banking business can be divided into three lines:

1. Banking book: Includes advances, deposits of the banks. They also represents fixed

assets of the banks and any borrowings made by them .The banking book is exposed

to credit risk, operational risk, liquidity risk and interest rate risk. They are normally held

till maturity and accrual system of accounting is applied.

2. Trading Book: These generally consists assets which are exposed to markets. For e.g.

Treasury Department of the Bank invests in various government bonds, stock, foreign

currency and corporate bonds. Trading book apart from credit, operational, market and

liquidity is also exposed to market risk. They are normally not held until maturity

and positions are liquidated in the market after holding it for a period and mark to

market system is followed.

3. Off Balance Sheet exposure: These are exposures which may convert into asset or

liability based upon the happening of a certain event. These do not appear in Balance

sheet but are shown as notes to Balance sheet. For example, Bank issues guarantees

on behalf of their customers, in case that guarantee is invoked by the beneficiary, bank

will have to immediately make payment to beneficiary then it will become liability of the

bank and reflect in Balance sheet.

Can off balance sheet exposures be asset too? Yes, suppose a Bank is involved in

litigation and judgment comes in favor of Bank and Court directs the other party to pay

some amount as compensation to Bank then that will result as asset. Off balance sheet

exposures may convert into exposure of banking book or trading book depending upon

the nature of off balance sheet exposure.

Before we go any further and understand various risks faced by Bank, we need to

understand certain concepts which are related with valuation of assets and liabilities.

1. Mark to Market: Mark to market simply means that assets and liabilities should be

shown at their market value.

Mark to market relates to trading book in banks. Banks hold government securities,

bonds, stocks their prices changes daily, Suppose a Bank holds a government bond

valued at Rs 1000 on 01.01.2014, on 01.02.2014 it is valued at Rs 1200, now this Rs

200 is profit and must be recognized as profit and bond must now be shown in books at


Rs 1200.This procedure of showing the securities at their market price is known as mark

to market.


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Unit 10- Risk Regulations in Banking

Industry

From here we will study Basel, how Basel framework evolved, what were the pillars

prescribed, what risk were recognized, how it is applied in Indian context.

Why Banks are important? Ever heard of Too Big to Fail (TBTF)? TBTF became popular

after global meltdown crisis and failure of Bank’s like Lehman. It meant that these

institutions are so big and their survival so vital that they must not be allowed to fail and

must be protected at every cost. This is the importance of Banks in an economy, failure

of one bank can create failure of whole banking system because of huge mutual lending

and borrowings and commitments between Banks. Thus it is very important to regulate

the banking industry and ensure that banking system remains robust and flourishing and

is not engaged in reckless lending or taking unwarranted or extraordinary risks.

Basel Committee on banking supervision (BCBS): on 26th June 1974 a number of

banks have released Deutschmarks( former currency of Germany) to Bank Herstatt ( a

German bank) in in Frankfurt in exchange for dollars which were to be delivered in New

York. However due to differences in time zone there was delay in time payment. In the

meantime German regulators liquidated Bank Herstatt. Result? Banks who had given

Deutschmarks were faced with credit risk. Thus risk of settlement that arises from time

difference came to be known as Herstatt risk. This prompted G-10 countries to for Basel

Committee on banking supervision in 1974.

First Basel accord 1988:

The first Basel accord primarily focused on placing a framework for minimum capital

requirements to address credit risk. Once again we reiterate why capital is important?

In its simplest form, capital represents the portion of a bank’s assets which have no

associated contractual commitment for repayment. It is, therefore, available as a

cushion in case the value of the bank’s assets declines or its liabilities rise. Thus when

BCBS focused on credit risk, which means that money lent will not be received back

and loss would be suffered, it prescribed minimum capital known as CRAR which

must be there to absorb these losses or shocks so that Bank’s do not go bankrupt.

The accord provided for detailed definition of Tier I and Tier II capital. It also classified

Bank assets into 5 buckets. 0, 10 %, 20 % 50 % and 100 %


Category Risk weight assigned

Sovereigns 0%

Banks 20%

Public sector enterprises 50%

Others 100

What does this risk weight mean? Understand this, suppose a bank ABC Ltd in India

which has capital (Tier I + Tier II) of Rs 40 lakh and has given loans of Rs 100 lakh to

Government of India (GOI), Rs 200 lakh to State Bank of India and Rs 300 lakh to

Reliance company. What would be risk weighted assets (RWA) of ABC ltd ?

Exposure to Amount Risk weight RWA

GOI 100 0 0

SBI 200 20 40

Reliance 300 100 300

Thus as we see from above example, RWA of Banks are 340, So CRAR of the bank

would be

Total Capital Funds

(RWA for Credit Risk)

= 40/340= 11.76 %. This was how initially CRAR was calculated with only capital for

credit risk being considered.

1996 Amendment to include market risk. In 1996 amendments were made to 1988

basel accord and market risk was also recognized and methods to measure it were

prescribed. Salient features are given as below:

(i) Banks to identify a trading book and hold capital for market risk under trading book and

organization wide foreign exchange exposures.

(ii) Capital charge to be measured based on 10-day 95 percent VaR metric. Market

requirements were equal to the greater of either the previous day’s VaR, or the average

VaR over the previous 6 days multiplied by 3.


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Case 1. Bank of Indians had paid up capital of Rs 500 crore, Reserves of Rs 250 cr, ,

Revaluation reserve of Rs 100 cr, Perpetual non-cumulative preference shares

(PNCPS) of Rs 50 cr and subordinated debts of Rs 200 cr. Calculate Tier I and Tier II

capital of Bank of Indians and total capital fund of the Bank.

Tier I capital of the Bank = Paid up capital + Reserves+ PNCPS

= 500 + 250+ 50 = 800 cr

Tier II Capital = Revaluation reserves at the discount of 55% + Subordinated Debt

= 45* 100+ 200 = 245 cr

*(Remember 55% of discount means, only 45% of revaluation reserve will be

considered)

Total Capital of Bank = 800+245 = 1045 cr


not available .

Question 1.rating migration:

Rating March

31,2009

March 31, 2010

AAA AA+ AA A+ BBB C Default

AAA 500 400 50 10 20 -- 20 --

AA+ 100 20 70 10 -- -- -- --

AA 100 10 80 5 5 -- --

A+ -- -- -- -- -- -- -- --

BBB 300 100 120 40 40

C 100 20 20 40 20 --

Default --


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Numerical & Case Studies - Calculation of Capital:


1. Position of The Western Bank of India as on 31.03.2013 is given as under: Paid up capital of Rs 300 crore, Statutory reserves of Rs 400 crore, Tier I Capital as on 31.03.11 and 31.03.12 is Rs 800 crore and 900 crore. IPDI as on 31.03.13 is Rs 300 crore. PNCPS is Rs 200 crore. Revaluation reserve of Rs 250 crore and Subordinated debt of Rs 400 crore. Calculate (i) Tier I capital of the Bank (ii) Tier II capital of the Bank (iii) Total capital of the Bank


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Case Studies and Numerical Problems- Module B


Module C

Treasury Management

What to Focus in this module Module C is based on Treasury Management. As ordinary bankers working as

desk officers, assistant, we fail to see what role treasury plays in the growth of

Banks.

So did you ever wonder, how profitability of your bank is decided? What happens

to the deposits you have mobilized? How banks never fall short of cash? How

CRR & SLR are maintained?

This module gives a glimpse of that to student. Structure of CAIIB exams is such

that it tends to give sufficient knowledge to students on various topics without

delving much into the deeper nuances.

This module will also introduce students to newer concepts of derivatives.

Various types of derivatives, their payoff, their risks. Students should enjoy

knowing about this new aspects of banking.

Questions in this module are asked for calculation of CRR, SLR, Structural

liquidity statements, Bonds options etc,

Treasury is one area of banking business where risk can be so great that it can

cause collapse of whole banking systems. Students should take out some time

and read about derivative trader Nick Leeson. Nick Leeson, a derivative trader

caused loss of £827 million ($1.3 billion) to 233 year old Barings banks forcing it

to be sold for £ 1 to ING in 1995


Unit 14 Introduction to Treasury

Management

Suppose a bank receives Rs 100 in the form of FD for 3 years and bank pays 10 % RoI

on it. Bank must lend this money in the form of loan to some borrower. However it is not

always possible to lend the money received instantly, however Bank cannot keep this

money idle, so traditionally bank would invest it in money market instruments for short

term till it finds suitable opportunity to lend it. This function of deploying surplus fund is

performed by treasury department. Now suppose bank finds a borrower and lends this

Rs 100 to that borrower for 3 years. But after 1 year the depositor comes into the Bank

and asks for premature withdrawal of FD. Bank must pay Rs 100 to borrower, but bank

has given that money as loan. In this condition treasury must borrow the money from

money market and pay back the borrower.

So traditionally treasury was involved in managing liquidity aspect of the bank. Also

treasury was required to comply with the requirement of maintenance of CRR & SLR.

Even today managing liquidity is the important function of the treasury, however due to

availability of various investment avenue treasury has moved from being a cost center

to a profit center.

Integrated Treasury: Integrated treasury in a banking set up refers to integration of

money market, securities markets and foreign exchange operations. With Economic

reforms ushered in 1992, foreign investors invest in India, also Banks now have option

to lend in foreign markets, also various financial markets like debt market, money

market, forex market, mutual fund market, capital market have grown over the years

and have provided an alternative investment opportunities to the Banks, and bank

through its treasury department operates in these markets.

Functions of Integrated Treasury are:

(i) Meeting reserve requirement of CRR & SLR

(ii) Global cash management

(iii) Merchant services like advisory and foreign exchange

(iv) Make profit in various markets like forex, money market, securities market

(v) Risk Management through use of derivatives for hedging

(vi) Assisting Bank in ALM.

Evolving role of Treasury as profit Centre

Traditionally Treasury was seen as mere cost center (it was just a department

concerned with complying statutory requirement of maintaining CRR & SLR), however

globalization and subsequent development if Indian financial markets have opened up

plethora of opportunities for treasury to evolve from cost center to a profit center.

Treasury can now take opportunity of deploying funds in various markets and make

profits for the Bank. In this part we will study various sources from which treasury profits

are generated.


Conventional sources of profit generation:

(i) Forex Business: Banks buy currencies and sell. Principle is buy low and sell high.

Difference between buy rate and sell rate is known as spread and is profit. For example

Bank can buy US dollar at Rs 65 from an exporter and sell the same at Rs 66 to an

importer. Rs 1 will be the profit of the bank. Now Suppose Bank has bought 10 USD

and could sell only 8 dollars, the 2 dollar which will be left with the Bank is known as

open position. In this case Bank will be in the position known as overbought, similarly if

Bank had bought inly 10 USD and entered into a contract to sell 12 USD bank would

be in a position called oversold. Banks generally try to square off their position by buying

equal and selling equal amount of currency so that at the end of the day it is not left with

any open position so as to avoid exchange risk.


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Unit 15 – Treasury Products

As studied in the previous unit, treasuries operate in various markets, namely foreign

exchange market, money market, securities market and also deal in various derivatives

and structured products. In this unit we will learn about all those products:

(1) Products of Foreign exchange market: It is a virtual market with no physical

boundaries and operates 24 hours. Principle of this market is buy currency at low rate

and sells at high rates.

(a) Spot Trades: Spot means settlement takes place two working days from the trade

date i.e. on the third day. Currency can also be bought and sold, with settlement on the

same day i.e. today (TOD) or, on the next day i.e. tomorrow (TOM). All the rates printed

are for spot trade unless otherwise mentioned.

(b) Forward rates: While spot refers to current transaction, forwards refer to purchase

and sale of currency on future date. Forward exchange rates are arrived at on the basis

of interest rate differentials of two currencies, added or deducted from spot exchange

rate. The interest rate differential is added to the spot rate for low interest yielding

currency (representing forward premium) and deducted from the spot rate for high

interest yielding currency (representing forward discount).


(c) Investment of foreign exchange surpluses: Forex surplus arise out (i) profits from

treasury operations(ii) profits from overseas branches (iii) forex borrowings from

domestic/overseas markets (iv) Foreign currency and deposits from customers (v)

Balances in Nostro accounst, EEFC acs. These surpluses can be lent to domestic and

global banks for a period not exceeding 1 year or can be invested in overseas market

in short term instrument or can be deposited in Nostro Accounts.

(d) Loans and advances: Banks can give loans in foreign currency in form of FCNR

loans, PCFC and discount of foreign currency bills.

(e) Rediscounting of foreign currency bills: It is an interbank advance where one

bank re discounts the foreign currency bill discounted by another bank.

(2) Money Market Products:

(a) Call money, notice money and term money: The market is for raising and

deploying short term resources not exceeding one year. Call money is for placement of

funds for 1 day. Rate used for this is Overnight Mumbai Interbank offered rate (O/N

MIBOR). Notice money is for period not exceeding 14 days and term money is for period

more than 14 days but not exceeding one year.

(b) Treasury bills: They are short term money market instruments issued by GOI

through RBI for maturity of 91-day, 182 day and 364-day. There are no treasury bills

issued by state governments. Minimum amount is Rs 25,00 and in multiples of Rs

25,000. T Bills are issued at discount and redeemed at par. For example T Bill of 91

day will be available for purchase at 99.26 yielding interest at 5.16% p.a. and after 91

days it can be redeemed for Rs 100. They are held in SGL account which is maintained

with RBI by each banks. Secondary market of t bills takes place through Clearing

Corporation of India Ltd (CCIL).


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Unit 16 Funding and Regulatory aspects

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the amount of funds that all Scheduled Commercial

Banks (SCB) excluding Regional Rural Banks (RRB) are required to maintain without

any floor or ceiling rate with RBI with reference to their total net Demand and Time

Liabilities (DTL) to ensure the liquidity and solvency of Banks (Section 42 (1) of RBI

Act 1934).

Computation of DTL

Demand Liabilities are liabilities which are payable on demand and Time Liabilities are those which are payable otherwise than on demand. The components for computation of DTL include Demand Liabilities, Time Liabilities and Other Demand & Time Liabilities (ODTL) as under:- a)Demand Liabilities:- Current Deposits, Savings bank deposits, Margins held against letters of credit/guarantees, Balances in overdue fixed deposits, Outstanding TTs, MTs, DDs, Unclaimed deposits, Credit balances in the Cash Credit account and deposits held as security for advances which are payable on demand, & Money at Call and Short Notice from outside the Banking System (Liability to others). b)Time Liabilities:- Fixed deposits, cash certificates, cumulative and recurring deposits, time liabilities portion of savings bank deposits, staff security deposits, margin held against letters of credit, if not payable on demand, & deposits held as securities for advances which are not payable on demand and Gold deposits. c)Other Demand and Time Liabilities (ODTL):- Interest accrued on deposits, bills payable, unpaid dividends, suspense account balances representing amounts due to other banks or public, net credit balances in branch adjustment account, any amounts due to the banking system which are not in the nature of deposits or borrowing.Participation Certificates issued to other banks, the balances outstanding in the blocked account pertaining to segregated outstanding credit entries for more than 5 years in inter-branch adjustment account, the margin money on bills purchased / discounted and gold borrowed by banks from abroad, Cash collaterals received under collateralized derivative transactions and Loans/borrowings from abroad. Liabilities not included under DTL/ODTL Paid up capital, reserves, credit balance in the Profit & Loss Account, loan taken from the RBI, refinance taken from Exim Bank, NHB, NABARD, SIDBI; Net income tax provision;

Amount received from DICGC towards claims pending adjustments thereof;

Amount received from ECGC Amount received from insurance company on ad-hoc settlement of claims pending judgment of the Court; Amount received from the Court Receiver; The liabilities arising on account of utilization of limits under Bankers Acceptance


Facility (BAF); District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) subsidy of Rs.10, 000/- kept in Subsidy Reserve Fund account in the name of Self Help Groups. Subsidy released by NABARD under Investment Subsidy Scheme for Construction/Renovation/Expansion of Rural Godowns; Net unrealized gain/loss arising from derivatives transaction under trading portfolio; Exempted Categories on which CRR need not be maintained:


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Unit 17 Treasury Risk Management Concern for treasury risk:

(i) Treasury transactions are highly leveraged, for very low fund they can take large

positions which results in higher risks.

(ii) Large size of transactions done at the sole discretion of the dealer. Value of single

transactions can range from Rs 5 crore to Rs 50 crore and any error of judgment of the

dealer can cause losses of such huge amounts.

(iii) Loss is materialized in very short span of time and often doesn’t give time to set

right the position or cover the losses.

Since function of treasury is to operate in various markets, it faces all the risks

associated with those markets namely, market risk, funding risk, interest rate risk,

liquidity risk, counterparty risk etc.

These risks need to be managed by conventional tools and supervisory measures in

the following ways:

(i) Organisational control: Treasury department is divided into three offices, front

office or dealing room, back office and middle office. This is done to ensure checks and

balances within the system.

(ii) Internal controls: Internal controls mean internal control imposed by the Bank on

position limits and stop loss limits. What are positions?

Case I: Suppose a Bank for the sake of trading profits enter into a deal to buy 1 million

USD, 1 month from now at Rs 60. Now if after 1 month USD is valued at Rs 65 bank

will make profit of Rs 50 lakh since it can buy USD at Rs 60 while their market value is

Rs 65. However, if after 1 month USD is valued at Rs 55, Bank will lose Rs 50 lakh.

Here the deal to buy 1 million USD is known as position of the Bank. When the deal is

to buy it is called long position, when the deal is to sell it is called short position.

As already stated earlier the deals are made by single dealer and that too quickly based

on his assessment and judgment, if a dealer is allowed to make any size of deal he can


even make a deal of 1 billion USD in which case bank in scenario 2 of dollar at Rs 55

will suffer loss of Rs 500 crore. Thus there is a need to put restrictions on the deal size

which a dealer can make.

Case II : Suppose a bank enters into a deal to buy 100 dollars at Rs 60, and at the

same time enter into a contract to sell 100 dollars at Rs 61. The position here is called

covered position as bank has matched the buy and sells position and at the end of day

Bank will make profit of Rs 100. However, if bank has bought 100 dollars and at the end

of day there is no customer to whom it can sell, bank faces risk. First it has blocked its

money in buying the dollars and secondly value of dollar may fall from Rs 60, resulting

into loss to the bank. This position here where buy and sell orders are not matched is

known as open position. Bank imposes limits on these open positions.


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Unit 18 Derivative Products

Derivatives do not have independent value and derive their value from an underlying asset. For e.g. a call option is an example of derivative as it derives its value from underlying which in this case is share. Derivative is a financial contract and always refers to some future price and its value depends on spot market.

Derivatives can either be over the counter (OTC) products designed between two parties. For exam A wants to purchase 100 shares of Company ABC after 3 months at Rs 100 per share. He can enter into a contract with another person B who is willing to offer this deal. This is an example of derivative contract which is OTC. Derivatives can also be exchange traded where A can go to stock exchange and purchase the required contract. However there are differences between OTC products and exchange traded products.

OTC Exchange traded

OTC products are offered by banks and

financial institutions (need to be

authorized banks in India)

Futures contracts are traded only on

organized futures exchanges

Contract date, amount and terms as

desired by the client

Size of contract is standardized, with

pre-set settlement dates for specific

terms (e g one month, $1000 contract

settled last Wednesday of every month

against INR)

Price is quoted by the Bank, adding a

margin to market quote

Transparent pricing, based on screen-

based order matching system

Security (cash margin, charge on assets

etc.), at bank's discretion, based on client

status

The Exchange collects daily cash

margin based on MTM value of the

contract


Counter-party risk (bank risk is present.) No counter-party risk, as Exchange is

the counter part - who manages the risk

by margining system

Settlement is mostly by physical delivery

(net settlement only in trading

positions/cancellations)

Mostly net settlement by cash (physical

delivery may be insisted upon in

commodity futures)

Mostly used for hedging Mostly used for trading and speculation.

Derivatives are basically of three kinds (i) Forward contracts (ii) Options (iii) swaps.

(i) Forward contracts: it’s a contract to deliver foreign currency on a future date at a pre agreed rate. For e.g. Rajesh, an importer is purchasing machinery from USA for1 million dollar and payment is to be made 3 months from now. Current rate is Rs 60. So from current rate Rajesh would have to make Rs 6 crore (1millionusd* 60). But payment is to be made 3 months from now, let’s say dollar is appreciating and is expected at Rs 70 three months from then Rajesh would have to pay Rs 7 crore. So for saving himself from this risk he can enter into a forward contract with bank, where by paying a premium he will get a contract where he can purchase 1million USD at 60/ dollar after three months.

(ii) Options: Options means a contract where buyer of an option gets a right though no obligation to exercise the contract. Options are of two types; first option to buy known as call option and secondly option to sell is known as put option.

How options differ from forwards? Here buyer of an option is not obliged to exercise the contract. For eg Rajesh buys a call option to purchase 100 shares of Reliance at Rs 60, 3 months from now. This price at which it is agreed to be purchased is called strike price. Suppose 3 months from now, price of Reliance is Rs 70. Now Rajesh can buy the stock at Rs 60 when price is Rs 70. This Rs 10 will be his profit. The price on that date will be known as spot price. Now suppose 3 months from now price of Reliance is Rs 50, but he has agreed to buy at Rs 60, here he gets the advantage, now he is not obliged to buy it at Rs 60. He can simply not exercise the contract and let the option expire. Call option is an option to buy and put option is an option to sell.

Now understand some concept. When you will buy call option? When you expect price to rise and when you will buy put option when you expect prices to fall. Here comes three terms

(i) At the money option: Suppose you have bought a call option to buy a stock at Rs 60 (strike price) after 3 months . 3 months later stock price (known as spot price for that day) is Rs 60 only. This is called at the money option cause there is no loss no gain in exercising this option

(ii) In the money option: Suppose you have bought a call option to buy a stock at Rs 60 after 3 months. 3 months later stock price (known as spot price for that day) is Rs 70. Now you earn Rs 10. Your option will earn you money this is called in the money option. However note if it was a put option it will earn money if spot price is less than strike price i.e. spot price to be less than 60 then put will be in the money.


(iii) Out of money option. In case of call option if spot price is less than strike price, option will be out of money. For e.g. a call option to buy a stock at Rs 60 after 3 months. 3 months later stock price (known as spot price for that day) is Rs 50. Here there is no use in exercising this option as stock is available at Rs 50 so there is no rational in buying it at Rs 60.

Call Option Put option

At the money Strike price= spot price Strike price= spot price

In the money Strike price < spot price Strike price > spot price

Out of money Strike price > spot price Strike price < spot price


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Unit 19 Treasury and Asset Liability

Management In ALM, assets yield income, hence are shown as cash inflows, while liabilities need to be repaid, hence are shown as cash outflows. Asset-liability mismatch is therefore, a cash flow mismatch, with excess inflow or outflow of funds. If part of inflow or outflow is denominated in foreign currency, there is also currency mismatch which needs to be managed by the Treasury. Liquidity : The difference between sources and uses of funds in specific time bands is known as liquidity gap which may be positive or negative. The liquidity gap arises out of mismatch of assets and liabilities of the bank. RBI has prescribed 11 time buckets in which assets and liability are placed . An example of maturity bucket is given as below.

Maturity

Bucket

Assets Liability Gap Cumulative

Gap

1 day 500 550 -50 -50

2-7 days 400 600 -200 -250

8-14 days 700 800 -100 -350

15-28 days 850 950 -100 -450

28 days-

3months

1200 1100 100 -350

3 months-6

mnth

1500 1700 -200 -550

> 6 mnth to

12m

1600 1800 -200 -750

12 m to 3year 2000 1700 300 -450

3 year to 5

year

2100 1800 300 -150

Above 5 year 2000 1850 150 0


not available

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A. Q1. Major Bank has following assets and liabilities in its balance sheet as on 31.03.2010.

Capital Rs 4000 cr, Reserves- Rs 8200 cr, demand deposits Rs 22000 cr , Saving Bank Deposit- Rs 30,000, Fixed Deposit Rs 50,000. Borrowings from Financial Institutions- Rs 700 cr, NABARD Refinace – Rs 800 cr, Bills Payable-Rs 300 cr, Interest accrued – Rs 50 cr, Subordinated Debt- Rs 900 cr and Suspense account – Rs 200 cr. Total liability of the Bank is 1,20,000. Calculate the following

a) What is the amount that will not be included in NDTL for calculation of CRR

b) What is the amount of NDTL on which CRR is to be maintained.

c) if CRR to be maintained is 4 % what is the average balance to be maintained with RBI.

d) What is the minimum balance in CRR account with RBI, in the above situation which should be available.


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C. How is the yield of a Treasury Bill calculated?

It is calculated as per the following formula

Case studies and Numerical Module C



Wherein;

P-Purchase Price D – Days to maturity Day Count: For Treasury Bills, D = [actual number of days to maturity/365]

Illustration Assuming that the price of a 91 day Treasury bill at issue is Rs.98.20, the yield on the same would be

After say, 41 days, if the same Treasury bill is trading at a price of Rs. 99, the yield would then be

Note that the remaining maturity of the treasury bill is 50 days (91-41). i) Coupon Yield


not available D. ALM AND GAP MANAGEMENT The Gap is the difference between Rate Sensitive Assets (RSA) and Rate Sensitive Liabilities (RSL) for each time bucket. The positive Gap indicates that it has more RSAs than RSLs whereas the negative Gap indicates that it has more RSLs. The Gap reports indicate whether the institution is in a position to benefit from rising interest rates by having a positive Gap (RSA > RSL) or whether it is in a position to benefit from declining interest rates by a negative Gap (RSL > RSA). The Gap can, therefore, be used as a measure of interest rate sensitivity. What are RSA- Which will be affected by a change in interest rate. For example, Cash Credit, Term Loans, If interest rate on term loan increases bank will gain by Interest income What are RSL- which will be affected by a change in interest rate. For example Saving Bank accounts, Fixed Deposit accounts. Cash in Hand, Current accounts etc are not affected by changes in interest Rate. If a bank has lend in call money it is an asset and will be affected by change in interest rate.


Given below is the GAP statement of Paradise Bank ( Amt in Crores of Rupees.) Calculate the GAP

Repricing Asset Amt Repricing

Liability

Amt

Call Money 100 Saving Bank 700

Cash Credit 500 Fixed Deposit 300


not available Illustration1: Rohit sells an option to Ronit. As per terms, the option buyer has the right to buy USD 10000 at a strike price of Rs 50 per USD after expiry at the end of 3 months. a) Is this a put or call option b) if the spot price of USD on the date of expiry is Rs 45, the option is : (i) ITM (ii) ATM (iii) OTM c) If the spot price of USD on the date of expiry is Rs 55 the option is : (i) ITM (ii) ATM (iii) OTM


not available





Module-D

Balance Sheet

Management

What to Focus in this module Module D is based Balance sheet management of the Bank with reference to

Basel norms, Asset Liability Management, Asset classification, NPA norms

This module is very important as we have covered Basel III under this. Basel III

has become very important in recent times and students can expect 10-15 marks

from Basel itself.

Another important portion is ALM, Gap Management, NIM effect. Students can

expect 5 marks numerical easily from this part.

Another very important chapter is Asset classification and numericals relating to

its provisioning. Students can again expect 5 marks from this topic.

Thus all in all students can expect 20 marks numerical from this module and also

theoretical portion.


Unit- 20. Components of Assets and Liabilities in Bank's Balance Sheet

and their Management

Capital Reserves Deposits Borrowings Other Liabilities and provisions

Application of Funds

Cash In Hand and Balance with RBI Balances with Banks and Money at Call and Short Notice Investments Advance Fixed Assets Other Assets Reasons for growing significance of Asset Liability Management: (i) Volatility Deregulation of financial system changed the dynamics of financial markets it is reflected in volatility interest rate structures, money supply and the overall credit position of the market, the exchange rates and price levels.

(ii) Product Innovation: Growth of new products like derivatives and growth of money markets etc.

(iii) Regulatory Environment: Focus to regulate market risk.

(iv) Management Recognition: Importance of treasury as profit centre.

PURPOSE AND OBJECTIVES OF ASSET LIABILITY MANAGEMENT

1. Review the interest rate structure and compare the same to the interest/product pricing of both assets and liabilities.

2. Examine the loan and investment portfolios in the light of the foreign exchange risk and liquidity risk that might arise.

3. Examine the credit risk and contingency risk that may originate either due to rate fluctuations or otherwise and assess the quality of assets.

4. Review the actual performance against the projections made and analyze the reasons for any effect on the spreads.

The parameters that are selected for the purpose of stabilizing Asset Liability Management of banks re: • Net Interest Income (NiI)

• Net Interest Margin (NIM)

• Economic Equity Ratio

Net Interest Income (NII) The impact of volatility on the short-term profit is measured by Net Interest Income. Net Interest Income = Interest Income - Interest Expenses. In order to stabilise short-term profits; banks have to minimise fluctuation in the NII

Sources of Funds


Unit 21& 22 Banking Regulation and Capital and Capital Adequacy

Tier I capital It includes:- a. Paid-up equity capital, statutory reserves, and other disclosed free reserves, if any; b. Capital reserves representing surplus arising out of sale proceeds of assets; c. Innovative perpetual debt instruments (IPDI) eligible for inclusion in Tier I capital, d. Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference Shares (PNCPS), e. Any other type of instrument generally notified by RBI from time to time for inclusion

in Tier I capital. Limits on eligible Tier I Capital a. IPDIs upto 15% of Tier I capital as on March 31of previous financial year; b. The outstanding amount of Tier I preference shares i.e. Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference Shares (PNCPS) along with Innovative Tier I instruments shall not exceed 40 per cent of total Tier I capital at any point of time. c. Innovative instruments/PNCPS, in excess of the limit shall be eligible for inclusion

under Tier II, subject to limits prescribed for Tier II capital.

Tier II Capital a. Revaluation Reserve; b. General Provisions and Loss Reserves; c. Hybrid debt capital instruments; d. Subordinated debts; e. IPDI in excess of 15% of Tier I capital and PNCPS in excess of overall ceiling of 40% of Tier I capital; f. Any other type of instrument generally notified by the Reserve Bank from time to time for inclusion in Tier II capital. Limits on eligible Tier II capital a) It shall not exceed 100% of Tier I capital net of goodwill, Deferred Tax Assets (DTA), and other intangible assets but before deduction of investments; b) Subordinated debt instruments are limited to 50% of Tier I capital after all deductions. Revised capital norms are applicable to all commercial banks except ( Local area banks and regional rural banks) both at the solo level ( global position) i.e bank as an entity as well as on consolidated level. A consolidated bank will include all group entities under its control, except the exempted entities. A consolidated bank may exclude group companies which are engaged in insurance business and business not pertaining to financial services.


Unit 25 Asset Classification & Provisioning norms

RBI started implementation of the prudential guidelines on asset classification, income recognition and provisioning on loan assets based on the recommendations of the Narsimham committee, commencing with the accounting year beginning 01.04.1992.

Out of order status An out of order account is one in which the outstanding balance remains continuously

in excess of the sanctioned limit/drawing power or the outstanding balance is less than

the sanctioned limit/drawing power, but there are no credits continuously for 90 days as

on the date of Balance Sheet or credits are not enough to cover the interest debited

during the same period. ‘Overdue’ Overdue is the unpaid amount due to the bank under any credit facility on due date. Non-performing Assets An asset (including a leased asset) ceases to generate income is treated as non performing asset (NPA). A Loan or an advance is classified as NPA as under:-

Nature of Facility Parameters

Term Loan Interest and/or instalment of principal

remain overdue beyond 90 days

Overdraft/Cash Credit Remains ‘out of order’ as indicated

above

Bill Purchased/discounted Remains overdue beyond 90 days

Crop Loans (short duration Instalment of principal or interest

crops) thereon remains overdue for 2 crop

seasons

Crop Loans (Long duration Instalment of principal or interest

crops) thereon remains overdue for 1 crop

season

Securitization transactions Amount of liquidity facility remains

outstanding beyond 90 days

Derivative transactions Overdue receivables representing

positive mark-to-market value of a

derivative contract which remains

unpaid beyond 90 days from specified

due date for payment

Securitisation transaction Liquidity facility remains outstanding

for more than 90 days,

Banks are required to classify an account as NPA wherein the interest due and charged

during any quarter is not serviced fully within 90 days from the end of the quarter.


PROVISIONING NORMS In conformity with the prudential norms, and on the basis of classification of assets, taking into account the time lag between an account becoming doubtful of recovery, its recognition as such, the realization of the security, as also the erosion over time in the value of security charged to the bank, banks are required to make provisions on funded outstanding on global loan portfolio basis. as under:-

Standard:

General Advances

0.40%

Direct Agriculture & SME 0.25%

Commercial Real estate 1.00%

Restructured loans classified as

standard (for 2 years)

2.75%

Restructured loans classified as NPA (

for one years after upgradation as

standard)

2.75%

Sub standard

secured

15%

unsecured 25%

Doubtful Secured Unsecured

Upto 12 months 25% 100%

More than 12 months upto 3 years 40% 100%

More than 3 years 100% 100%

Loss 100%

Gross NPAs: Gross NPA is the principal dues of the NPA plus funded interest term loan where the corresponding contra credit is parked in sundries account Ans: Provision on NPA account = Gross NPA – Net NPA

= 8% - 2%

01. If there is an assets of Rs 200 only in the doubtful-I category and the

realization value of security is Rs 90 only , what will be the provision

requirement.

a. 132.50 b. 22.50

c. 110 d. none of the above

02. If the above asset is in Doubtful category II, what will be the provision requirement?

a. Rs 200 b. Rs 110

c. Rs 36 d. Rs 146

NPA Numerical


03. If the above asset is in Doubtful category III what would be the provision

requirement

a. Rs 200 b. Rs 110

c. Rs 36 d. Rs 146


not available



Unit 26- Liquidity Management Liquidity risk is of three types:

(i) Funding risk: When bank faces the risk of non-availability of funds to pay back

unexpected/premature deposits it is termed as funding risk.

(ii) Time risk: Mismatch in cash flow due to non-receipt of expected cash flow is called

time risk

(iii) Call risk: Risk arising out of crystallization of contingent liability.

Following steps are necessary for managing liquidity risk in banks:

1. Developing a structure for managing liquidity risk : ensuring effective board and

senior management oversight as well as operating under a sound process for

measuring, monitoring and controlling liquidity risk.

2. Setting tolerance level and limit for liquidity risk supervisors may set the limits.

Limits could be set on the following:

a. The cumulative cash flow mismatches (i.e., the cumulative net funding requirement

as a

percentage of total liabilities) over particular periods

(b). Liquid assets as a percentage of short-term liabilities.

(c) A limit on loan to deposit ratio.

(d). A limit on loan to capital ratio.

3. Measuring and managing liquidity risk: Measuring and managing funding

requirement can be done through two approaches.

(i) Stock approach

(ii) Flow approach



(i) Stock Approach (to Measuring and Managing Liquidity) :Stock approach is based on

the level of assets and liabilities as well as off-balance sheet exposures on a particular

date.

The following ratios are calculated to assess the liquidity position of a bank.

(a) Ratio of Core Deposit toTotal Assets - Core Deposit/Total Assets: More the ratio,

better it is because core deposits are treated to be the stable source of liquidity. Core

deposit will

constitute deposits from the public in the normal course of business.

(b) Net Loans to Totals Deposits Ratio - Net Loans/Total Deposits: It reflects the ratio

of loans to public deposits or core deposits. Total loans in this ratio represent net

advances after

deduction of provision for loan losses and interest suspense account. Loan is treated to

be

less liquid asset and therefore lower the ratio, better it is.

(c) Ratio of Time Deposits to Total Deposits - Time Deposits/Total Deposits: Time

deposits

provide stable level of liquidity and negligible volatility. Therefore, higher the ratio better

it

is.


not available





Unit 27- Interest rate risk management

Sources of interest rate risk

1. Gap or Mismatch Risk :A gap or mismatch risk arises from holding assets and

liabilities with different principal amounts, maturity dates or repricing dates, thereby

creating exposure to changes in the level of interest rate.

2. Basis Risk In a perfectly matched gap position there is no timing difference between

the repricing dates; the magnitude of change in the deposit rates would be exactly

matched by the magnitude of change in the loan rate. However, interest rate of two

different instmments will seldom change by the same degree during the same period of

time. The risk that the interest rate of different assets and liabilities may change in

different magnitudes is called basis risk.

3. Embedded Option Risk: The risk arising out of use of embedded options like

premature withdrawal etc.

4. Yield Curve Risk An yield curve is a line on a graph plotting the yield of all maturities

of a particular instmment. Yield curve changes its slope and shape from time to time

depending upon repricing and various other factors.

5. Reinvestment Risk Uncertainty with regard to interest rate at which the future cash

flows can be reinvested is called reinvestment risk.

INTEREST RATE RISK MANAGEMENT

Interest rate risk measurement techniques include:

i. Repricing schedules

ii. Gap analysis

iii. Duration

iv. Simulation approaches

Strategies generally employed for controlling Interest Rate Risk:

Reducing Asset Sensitivity

1. Extend investment portfolio maturities

2. Increase floating rate deposits

3. Increase fixed rate lending

4. Sell floating rate loans

5. Increase short-term borrowings

6. Increase long-term lendings

7. Reducing Liability Sensitivity

8. Reducing investment portfolio maturities

9. Increase floating rate lendings

10. Increase long-term deposits

11. Increase short-term lendings


01. One of the following is not a function of dealing room of treasury

a. Taking a proprietary position in derivatives

b. Booking a forward contract for a customer

c. managing nostro accounts

d. issuing foreign currency draft

02. Mismatch in fund position creates

a. Operational risk b. legal risk

c. credit risk d. interest rate risk

03. Mismatch in currency position may cause

a. exchange risk b. interest rate risk

c. operational risk d. credit risk

04. Reconciliation of nostro account is responsibility of

a. ALM b. Head office

c. Treasury d. Foreign office of the bank

05. FEDAI was formed in the year

a. 1949 b. 1969

c. 1958 d. none of the above


not available



Mock Questions –I



A bank raises a floating rate corporate deposit of Rs 50 crs for 2 years at a rate 50BPS

over 91 days T bill rates that gets re priced at every calendar quarter. The proceeds of

deposits is used to finance

(a) a project of loan of Rs 25 crs for a period of 5 years having moratorium of 2 years.

Interest rate is set at 300 BPS over 5 years GOI bond with reset date at the end of each

calendar year

(b) the balance of Rs 25 crs is invested in 5 years GOI bond with remaining period of 2

years.

These transactions stood in the books of the bank as on 01.01.2010

1. The bank may see variation in its net interest income over 1 year in respect of asset

‘a’ because the transaction is associated with

a. gap risk b. yield curve risk

c. basis risk d. market risk

2. a bank has disbursed 6 months loan at a fixed rate of 12 % and raised the funds

through 6 months CDs of same amount. Bank is exposed to

a. no risk b. default risk and operation risk

c. operational risk & call risk d. default, operational & embedded option risk

3. a bank funds its loans through composite liabilities. In a scenario where interest rate

changes across the board the bank stands exposed to

a. yield curve risk b. basis risk

c. both a& b d. neither a nor b

4. RBI has introduced RTGS to eliminate

a. Herstatt risk b. counterparty risk

c. systemic risk d. settlement risk

5. Articulating interest rate view of the bank is responsibility of

a. Board of Directors b. Risk Management committee

c. ALCO d. CMD

6. a 5 year 9 % semi annual bond @ market yield of 7.65 has a price of Rs 108.20

which rises to 109.00 when yield falls to 7.35. What is the BPV of the bond

a. Rs 0.26 per Rs 1000 book value

b. Rs 2.6 per Rs 1000 book value

c. Rs 26.67 per Rs 1000 book value

d. none of the above

Mock Questions- II



not available



Questions no 17-21 are based on the data compiled by ABM bank for computing its

CRAR as on 31.03.2014

( Figures in Rs crore)

Tier I Capital 8000

Tier II capital 7000

RWA for credit risk other than retail assets (including Rs 3000 cr for commercial real estate)

80,000

Exposure on retail assets 17000

Total eligible financial collaterals available for retail assets 3300

Capital charge for general market risk (net position) 550

Capital charge for specific risk 390

Vertical adjustment 80

Horizontal adjustment 40

Total capital charge for equities 200

Total capital charge for options 240

Gross income for previous year 20000

Gross income for the year before the previous year 23000

Gross income for the 2nd year before the previous year 25000


not available






BASEL – III

Introduction:

This topic has almost haunted all the CAIIB BFM students. Exam of December 2015 was entirely based on BFM and caused a huge number of students to fail miserably.

The June 2016 exam also covered around 10 questions of Basel III 5 of which included theory and 5 of practical problems.

Basel III is a very comprehensive topic and very complex. The master circular issued by RBI in itself is so complex that it becomes impossible for a common student to understand anything from it.

Add to the woes, the official Macmillan books do not contain anything about Basel III thus it becomes extremely difficult for students to know what to study.

In our book, based on the questions asked in previous papers and considering things which are important in reference to computation of capital requirement for BASEL III we have tried to explain the Basel III in the easiest possible way.

Before we begin, we again retreat that all topics are easy and logical, what is important is that they should be presented in an understandable manner.

Basel III

In our previous topics we have covered in details about Basel I & Basel II and why they were introduced. We would like to bring here the similarities between all the accords of Basel.

Particular Basel I Basel II Basel III

Risk recognised Credit risk

Market risk

Credit risk

Market risk

Operational Risk

Credit risk

Market risk

Operational Risk

Capital requirement as per RBI

8% of RWA 9 % of RWA 9 % of RWA

Types of Capital Tier I Capital Tier I Capital Tier II capita

Tier I Capital divided into Common equity and Additional Tier I Tier II capital

Ratios calculated CRAR Tier I ratio

Tier II

CRAR

CET-I

Tier I Capital ratio

Tier II Capital Ratio

Total CRAR

Total Pillars Only Capital Requirement

1. Capital Requirement

1. Capital requirement


2. Supervisory Review process

3. Market Discipline

2. Supervisory review process

3. Market discipline

New Introduction of capital conservation buffer and Leverage ratio

By going through the above charts we can see that there is not much difference between Basel II & Basel III accords as they carry calculation of same percentage of risk weights for same 3 risks – Credit, Market and Operational. Even the methodology of calculation of risks etc is same.

So how it is different from Basel II? It is different in the manner focus has been given on newly introduced concept of Common equity which means the capital in the form of equity and reserves and surplus. Also items included in additional tier I and Tier II like IPDI, PNCPS have been modified in terms of limits upto which they are admissible. Also introduction of capital conservation buffer of 2.5% means banks now need to have capital of 11.5% rather than the previous 9% which causes additional capital to be kept by the banks to meet basel III norms

The Basel III norms were issued after subprime crisis and the main objective of the Basel III framework issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) in Dec. 2010 was to improve the banking sector’s ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress. The macro prudential aspects of Basel III are largely enshrined in the capital buffers. Both the buffers i.e. the capital conservation buffer and the countercyclical buffer are intended to protect the banking sector from periods of excess credit growth.

So let’s see step by step method to calculate CRAR under Basel III

The Basel III capital regulations continue to be based on three-mutually reinforcing Pillars, viz. minimum capital requirements (Pillar 1), supervisory review of capital adequacy (Pillar 2), and market discipline (Pillar 3) of the Basel II capital adequacy framework.

Under Pillar 1, the Basel III framework will continue to offer the three distinct options for computing capital requirement for credit risk and three other options for computing capital requirement for operational risk, albeit with certain modifications / enhancements.

The options available for computing capital for credit risk are:-

a) Standardised Approach,

b) Foundation Internal Rating Based Approach; and

c) Advanced Internal Rating Based Approach.


So regulatory capital i.e. Pillar I capital needs to be like this by March 31, 2019

However this capital structure has to be achieved in stages upto March 31, 2019

and a transitional arrangement has been provided by RBI. The transitional

arrangement is as follows:

As can be seen from the table that capital conservation buffer of 0.625 needs to be maintained from 31/0/2016 and would gradually increase to 2.5 % by 31/03/2019.

Banks are required to comply with the capital adequacy ratio at two levels viz.

consolidated (Group) and standalone (Solo) level.


How to start understanding it?

As told above, three pillars of Basel II continue to be the key theme in Basel III also. However these pillars have been modified suitably.

The first pillar as you are aware is Minimum Capital Requirement, which simply means Banks should have sufficient capitals in terms of their risk weighted asset. This capital is known as regulatory capital. Under Basel II, the capital was known as tier I & Tier II which continues here also, however with certain modification.

While in the Basel II framework, the total regulatory capital comprised of Tier I (core capital) and Tier 2 capital (supplementary capital). It has been termed as Common Equity under Basel III. Non-equity Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital would continue to form part of regulatory capital subject to eligibility criteria as laid down in Basel III.

Composition of Regulatory Capital under Basel III

The total regulatory capital fund will consist of the sum of the following categories: -

(i) Tier 1 Capital (going-concern capital*): comprises of:- (a) Common Equity Tier 1 capital (b) Additional Tier 1 capital

(ii) Tier 2 Capital (gone-concern capital*)

(*From regulatory capital perspective, going-concern capital is the capital which can

absorb losses without triggering bankruptcy of the bank. Gone-concern capital is the

capital which will absorb losses only in a situation of liquidation of the bank). Items included under Tier I & Tier II Capital

Elements of Capital funds – Indian Banks

(i) Common Equity Tier 1 capital i) Common shares (All common shares should ideally be the voting shares) ii) Stock surplus (share premium) iii) Statutory reserves iv) Capital reserves representing surplus arising out of sale proceeds of assets v) Other disclosed free reserves, if any vi) Balance in Profit & Loss Account at the end of previous year vii) Profit for current year calculated on quarterly basis as per the formula given in

RBI Cir. Profit for current year calculated on quarterly basis provided the incremental provisions made for non-performing assets at the end of any of the four quarters of the previous financial year have not deviated more than 25% from the average of the four quarters. The amount which can be reckoned would be arrived at by using the following formula: EPt = {NPt – 0.25*D*t} Where;

EPt = Eligible profit up to the quarter ‘t’ of the current financial year; t varies from 1 to 4 NPt = Net profit up to the quarter ‘t’, D= average annual dividend paid during last three years


While complying with minimum Tier 1 of 7% of risk weighted assets, a bank cannot admit,

Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference Shares (PNCPS) together with Perpetual Debt

Instruments (PDI) in Additional Tier 1 Capital, more than 1.5% of risk weighted assets.

However, once this minimum total Tier 1 capital has been complied with, any additional

PNCPS and PDI issued by the bank can be included in Total Tier 1 capital reported. Excess

PNCPS and PDI can be reckoned to comply with Tier 2 capital if the latter is less than 2% of

RWAs. PNCPS shall not be issued with a 'put option'. ( We will see more about this while solving

numericals)

(ii) Additional Tier 1 capital i) Perpetual Non-cumulative Preference shares (PNCPS) ii) Stock surplus (share premium) iii) Debt capital instruments iv) Any other type of instruments as notified by RBI from time

to time. (Less: Regulatory adjustments/ deductions)


not available



Example 1 :

Given below is the information of Awesome Bank of India.

Common Equity Tier I Capita 75

Capital Conservation Buffer 25

PNCPS/PDI 30

RWA for credit & operational risk 900

RWA for market risk 100

Tier II capital issued by bank 25

From the information given above find

(i) PNCPS/PDI eligible for inclusion in Tier I capital

(ii) Tier I Capital

(iii) PNCPS/PDI eligible for inclusion in Tier II capital

(iv) Tier II Capital



(v) Total capital eligible for CRAR calculation

(vi) CRAR of the bank

Explanation : Total RWA = Rs 1000

(i) As per guidelines, while complying with minimum Tier 1 of 7% of risk weighted assets, a bank cannot admit, Perpetual Non-Cumulative Preference Shares (PNCPS) together with Perpetual Debt Instruments (PDI) in Additional Tier 1 Capital, more than 1.5% of risk weighted assets.

This means if CET-I is 5.5 than PNCPS/PDI which can be taken is 1.5 thus overall making Tier I at 7%

In the above question RWA is Rs 1000 and CET is 75 i.e. 7.5 %

So when CET is 5.5 - PNCPS can be 1.5 % of RWAs

When CET is 7.5 PNCPS will be 1.5 * 7.5

5.5

= 2.05 % of RWAs

Thus PNCPS which will be included is 2.05 % of 1000 = Rs 20.5

(ii) Tier I Capital is = CET +Additional Tier I (here PNCPS/PDI)

= 75 +20.5 = Rs 95.5

(iii) Guidelines for inclusion in Tier II capital for PNCPS/PDI Excess PNCPS and PDI i.e. above Tier I can be reckoned to comply with Tier 2 capital if the latter is less than 2% of RWAs.

We must understand here that required Tier I capital is 7(when CET is 5.5%) and required Tier capital is 9%. Thus eligible Tier II capital is 2 %

Here CET – I is 5.5 thus eligible tier 2 would be =

2. * 7.5

5.5

= 2.73 % of RWAs ie 27.30

Bank has already issued tier II capital of Rs 25 thus PNCPS which can be included in Tier II is 2.30

(v) Total eligible capital for CRAR calculation is CET +Additional Tier I + Tier II

= 75 +20.5 + 27.30

= 122.80

(vi) Thus CRAR of the bank is = 12.28


Example 2 : Following is the position of Himalya bank as on 31.03.2015. Calculate CET-

I , Tier I and Tier II capital of the bank

Paid up capital 440

Statutory reserves 2040

Capital reserve (including revaluation reserve 700) 1050

Share premium 800

Special reserve 1100

Revenue reserve 2000

Borrowings

From banks 4000

Subordinated bonds( Directly issued for tier I) 750

Subordinated bonds ( remaining maturity 4 years original 10 years) 900

Other liabilities & provisions

Bills payable 200

Interest accrued 150

Solution:

This is a sample preview. All pages of the

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I) Credit Risk:-

Credit risk is most simply defined as the potential that a bank’s borrower or counterparty may fail to meet its obligations in accordance with agreed terms. It is the possibility of losses associated with diminution in the credit quality of borrowers or counterparties.

Risk factor for credit risk

Under the Standardised Approach, the rating assigned by the eligible external credit rating agencies will largely support the measure of credit risk. The Reserve Bank has identified the external credit rating agencies that meet the eligibility criteria specified under the revised Framework. Banks may rely upon the ratings assigned by the external credit rating agencies chosen by the Reserve Bank for assigning risk weights for capital adequacy purposes as per the mapping furnished in these guidelines.

1. Claims on Domestic Sovereigns

Both fund based and non-fund based claims on the central government 0%

Central Government guaranteed claims 0%

Direct loan / credit / overdraft exposure, if any, of banks to the State Governments and 0%

the investment in State Government securities

State Government guaranteed claims 20%

claims on central government exposures will also apply to the claims on the Reserve 0%

Bank of India, DICGC, Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises

(CGTMSE), and Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH)

claims on ECGC 20%

*The above risk weights for both direct claims and guarantee claims will be

applicable as long as they are classified as ‘standard’/ performing assets


This is a sample preview. All pages of the book not

available

Category of Loan LTV Ratio Risk Weight

(a) Individual Housing Loans

(i) Up to Rs. 30 lakh

a. Less than or equal to 80% 35

b. Above 80% to less than or

equal 50

to 90%

(ii) Above Rs. 30 lakh and up to 75 lakh 50

a. Less than or equal to 75% 35

b. Above 75% to less than or

equal 50%

to 80%

(iii) Above Rs. 75 lakh Less than or equal to 75% 75

(b) Commercial Real Estate – Residential N A 75

Housing (CRE-RH)

(c) Commercial Real Estate (CRE) N A 100

Note: i) Restructured housing loans should be risk weighted with an additional risk weight of 25 per

cent to the risk weights prescribed above. ii) The LTV ratio should not exceed the prescribed ceiling in all fresh cases of sanction. In case

the LTV ratio is currently above the ceiling prescribed for any reasons, efforts shall be made to bring it within limits.

iii) CRE-RH means integrated housing projects comprising of some commercial space (e.g. shopping complex, school, etc.) can also be classified under CRE-RH, provided that the commercial area in the residential housing project does not exceed 10% of the total Floor Space Index (FSI) of the project. In case the FSI of the commercial area in the predominantly residential housing complex exceeds the ceiling of 10%, the project loans should be classified as CRE and not CRE-RH.


not available





Credit Risk Mitigation Techniques

Banks use a number of techniques to mitigate the credit risks to which they are exposed. For example, exposures may be collateralised in whole or in part by cash or securities, deposits from the same counterparty, guarantee of a third party, etc. In order for banks to obtain capital relief for any use of CRM techniques, certain minimum standards for legal documentation must be met. All documentation used in collateralised transactions and guarantees must be binding on all parties and legally enforceable in all relevant jurisdictions. Banks must have conducted sufficient legal review, which should be well documented, to verify this requirement. Such verification should have a well-founded legal basis for reaching the conclusion about the binding nature and enforceability of the documents

Few of such CRM techniques are given below:-

a) Collateralized transactions –

The credit exposure is hedged in whole or part by collaterals by a counterparty (party to whom a bank has an on-or off balance sheet credit exposure) or by a third party on behalf of the counterparty and banks have specific lien over the collaterals Under the Framework, banks are allowed to adopt either Simple Approach or

Comprehensive Approach. The former approach substitutes the risk weighting of the

collateral for the risk weighting of the counterparty for the collateraised portion of the

exposure and under the latter approach which allows fuller offset of collaterals against

exposures. Comprehensive approach is being adopted by banks in India.

In the comprehensive approach, when taking collateral, banks will need to calculate their

adjusted exposure to a counterparty for capital adequacy purposes in order to take

account of the effects of that collateral.

Hair Cut In the comprehensive approach, Banks are required to adjust both the amount of the exposure to the counterparty and the value of any collateral received in support of that counterparty to take account of possible future fluctuations in the value of either, occasioned by market movements. These adjustments are referred to as ‘haircuts’. The application of haircuts will produce volatility adjusted amounts for both exposure and collateral. The volatility adjusted amount for the exposure will be higher than the exposure and the volatility adjusted amount for the collateral will be lower than the collateral, unless either side of the transaction is cash. In other words, the ‘haircut’ for the exposure will be a premium factor and the ‘haircut’ for the collateral will be a

discount factor.

It may be noted that the purpose underlying the application of haircut is to capture the market-

related volatility inherent in the value of exposures as well as of the eligible financial collaterals.

Where the volatility-adjusted exposure amount is greater than the volatility-adjusted collateral

amount (including any further adjustment for foreign exchange risk), banks shall calculate their

risk-weighted assets as the difference between the two multiplied by the risk weight of the

counterparty.

Banks have two ways of calculating the haircuts viz. (i) Standard supervisory haircuts; using

parameters set by the Basel Committee, and (ii) Own estimate haircuts, using banks’ own internal


estimates of market price volatility. Banks in India shall use only the standard supervisory

haircuts for both the exposure as well as the collateral.


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Eligible Financial Collateral in Comprehensive approach

Cash, Gold, Securities issued by Central & State Governments, KVP, NSC (no lock in period is operational), LIC policies, Debt securities (rated by a chosen rating agency), Debt Securities

( not rated by a chosen Credit Rating Agency in respect of which banks should be sufficiently confident about the market liquidity), Units of Mutual Funds, etc. are

eligible financial instruments for recognition in the Comprehensive Approach.

Calculation of capital requirement For a collateralised transaction, the exposure amount after risk mitigation is calculated as

follows:

E* = max {0, [E x (1 + He) - C x (1 - Hc - Hfx)]}

Where: E* = the exposure value after risk mitigation E = current value of the exposure for which the collateral qualifies as a risk mitigant

He = haircut appropriate to the exposure C = the current value of the collateral received Hc =

haircut appropriate to the collateral

Hfx = haircut appropriate for currency mismatch between the collateral and exposure

The exposure amount after risk mitigation (i.e., E*) will be multiplied by the risk weight of the

counterparty to obtain the risk-weighted asset amount for the collateralised transaction.

(Illustrative examples calculating the effect of Credit Risk Mitigation is furnished in the RBI

Circular).


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1. Mr. Amit purchases a call option for 100 shares of Deliance

Company with strike price of Rs. 100 having maturity after 03 months

at a premium of Rs. 40. On maturity, shares of A were priced at Rs.

160. Taking interest cost @ 12% p.a. What is the profit/loss for the

individual on the transaction?

a. Gain of Rs. 2000 b. Gain of Rs. 4000

c. Gain of Rs. 680 d. Gain of Rs. 1880

Ans - d

Explanation. We need to understand that call option or put option is

simply a financial product which can be purchased by paying its price.

The price in this case is known as premium.

In the above case Amit has purchased 100 call option. Price of each

option is Rs 40. Thus total price paid by Amit for buying these 100 call

options is 100* 40 = Rs 4000.

This amount he has taken on a loan of 12%. Thus total interest which

needs to be paid back is 4000*3/12 * 12/100 = Rs 120 after 3 months.

On maturity the stock is priced at Rs 160. Thus gain on each call option

is Rs 60. However since premium of Rs 40 is paid on each option net

gain is Rs 20. Thus Gain of Rs 20 on each option so gain of Rs 2000

on total transaction.However, he needs to return back interest of Rs

120 thus his net gain would be Rs 1880.

Most important Part of BFM

Remains the Numerical.

Throughout the book we

have incorporate the

numerical module wise so

that students understand

what is expected of them.

Based on feedback of

students and demand for

more and more case studies,

we have decided to add

more than 200 solved case

studies to enable students to

understand the numerical

part and solve any type of

numerical with ease

We have also covered

numerical and questions

asked in last examination.

Hope it serves your purpose

and enables you to crack all

kind of numerical.

Case Studies


Q2. LIC of India buys a specified no of futures at NSE on a stock at strike price of Rs 100 each

when spot price of the stocks is Rs 110. At the maturity of the contract the FI takes delivery of

the shares. During the period, the spot price of the stock decreases by Rs 3. What is the

acquisition cost to the FI per share?

a. Rs. 107 b. Rs. 103

c. Rs. 100 d. Rs. 97

Ans : c

Explanation: LIC has closed the deal at Rs 100. Now at the time of delivery market price i.e.

spot price is Rs 107 (fall of Rs 3 from current price) but since the strike price is Rs 100, LIC will

take the delivery at Rs 100.

Q3. Ms Neha purchases a put option for 200 shares of Star Company with strike price of Rs. 220

having maturity after 02 months for Rs. 50 each. On maturity, shares of A were priced at Rs.

230. What is the profit/loss for the individual on the transaction (without taking the interest cost

and exchange commission into calculation)?

a. Profit of Rs. 6000 b. Profit of Rs. 10,000

c. Loss of Rs. 10,000 d. Loss of Rs. 16000

Ans - c

Explanation. Total amount spent by Neha on buying this put option is Rs 10,000. Ie. Rs 50 *

200. Now on the maturity date Price of the stock is Rs 230. Neha has an option to sell the stock

Rs 220, however market price is Rs 230 which means if she does not uses this option she can

sell this stock at the price of Rs 230. Thus Neha will let this option expire and thus total loss on

this transaction would be the loss of the premium amount which is Rs 10,000.


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Q26. Asset in doubtful-I category – Rs. 300000/-

Realization value of security – Rs. 100000/-

What will be the provision requirement?

a. Rs. 300000/- b. Rs. 100000/-

c. Rs. 225000/- d. Rs. 250000/-

Ans - c


Explanation: Since the asset is in DF- I, provision is 25 % on secured portion and 100% on

unsecured portion which will work out to 25000 on secured and 2,00,000 on unsecured thus total

provision would be Rs 2,25,000

Q27. Two stocks A and B have negative correlation of 70% between them. The portfolio consists

of 100 units of stock A (market price Rs 50) and 100 units of stock B (market price Rs 80). If

price of stock A moves up by 15 % what would be the gain/loss on the portfolio?

a) Gain of Rs. 750 b) Loss of Rs. 90

c) Gain of Rs. 90 d) None of the above

Ans - b

Explanation – Negative correlation means if one stock moves up another comes down. So if

stock A moves up by 15%, stock B will come down by 10.5 % (70% of 15, as negative correlation

is of 70 %)

Now if there is 15% increase in stock A its new price is 5000 * 115% = 5750

Subsequently New price of Stock B after 10.5% decline would be = 8000 * 89.5% = 7160

Thus there is gain of Rs 750 on stock A while there is loss of Rs 840 on stock B thus there is net

loss of Rs 90.

= 107.99

Before we proceed any further, we would again like to explain what is bond and how its valuation

is arrived. Bonds are simply a debt instrument which have a face value ie the amount of debt

which has been taken by the issuer) and carry a fixed rate of interest called coupon to be paid

by the issuer to the holder of the bond. Let’s understand it through an example

Eg: ABC limited issued one bond of Rs 1000 to Rahul with 8% coupon and maturity of 3 years .

This means ABC company (issuer) has taken debt of Rs 1000 (face value) from Rahul ( holder)

on which it will pay interest of 8% each year to Rahul and repay back the amount after 3 years.

Thus in first year ABC will pay Rs 80 to Rahul, second year also Rs 80 to Rahul and in Third

year RS 1000 ( Principal amt)+ Rs 80 to Rahul. Thus Rahul will earn a total of Rs 240 on this

bond and get back his principal amount in 3 years.

Now how value of bond will be arrived at? Value of bond or for that matter any financial instrument

is simply the discounted value of its cash flow. In the question above we saw, Rahul earned Rs

80 each year. So his cash flow for 1s year was Rs 80, his cash flow second year was Rs 80 and

his cash flow during third year was Rs 1080. This cash flow is discounted by the rate known as

market yield or

Bonds are one types of problem which trouble the students a lot. Many questions are asked

from Bonds, both in ABM as well as BFM. We will aim to cover all types of bond numerical

here. We will also see various methods to solve the bond problems.


Now these bonds are just like shares and they are traded in market. Just like share price changes

every day, bond prices also change every day. The important factor which is responsible for the

change in the prices of bond is the general interest rate in the market known as market yield or

simply yield or also YTM.

Students must remember here that bonds prices are nothing but simply discounting of cash flows

of bond by this yield. Let’s see various types of questions on bond to make sure that you master

this topic

Q37. A bond with coupon of 7 % is with 3 years to maturity is available for you to purchase. If

yield is 8%, what price you should pay for the bond.

a. 95.53 b.103.14

c. 97.42 d. 101.20

Ans: C


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Download our app SURE SUCCESS SERIES Q47-51 are based on the date given below . A bank has compiled following data for computing

its CRAR as on 31 March 2015

Tier I capital 2500

Tier II capital 3000

RWA for credit risk other than retail assets ( include 2000 crores of commercial real estate )

30,000

Exposure on retail assets 8500

Total eligible financial collaterals available for retail assets 1000

Capital charge for general market risk net position 650

Capital charge for specific risk 190

Vertical adjustment 20

Horizontal adjustment 18

Total capital charge for options 110

Total Capital Charge for equities 180

Gross income for the previous year 520

Gross income for the year before previous year 480

Gross income for 2nd year before previous year 410



Q71-75 : Aam Aadmi Bank has Rs 38000 crore to invest which can be done under given 4

options. Answer the questions given below based on the information given in table

Particular I II III IV

Investment in G –Sec Security with 5% yield

20,000 10,000 7,000 11,000

Investment in AAA rated Corporate security with 6% yield

10,000 15,000 9,000 6,000

Investment in BBB rated Corporate security 8 % yield

8,000 12,000 10,000 13,000

Investment in BB rated Corporate security with 9 % yield

0.00 1,000 12,000 8,000


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Q 94-97Export bill for USD 5mio drawn 120 days from the date of shipment, Shipment date

is 3rd october2014. Due date is1st feb2015. Exchange margin 0.15% Spot rupees :63.15/20

Premium spot-january55/60 paise . Rate to be quoted to nearest 0.25 paise& rupee amount

is to be rounded off. Rate of interest on post shipment export up to 180 days is 9%p.a

Commission on bills purchased is 0.075% Interest &commission to be charged up front

( Questions asked in June 15 exam)


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116-120 are based on the given information.

Following information is available with respect to Bandan bank as on 31.03.2016.

Based on this answer the following

Assets Rs. in lakhs

(i) Standard (Value of security Rs.6,000 lakhs) 7,000

(ii)

Sub-standard (full secured) 3,000

(iii) Doubtful

(a)Doubtful for less than one year 1,000

(Realisable value of security Rs.500 lakhs)

(b)Doubtful for more than one year, but less than 3 years 500

(Realisable value of security Rs.300 lakhs)

(c)Doubtful for more than 3 years (No security) 300


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146-150 Following information has been presented to the CEO of Ratnakar Tata Bank

Ltd. Assuming VAR @ 95% level, answer the following

Particular Estimated profit Capital Volatility

Option A 5 million $ 80 million$ 7%

Option B 8 million $ 140 million $ 9%


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186-189 On 02.01.2016, you had purchased a demand bill for USD 10,000 @ Rs 52.03

and the exporter was paid in rupees immediately. The bill when presented on

10.01.2016 at New York was not honoured. The advice of non-payment was received

and conveyed to the exporter on 13.01.2016. The exporter requested that

a. the bill amount plus charges ( Rs 250) be recovered from him

b. The bill be treated on collection basis and represented for payment

c. 5 % rebate be allowed to overseas importer

on 03.02.2016 the bank in New York telexed having recovered and credited the

proceeds less their charges USD20 with value date 03.02.2016. Meanwhile the market

has moved and TT selling rate on 13.01.2016 was Rs 52.07 and TT buying rate on

03.02.2016 was Rs 51.81

186. At what rate the bill will be cancelled


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194-197 Bank of Hindustan earned a net profit after tax and provision of Rs 5000cr

and Bank of India Rs 6000 cr. CET ratio of Bank of Hindustan is 6.50% after including

the current period retained profits. The ratio of Bank of India is 7%. Both the banks

are in need of fresh capital.

RBI rules regarding Capital conservation ratio is as under

Ratio after including the current period retained earnings

Min CCR as % of earnings

5.5 % - 6.125% 100

> 6.125% - 6.75 % 80

> 6.75% -7.375% 60

> 7.375% - 8% 40

> 8.00% 0



198-200 Given below is the information of Jan dhan Bank

Performing Assets NPA

Interest earned Interest received

Interest earned Interest received

Term loan 300 270 160 10

Cash credit 400 360 120 20

Bill Purchased

100 90 40 05

198. What income would be recognised for term loan portfolio of the bank

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