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SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II Class – X General Instructionsgmsprayagraj.com/x.pdfMaterial downloaded...
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CBSE Sample Paper-03 (Unsolved) SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II
SCIENCE (Theory) Class – X
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
c) Questions 1 to 3 in section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word
or in one sentence.
d) Questions 4 to 6 in section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30
words each.
e) Questions 7 to 18 in section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about
50 words each.
f) Questions 19 to 24 in section A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about
70 words each.
g) Questions 25 to 27 in section B are 2 marks questions and Questions 28 to 36 are multiple
choice questions based on practical skills. Each question of multiple choice questions is a one
mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to
you.
Section A
1. How are the molecules of aldehydes and ketones structurally different?
2. Find the deviation produced by reflection at a plane mirror when the angle between the
incident and reflected rays is 80 .°
3. What is meant by aerosol?
4. Calcium is an element with atomic number 20.
(a) Is it a metal or non-metal?
(b) Is it more reactive than Mg or less?
(c) What will be the formula of its Chloride?
(d) What will be its valency?
5. Why are asexually reproducing organisms capable of showing the hereditary features more?
6. Whatever may be the position of an object, the image appears to be erect. Give the nature of
mirror with reason.
7. Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table and Modern
Periodic Table.
8. (a) How do you calculate the valency of an element from its electronic configuration?
(b) What is the valency of magnesium with atomic number 12 and chlorine with atomic number 17?
(c) What is the difference in number of shells in magnesium and sulphur?
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9. Give a labelled diagram of a pistil showing in it the path of male gametophyte from the stigma to
the embryo sac.
10. What is reproduction? How do the following organisms reproduce by asexual methods:
(a) Potato (b) Hydra (c) Malarial parasite (d) Planaria
11. What is a sex chromosome? Name the two types of sex chromosomes. Mention the sex
chromosomes present in males and females.
12. Explain the importance of variations.
13. This story is often told about the world-famous pianist, Jane who is also known for his passion for
personal grooming. He used to use a specially designed mirror for shaving. He was once asked by a
fellow musician if he could be ready, at very short notice, to take over and play a difficult piece of
music at a concert because the pianist who was supposed to play had suddenly fallen ill.
“I am always ready. I have practiced eight hours every day for forty years to be ready,” replied Jane.
The pianist said, “I wish I had been born with such determination.” Jane replied, “We all are born
with it. I just use mine.”
Read the above passage and answer the following questions:
(a) What kind of mirror is used by Jane for shaving?
(b) Draw the ray diagram to show the formation of image by this mirror to focus the bright image
os sun at paper sheet.
(c) What values are shown by Jane?
[Value Based Question]
14. Establish the relation between object distance, image distance and radius of curvature for a
convex mirror.
15. Find the position of an object which when placed in front of concave mirror of focal length 20
cm produces a virtual image, which is twice the size of object.
16. How can we make a white light to emerge out as white light from an arrangement of prisms?
17. Explain how carbon di-oxide and ozone layer of the atmosphere are important to life?
18. What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment friendly?
19. Write the electronic configuration of atoms of:
(a) Potassium (K) (b) Lithium (Li) (c) Fluorine (F) (d) Chlorine (Cl)
Use these electronic configuration to explain why Potassium is more reactive than Lithium and
Fluorine more reactive than Chlorine?
Or
Explain the terms:
(a) Atomic radius (b) Ionization energy (c) Electron effinity
Mention the units in which they are measured. How do they generally vary (i) in a group, (ii) in
a period?
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20. (a) Draw electron diagram of (i) N2, (ii) O2, (iii) CaCl2, (iv) Na2O
(b) Write IUPAC name of (i) CH3COCH3, (ii) CH3CH2CH2CHO.
(c) How will you test the presence of carboxylic acid?
(d) Complete the following action:
CH3CH2OH + Na →
Or
An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has a molecular
formula C2H4O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound ‘B’.
(a) Identify the compound ‘A’.
(b) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.
(c) How can we get compound ‘A’ back from ‘B’?
(d) Name the process and write corresponding chemical equation.
(e) Which gas is produced when compound ‘A’ reacts with washing soda? Write the chemical
reaction.
21. Pea plants with round and green seeds are crossed with wrinkled and yellow seed bearing pea
plants. On the basis of Mendelian experiment, what do you conclude from this experiment?
Or
Explain that it is a matter of chance whether a couple will give birth to a boy or a girl.
22. (a) Vegetative propagation has several advantages. What are they?
(b) Mention in detail how sexual reproduction is necessary for evolution.
Or
(a) Draw a labelled diagram of a pistil showing double fertilization.
(b) Which part of Bryophyllum can be used for vegetative propagation? Mention two
advantages of vegetative propagation.
23. (a) It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using a concave mirror of focal length 20
cm.
(i) At what should be the range of distance of the object from the mirror?
(ii) Will the image be bigger or smaller than the object?
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
(b) One half of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm covered with a black paper.
(i) Will the lens produce a complete image of the object?
(ii) Show the formation of image of an object placed at 2F1 of such covered lens with the
help of a ray diagram.
(iii) How will the intensity of image formed by half-covered lens compare with non-covered
lens?
Or
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(a) A convex lens of focal length 20 cm can produce a magnified virtual as well as real image. Is
this a correct statement? If yes, where shall be the object be placed in each case for
obtaining these images?
(b) Light enters from air to glass having refractive index 1.50. What is the speed of light in
glass? [The speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 ms-1]
24. (a) “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium emerges
parallel to itself.” Draw labelled ray diagram to justify the statement.
(b) Mention the types of mirrors used as (i) rear view mirrors, (ii) shaving mirrors. List two
reasons to justify your answer in each case.
Or
(a) An object of height 6 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of
focal length 5 cm. Use lens formula of determine the position, size and nature of the image
if the distance of the object from the lens is 10 cm.
(b) State the difference in colours of the sun observed during sunrise/sunset and noon. Give
explanation for each.
Section B
25. Acetic acid was added to a solid X kept in a test tube. A colourless, odourless gas Y was evolved.
The gas was passed through lime water, which turned milky.
(a) What was concluded?
(b) Give chemical equation involved.
26. (a) What does Amoeba eat?
(b) What is the shape of Amoeba?
27. If the angle of incident is 45� on a medium of refractive index 2, then find angle of refraction.
28. 2 mL of ethanoic acid was taken in each of the three test tubes A, B and C and 2 mL, 4 mL and 8
mL water was added to them respectively. A clear solution is obtained in:
(a) test tube A only (b) test tubes A and B only
(c) test tubes B and C only (d) all the test tubes
29. 2 mL of acetic acid was added in drops to 5 mL of water and it was noticed that:
(a) the acid formed a separate layer on the top of water.
(b) water formed a separate layer on the top of acid.
(c) a clear and homogeneous solution was formed.
(d) a pink and clear solution was formed.
30. Which of the following produces seeds without fruit:
(a) Cycas (b) Rice (c) Fern (d) Grapes
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31. Budding involves growth of new organism:
(a) Outside the parent body.
(b) On the parent body.
(c) Inside the parent body.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
32. A pair of contrasting characters is called:
(a) phenotype (b) genotype (c) allele (d) gene
33. Genetic information is carries out by long chain of molecules made up of:
(a) enzymes (b) DNA (c) amino acids (d) proteins
34. When the two opposite surfaces of the slab are not parallel, the emergent angle e and incident
i are related as:
(a) e i= (b) e i>
(c) e i< (d) Depends on the medium index
35. As light IM is incident on the surface PQ as shown, the emergent ray has to be:
(a) NA (b) NB (c) NC (d) ND
36. Select the wrong statement:
I. Forests do not provide variety of products.
II. Forests have greater plant diversity.
III. Forests do not conserve soil.
IV. Forests conserve water.
The correct option(s) in/are:
(a) Only IV (b) I and IV (c) I and III (d) II and III
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CBSE Sample Paper-05 (Unsolved) SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II
SCIENCE (Theory) Class – X
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
c) Questions 1 to 3 in section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word
or in one sentence.
d) Questions 4 to 6 in section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30
words each.
e) Questions 7 to 18 in section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about
50 words each.
f) Questions 19 to 24 in section A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about
70 words each.
g) Questions 25 to 27 in section B are 2 marks questions and Questions 28 to 36 are multiple
choice questions based on practical skills. Each question of multiple choice questions is a one
mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to
you.
Section A
1. Give an example of reaction catalysed by an enzyme.
2. Which spherical mirror does always produce a virtual, erect and diminished image of an
object?
3. Name two main abiotic factors, which affect human environment.
4. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the modern periodic
table?
5. “Genes and chromosomes have similar behaviour” Justify.
6. When two lenses of focal length +10 cm and 5− cm are placed in contact, then find the net
power.
7. In a group reactivity of metals increases while those of non-metals decreases. Explain.
8. Ethanol is used on a large scale at commercial level. This is a very useful chemical. It is commonly
called alcohol and is the active ingredient of alcoholic drink. But consumption of alcohol also causes
drunkenness and this practice is socially condemned.
Read the above text and answer the following questions:
(a) As a responsible student of class, what steps would you take to discourage the use of alcohol?
(b) What values did learners have learnt from the above text?
[Value Based Question]
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9. Fertilization is possible if ovulation has taken place during middle of the menstrual cycle. Give
reason.
10. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?
11. Describe surgical method of birth control.
12. Draw a schematic diagram to explain the independent inheritance of two separate traits, shape
and colour of seeds.
13. An object is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. The image formed is three
times the size of object. Calculate two possible distances of the object from the mirror.
14. Draw a ray diagram to show the image of an object placed between f and 2 f of a thin convex
lens. Deduce the relation between the object and image distance and focal length.
15. Where should an object be placed from a converging lens of focal length 20 cm, so as to obtain
a real image of magnification 2 ?
16. Explain the role played by:
(a) iris (b) pupil (c) cornea (d) retina
17. How do harmful chemicals enter food chain?
18. “Economic growth and ecological conservation should go hand in hand.” Explain why?
19. (a) Name element of group 2 belonging to 3rd and 4th period.
(b) Name the element having highest ionization energy in periodic table.
(c) Draw electron dot structure of:
(i) H2O (ii) CH4 (iii) NH3 (iv) BF3
(d) Differentiate between ores and minerals.
Or
(a) Write the name and symbol of group 17 element belonging to second period.
(b) Write electronic configuration of K(19). To which group of periodic table does it belong?
(c) What are substitution reactions? Give one example.
(d) What happens when acetic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate? Give chemical reaction
involved.
(e) Why does carbon form covalent bonds?
20. (a) Write the name and molecular formula of an organic compound having its name suffixed
with –ol and having two carbon atoms in the molecule. With the help of a balanced
chemical equation indicate what happens when it is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4?
(b) What is substitution reaction? Give an example.
Or
(a) With the help of an equation, state what happens when Ethanoic acid reacts with a base?
(b) Why are coal and petroleum called fossil fuels?
(c) What type of fuels (i) burn without a flame and (ii) burn with a flame?
(d) Why is conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid on oxidation reaction?
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21. Describe three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population.
Or
Give salient features of Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
22. How the blood groups are inherited in humans?
Or
(a) Give three important features of fossils with the help in study of evolution.
(b) How does taxonomy support the evolution?
23. Draw ray diagram to show the formation of a three times magnified (i) real image, (ii) virtual
image of an object kept in front of a converging lens. Mark the position of object F, 2F, O and
position of image clearly in the diagram.
An object of size 5 cm is kept at a distance of 25 cm from the optical centre of converging lens
of focal length 10 cm. Calculate the distance of the image from the lens and size of the image.
Or
(a) How can you distinguish between a plane mirror, a convex mirror and a concave mirror,
just by looking at the image formed by them.
(b) The lens prescribed by the doctor has a power equal to +2.0 D. What does it mean?
(c) What would be the approximate focal length of a spherical lens preferred to use while
reading small letters found in a dictionary?
24. (a) The human eye focuses object at different distance by adjusting the focal length of the eye
lens. Name this phenomenon.
(b) Draw the human eye diagram and label the following parts:
(i) iris, (ii) pupil, (iii) ciliary muscles.
(c) What are the role played by them in the working of eye?
(d) In which part of the eye electrical signal are generated and why?
Or
What is refraction? Write the basic laws of refraction. What happens to the frequency, velocity
and wavelength as light moves from one medium to another? Based on the bending in
refraction, how can you identify the nature of the medium?
Section B
25. (a) Acetic acid, when dissolved in water, it disassociates into ions reversely. Why?
(b) Give the reaction involved.
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26. (a) Which is not a vegetative propagation in the following answer?
(b) Give the reason for your answer.
27. When light from free space bends towards normal, on hitting a surface, then what should be its
refractive index ( )µ ? Is it 1, 1µ µ> < or 1
?2
µ = Justify your answer.
28. 5 mL of dilute acetic acid was added to 5 mL of water and the mixture was shaken for one minute.
It was observed that:
(a) the turbidity appeared in the test tube.
(b) the acid formed a separate layer at the bottom.
(c) water formed a separate layer at the bottom.
(d) a clear solution was formed.
29. 2 mL of acetic acid was added to equal volume of water and the mixture was shaken well for one
minute and allowed to settle. The correct representation of the observation made would be as
given in test tube:
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
30. In binary fission:
(a) The identity of parent body is maintained after reproduction.
(b) The parent body is lost after reproduction.
(c) The parent body enlarges.
(d) None of these.
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31. The method of multiplication in the species without seeds:
(a) Binary fission (b) Budding
(c) Vegetative propagation (d) Multiple fission
32. Which one out of the following sets of diagrams correctly depicts reproduction in Amoeba and
yeast:
(d)
33. “Like begets like an important and universal phenomenon of life” is due to
(a) eugenics (b) morphology (c) genetics (d) physiology
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34. Three students measured the focal length of a convex lens using parallel rays from a distant
object.
All of them measured the distance between the lens and the inverted image on the screen.
Student A saw a sharp image on the screen and labelled the distance as 1f .
Student B saw a slightly larger blurred image on the screen and labelled the distance as 2f .
Student C saw a slightly smaller blurred image on the screen and labelled the distance as 3f .
The relation between the three measurements would most likely:
(a) 1 2 3f f f= = (b) 1 2f f< and 3f (c) 3 1 2f f f< < (d) 1 2f f< and 1 3f f=
35. A student sitting on the last bench, can read the letters written on the black board but is not
able to read the letters written in his text book. Which is the following statement regarding the
above condition is correct:
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away.
(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him.
(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him.
(d) The fat point of his eye has receded away.
36. ‘Chipko Andolan’ was launched for the protection of:
(a) grasslands (b) forests (c) livestock (d) wetlands
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CBSE Sample Paper-03
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II
SCIENCE (Theory)
Class – X
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
c) Questions 1 to 3 in section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word
or in one sentence.
d) Questions 4 to 6 in section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30
words each.
e) Questions 7 to 18 in section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about
50 words each.
f) Questions 19 to 24 in section A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about
70 words each.
g) Questions 25 to 27 in section B are 2 marks questions and Questions 28 to 36 are multiple
choice questions based on practical skills. Each question of multiple choice questions is a one
mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to
you.
Section A
1. Figure below shows an incident ray and normal on a plane mirror MN. Draw the reflected ray
and find the angle between the incident ray and reflected ray.
2. Name any two biodegradable pollutants.
3. Define soaps?
4. Why is water necessary for living organisms?
5. With respect to air, the refractive index of ice is 1.31 and that of rock salt is 1.54. Calculate the
refractive index of rock salt with respect to ice.
6. Why is K more reactive than Li?
7. A convex mirror used on a bus has a focal length of 200 cm. If a scooter is located at 100 cm.
from this mirror find the position, nature and magnification of the image formed in the mirror.
8. (i) State Snell’s law of reflection of light.
(ii) A transparent medium A floats on another transparent medium B. When a ray of light
travels obliquely from A into B, the reflected ray bends away from the normal. Which of the
two media A and B if optically denser and why?
9. What is the need for sign convention? Write them.
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10. What are optical fibres? Give three applications of these fibres.
11. Suggest three ways to maintain a balance between environment and development to survive.
12. DDT that was sprayed in minute amount on food plants was detected in high concentration in
man? How did it happen? Explain.
13. Give three drawbacks (limitations) of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table.
14. Sheeba studies in grade 9 and is a secretary of school’s club. As per practice in the school, all
members of science club assemble in Physics lab in last two periods on every Friday.
Sheeba also extends help to her mother in kitchen. One day she observed that the apparent
random wavering or flickering of objects seen through a turbulent stream of hot air rising
above the fire in the kitchen. She discussed about this with her friends and decided to raise the
question in school’s science club meeting.
Read the given passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Explain the reason behind the observation.
(b) Name the similar phenomenon on a larger scale. Also, draw the ray diagram.
(c) What values are shown by Sheeba?
15. How does natural vegetative propagation occur?
16. What are the male and female gonads in human beings? State any two functions of each of
them.
17. Name any three organs homologous to human hand. Why are they considered homologous?
18. State three laws of Mendel.
19. Describe the anatomy of human male reproductive system.
Or
What is meant by tissue culture? How this technique is performed? In which area this
technique is finding its application?
20. Explain double bond and triple bond with help of two examples in each case.
Or
Explain the following terms:
(a) Emulsifying (b) Substitution reaction (c) Polymerization
(d) Saponification (e) Methylated spitit
21. Tabulate the process of reproduction into its various types, giving one example of each type.
Or
Define grafting. Suggest any two advantages and disadvantages of grafting.
22. Explain the cleansing action of soaps and detergents.
Or
Write in short, how carbon compounds are named according to IUPAC nomenclature?
23. (i) State the lens’s formula and its magnification.
(ii) Using the lens formula, locate the position of an image formed due to an object at infinity
by a convex lens of focal length .f
Or
(i) How will you find the net focal length of a combination of lenses whose focal length are 15
cm and 5− cm respectively?
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(ii) Define power. Find the power of the combination and express whether it is converging or
diverging combination.
24. Draw a labelled diagram of human eye and explain the image formation.
Or
What is cause for (i) Myopia and (ii) Hypermetropia
Show the defective eye and explain how it is corrected?
Section B
25. (i) When acetic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol, we add conc. H2SO4. It acts as __________ and the
process is called __________.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the same.
26. (i) A student observed a slide of yeast under a microscope and saw collection of cells in
different parts of the slide marked A, B, C and D as shown below:
(ii) Justify your answer.
27. (a) Given below are few steps (not in proper sequence) followed in the determination of focal
length of a given convex lens by obtaining a sharp image of a distant object:
(i) Measure the distance between the lens and screen.
(ii) Adjust the position of the lens to form a sharp image.
(iii) Select a suitable distant object.
(iv) Hold the lens between the object and the screen with its faces parallel to the screen.
Write the correct sequences of steps for determination of focal length.
(a) Justify your answer.
28. A student is asked to add a tea spoon full of solid sodium bicarbonate to a test tube containing
approximately 3 mL of acetic acid. He observed that the solid sodium bicarbonate:
(a) floats on the surface of acetic acid.
(b) remains suspended in the acetic acid.
(c) settles down in the test tube.
(d) reacts with acetic acid and a clear solution is obtained.
29. Sodium bicarbonate solution is added to dilute ethanoic acid. It is observed that:
(a) a gas evolves.
(b) a solid settles at the bottom.
(c) the mixture becomes warm.
(d) The colour of the mixture becomes light yellow.
30. Regeneration observed in:
(a) Starfish (b) Earthworm (c) Hydra (d) All of these
31. In which of the following reproduction parental identity is lost
(a) Budding (b) Binary fission (c) Multiple fission (d) All of above
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32. The sex of the human child depends on the sex chromosome present in the:
(a) Egg (b) Sperm (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
33. Who proposed the law of heredity:
(a) Darwin (b) Mendel (c) Morgan (d) Dalton
34. The convex lens having surface of same radii is called as:
(a) Equi-convex lens (b) Equi-planar lens
(c) Plano-convex lens (d) Water lens
35. If parallel beams, non-parallel to principal axis fall on the convex lens, they converge at a point:
(a) On principal axis (b) Away from principal axis
(c) Centre of curvature (d) Called focus on the axis
36. Rajiv put the 10 g raisins in 100 mL distilled water which is at 10o C below the room
temperature while Ajay put the same amount of raisins in 100 mL distilled water at 10o C
above the room temperature. After an hour, percentage of water absorbed by the raisins will
be:
(a) Same in both cases.
(b) More in Rajiv’s beaker.
(c) More in Ajay’s beaker.
(d) Exactly twice as much as in Ajay as in Rajiv’ beaker.
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CBSE Sample Paper-02 (Unsolved) SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II
MATHEMATICS Class – X
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) The question paper consists of 31 questions divided into four sections – A, B, C and D.
c) Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each which are multiple choice questions, Section B
contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and
Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
d) Use of calculator is not permitted.
Section A
1. In an AP, if 4, 3, 10,nd n a= = = then a is:
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
2. If the angle of elevation of a tower from a distance of 100 m from its foot is 60 ,� then the height
of the tower is:
(a) 100 3 m (b) 100
3 m (c) 50 3 m (d)
50
3 m
3. A game consists of tossing a one-rupee coin 3 times and noting its outcome each time. Hanif
wins if all the tosses give the same result, i.e., three head or three tails and loses otherwise. The
probability that Hanif will lose the game is:
(a) 3
8 (b)
1
2 (c) 1
4 (d) 3
4
4. The distance between A (1, 3) and B ( ),7a is 5. The possible values of a are:
(a) ( )4, 2− (b) ( )2, 4 (c) ( )3, 2 (d) ( )2,5
Section B
5. For what value of ,k does ( ) ( )212 2 12 2 0k x k x− + − + = have equal roots?
6. In an AP, 1, 20na a= = and 441nS = , then find .n
7. Let s denotes the semi-perimeter of a triangle ABC in which BC = ,a CA = ,b AB = .c If a circle
touches the side BC, CA, AB at D,E,F respectively, then prove that BD = .s b−
8. Find the diameter of a circle whose area is equal to the sum of the circumferences of the two
circles of diameter 30 and 24 cm.
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9. The radius of a solid sphere is 3 cm. It is melted to form solid balls of radii 1 cm. How many
solid balls will be obtained?
10. The radii of the ends of a frustum of a cone 40 cm height are 20 cm and 11 cm. Find its slant
height.
Section C
11. Solve for :x 1
3, 0x xx
− = ≠
12. Find the sum of all two digit numbers greater than 50 which when divided by 7 leave a
remainder of 4.
13. Find ∠ CAD in the following figure:
14. From a window 15 meters high above the ground in a street, the angles of elevation and
depression of the top and foot of another house on the opposite side of the street are 30� and
45� respectively. Show that the height of the opposite house is 23.66 meters. ( )Take 3 1.732=
15. A box contains 90 discs, which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from
the box, then find the probability that it bears:
(i) a two-digit number
(ii) a perfect square
(iii) a number divisible by 5.
16. Find the coordinates of the point equidistant from three given points A (5, 3), B ( )5, 5− and C
( )1, 5 .−
17. Find the value of p for which the points ( ) ( )5,1 , 1, p− and ( )4, 2− are collinear.
18. A sheet of paper is in the form of a rectangle ABCD in which AB = 40 cm and AD = 28 cm. A
semicircular portion with BC as diameter is cut off. Find the area of the remaining paper.
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19. A horse is placed for grazing inside a rectangular field 70 m by 52 m and is tethered to one
corner by a rope 21 m long. On how much area can it graze?
20. Water flows at the rate of 10 m per minute through a pipe having its diameter as 5 mm. How
much time will it take to fill a conical vessel whose diameter of base if 40 cm and depth 24 cm?
Section D
21. Solve for :x ( )2 2 2 2 2 0p x p q x q+ − − =
22. A motorboat whose speed in still water us 5 km/h, takes 1 hour more to go 12 km upstream
than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
23. If m times the thm term of an AP is equal to n times the thn term, show that ( )thm n+ term of
the AP is zero.
24. From a point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle C ( )O, r . If OP = 2 ,r then show
that ∆ APB is equilateral.
25. Prove that the tangents drawn at the end of a diameter of a circle are parallel.
26. Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle XYZ with its sides equal to 3
4th of the
corresponding sides of ∆ XYZ. Write the steps of construction also.
27. On a horizontal plane there is a vertical tower with a flagpole on the top of the tower. At a
point 9 meters away from the foot of the tower. The angle of elevation of the top and bottom of
the flagpole are 60� and 30� respectively. Find the height of the tower and flagpole mounted on
it.
28. In a single throw of two dice, find the probability of getting:
(i) a total of 7 (ii) a total of 11
(iii) doublets (iv) six as a product.
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29. Find the coordinates of the circum centre of the triangle whose vertices are ( ) ( )8,6 , 8, 2− and
( )2, 2 .− Also, find the circum radius.
30. Ramlal wants to dig a well. He is confused whether he should dig the well in the form of cuboid
of dimensiona (1 m x 1 m x 7m) or in the form of cylinder of diameter 1 m and height 7 m. The
rate to dig the well is Rs.50 per m3. Finally he decides to dig the cylindrical well.
Read the above passage and answer the following questions:
(i) Find the cost to dig both wells.
(ii) By Ramlal’s decision, which value if depicted here?
[Value Based Question]
31. A solid is composed of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. If the whole length of the solid is
104 cm and the radius of each hemispherical end is 7 cm, find the cost of polishing its surface
at the rate of Rs.10 per m2.
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CBSE Sample Paper-05
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II MATHEMATICS
Class – X
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) The question paper consists of 31 questions divided into four sections – A, B, C and D.
c) Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each which are multiple choice questions, Section B
contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and
Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
d) Use of calculator is not permitted.
Section A
1. Cards each marked with one of the numbers 6, 7, 8, …., 15 are placed in a box and mixed
thoroughly. One card is drawn at random from the box. The probability of getting a card with a
number less than 10 is:
(a) 1
5 (b)
3
5 (c)
2
5 (d)
4
5
2. The value of x for which the distance between the points A ( )2, 3− and B ( ),5x is 10 units is:
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
3. The sum of first five multiples of 4 is:
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 6
4. The angle of depression and the angle of elevation from an object on the ground to an object in
the air are related as:
(a) greater than (b) less than (c) equal (d) all of them
Section B
5. Find the radius of the circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of circumferences of the
two circles of diameter 30 cm and 24 cm.
6. A solid cylinder of diameter 12 cm and height 15 cm is melted and recast into toys with the
shape of a right circular cone mounted on a hemisphere of radius 3 cm. If the height of the toy
is 12 cm, find the number of toys so formed.
7. Water flows through a circular pipe, whose internal diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 0.7 m per
second into a cylindrical tank, the radius of whose base is 40 cm. By how much will the level of
water in the cylindrical tank use in half an hour?
8. For what value of ,k are the roots of the equation 23 2 27 0x kx+ + = are real and equal?
9. Two AP’s have the same common difference. The first two terms of one of these is 3− and not
of the other is 7.− Find the difference between their 4th terms.
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10. The tangent at a point C of a circle and a diameter AB when extended intersect at P. If ∠ PCA =
100 ,° then find ∠ CBA.
Section C
11. If A ( )5, 1 ,− B ( )3, 2− − and C ( )1,8− are the vertices of triangle ABC, find the length of median
through A and the coordinates of centroid.
12. If the point ( ),x y is equidistant from the points ( ),a b b a+ − and ( ), ,a b a b− + then prove that
.bx ay=
13. A chord AB of a circle of radius 14 cm makes a right angle at the centre (O) of the circle. Find
the area of the minor segment.22
Use =7
π
14. The minute hand of a clock is 21 cm long. Find the area described by the minute hand on the
face of the clock between 6 a.m. and 6.05 a.m. 22
Use =7
π
15. Find the number of coins 1.5 cm in diameter and 0.2 cm thick, to be melted to form a right
circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.
16. Solve the quadratic equation by using quadratic formula: 2 3 12 0
2 2x x− + =
17. Find the middle term of the AP ( )10,7,4,......., 62 .−
18. ABCD is a quadrilateral such that ∠ D = 90 .� A circle C (O, r ) touches the sides AB, BC, CD and
DA at P, Q, R and S respectively. If BC = 38 cm, CD = 25 cm and BP = 27 cm, then find .r
19. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is surmounted by a vertical flagstaff of height
5 m. From a point on the plane the angles of elevation of the bottomand top of the flagstaff of
height 5 m. From a point on the plane the angles of elevation of the bottom and top of the
flagstaff are respectively 30� and 60 .� Find the height of the tower.
20. Find the probability that a number selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3, ……., 35 is:
(i) a prime number.
(ii) multiple of 7.
(iii) multiple of 3 or 5.
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Section D
21. Draw any quadrilateral ABCD. Construct another quadrilateral AB’C’D’ similar to the
quadrilateral ABCD with each side equal to 4
5th of the corresponding side of quadrilateral
ABCD. Write the steps of construction also.
22. A tree breaks due to the storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree touches
the ground making an angle of 30� with the ground. The distance from the foot of the tree to
the point where the top touches the ground is 10 meters. Find the height of the tree.
23. A box contains 19 balls bearing numbers 1, 2, 3, …….., 19. A ball is drawn at random from the
box. Find the probability that the number on the ball is:
(i) aprime number (ii) divisible by 3 or 5
(iii) neither divisible by 5 nor by 10 (iv) an even number
24. If P and Q are two points whose coordinates are ( )2 , 2at at and 2
2,
a a
t t
−
respectively and S is
the point ( ),0 ,a then show that 1 1
SP SQ+ is independent of .t
25. A cylindrical vessel with internal diameter 10 cm and height 10.5 cm is full of water. A solid
cone of base diameter 7 cm and height 6 cm is completely immersed in water. Find the volume
of:
(i) water displaced out of the cylindrical vessel.
(ii) water left in the cylindrical vessel. 22
Use = 7
π
26. From a solid cylinder whose height is 8 cm and radius 6 cm, a conical cavity of height 8 cm and
of base radius 6 cm, is hollowed out. Find the volume of the remaining solid correct to two
places of decimals. Also find the total surface area of the remaining solid. ( )Use = 3.1416π
27. Solve for :x 1 1 11
; 4,74 7 30
xx x
− = ≠ −+ −
28. Two years ago, a man’s age was three times the square of his son’s age. Three years hence, his
age will be four times his son’s age. Find their present ages.
29. Ram and Shyam have been given to find out the number of two digit numbers in between 6 and
102 which are divisible by 6. Ram calculated it by using AP while Shyam calculated it directly.
Read the above passage and answer the following questions:
(i) How many two digits number are there in between 6 and 102 which are divisible by 6??
(ii) What value is depicted by Ram?
30. The radius of the incircle of a triangle is 4 cm and the segments into which one side is divided
by the point of contact are 6 cm and 8 cm. Determine the other two sides of the triangle.
31. With the vertices of a triangle ABC as centre, three circles are described, each touching the
other two externally. If the sides of the triangle are 9 cm, 7 cm and 6 cm, then find the radii of
the circle.
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Sample Paper-04
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II MATHEMATICS
Class – X
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 90
General Instructions:
a) All questions are compulsory.
b) The question paper consists of 31 questions divided into four sections – A, B, C and D.
c) Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each which are multiple choice questions, Section B
contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and
Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
d) Use of calculator is not permitted.
Section A
1. A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is
the probability that the ball drawn is red?
2. OAB∆ is a rectangle whose three vertices are A (0, 3), O (0, 0) and B (5, 0). Find the length of
its diagonal.
3. In an AP, if d = -4, n = 7, 4na = then find a.
4. In given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. If ZBAC 50= ° and ZDBC 60= ° then find ZBCD.
Section B
5. Find the area of the shaded region in figure, if ABCD is a square of side 14 cm and APD and BPC
are semicircles.
6. A solid metallic sphere of radius 12 cm is melted and recast into a number of small cones, each
of radius 4 cm and height 3 cm. Find the number of cones so formed.
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7. Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km per hour through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a
rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. Find the time in which the level of water in
the tank will rise by 21 m.
8. Show that 3x = − is a solution of the equation 2 6 9 0.x x+ + =
9. How many terms are there in A.P? 1
18,15 ,13,......, 472
−
10. In figure, BOA is a diameter of the circle and the tangent at a point P meets BA extended at T. If
∠ PBO = 35 ,° then find ∠ PTA.
Section C
11. If ( ) ( )3,2 , ,A B a b− and ( )1,4C − are the vertices of a isosceles triangle, show that 1,a b+ = if AB
= BC.
12. Find the value of P if the point ( )0,2A is equidistant from ( )3, p and ( ),3 .p
13. A copper wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 cm2. If the same wire
is bent into the form of a circle, then find the area of the circle. 22
Use =7
π
14. The circumference of a circular plot is 220 m. A 15 m wide concrete track runs around outside
the plot. Find the area of the track. 22
Use =7
π
15. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 9 cm is full of liquid. The liquid is to be filled into
cylindrical shaped small bottles each of diameter 3 cm and height 4 cm. How many bottles are
needed to empty the bowl?
16. Solve the quadratic equation by quadratic formula: 2111 1 0
2x x− + =
17. Find the sum of AP in ( ) ( ) ( )5 8 11 ........ 230− + − + − + + −
18. In figure, ABC is a right angled triangle with AB = 6 cm and AC = 8 cm. A circle with centre O
has been inscribed inside the triangle. Calculate the value of ,r the radius of the inscribed
circle.
19. An aeroplane when flying at a height of 3125 m form the ground passes vertically below
another aeroplane at an instant when the angle of elevation of the two planes from the same
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point on the ground are 30 ° and 60 ° respectively. Find the distance between the two
aeroplanes at that instant.
20. A bag contains 6 red balls and some blue balls. If the probability of drawing a blue ball from the
bag is twice that of a red, find the number of blue balls in the bag.
Section D
21. Construct a ∆ ABC in which BC = 6.5 cm, AB = 4.5 cm and ∠ ACB = 60 .o Construct another
triangle similar to ∆ ABC such that each side of new triangle is 4
5 of the corresponding sides of
∆ ABC.
22. At the foot of a mountain the elevation of its summit is 45° . After ascending 1000 m towards
the mountain up a slope of 30° inclination, the elevation is found to be 60° . Find the height of
the mountain.
23. From a pack of 52 playing cards, jacks, queens, kings and aces of red colour are removed. From
the remaining a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that the card drawn is
(i) a black queen,
(ii) a red card,
(iii) a black jack,
(iv) a honorable card
24. If the point A (2, - 4) is equidistant from P (3, 8) and Q (- 10, y), find the values of y. Also find
distance PQ.
25. A solid is in the form of a right circular cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total height of
the solid is 28 cm. Find the total surface area of the solid. 22
Use = 7
π
26. A bucket is in the form of a frustum of a cone with capacity 12305.8 cm3 of water. The radii of
the top and bottom circular ends are 20 cm and 12 cm respectively. Find the total height of the
bucket and the area of the metal sheet used in its making. ( )Use = 3.14π
27. Two circles touch internally. The sum of their areas is 116π cm2 and the distance between
their centres is 6 cm. Find the radii of the circles.
28. A trader bought a number of articles for Rs.900. Five articles were found damaged. He sold
each of the remaining articles at Rs.80 in the whole transaction. Find the number of articles he
bought.
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29. Ram asks the labour to dig a well up to a depth of 10 m. Labour charges `150 for first meter and
`50 for each subsequent meters. As labour was uneducated, he claims `550 for the whole work.
Read the above passage and answer the following questions:
(i) What should be the actual amount to be paid to the labour?
(ii) What value of Ram is depicted in the question, if he pays `600 to the labour?
30. Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T. Prove
that ∠ PTQ = 2 ∠ OPQ.
31. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point
of contact.
Using the above result, find the length of PQ, if a tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5
cm meets a line through the centre O at a point Q so that OQ = 12 cm.
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CBSE Sample Paper-03
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT –II
English Communicative
Class – X
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) The Question paper is divided into three sections:
Section A — Reading 20 marks
Section B — Writing and Grammar 25 marks
Section C — Literature 25 marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) You may attempt any section at a time.
(iv) All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
SECTION A
(Reading 20 marks)
1. Read the passage given below: 8
(a) The hopping kangaroo is a familiar sight in every snapshot relating to Australia.
Members of the kangaroo family can be as small as a rat or as big as a man. Kangaroos
are found mainly in Australia, Tasmania and New Guinea. Kangaroos, which are big-
footed marsupials that evolved in Australia, use their short front legs like arms. The
man-sized kangaroos of Australia are capable of speeding up to 88 km/hr for short
distances, their means of locomotion being their powerful hind legs, which carry them
over the ground in jumps of 9 m or more at a time.
(b) Weighing around 70 kg, they have an average lifespan of around six to eight years and a
maximum lifetime of 20 years. When bothered by predators, kangaroos often head for
the water, standing submerged to the chest, and attempting to drown the attacker by
holding him under water. Another defensive technique is to get their back to a tree and
kick at their adversary with their clawed hind feet, sometimes with sufficient force to kill
a man. Normally shy animals, they alert other kangaroos to danger by beating on the
ground with their hind feet. This loud alarm signal carries over a long distance.
(c) The tail is important for kangaroos. It holds them in balance and supports them when
they sit or fight against other kangaroos. The kangaroo uses its short legs as arms. With
them it scratches itself, cleans its fur and holds branches when it eats leaves. Kangaroos
are marsupials and the females carry newborns in a pouch in front of their abdomens.
The babies are born small and climb up into the safety of the pouch. There, for the next
225 days or so, they eat, sleep and grow. Once they reach full development, they leave
the pouch. A young kangaroo that leaves the pouch is called a ‘joey’. To keep from getting
too hot, the kangaroos take naps in the afternoon and do most of their grazing at night.
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But the best stay-cool secret of these creatures is the spit bath! Kangaroos drool and lick
saliva all over their faces and bodies to cool down.
1.1 On the basis of your reading of the above passage, complete the following sentences with
appropriate words/phrases:
(a) When followed by predators, kangaroos submerge ___________ and ____________.
(b) The powerful hind legs help kangaroos to _______________.
(c) Kangaroos are mainly found in Australia and are __________.
(d) They use their front legs to __________________.
(e) Kangaroos warn others of danger by _______________.
(f) The secret of kangaroos to stay cool is _____________________.
(g) They use their tails to _____________________.
(h) Before becoming ‘joeys’, the young ones stay in the __________ and ____________.
2. Read the passage given below: 12
(a) It is rare to find someone with good technical and communication skills. You can get far
ahead of your colleagues if you combine the two early in your career. People will judge,
evaluate, promote or block you based on your communication skills. Since habits form
by repeating both good and bad forms of communication, learn to observe great
communicators and adopt their styles and traits — in written and verbal forms. The art
of listening and learning from each and every interaction, is another secret recipe.
Develop the subconscious habit of listening to yourself as you speak and know when to
pause.
(b) Learning what not to say is probably more important than learning what to say. As your
career develops, you will realize that the wise speak less. Speak when you have value to
add, else refrain. Poorly constructed emails with grammatical errors are acceptable
between friends, but they should be seriously avoided while communicating formally
with your seniors. Avoid any communication in an emotional state when you might say
things you will regret later. One unnecessary word uttered at the wrong time or place
can ruin a relationship, career or even your life. Such is the power of words. If such a
thing happens, you should immediately apologise, else it may haunt you for life.
(c) Another problem to overcome is speaking too fast. Since our minds are working faster
than our speech, we are inclined to speak fast. This does not necessarily mean that the
person hearing it will get it any faster. On the contrary, it is always the reverse. So slow
down, and think before you speak. ‘‘When I get ready to speak to people,’’ Abraham
Lincoln said, ‘‘I spend two-thirds of the time thinking what they want to hear and one-
third thinking what I want to say.’’ Adding humour and wit is also essential. But realize
that not all jokes are funny and observe certain boundaries. Never say anything that
could offend. Remember you are not a comedian who must offend as many people as you
can to be witty.
2.1 Answer the following questions briefly: 8
(a) Why is it necessary to have good communication skills?
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(b) How can communication skills be developed?
(c) What, according to the writer, should be avoided while communicating?
(d) Why should you be careful when you tend to be humorous?
2.2 Choose the most appropriate meanings of the given words from the options provided: 4
(a) evaluate (para 1)
(i) estimate
(ii) assume
(iii) punish
(iv) evolve
(b) trait (para 1)
(i) treaty
(ii) trail
(iii) quality
(iv) liberty
(c) utter (para 2)
(i) flatter
(ii) speak
(iii) rot
(iv) unique
(d) haunt (para 2)
(i) hunt
(ii) chant
(iii) trouble
(iv) avoid
SECTION B
(Writing and Grammar 25 marks)
3. You had been to a tourist spot and were disappointed at the way the place was being
maintained. Write a letter in 100 – 120 words to the editor of a newspaper on how places of
tourist interest should be made tourist friendly. You are Maya/Mohan, 48 Court Road,
Trichur. 5
OR
Man has gained control over nature and animals. This has led to ecological imbalance. Write
an article in 100 – 120 words on how this imbalance has affected the life of man. You are
Maya/Mohan.
4. Write a short story in 150 – 200 words on the basis of the hints provided: 10
Summer holidays had begun. Mohit was excited. His father had made arrangements for a
trip to..................
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OR
The trek was tiring. Karan and his friends climbed on till noon. On reaching the camp they
realised that ..................
5. Fill in the paragraph given below by choosing the most appropriate options from the ones
that follow. Write the answers in the answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. 3
Marita read the newspaper sitting (a) __________ the library. She read about a woman (b)
___________ had climbed Mt. Everest. Marita said, ‘‘May be, one day I (c) ___________ climb it
too.’’
(a) (i) the (ii) in (iii) along (iv) on
(b) (i) which (ii) whose (iii) who (iv) she
(c) (i) is (ii) was (iii) are (iv) shall
6. The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line against which a
blank has been given. Write the incorrect word and the correction in your answer sheet
against the correct blank number as given in the example. Remember to underline the word
that you have supplied.
4
Error Correction
If there is a perfect mountain valley of the world, e.g. of in
it is certainly the magnificence valley of Kashmir. (a) ________ ________
It is surrounded by a snow-capped, lofty (b) ________ ________
mountains which make it a land for springs (c) ________ ________
and beautiful lakes. For the past hundred (d) ________ ________
of years the beauty of Kashmir have held the (e) ________ ________
visitors spellbound. Srinagar, the chief cities (f) ________ ________
of the valley or the summer capital of (g) ________ ________
Jammu and Kashmir lying on the banks of the (h) ________ ________
river Jhelum.
7. Read the dialogue given below and complete the paragraph that follows. Write the answers
in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. 3
Nathen : I could not call my English tutor.
Mother : Have you cancelled today’s class ?
Nathen : His phone is dead and there is no other way to contact him.
Nathen told his mother that (a) ___________. Mother asked him whether (b) ___________. Nathen
replied that (c) ___________ way to contact him.
SECTION C
(Literature 25 marks)
8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 3
He holds him with his glittering eye–
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The Wedding-Guest stood still,
And listens like a three years’ child:
The Mariner hath his will.
(a) Why did the mariner hold back the wedding guest?
(b) Why was the wedding guest unable to move?
(c) What does the word, ‘glittering’ mean?
OR
‘‘On the roof, Sebastian looked round, and glanced at his watch nervously. ‘It should be here
by now.’
(a) Which game was Michael playing?
(b) Why was Sebastian nervous?
(c) What does the word, ‘nervously’ mean?
9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30 – 40 words each: 8
(a) On what conditions was Antony allowed to speak on Caesar’s funeral?
(b) What contradictory thoughts did the poet have on seeing the snake?
(c) What advice had Mr Pakrashi given to Patol Babu?
(d) How had Sebastian entered the games Michael later on bought?
(e) How did ‘The Writer’s Inspiration Bureau’ function?
10. Answer the following in 80 – 100 words: 4
Describe how Shelley brings out the futility of power and riches in the poem, ‘Ozymandias.
OR
The poem, ‘Snake’ reminds us of the fact that animals too have a right to life which we have
no right to deny them. Describe how man should coexist with nature and its creatures for
ecological balance.
11. Answer the following in 150 – 200 words: 10
How did the residents of the annexe react to the good news of the invasion by the Allies.
OR
Describe Albert Dussel as he appears in Anne Frank’s diary.
OR
What does Helen say about her association with Alexander Graham Bell?
OR
Describe Merton S. Keith as he appears in Helen Keller’s, ‘The Story of My Life’.
Class X
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT II
ENGLISH
Code No. 101
(COMMUNICATIVE)
Set B
MM: 70 Time 3 hrs.
The Question paper is divided into three sections:
Section A: Reading 20 Marks
Section B: Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C: Literature 25 Marks
General Instructions
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. You may attempt any section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
Section A
Reading – 20 marks
Q1. Read the following passage carefully:
Walter Elias "Walt" Disney was born on December 5, 1901, in Hermosa,
Illinois. He lived most of his childhood in Marceline, Missouri, where he
began drawing, painting and selling pictures to neighbours and family
friends. Disney attended McKinley High School in Chicago, where he took
drawing and photography classes and was a contributing cartoonist for the school paper. At night, he took courses at the Chicago Art Institute.
When Disney was 16, he dropped out of school to join the army but was
rejected for being underage. Instead, he joined the Red Cross and was sent
to France for a year to drive an ambulance. When Disney returned from
France in 1919, he moved back to Kansas City to pursue a career as a
newspaper artist. His brother Roy got him a job at the Pesmen-Rubin Art
Studio, where he met cartoonist Ubbe Eert Iwwerks, better known as Ub
Iwerks. From there, Disney worked at the Kansas City Film Ad Company,
where he made commercials based on cutout animation. Around this time,
Disney began experimenting with a camera, doing hand-drawn cel
animation, and decided to open his own animation business. From the ad company, he recruited Fred Harman as his first employee.
Walt and Harman made a deal with a local Kansas City theater to screen
their cartoons, which they called Laugh-O-Grams. The cartoons were
hugely popular, and Disney was able to acquire his own studio, upon which
he bestowed the same name. Laugh-O-Gram hired a number of employees,
including Harman's brother Hugh and Iwerks. They did a series of seven-
minute fairy tales that combined both live action and animation, which they
called Alice in Cartoonland. By 1923, however, the studio had become burdened with debt, and Disney was forced to declare bankruptcy.
Disney and his brother, Roy, soon pooled their money and moved to
Hollywood. Iwerks also relocated to California, and there the three began
the Disney Brothers' Studio. Their first deal was with New York distributor
Margaret Winkler, to distribute their Alice cartoons. They also invented a
character called Oswald the Lucky Rabbit, and contracted the shorts at
$1,500 each.
1.1 Answer the following questions briefly:
(a) What did Walt Disney learn in his childhood?
(b) Why was Walt not selected in the army?
(c) How did Walt’s brother help him in Kansas?
(d) What did Walt learn at Kansas City Film Ad Company?
(e) Name the first employee of Ad Company.
(f) What deal was made with the Kansas City theatre?
(g)Write briefly about Alice in the Cartoonland.
(h)What was the deal made with Margaret Winkler?
8
Q2 Read the following passage carefully:
1. Maybe you’re bored of bananas, apples and grapes and need a
fresh produce pick? A nutrient-rich serving of kiwifruit may be just
what you need. A serving of kiwifruit (2 kiwis) has twice the
vitamin C of an orange, as much potassium as a banana and the
fiber of a bowl of whole grain cereal–all for less than 100 calories!
2. The fuzzy fruit is sky-high in both soluble and insoluble fiber, both
of which are essential for promoting heart health, regulating
digestion, and lowering cholesterol levels—that’s a winning
trifecta. Kiwi fruit has also been considered a “nutritional all-star,”
as Rutgers University researchers found that kiwifruit has the best
nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits.
3. Along with vitamin C, kiwi fruit are rich in many bioactive
compounds that have antioxidant capacity to help to protect against
free radicals, harmful by-products produced in the body. If you
want clean energy, think of kiwifruit because they’re rich in
magnesium, a nutrient essential to convert food into energy.
4. A kiwi fruit also doubles as a peeper-keeper by supplying your eyes
with protective lutein, a carotenoid that’s concentrated in eye
tissues and helps protect against harmful free radicals. Kiwifruit is
also packed with blood pressure-lowering potassium. In fact, a 100-
gram serving of kiwifruit—that’s about one large kiwi—provides
15% of the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of potassium.
5. Kiwi fruit has been growing in New Zealand for over 100 years.
Once the fruit gained in popularity, other countries started to grow
them including Italy, France, Chile, Japan, South Korea and Spain.
At first, kiwis were referred to as ‘Yang Tao’ or ‘Chinese
Gooseberry,’ but the name was ultimately changed to kiwifruit so
that everyone would know where the fruit came from.
6. A ripe kiwi fruit will be plump and smooth-skinned, and free of
wrinkles, bruise, and punctures. If you find that your kiwi is a little
too firm after buying it, simply let it ripen at room temperature for
three to five days. The firmer the fruit, the more tart it will taste. To
speed up the ripening process, you can also place kiwis in a paper
bag with an apple or banana. If you want to store the fruit longer,
you should keep in a plastic bag in the refrigerator.
2.1Answer the following questions briefly:
(a) What does a serving of kiwi offer?
(b) Why has kiwi been considered a “nutritional all-star”?
(c)How is kiwi fruit helpful for the eyes?
(d) How can you make a kiwi fruit ripen?
2.2 Do as directed:
(a) The word ‘compound’ means:
(i)calcium
(ii)mixture
(iii)texture
(iv)vitamin
(b) The word ‘concentrated’ means’:
(i) strong
(ii) liquid
(iii) large
(iv) replace
(c) The word ‘ bruises’ means:
(i) roughness
(ii) desolation
(iii) popularity
(iv) discoloured
(d) The word ‘tart’ means:
(i) sweet
(ii) salty
(iii) bitter
(iv) nutty
2 X 4 = 8
1 X4 = 4
Section B
Writing & Grammar – 25 Marks
Q3. Tourism being one of the biggest and fastest growing industries globally,
affects the economic, socio-cultural, environmental and educational
resources of nations. Improving tourism industry in India would thus lead
to national development in many spheres. As Ankit/ Ankita, write a letter to
the Editor of The Times of India expressing your views on the same. You
may like to take ideas from the unit- Travel and Tourism besides your own
ideas. (about 100 -120 words )
OR
Disposal of electronic goods , commonly termed as e-waste, in landfills lead
to toxic substances such as lead, mercury etc. contaminating the land , air
and water. Its high time that countries take. A stock of the situation and
protect the environment. Write an article discussing the same. Also, suggest
some solutions. You are Neha / Nitin from XYZ School. You may use
5
ideas from the unit- Environment besides your own ideas ( 100- 120 words )
Q4. Write a short story on the basis of the hints provided in about 150- 200
words:
Enjoyed going for long walks– visit to Dehradun—huge forest - taking
shortcut through the woods, a tree toppled pinning me underneath.
Then……
Begin the story with:
I have always enjoyed taking long walks among the forests………..
OR
loved reading about life on other planets----One day --walking in the
school. Suddenly heard a noise-----strange man, no creature –an alien
saying something---- then more came---abducted me…….
Begin the story with:
I loved reading about life on other planets………
10
Q5. Complete the following passage by filling in one or two words each:
Most of us fail in our efforts (a) __________self improvement because our
schemes are too ambitious and we never have time (b) ________ carry
them out. We also make the fundamental error of announcing our resolution
to everybody so that we look even more foolish when we slipback (c)
__________ our bad old ways. Aware of these pitfalls, this year I attempted
(d) _________ keep my resolution to myself. I limited myself to two
modest ambitions, to do physical exercise every morning and to read more
(e) ________ the evening. An overnight party on New year’s eve provided
me with a good excuse (f) _________ not carrying out either of these new
resolutions on the first day of the year, but on the second, I applied myself
assiduously to the task.
3
Q 6. In the passage given below, one word has been omitted in each line.
Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the
word that comes after it in your answer sheet. Ensure that the word
that forms your answer is underlined.
The first one has been done as an example for you:
Before Missing After
Most people travel as part of their e.g. as a part
daily routine because it enjoyable. (a) _______ _______ _______
There are lots places to explore in (b) _______ _______ _______
the world. Travelling worth every (c) _______ _______ _______
penny you spend memories last forever (d) _______ _______ _______
When travelling, one the opportunity (e) _______ _______ _______
to meet different people from different (f) _______ _______ _______
places. One the most important social (g) _______ _______ _______
skills that we learn is how interact and (h) _______ _______ _______
communicate with different people.
4
Q 7. Rearrange the following words / phrases to form meaningful sentences:
1. is its / remarkable feature / preciousness / the most / of time
2. opportunities /of golden / every moment / thousands / brings
with it
3. slip away / not allow / we must / time to / such precious
3
Section – C
Literature – 25 Marks
Q8. Read the extract and answer the following questions briefly:
And these does she apply for warnings, and portents,
And evils imminent; and on her knee
Hath begg’d that I will stay at home to-day.
(a) Which word in the above passage means ‘forthcoming’?
(b) Who speaks these lines and to whom?
(c) Why should the speaker stay at home?
OR
And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,
Tell that its sculptor well those passions read
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed;
(a )What do wrinkled lip and sneer of cold command tell?
(b) whose hand mocked them ?
(c) How do these passions still survive?
3
Q 9. Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words:
(a) Who was Gogon Pakrashi? What did he preach Patol Babu?
(b) What prophecy does Antony make by the side of Caesar’s body?
(c) What did Jenkins want Hallock to do ?
(d) Why do you think Patol Babu went away without taking any
payment for his role?
(e) What message is conveyed through the poem Ozymandias ?
8
Q 10. Answer any one of the following questions in about 80-100 words.
The voices of education inside the poet D.H.Lawrence tell him that
it was the fear for the snake that made him refrain from killing
him. However, the poet feels that though he was quite afraid of the
snake, he did actually feel honoured that a snake had come to seek
his hospitality from the deep recesses of the earth. The poet uses
repetition to emphasize the fact that the snake may not be as
harmful as humans believe. How does the poet demonstrate respect
for other creatures also? (about 80-100 words)
OR
“You’d never guess in the world. It’s the duckiest, darlingest’ Ouija board
and so cheap! I got
it at a bargain sale. Why, what’s the matter, John?”
After reading these lines you feel that people are crazy for novel and
unusual things. Express your opinion in about 80-100 words on the
intrinsic value of fads (fashion) in life.
4
Q11(A) Give a brief character sketch of Mr. Otto Frank.
OR
How does Anne Frank mature and develop through the course of her diary?
10
OR
Q11(B) Miss Sullivan played a very important part in Helen’s life. Discuss with
reference to the novel.
OR
Getting admission into college wasn’t easy for Helen. Moreover, she
encountered a lot of problems while studying there. Bring out her problems.
Class X
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT II
ENGLISH
Code No. 101
(COMMUNICATIVE)
Set B
MM: 70 Time 3 hrs.
The Question paper is divided into three sections:
Section A: Reading 20 Marks
Section B: Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C: Literature 25 Marks
General Instructions
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. You may attempt any section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
Section A
Reading – 20 marks
Q1. Read the following passage carefully:
Walter Elias "Walt" Disney was born on December 5, 1901, in Hermosa,
Illinois. He lived most of his childhood in Marceline, Missouri, where he
began drawing, painting and selling pictures to neighbours and family
friends. Disney attended McKinley High School in Chicago, where he took
drawing and photography classes and was a contributing cartoonist for the school paper. At night, he took courses at the Chicago Art Institute.
When Disney was 16, he dropped out of school to join the army but was
rejected for being underage. Instead, he joined the Red Cross and was sent
to France for a year to drive an ambulance. When Disney returned from
France in 1919, he moved back to Kansas City to pursue a career as a
newspaper artist. His brother Roy got him a job at the Pesmen-Rubin Art
Studio, where he met cartoonist Ubbe Eert Iwwerks, better known as Ub
Iwerks. From there, Disney worked at the Kansas City Film Ad Company,
where he made commercials based on cutout animation. Around this time,
Disney began experimenting with a camera, doing hand-drawn cel
animation, and decided to open his own animation business. From the ad company, he recruited Fred Harman as his first employee.
Walt and Harman made a deal with a local Kansas City theater to screen
their cartoons, which they called Laugh-O-Grams. The cartoons were
hugely popular, and Disney was able to acquire his own studio, upon which
he bestowed the same name. Laugh-O-Gram hired a number of employees,
including Harman's brother Hugh and Iwerks. They did a series of seven-
minute fairy tales that combined both live action and animation, which they
called Alice in Cartoonland. By 1923, however, the studio had become burdened with debt, and Disney was forced to declare bankruptcy.
Disney and his brother, Roy, soon pooled their money and moved to
Hollywood. Iwerks also relocated to California, and there the three began
the Disney Brothers' Studio. Their first deal was with New York distributor
Margaret Winkler, to distribute their Alice cartoons. They also invented a
character called Oswald the Lucky Rabbit, and contracted the shorts at
$1,500 each.
1.1 Answer the following questions briefly:
(a) What did Walt Disney learn in his childhood?
(b) Why was Walt not selected in the army?
(c) How did Walt’s brother help him in Kansas?
(d) What did Walt learn at Kansas City Film Ad Company?
(e) Name the first employee of Ad Company.
(f) What deal was made with the Kansas City theatre?
(g)Write briefly about Alice in the Cartoonland.
(h)What was the deal made with Margaret Winkler?
8
Q2 Read the following passage carefully:
1. Maybe you’re bored of bananas, apples and grapes and need a
fresh produce pick? A nutrient-rich serving of kiwifruit may be just
what you need. A serving of kiwifruit (2 kiwis) has twice the
vitamin C of an orange, as much potassium as a banana and the
fiber of a bowl of whole grain cereal–all for less than 100 calories!
2. The fuzzy fruit is sky-high in both soluble and insoluble fiber, both
of which are essential for promoting heart health, regulating
digestion, and lowering cholesterol levels—that’s a winning
trifecta. Kiwi fruit has also been considered a “nutritional all-star,”
as Rutgers University researchers found that kiwifruit has the best
nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits.
3. Along with vitamin C, kiwi fruit are rich in many bioactive
compounds that have antioxidant capacity to help to protect against
free radicals, harmful by-products produced in the body. If you
want clean energy, think of kiwifruit because they’re rich in
magnesium, a nutrient essential to convert food into energy.
4. A kiwi fruit also doubles as a peeper-keeper by supplying your eyes
with protective lutein, a carotenoid that’s concentrated in eye
tissues and helps protect against harmful free radicals. Kiwifruit is
also packed with blood pressure-lowering potassium. In fact, a 100-
gram serving of kiwifruit—that’s about one large kiwi—provides
15% of the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of potassium.
5. Kiwi fruit has been growing in New Zealand for over 100 years.
Once the fruit gained in popularity, other countries started to grow
them including Italy, France, Chile, Japan, South Korea and Spain.
At first, kiwis were referred to as ‘Yang Tao’ or ‘Chinese
Gooseberry,’ but the name was ultimately changed to kiwifruit so
that everyone would know where the fruit came from.
6. A ripe kiwi fruit will be plump and smooth-skinned, and free of
wrinkles, bruise, and punctures. If you find that your kiwi is a little
too firm after buying it, simply let it ripen at room temperature for
three to five days. The firmer the fruit, the more tart it will taste. To
speed up the ripening process, you can also place kiwis in a paper
bag with an apple or banana. If you want to store the fruit longer,
you should keep in a plastic bag in the refrigerator.
2.1Answer the following questions briefly:
(a) What does a serving of kiwi offer?
(b) Why has kiwi been considered a “nutritional all-star”?
(c)How is kiwi fruit helpful for the eyes?
(d) How can you make a kiwi fruit ripen?
2.2 Do as directed:
(a) The word ‘compound’ means:
(i)calcium
(ii)mixture
(iii)texture
(iv)vitamin
(b) The word ‘concentrated’ means’:
(i) strong
(ii) liquid
(iii) large
(iv) replace
(c) The word ‘ bruises’ means:
(i) roughness
(ii) desolation
(iii) popularity
(iv) discoloured
(d) The word ‘tart’ means:
(i) sweet
(ii) salty
(iii) bitter
(iv) nutty
2 X 4 = 8
1 X4 = 4
Section B
Writing & Grammar – 25 Marks
Q3. Tourism being one of the biggest and fastest growing industries globally,
affects the economic, socio-cultural, environmental and educational
resources of nations. Improving tourism industry in India would thus lead
to national development in many spheres. As Ankit/ Ankita, write a letter to
the Editor of The Times of India expressing your views on the same. You
may like to take ideas from the unit- Travel and Tourism besides your own
ideas. (about 100 -120 words )
OR
Disposal of electronic goods , commonly termed as e-waste, in landfills lead
to toxic substances such as lead, mercury etc. contaminating the land , air
and water. Its high time that countries take. A stock of the situation and
protect the environment. Write an article discussing the same. Also, suggest
some solutions. You are Neha / Nitin from XYZ School. You may use
5
ideas from the unit- Environment besides your own ideas ( 100- 120 words )
Q4. Write a short story on the basis of the hints provided in about 150- 200
words:
Enjoyed going for long walks– visit to Dehradun—huge forest - taking
shortcut through the woods, a tree toppled pinning me underneath.
Then……
Begin the story with:
I have always enjoyed taking long walks among the forests………..
OR
loved reading about life on other planets----One day --walking in the
school. Suddenly heard a noise-----strange man, no creature –an alien
saying something---- then more came---abducted me…….
Begin the story with:
I loved reading about life on other planets………
10
Q5. Complete the following passage by filling in one or two words each:
Most of us fail in our efforts (a) __________self improvement because our
schemes are too ambitious and we never have time (b) ________ carry
them out. We also make the fundamental error of announcing our resolution
to everybody so that we look even more foolish when we slipback (c)
__________ our bad old ways. Aware of these pitfalls, this year I attempted
(d) _________ keep my resolution to myself. I limited myself to two
modest ambitions, to do physical exercise every morning and to read more
(e) ________ the evening. An overnight party on New year’s eve provided
me with a good excuse (f) _________ not carrying out either of these new
resolutions on the first day of the year, but on the second, I applied myself
assiduously to the task.
3
Q 6. In the passage given below, one word has been omitted in each line.
Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the
word that comes after it in your answer sheet. Ensure that the word
that forms your answer is underlined.
The first one has been done as an example for you:
Before Missing After
Most people travel as part of their e.g. as a part
daily routine because it enjoyable. (a) _______ _______ _______
There are lots places to explore in (b) _______ _______ _______
the world. Travelling worth every (c) _______ _______ _______
penny you spend memories last forever (d) _______ _______ _______
When travelling, one the opportunity (e) _______ _______ _______
to meet different people from different (f) _______ _______ _______
places. One the most important social (g) _______ _______ _______
skills that we learn is how interact and (h) _______ _______ _______
communicate with different people.
4
Q 7. Rearrange the following words / phrases to form meaningful sentences:
1. is its / remarkable feature / preciousness / the most / of time
2. opportunities /of golden / every moment / thousands / brings
with it
3. slip away / not allow / we must / time to / such precious
3
Section – C
Literature – 25 Marks
Q8. Read the extract and answer the following questions briefly:
And these does she apply for warnings, and portents,
And evils imminent; and on her knee
Hath begg’d that I will stay at home to-day.
(a) Which word in the above passage means ‘forthcoming’?
(b) Who speaks these lines and to whom?
(c) Why should the speaker stay at home?
OR
And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,
Tell that its sculptor well those passions read
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed;
(a )What do wrinkled lip and sneer of cold command tell?
(b) whose hand mocked them ?
(c) How do these passions still survive?
3
Q 9. Answer any four of the following questions in about 30-40 words:
(a) Who was Gogon Pakrashi? What did he preach Patol Babu?
(b) What prophecy does Antony make by the side of Caesar’s body?
(c) What did Jenkins want Hallock to do ?
(d) Why do you think Patol Babu went away without taking any
payment for his role?
(e) What message is conveyed through the poem Ozymandias ?
8
Q 10. Answer any one of the following questions in about 80-100 words.
The voices of education inside the poet D.H.Lawrence tell him that
it was the fear for the snake that made him refrain from killing
him. However, the poet feels that though he was quite afraid of the
snake, he did actually feel honoured that a snake had come to seek
his hospitality from the deep recesses of the earth. The poet uses
repetition to emphasize the fact that the snake may not be as
harmful as humans believe. How does the poet demonstrate respect
for other creatures also? (about 80-100 words)
OR
“You’d never guess in the world. It’s the duckiest, darlingest’ Ouija board
and so cheap! I got
it at a bargain sale. Why, what’s the matter, John?”
After reading these lines you feel that people are crazy for novel and
unusual things. Express your opinion in about 80-100 words on the
intrinsic value of fads (fashion) in life.
4
Q11(A) Give a brief character sketch of Mr. Otto Frank.
OR
How does Anne Frank mature and develop through the course of her diary?
10
OR
Q11(B) Miss Sullivan played a very important part in Helen’s life. Discuss with
reference to the novel.
OR
Getting admission into college wasn’t easy for Helen. Moreover, she
encountered a lot of problems while studying there. Bring out her problems.
Material downloaded from http://myCBSEguide.com and http://onlineteachers.co.in
Social-science
Set-2
Time: 3 hrs M.M: 90
General Instructions:
(i) The question paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Marks are indicated against each question.
(iii) Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are very short Ans questions. Each question carries 1
mark.
(iv) Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark questions. Ans of these questions should
not exceed 80 words each.
(v) Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 mark questions. Ans of these questions should
not exceed 100 words each.
(vi) Question number 29 to 30 are map questions of 3 marks each from History and Geography
both. After completion attach the map inside your Ans-book.
Q1 What was the main aim of Treaty of Vienna 1815?
Or
What was the main aim to establish Tonkin Free School in Vietnam by French?
Q2 How did the Bailadila Iron ore field get its name?
Q3 Differentiate between 'Sectional interest groups' and 'Public interest groups'.
Q4 Why is one party political system not considered a good democratic system?
Q5 State the main aim of Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation.
Q6 Due to which reason the latest models of different items are available within our reach?
Q7 If you are not interested to buy a brush with tooth-paste but shopkeeper denied to sell
tooth-paste only. In this case which consumer right is being violated by the seller?
Q8 Which logo will you like to see on the electric heater to be sure of its quality?
Q9 "Culture had played an important role in the development of nationalism in Europe during
eighteenth and nineteenth centuries." Support the statement with example.
Or
"French tried to solve educational problems in Vietnam in different ways." Support the
statement with examples.
Q10 Why did the different social groups join the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.
Q11 Simon Commission was greeted with slogan 'Go back Simon' at arrival in India.
Support this reaction of Indians with arguments.
Q12 Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How are they different from each other?
Q13 "There is a pressing need to use renewable energy resources." Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.
Q14 "India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world. Yet we are not able to
perform to our full potential." Suggest and explain any three measures to get full potential.
Q15 What is a political party? State any two points of the ideology of BhartiyaJanta Party.
Q16 Who led the protest against water privatization in Bolivia? Describe the ways of protest
adopted by that organization.
Q17 "Democratic governments in practice are known as accountable." Support the statement
with arguments.
Q18 How have our markets been transformed? Explain with examples.
Material downloaded from http://myCBSEguide.com and http://onlineteachers.co.in
Q19 How does foreign trade integrate the markets of different countries? Explain with
examples.
Q20 How is the concept of Self Help Groups important for poor people? Give your view point.
Q21 "Nationalism no longer retained its idealistic liberal democratic sentiment by the last
quarter of the nineteenth century in Europe." Analyse the statement with examples.
Or
"Women were represented as warriors as well as workers in Vietnam in the 1960s."
Analyse the statement with examples.
Q22 How had Non-Cooperation Movement spread to countryside? Explain.
Q23 Why is air travel more popular in the North-Eastern states of India? Explain.
Q24 "Minerals are indispensible part of our lives." Support the statement with examples.
Q25 Examine any two institutinal amendments made by different institutions to reform political
parties and their leaders.
Q26 "Democracies are not appearing to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities."
Analyse the statement.
Q27 Describe any five factors that promote the Multinational Corporations (MNCs) to setup
their production units in a particular place.
Q28 Describe the major problems created by the globalization for a large number of small
producers and workers.
Q29 Three features (A), (B) and (C) are marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct
names on the lines marked in the map:
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
(B) The place where the 'No Tax Campaign' was started.
(C) The place where peasants organized a Satyagraha.
Q30 On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following with appropriate
symbols:
Material downloaded from http://myCBSEguide.com and http://onlineteachers.co.in
(A) Nuclear Power Plant - Kalpakkam
(B) Iron and Steel Plant - Rourkela
(C) Major Sea Port - Kandla