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Test Name : Test 25 - Revision(English) Total Questions : 100Difficulty Level : Medium Total Marks : 200.00Test Type : Free Duration : 120.00 mins

Instruction :Please read the instructions carefully

The total duration of examination is 120 minutes.1.Right Answer carries 2 marks and 1/3rd is negative marking in case of the wrong answer.2.The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen will3.display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timerreaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit yourexamination.The test contains 100 questions. Each item is given in the language of your preference (Hindi or4.English)A test can be given only once5.In case you feel there is more than one correct response, mark the response, which you consider6.the best.All questions carry equal marks i.e. 2 marks each question7.You can always go back and change your answer before submitting the test. However, this is not8.possible in the actual UPSC preliminary exam.Irrespective of how many answers you have marked, the test will automatically close in 2 hours9.and you will get your score based on the responses marked till thenThere are 4 alternatives for each question. For each wrong answer given, one-third of the marks10.assigned to that question will be deducted as penaltyThe Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each11.question using one of the following symbols:

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review.

You have answered the question, but marked it for review.


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Q.1 Consider the following statements:1. Sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth2. Of the incident solar radiation more than 50 per cent of it is PhotosyntheticallyActive Radiation (PAR)Select the correct codeA. Only 1B. Only 2C. BothD. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

Except for the deep sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, sun is the only source of

energy for all ecosystems on Earth. Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it

is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR).

Q.2 Arrange the following in increasing order of ‘Productivity in Ecosystem’ (metric tonneper year)A. Woodland and shrubland< tropical rain forest < Continental shelf < Open seaB. Continental shelf < Woodland and shrubland< Tropical rain forest < Open oceanC. Tropical rain forest< Continental shelf< Woodland and shrubland< Open oceanD. Woodland and shrubland< Continental shelf < Tropical rain forest < Open oceanWhich of

the following is correct?

Answer : D,

Solution :

In ecology, productivity or production refers to the rate of generation of biomass in

an ecosystem. It is usually expressed in units of mass per unit surface (or volume) per unit

time, for instance grams per square metre per day (g m−2 d−1). The mass unit may relate

to dry matter or to the mass of carbon generated. Productivity of autotrophs such as

plants is called primary productivity, while that of heterotrophs such as animals is

called secondary productivity.

Look into these links for the reference of Productivity chart. It is important


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http://loki.stockton.edu/~cromartj/ecology/ecolectures/26produc.htm

http://www.globalchange.umich.edu/globalchange1/current/lectures/kling/energyflow/

energyflow.html

Q.3 Consider the following statements about ecological pyramids1. Grassland and forest ecosystem have similar Pyramid of Numbers.2. Pyramid of Biomass is the most accurate among three ecological pyramids-Number,Biomass and Energy.3. Pyramid of Energy is always upright in nature irrespective of type of ecosystem.Select the correct codeA. 1 and 2B. 1, 2 and 3C. Only 2D. Only 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

There are three ways an ecological pyramid can be represented. A Pyramid of Numbers can

be generated by counting all the organisms at the different feeding levels. As you might

guess, this can be a very difficult task since we are not just identifying each species in the

ecosystem. We are also counting how many of each species is present. On occasion, this

approach will not work. For example, one tree (a producer) can represent an ecosystem

and harbor numerous populations of herbivores and carnivores. Thus, the bottom of the

pyramid would be very small and not flared out.

A second type of pyramid is called a Pyramid of Biomass where organisms are collected

from each feeding level, dried and then weighed. This dry weight (biomass) represents the

amount of organic matter (available energy) of the organisms. [Note that there are

alternate, nonlethal ways to determine biomass.] While this approach will generally create a

pyramid that illustrates energy flow, its use can also produce an inverted pyramid. For

example, in aquatic ecosystems, phytoplankton could reproduce and then be eaten rapidly


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by zooplankton. Therefore, it would be possible to have few herbivores and a lot of

carnivores when a collection is taken

A third type of pyramid called a Pyramid of Energy Flow tends to resolve these problems.

This approach necessitates measuring the caloric value of the different organisms that make

up the community. It nicely shows how energy is continually decreasing along the food

chain from producers to top level carnivores.

The pyramids of numbers and biomass may be upright or inverted depending upon the

nature of the food chain in the particular ecosystem, whereas pyramids of energy are

always upright.

In a forest ecosystem, however, the pyramid of numbers is somewhat different in shape.

The producers, which are mainly large-sized trees, are lesser in number, and form the base

of the pyramid. The herbivores, which are the fruit-eating birds, elephants, deer’s etc. are

more in number than the producers.

Q.4 Which among the following can effectively be examples of ‘Secondary Succession’?1. Formation of a new Island after volcanic eruption2. The renewal of a forest after a fire3. A flooded land4. The renewal of a crop after harvestingSelect the correct optionA. 1, 2 and 3B. 2, 3 and 4C. 1, 3 and 4D. All

Answer : B,

Solution :

Examples of secondary succession include:

§ The renewal of a forest after a fire: The fire itself destroys a majority of different

types of trees and plant life. Because seeds and roots and other plant and tree parts


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remain in and on the soil, gradually the plants and trees begin to grow again and

eventually return to the state of the original ecosystem.

§ The renewal of a crop after harvesting: A crop is completed harvested when it

becomes ripe. Without new seeds being planted, the crop can regenerate the

following year due to the plants and seeds that remained after harvesting.

§ A forest renews after logging: A large amount of trees were chopped down by

loggers in order to create building materials. Over time, trees grow in and the area

returns to its previous state.

§ Renewal after disease: A plant population can be very negatively affected by a

variety of infectious plant diseases. If the entire population dies, but the soil and

roots remain, it is possible for secondary succession to occur and for the population

of those plants to to return.

§ A flood can ruin farmlands. However, because the soil remains after the waters

recede, over the course of many years a natural secondary succession can occur and

the vegetation that had previously grown there can grow again.

§ Plants can be very susceptible to attack from pests, particularly if there is an

overpopulation of those pests. When this occurs, the plant population in one area

can be completely destroyed. However, when the pest overpopulation is resolved,

the plants are able to live again and thrive in the soil in which they previously had

lived.

Q.5 If the concentration of oxygen gets doubled in the atmosphere, what can be thepossible effects of the same?1. We will die young2. Most insects will grow bigger in size3. We will be less prone to sickness4. Our Vehicle will give better mileage


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Select the correct optionA. 1, 2 and 3B. 1, 3 and 4C. 1, 2, 3 and 4D. 2, 3 and 4

Answer : C,

Solution :

§More oxygen will generate more free radical that will exacerbate the aging process

through Oxidative Stress. Oxidative Stress will interfere in numerous cellular

processes like protein production, DNA replication etc. Hence age will get reduced.

§ Immune system will get a boost as a result of oxidation and hence will help in

fighting diseases (Less sickness)

§ Many insects rely on gaseous diffusion for respiration therefore the maximum body

size depends on the proportion of oxygen gas in the atmosphere. Hence size of

insects will increase.

§ Oxygen-enriched air improves engine performance by producing hotter reactions

and reducing the proportion of nitrogen, which reduces heat transfer and hence will

give better mileage.

Q.6 The ecological footprint is a measure of human demand on the Earth's ecosystems. Itmeasures-1. How much of the biological capacity of the planet is demanded by a given humanactivity or population2. Ecological Footprints is calculated for overall activity of a nation or population andactivities such as industrialization etc.3. The disadvantage of Ecological Footprint is that it cannot be calculated for individualpeople or area.Select the wrong statement/sA. 1 and 2B. Only 2C. 1 and 3


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D. Only 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Ecological Footprint is a resource accounting tool that measures how much biologically

productive land and sea is used by a given population or activity, and compares this to how

much land and sea is available. Productive land and sea areas support human demands for

food, fibre, timber, energy, and space for infrastructure. These areas also absorb the waste

products from the human economy. The Ecological Footprint measures the sum of these

areas, wherever they physically occur on the planet. The Ecological Footprint is used widely

as a management and communication tool by governments, businesses, educational

institutions, and non-governmental organizations.

Ecological Footprint accounts answer a specific research question: how much of the

biological capacity of the planet is demanded by a given human activity or population? To

answer this question, the Ecological Footprint measures the amount of biologically

productive land and water area an individual, a city, a country, a region, or all of humanity

uses to produce the resources it consumes and to absorb the waste it generates with

today’s technology and resource management practices. This demand on the biosphere can

be compared to biocapacity, a measure of the amount of biologically productive land and

water available for human use. Biologically productive land includes areas such as cropland,

forest, and fishing grounds, and excludes deserts, glaciers, and the open ocean

Ecological Footprints can be calculated for individual people, groups of people (such as a

nation), and activities (such as manufacturing a product).

The Ecological Footprint of a person is calculated by considering all of the biological

materials consumed, and all of the biological wastes generated, by that person in a given


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year. These materials and wastes each demand ecologically productive areas, such as

cropland to grow potatoes, or forest to sequester fossil carbon dioxide emissions. All of

these materials and wastes are then individually translated into an equivalent number of

global hectares.

Q.7 Which of the following describes the relationship of Mutualism?1. Pollination2. Rhizobium3. Human and Bacteria4. ZoochorySelect the correct code-A. 1, 2 and 3B. 2. 3 and 4C. 2 and 4D. All

Answer : D,

Solution :

A mutualistic relationship is when two organisms of different species "work together," each

benefiting from the relationship. In mycorrhizal associations between plant roots and fungi

with the plant providing carbohydrates to the fungus in return for primarily phosphate but

also nitrogenous compounds.

Other examples include rhizobia bacteria that fix nitrogen for leguminous plants in return

for energy-containing carbohydrates

Pollination in which nectar or pollen (food resources) are traded for pollen dispersal (a

service) or ant protection of aphids, where the aphids trade sugar-rich honeydew (a byproduct

of their mode of feeding on plant sap) in return for defense against predators such

as ladybugs.

Zoochory is an example where animals disperse the seeds of plants. This is similar to

pollination in that the plant produces food resources (for example, fleshy fruit,


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overabundance of seeds) for animals that disperse the seeds (service).

The bacteria and the human. A certain kind of bacteria lives in the intestines of humans and

many other animals. The human cannot digest all of the food that it eats. The bacteria eat

the food that the human cannot digest and partially digest it, allowing the human to finish

the job. The bacteria benefit by getting food, and the human benefits by being able to digest

the food it eats.

Q.8 Bioluminescence is the production and emission of light by a living organism. Which of

the following exhibit the phenomenon of Bioluminescence?1. Krill2. Fungi3. Bacteria4. Winged beetles5. OctopusSelect the correct code/sA. 1, 2, 4 and 5B. 1, 3, 4 and 5C. 2, 3, 4 and 4D. All

Answer : D,

Solution :

All are bioluminescent species. Winged Beetles are also called Fireflies. Specific types of

bacteria and fungi show this property. The Bioluminescent Octopus, scientifically known

as: Stauroteuthissyrtensis, is a deep sea species that has been relatively little studied. Krill

are bioluminescent animals having organs called photophores that can emit light.

Q.9 ‘A transition area between two adjacent but different landscape patches’ is called asA. EcozoneB. EcoregionC. EcotoneD. Ethology

Answer : C,


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Solution :

Definition of Ecotone

Q.10 If you travel through the villages and interior of Central India and Northern India, thetraditional Water Harvesting System to be witnessed will be-1. Zing2. Johad3. Kunds4. Surangam5. KereSelect the correct codesA. 1, 2, and 3B. 1, 3, 4 and 5C. 2, 4 and 5D. All

Answer : A,

Solution :

Zing- Ladakh

Johad- Central India

Kunds- Rajasthan

Surangam- Western Ghats

Kere- Karnataka

Q.11 Tropical cyclones occur in –A. tropics onlyB. tropics and sub tropics onlyC. subtropics onlyD. tropic, subtropics and extra-tropics

Answer : D,

Solution :

In addition to tropical cyclones, there are two other classes of cyclones within the spectrum

of cyclone types. These kinds of cyclones, known as extratropical cyclones and subtropical


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cyclones, can be stages a tropical cyclone passes through during its formation or

dissipation. An extratropical cyclone is a storm that derives energy from horizontal

temperature differences, which are typical in higher latitudes. A tropical cyclone can

become extratropical as it moves toward higher latitudes if its energy source changes from

heat released by condensation to differences in temperature between air masses; although

not as frequently, an extratropical cyclone can transform into a subtropical storm, and from

there into a tropical cyclone. From space, extratropical storms have a characteristic

"comma-shaped" cloud pattern. Extratropical cyclones can also be dangerous when their

low-pressure centres cause powerful winds and high seas.

Q.12 When water droplets freeze on ice crystals, process known asA. Bergeron processB. Snowflakes processC. Ice Shelves processD. Water crystallization

Answer : A,

Solution :

none

Q.13 Which of followings are rift valley-1. Lake Tanganayika2. Gulf of Aden3. Lake Baikal4. Black SeaSelect the correct codeA. 2 and 3B. 1, 3 and 4C. 2 and 4D. 1 and 3

Answer : D,

Solution :


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Many of the world's largest lakes are located in rift valleys. Lake Baikal in Siberia, a World

Heritage Site, lies in an active rift valley. Baikal is both the deepest lake in the world and,

with 20% of all of the liquid freshwater on earth, has the greatest volume. Lake Tanganyika,

second by both measures, is in the Albertine Rift, the westernmost arm of the active East

African Rift. Lake Superior in North America, the largest freshwater lake by area, lies in the

ancient and dormant Midcontinent Rift. The largest subglacial lake, Lake Vostok, may also lie

in an ancient rift valley.

Q.14 Below are the statements that differentiate the types of diabetes. If you notice yourfriend is a diabetic, then how will you differentiate if he/she is type 1 or type 2?1. Your friend is having the most common type of diabetes.2. His/Her familiar background shows strong hereditary reasons for being diabetic.Select the correct codeA. Your friend is suffering from Type 2 diabetesB. Your friends is suffering from Type 1 diabetesC. BothD. None

Answer : A,

Solution :

Both are the symptoms of Type 2 diabetes. Type 2 is the most common form of diabetes

mainly found in adults and constituting 90-95% as compared to type 1. Genetically both

type 1 and type 2 can be found but type 2 has strong genetic correlation than type 1

Q.15 Arrange the following countries from West to East (Horizontally) along MediterraneanSea1. Tunisia2. Egypt3. Jordan4. SyriaSelect the correct codeA. 1-2-3-4B. 2-4-3-1C. 3-4-2-1


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D. 1-2-4-3

Answer : A,

Solution :

none

Q.16 A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products whichcorresponds to a specific geographical location or origin. Match the following Indian GIcorrectly1. Bidriware- Kerala2. Chanderi Fabric- Madhya Pradesh3. Nirmal Paintings- Telangana4. Kaipad Rice- KarnatakaSelect the correct codeA. 1, 2, 3 and 4B. 1, 3 and 4C. 2 and 3D. 1 and 4

Answer : C,

Solution :

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Geographical_Indications_in_India

Q.17 17)Consider the followingRevolt Location1. Kol Mutiny Southern India2. Santhal Uprising Western India3. Bhil Uprising Eastern IndiaSelect the correct codeA. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C. All

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

Kol Mutiny- Eastern India covering Ranchi, Hazaribagh, Palamu and Chotanagpur region.

Santhal Uprising- Near Jharkhand, Eastern India


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Bhil Uprising- Khandesh region of Maharashtra, Western India

Q.18 18) “Cornwallis Code was a body of legislation enacted in 1793 by the East India Companyto improve the governance”. Consider the following statements wrt Cornwallis Code-1. To give impetus to Permanent Settlement, Zamindars were given the role of LocalAdministration.2. The Policing and Judicial powers of Zamindar were further enhanced to strengthenthe Permanent Settlement System.Select the correct codeA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

Cornwallis Code:

The code contained significant provisions-Governing, Policing and judicial and civil

administration. Its best known provision was the Permanent Settlement (or the zamindari

system enacted in 1793), which established a revenue collection scheme which lasted into

the 20th century.

The system, as codified in these regulations, provided that the East India Company’s service

personnel be divided into three branches: revenue, judicial, and commercial. Private trade

was forbidden to the members of the first two branches, and they were instead

compensated by a new and generous scale of pay. The land revenue assessment (the major

source of revenue) was fixed permanently with zamindars, or hereditary revenue collectors.

These native Indians, provided they paid their land taxes punctually, were treated as

landowners, but they were deprived of magisterial and police functions, which were

discharged by a newly organized government police. This “permanent settlement” provided

the British with an Indian landed class interested in supporting British authority. The local

administration was placed in the hands of the revenue collectors of districts. The judiciary

was reorganized; there were district judges with magisterial powers responsible to


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provincial courts in civil cases and to courts of circuit in criminal cases. The law administered

was Hindu and Muslim personal law and a modified Muslim criminal code. The higher ranks

of the services were restricted to Europeans, thus depriving Indians of any responsible

office.

Q.19 19)The translation of ‘Gentoo Code’ was funded and encouraged by Warren Hastings as amethod of increasing colonial hold over the Indies. Consider the statements regarding theGentoo Code-1. It is also known as Ordinations of the Pundits.2. It was first translated from Persian to English and then from Persian to SanskritSelect the correct optionA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Gentoo Code is a legal code translated from Sanskrit (in which it was

known as vivādārṇavasetu) into Persian by Brahmin scholars; and then from Persian into

English by Nathaniel BrasseyHalhed, a British grammarian working for the East India

Company. The translation was funded and encouraged by Warren Hastings as a method of

increasing colonial hold over the Indies. It was printed privately by the East India Company

in London in 1776 under the title A Code of Gentoo Laws, or, Ordinations of the Pundits.

Copies were not put on sale, but the Company did distribute them. In 1777 a pirate (and less

luxurious edition) was printed; and in 1781 a second edition appeared. Translations into

French and German were published in 1778.

Q.20 20) Consider the following statements regarding the teachings of BrahmoSamaj1. It emphasized on the worship and adoration of the Eternal, Unsearchable,Immutable being who is the author and Preserver of the Universe.2. It opposed Idol worship and denied the teachings of Vedas and Upanishads.3. Though it discarded the faith in Divine Avataras, it took no definite stand on thedoctrine of Karma and transmigration of soul.Select the correct codeA. 1 and 2


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B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. Only 3

Answer : C,

Solution :

Statements 1 and 3 were the teachings of BrahmoSamaj. The long term

agenda of BrahmoSamaj was to purify Hinduism and to preach monotheism which was

based on twin pillars of reason and the Vedas and Upanishads. So statement 2 is wrong.

Q.21 21)Consider the following statements w.r.t the teachings of Ramakrishna Mission and AryaSamaj-1. Both opposed Image Worship2. Both believed in Oneness of GOD3. They supported proselytization as evident from Shuddhi Movement to reconvert tothe Hindu FoldSelect the correct codeA. 1 and 3

B. Only 2

C. Only 1

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer : B,

Solution :

Ramakrishna Mission founded by Vivekanada was deeply a religious body, but it was not a

proselytizing body. Unlike Arya Samaj, the Mission recognises the utility and value of image

worship in developing spiritual fervor and worship of the eternal omnipotent God, although

it emphasises the essential spirit and not the symbols or rituals.

Both believed in Oneness of GOD. Shuddhi movement was started by Arya Samaj

Q.22 22)Consider the following statements w.r.t the famous Indigo Revolt that took place inBengal-1. The revolt was not supported by Bengali Middle class who sided with BritishAdministration and Planters to suppress the Peasants.2. The Peasants got support from Indian Press in Calcutta as well as the aid of someCalcutta-trained lawyers.Select the wrong statement/sA. Only 1


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B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : A,

Solution :

The Bengali middle class supported the peasants whole-heartedly. Harish Chandra

Mukhopadhyay thoroughly described the plight of the poor peasants in his newspaper The

Hindu Patriot.

The ryots received moral support from the Indian press in Calcutta as well as the aid of

some Calcutta-trained lawyers. The indigo rebellion has been portrayed in drama, poetry

and popular history in Bengal, thereby drawing the attention of the intelligentsia. Thus it

entered the political awareness and had a far reaching consequence in the later movements

of Bengal.

Q.23 23)The famous revolt of 1857 brought various changes in British Administration of Indiaand the immediate change was the enactment of ‘Act of Parliament 1858’. Consider thefollowing statements w.r.t ‘Act of Parliament 1858’-1. The Secretary of State for India was given the powers that were previously wieldedby the directors of Company and Board of Directors.2. Thus the ultimate power over Indian Administration remained with Secretary ofState.Select the correct statement/sA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : A,

Solution :

First statement is correct. The secretary of State was a member of the British Cabinet and as

such was responsible to Parliament. Thus the ultimate power over India remained with

British Parliament not Secretary of State.

Q.24 24)The slogan ‘No taxation without representation’ was the after effect of-


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1. Indian Councils Act- 18612. American Revolution3. Russian Revolution4. Indian Councils Act-1892Select the correct codeA. 1 and 2

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4

D. All

Answer : C,

Solution :

"No taxation without representation" is a slogan originating during the 1750s and 1760s

that summarized a primary grievance of the American colonists in the Thirteen Colonies,

which was one of the major causes of the American Revolution.

Believing that India should eventually move towards democratic self-government, the Early

Nationalists wanted a larger share in the governing of India.

Early Nationalists demanded the expansion and reform of the Legislative Councils and

British Government was forced by their agitation to pass Indian Councils Act-1892 where the

numbers of the Imperial Legislative Councils as well as the provincial councils was increased.

But the nationalists were totally dissatisfied with the Act and declared it to be a hoax. In

particular, they demanded Indian control over the public purse and raised the slogan that

had earlier become the national cry of the American people during their War of

Independence: ‘No taxation without representation’.

Q.25 25) ‘One Religion, one caste and one God for Mankind’ was preached byA. Swami Dayananda

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

C. Sri Narayan Guru

D. Dr B.R.Ambedkar

Answer : C,

Solution :

none


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Q.26 26)Among the following uprisings that took place outside Bengal are1. Pabna Uprising2. Ahom Uprising3. Indigo Revolt4. Farazi Revolt5. Rampa RevoltSelect the correct codeA. 1, 2 and 4

B. 3 and 4

C. 2 and 5

D. 2, 4 and 5

Answer : C,

Solution :

Pabna- Bengal

Indigo- Bengal

Rampa- Andhra Pradesh

Ahom-Assam

Farazi- East Bengal

Q.27 27)Consider the following statements with respect to Solar Wind and Earth Wind-1. The solar wind is very strong compared to the wind on Earth2. The solar wind is very weak compared to the wind on Earth, though it is much, muchfaster than Earth wind.Select the correct code-A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : B,

Solution :

The solar wind is very weak compared to the wind on Earth, though it is much,

much faster. When we measure solar wind speeds, we typically get speeds of 1-2 million

miles per hour. They end up being weaker because there is very little of it. Solar wind

density is usually about 100 particles per cubic inch. Thus, a typical pressure from the solar

wind is measure in nanopascals whereas at the Earth’s surface, the atmospheric pressure is


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100 kilopascals, and surface winds are about 100 pascals. Since solar wind is measured in

nanopascals it is approximately 1000 million times weaker than winds here on Earth.

Q.28 28)Recently Solar Storms were in news. Consider the statements with respect to SolarStorms-1. They are very harmful for Humans and other living organisms on Earth.2. They can affect communication technologies like GPS and radio communications.3. They can also affect Power Grids and Electrical units.Select the wrong statement/sA. 1 and 2

B. Only 1

C. Only 2

D. Only 3

Answer : A,

Solution :

Solar storms are not dangerous to humans on Earth’s surface. These storms

are awesome to contemplate, but they cannot harm our human bodies as long as we remain

on the surface of Earth, where we’re protected by Earth’s blanket of atmosphere.

Remember, there’s every reason to believe that storms on the sun have been happening for

billions of years, since the sun and Earth came to be. If that’s so, then all life on Earth

evolved under their influence.

What is the danger of a solar storm in space? Very high-energy particles, such as those

carried by CMEs, can cause radiation poisoning to humans and other mammals. They would

be dangerous to unshielded astronauts, say, astronauts travelling to the moon. Large doses

could be fatal.

Still, solar storms – and their effects – are no problem for us on Earth’s surface. Earth’s

atmosphere and magnetosphere protect our human bodies from the effects of solar flares.

On the other hand solar storms can be dangerous to our technologies. When a coronal mass

ejection, or CME, strikes Earth’s atmosphere, it causes a temporary disturbance of the

Earth’s magnetic field. The storm on the sun causes a type of storm on the Earth, known as

a geomagnetic storm. They have the potential to affect power grids, and have been known


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to black out entire cities, even entire regions.

Q.29 29)Amongst the following that can be put in the category of ‘Social insects’?1. Honeybee2. Wasp3. Termites4. BumblebeesSelect the correct codeA. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 4

Answer : D,

Solution :

All are social insects. Bumblebees were recently in news. India is home to 48 of

the 250 known species of bumblebees. It was revealed by the book Indian Bumblebees

released in April 2015.

Q.30 30)Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Tornados and Hurricane’1. Tornados are more destructive than Hurricanes under the same circumstance2. Both rotate clockwise in Southern Hemisphere and counter-clock wise in northernHemisphere.3. While Hurricanes occurs mostly in warm areas Tornados occurs at places where coldand warm fronts converges.Select the correct codeA. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. Only 3

Answer : B,

Solution :

First statement is wrong. Although Tornados are more frequent than

Hurricanes but cause less damage as compared to Hurricane. The simple reason is the long

lasting nature of Hurricane- few days to weeks. While Tornados lasts for minutes to hours.

Rest statements are true.


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Read here- http://www.diffen.com/difference/Hurricane_vs_Tornado

http://abcnews.go.com/Technology/Weather/story?id=99457

Q.31 31) Which of the following can be the easiest way to predict the upcoming Earthquake?A. Huge release of Methane gas

B. Release of Radon gas

C. Release of carbon dioxide

D. None

Answer : B,

Solution :

Uranium is found in low-levels in all rocks and soil. Radon is a gaseous

radioactive decay product of uranium. As the uranium undergoes radioactive decay,

radioactive radon is generated andtrapped in the rocks that contain the uranium.

The earthquake theory involving radon suggests that prior to the actual quake, there is

some subterranean movement where rocks are crushed, soil is un-compacted and the

trapped radon is released producing a pre-quake spike in radon concentration.

So radon presents the following attributes:

§ it is present in all rocks and soil

§ if a rock is broken or if soil is disturbed, radon will be released

§ it is gaseous and air currents / thermal gradients will carry it up to the earth's surface

producing a detectable plume

§ it is radioactive, this makes detecting small amounts or small changes in radon

concentration relatively routine due to well-developed and very sensitive methods

for detecting and accurately measuring radioactivity.

§ Radon has a very short radioactive half-life, a bit under 4 days. Being a gas and

having a short half-life is very useful in terms of measuring radon emissions. If a

radon emission spike occurs, the gas will dissipate quickly and after about 10 halflives

(40 days) normal background levels of radioactivity will return.


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Q.32 32)In British India, what is ‘Dastak’ known for?A. A permit exempting European traders, mostly of the British East India Company, from paying customs or

transit duties on their private trade.B. A permit regulating internal trade, mostly for Indian traders.

C. Fee charged by Indian rulers from European Traders when they trade into theirterritory

D. Fee charged by British government for the regulation of domestic trade.

Answer : A,

Solution :

Dastak, in 18th-century Bengal, a permit exempting European traders, mostly

of the British East India Company, from paying customs or transit duties on their private

trade. The name came from the Persian word for “pass.” The practice was introduced

by Robert Clive, one of the creators of British power in India, when he had Mir

Jaʿfar installed as nawab of Bengal in 1757. The attempt of Mir Jaʿfar’s successor, Mir Qāsim,

to annul the use of dastaks led to his overthrow in 1763–64 and the exercise of overt

control of Bengal by the British.

Free dastaks for private trade were finally abolished by Warren Hastings, governor of Bengal

(1775). The system put the Indian trader at a grave disadvantage in competing with the

European and was an important factor in the impoverishment of Bengal under early British

rule.

Q.33 33)Consider the following statements with respect to administration of Maratha andMughal Empires1. The revenue system of Marathas was progressive unlike Mughals who were mainlyinterested in raising revenues from the helpless peasantry.2. Maratha failed to give sound administration to the people outside Maharashtrawhile Mughal’s were more successful in effective administration.Select the correct statement/sA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : B,

Solution :


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Maratha Empire represented the same decadent social order as the Mughal Empire did and

suffered from the same underlying weaknesses. They were less disciplined than the Mughal

nobles. Their revenue system was similar to that of the Mughals as also was their

administration. Like the Mughals, the Maratha rulers were also mainly interested in raising

revenue from the helpless peasantry.

For example, they too collected half of the agricultural produce as tax. Unlike Mughals, they

failed even to give sound administration to the people outside Maharashtra. They could not

inspire the Indian people with any higher degree of loyalty than the Mughal succeeded in

doing.

Q.34 34)With reference to Mahalwari System, consider the following statements.1. Local Zamindar was responsible, on behalf of all peasants, for the payment of landrevenue.2. The peasant was free to sell or mortgage their land.3. The system was implemented in western part of United Provinces, Punjab, and somepart of central Provinces.Choose the correct options.A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3

C. 2 and 3

D. All

Answer : D,

Solution :

Zamindar was only the intermediate between peasant and government for

the collection of revenue. The actual property rights were with the peasant itself.

Q.35 35)Consider the statements regarding India’s state of trade affairs in 18th century1. There was a sharp decline in ‘Internal trade’ of India due to regular looting andforeign invasion.2. India remained a land of extensive manufactures and became one of them maincentres of world trade and industries at the dawn of 18th century.Choose the correct code/sA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None


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Answer : C,

Solution :

Constant warfare and disruption of law and order in many areas during 18th century harmed

the country’s internal trade. Many trading centres were looted by the contestants for power

and by foreign invaders like Nadir Shah. Many of the trade routes were infested with

organized bands of robbers, and traders and their caravans were regularly looted.

Since India was on the whole self-sufficient in handicrafts and agricultural products, it did

not import foreign goods on large scale. On the other hand, its industrial and agricultural

goods had a steady market abroad. Even India remained a land of extensive manufactures.

Indian artisans enjoyed fame all the world over for their skill. India was still a large scale

exporter of cotton and silk fabrics. It is said by Peter the Great of Russia- “ the commerce of

India is the commerce of the world and he, who can exclusively command it is the dictator

of Europe”

Q.36 36)The social and cultural life of 18th century India can be best depicted by1. Non uniformity of cultural and social patterns all over the country.2. Friendly relations between the Hindus and the Muslims were a very healthy featureof life in 18th century India.3. The Indian mind of 18th century was tied to tradition and superstitions.Select the correct code/sA. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3

Answer : C,

Solution :

All the statements are correct regarding 18th century India.

Q.37 37)By signing the famous ‘Subsidiary Alliance’, Indian state virtually lost control over mostof their rights. Which among the following can best represent the status of Indian statesunder ‘Subsidiary Alliance’?1. Lost control over sovereignty in external and internal matters2. Limited rights in defence and foreign relations


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3. The Indian rulers became insolvent as a result of exploitation and heavymaintenance of British army.4. Indian ruler (ally) had a provision to station one European for maintaining diplomaticties with their neighbouring state on his discretion.Select the correct code/sA. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

As a result of Subsidiary Alliance, the ally had to agree on the following regulations

· Accept a permanent stationing of British force within his territory and to pay a

subsidy for its maintenance. All this was done allegedly for his protection but was, in

fact, a form through which the Indian ruler paid tribute to the Company. Sometimes

the ruler ceded part of his territory instead of paying annual subsidy.

· It also provided that the Indian ruler would agree to the posting at his court of a

British Resident, that he would not employ any European in his service without the

approval of the British, and that he would not negotiate with any other Indian ruler

without the consent of Governor-General.

· In reality, they lost the right of self-defence, of maintaining diplomatic ties, of

employing foreign experts and of settling disputes with its neighbours.

· It also lost control over the defence and foreign relations. Since statement 2 is

wrong, the correct option to select would be (d) i.e None

Q.38 38)With reference to Zamindari System, consider the following statements.1. The Zamindars were made the owner of the land as long as they were paying therevenue to the Company.2. Zamindars were allowed to sell or purchase the land and evict the peasants, in caseof non-payment of rent.3. Zamindars had invested in the improvement of the land and crop pattern so thatthey can maximise their profit in future.Choose the correct options.A. 1, 2 & 3

B. 1 and 3


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C. 1 and 2

D. Only 1

Answer : C,

Solution :

Zamindars mostly lived in urban areas, either had no knowledge about

agriculture or never took interest in the development of land or improving crop pattern.

Q.39 39)Consider the following statements about ideals of BrahmoSamaj established by RajaRam Mohan Roy.1. The Samaj was open for all caste and creeds.2. Brahma is the supreme immortal soul from whom all humans are originated, so onlyBrahma's idol or image can be used for his worship.3. The worship was performed through prayers and mediation and readings fromUpanishads.Choose the correct options.A. 1 & 2

B. 2 & 3

C. 1 & 3

D. All are correct

Answer : C,

Solution :

Idol, image, statue, painting ,sacrifice and religious rituals inside the Samaj

building was not allowed.

Q.40 40)Consider the following statements.1. Lord Dalhousie's Government was responsible for passing two important acts relatedto social reform- Women Disability Act & Widow Remarriage Act (1856).2. Hindu Women was not permitted to remarry as per the Veda, Shastras and Smritis.Choose the correct options.A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : A,

Solution :


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Hindu Women was not permitted to remarry. This was not as per the Vedas,

but as per the Shastras, Smritis and Hindu Society.

Q.41 41)With reference to Ryotwari System, consider the following statements.1. The pioneer of Ryotwari Settlement was Thomas Munro.2. Land revenue was collected directly from the peasant or ryot.3. The other name of this system is 'Permanent Settlement'.4. As the Ryots had direct link with the Governments the role of money lenders wasminimal.Choose the correct options.A. 1, 3 & 4

B. 1 & 2

C. 1 ,2 & 3

D. All

Answer : B,

Solution :

'Permanent Settlement' is another name of Zamindari system not Ryotwari.

The high rate of taxation forced the peasants to borrow money from money lenders

(mahajans)

Q.42 42)Consider the following regarding ‘Uranium Enrichment’1. Low Enriched Uranium (LEU) has lower than 30% concentration of Uranium-235 that is aweapons grade.2. Highly enriched Uranium (HEU) has more than 30% concentration of Uranium-235 and usedin nuclear reactors and research.3. Uranium in natural condition is found as U-235 but unless processed through ‘enrichment’,cannot be used for civilian or weapons-grade technologies.Select the correct statement/sA. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

Natural Uranium is 99 % U-238 isotope. LEU has lower than 20% concentration of U-235- used in

civilian purpose/nuclear reactors. HEU – more than 20 % of U-235, used for weapons-grade.


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Q.43 43)Amongst the following that is/are not a ‘STAR-1. Pulsar2. Supernova3. Quasars4. PlutoSelect the correct codeA. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. All

Answer : B,

Solution :

Only Pulsar is a star.

Q.44 44) ‘Recently NASA has solved the mystery of formation of Quasars’. Consider the followingstatements in its reference1. Quasars are the brightest object in the universe.2. They exhibit similar properties as galaxies.Select the wrong statement/sA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nasas-hubble-finds-formative-years-ofquasars/

article7336606.ece

Q.45 45)Recently RBI announced ‘Strategic Debt Restructuring (SDR) Scheme’. It is-1. To allow flexible norms for lenders to pay debt.2. To allow lenders only Public and Private Banks to convert their loans into equitystake3. To allow banks and non-banking lending institutions to convert their loans intoequity stakeSelect the correct codeA. 1 and 3

B. 2 and 3

C. Only 2

D. Only 3


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Answer : D,

Solution :

The banking regulator RBI issued new norms for Strategic Debt Conversion (SDR) which will

give lenders the right to convert their outstanding loans into a majority equity stake if the

borrower fails to meet conditions stipulated under the restructuring package.

http://www.indiafilings.com/learn/rbi-strategic-debt-restructuring-scheme/

Q.46 46) ‘Indian Banks are witnessing rising NPA’s (Non-Performing Assets) due to theslowdown in the Indian economy and high interest costs’. What are the tools issued byRBI to tackle rising NPA?1. Asset Reconstruction Companies2. SARFESI Act3. Joint Lenders Forum4. KYC normSelect the correct code-A. 1, 2 and 4

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1 and 4

D. All

Answer : D,

Solution :

All are steps towards controlling NPA.


Q.47 47)Which of the following is/are considered as “secondary sector”?1. Manufacturing2. Mining and Quarrying3. Electricity, Gas and Water Supply4. ConstructionSelect the correct codeA. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1 and 2 only

Answer : B,

Solution :



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Generally all economic activities divided into eight different industrial divisions.

They are (i) Agriculture (ii) Mining and Quarrying (iii) Manufacturing (iv) Electricity, Gas and

Water Supply (v) Construction (vi) Trade (vii) Transport and Storage and (viii) Services.

For simplicity, these divisions can be clubbed into three major sectors viz., (a) primary sector

which includes (i) and (ii) , (b) secondary sector which includes (iii), (iv) and (v) and (c) service

sector which includes divisions (vi), (vii) and (viii).

Q.48 48)The difference between the market prices and factor cost is equal toA. Indirect taxes paid

B. Subsidies received

C. Capital consumption

D. Indirect tax paid minus subsidies received

Answer : D,

Solution :

Basically, ‘factor cost’ is the ‘input cost’ the producer has to incur in the process of producing

something (such as cost of capital i.e. interest on loans, raw materials, labour, rent, power,

etc.). This is also termed as ‘factory price’ or ‘production cost/price’. This is nothing but ‘price’

of the commodity from the producer’s side. While the ‘market prices’ is derived after adding

the indirect taxes to the factor cost of the product, it means the cost at which the goods reach

the market i.e. showrooms (these are the Cenvat/central excise and the CST which are paid by

the producers to the Central government in India).

Q.49 49)Recently union government made some changes to the GDP calculation method. Which ofthe following is/are correct with regards to these changes?1. The base year for the calculation of GDP was changed to 2011-12 from 2004-05.2. GDP will be measured by using gross value added (GVA) at market price, rather thanfactor cost.3. The change in method of calculation has brought Indian GDP calculations more in linewith global practice.Select the correct code-A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above


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Answer : D,

Solution :

Earlier, in India, income is calculated at factor cost, and so is the case with most of the

developing countries. The reasons are – lack of uniformity in taxes, goods are not printed with

their prices, etc.

For more details: http://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/all-you-wanted-toknow-

about-calculating-gdp/article6849349.ece

Q.50 50)Which one of the following statement is true?A. GDP is always greater then GNP

B. GDP is always lower than GNP

C. GDP is equal to GNP when “income from Abroad” is zero

D. GDP is equal to GNP when “depreciation” is zero

Answer : C,

Solution :

Gross National Product (GNP) is the GDP of a country added with its ‘income from abroad’. The

items which are counted in the segment ‘Income from Abroad’ are:

1. Trade Balance: the net outcome at the year end of the total exports and imports of a

country may be positive or negative accordingly added with the GDP.

2. Interest of External Loans: the net outcome on the front of the interest payments i.e.

balance of the inflow (on the money lend out by the economy) and the outflow (on the

money borrowed by the economy) of the external interests.

3. Private Remittances: the net outcome of the money which inflows and outflows on

account of the ‘private transfers’.

The balance of all the three components of the ‘Income from Abroad’ segment may turn out to

be positive or negative. Thus relationship between GDP and GNP depends on the net value of

income from abroad. When the income from abroad is zero GDP is equal to GNP.

Q.51 51)Consider the following statements regarding the “GDP deflator”.


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1. GDP deflator is a comprehensive measure of inflation.2. The GDP deflator is based on a fixed basket of goods and services.Which of the above statement is/are correct?A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A,

Solution :

Unlike other price indexes, the GDP deflator is not based on a fixed basket of goods and

services. It covers the whole economy.

Q.52 52)Which of the following is not a feature of “capitalist economy”?A. Ownership of means of production is with the private

B. A great part of the production is used for private consumption

C. Labour services are purchased and sold at a price

D. Production takes place for selling the output in the market

Answer : B,

Solution :

A capitalist economy can be defined as an economy in which most of the

economic activities have the following characteristics (a) there is private ownership of means of

production (b) production takes place for selling the output in the market (c) there is sale and

purchase of labour services at a price which is called the wage rate (the labour which is sold

and purchased against wages is referred to as wage labour).

Q.53 53)Consider the following statements regarding Gross Domestic Production.1. It is a ‘quantitative’ concept which indicates the internal strength of the economy.2. It is used by IMF/WB in the comparative analyses of its member nations.3. GDP is widely criticized for not considering ‘qualitative’ aspect of the economy.Which of the following is/are correct?A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,


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Solution :

It is a ‘quantitative’ concept and its volume/size indicates the ‘internal’ strength of

the economy. But it does not say anything about the ‘qualitative’ aspects of the produced

goods and services by the economy. It is used by the IMF/WB in the comparative analyses of its

member nations.

Q.54 54)Consider the following statements regarding purchasing power parity.1. It is a technique used to determine the relative value of different currencies.2. This concept works on the assumption that markets work on the law of one price.3. This is a popular method used by the IMF and WB in studying the living standards ofpeople in different economies.Which of the following is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Law of one price, i.e., identical goods and services (in quantity as well as quality) must have the

same price in different markets when measured in a common currency.

Q.55 55)Consider the following statements with respect to state economy.1. Socialist & Communist economies are the forms of state economy2. Planning is the central theme of state economy.3. India at present is pursuing state economy.Which of the following is/are correct?A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

India presently follows mixed economy.

Q.56 56)Company ‘X’ is headquartered at Delhi, India and it has a production facility at Beijing,


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China. The output of production facility is part of China’s ____. The profits of the companywhich are repatriated to the India are part of India’s ____.A. GDP; GNP

B. GDP; GDP

C. GNP; GDP

D. GNP; GNP

Answer : A,

Solution :

none

Q.57 57)Consider the following bills passed by Parliament in recent times1. Finance Bill 20152. National Judicial Appointments Commission Bill, 20143. Insurance laws (Amendment) bill, 20154. Motor Vehicles Amendment Bill, 2015Select the bills passed through ‘Voice Vote’?A. 2 and 4

B. 1 and 4

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

§ A voice vote is used in Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and state assemblies to vote for certain

resolutions. It is used when there is a wide agreement on issues and in some cases

where the house is not in order. It was used during the formation of Telangana state, in

forming the 29th state of India.

§ On 14 August 2014, Rajya Sabha passed National Judicial Appointments Commission Bill,

2014 by a voice vote.

§ On 12 November 2014, BJP won majority in Maharshtravidhan Sabha using voice vote

which was questioned by opposition parties like Shivsena and INC.

§ On 12 March 2015, the parliament passed the Insurance laws (Amendment) bill, 2015.

Earlier it was passed in Lok Sabha on4th March 2015 and then passed by the Rajya


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Sabha on 12 March 2015 by voice note. It proposes to increase FDI limit in local insurers

from earlier 26% to 49% now.

§ On 30 April, 2015, the Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill for 2015 by a voice vote.

§ The Lok Sabha on 3 March 2015 passed the Motor Vehicles Amendment Bill, 2015 by

voice vote. The Bill seeks to amend the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 and replace the

ordinance promulgated in this regard. Earlier, bill was not able to pass in the winter

session of Parliament 2014, so the ordinance was promulgated in January 2015.

Q.58 58)Suppose you hold license in Mining sector in India. Consider the following statement/s1. Mining leases can be granted to you up to 50 years except for atomic minerals.2. Seeing your productive performance, Central government may permit you to acquireone or more licences or leases covering additional area.Select the correct code-A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

Recently, Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 2015 was passed.

So a tricky questions to check your concepts J

Read this- Maximum area for mining: Under the Act, a person could acquire one mining lease

for a maximum area of 10 sq km. However, for the development of any mineral, the central

government could permit the person to acquire one or more licenses or leases covering

additional area. The Bill amends this provision to allow the central government to increase the

area limits for mining, instead of providing additional leases.

Lease period: Under the Act, a mining lease was granted for a maximum of 30 years and a

minimum of 20 years and could be renewed for a period not exceeding 20 years. Under the Bill,

the lease period for coal and lignite remains unchanged. For all minerals other than coal,

lignite and atomic minerals, mining leases shall be granted for a period of 50 years. All mining


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leases granted for such minerals before the Bill, shall be valid for 50 years. On expiry of the

lease, instead of being renewed, the leases shall be put up for auction, as specified in the Act.

Q.59 59)Which among the following are called ‘Notified Minerals’?1. Bauxite2. Iron ore3. Coal4. Uranium5. Limestone6. Manganese oreSelect the correct onesA. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

B. 1, 2, 5 and 6

C. 2, 3, 4 and 5

D. 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer : B,

Solution :

Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Bill adds a new Fourth

Schedule to the Act. It includes bauxite, iron ore, limestone and manganese ore and are

defined as notified minerals. The central government may, by notification, amend this

Schedule.

Q.60 60)Consider the following statements w.r.t Enforcement Directorate1. It looks after investigation cases related to Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, PMLA2. It falls under Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure3. ED can arrest the offenders in relation to PMLA offenceSelect the correct codeA. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. All

Answer : C,

Solution :

ED is in news for quite a long time. Prepare about it. It is part of Department of

Revenue not Expenditure.


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Q.61 61)Which of the following treaties are related to Nuclear Weapons?1. Antarctica Treaty2. Seabed Treaty3. START4. NPT5. SORTSelect the correct codeA. 1, 4, 5

B. 3, 4 and 5

C. 1, 2,3,4 and 5

D. 2, 3 and 4

Answer : C,

Solution :

The Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) was signed between the US and Soviet Union in

July 1991. In summary, START I limited the number of heavy bombers (the large aircraft able to

carry heavier bombs including nuclear ones), intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs), and

submarine launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs), to 1,600 in total. These delivery systems were

then limited to deploying no more than 6,000 nuclear warheads in all.

The Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty (SORT) or Moscow Treaty entered into force in June

2003 to limit the numbers of operationally deployed nuclear warheads by the US and Russia to

1,700-2,200 apiece.

Antarctica Treaty

In June 1961 the Antarctica Treaty established the use of this continent as only for peaceful

purposes and it must be free from nuclear weapons deployment and testing.

Seabed Treaty

The Seabed Treaty entered into force in May 1972 with the purpose of forbidding the sitting of

nuclear weapons and other weapons of mass destruction on the seabed or ocean floor over 12

miles away from any coastal zone.

Q.62 62)Which of the following factors have never been accounted in the calculation of poverty in Indiabefore the Rangarajan committee came up with its report on Poverty?1. Cost of basic Education2. Health expenses


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3. Housing expenses4. Nutrition based expensesChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. All of the above

D. 4 only

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Tendulkar committee, appointed before the Rangarajan committee, had included the estimates

of health and education in its estimation of poverty. But the Rangarajan committee also included

nutrition (fat etc.) and a richer basket of commodities for the poor’s consumption.

Q.63 63)The concept of ‘Depreciation’ is applicable to which of the following?1. Human capital2. Physical capital3. CurrencyChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Depreciation is nothing but a continous reduction in the value of something over time. Continuous

use of machine leads to depreciation and change of technology makes a machine obsolete. That is

an example of depreciation of physical capital. In the case of human capital, depreciation takes place

with ageing but can be reduced, to a large extent, through continuous investment in education,

health, etc. This investment also facilitates the human capital to cope with change in technology

which is not the case with physical capital.

Q.64 64)Entrepreneurs, bureaucrats and politicians are now advancing views about how India cantransform itself into a knowledge-based economy byA. making its skilled and educated youth fully employed in knowledge sectors


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B. increasing the enrolment ratio in tertiary education

C. leveraging the power of the Information technology and intellectual capital

D. reviving its ancient knowledge of science, medicine and astrology from scriptures

Answer : C,

Solution :

In a knowledge economy, a significant part of a company's value may consist of intangible assets,

such as the value of its workers' knowledge (intellectual capital).

Lesser-developed countries tend to have agriculture or agriculture and manufacturing-based

economies, while developing countries tend to have manufacturing or manufacturing and servicebased

economies, and developed countries tend to have service-based economies, which revolve

mostly around intellectual capital. IT, research, consultancy etc. are major examples of a knowledge

based economy.

Q.65 65)Consider the following statements with regard to the public expenditure on education in India.1. Elementary education takes a major share of total education expenditure.2. Expenditure per student in tertiary education is higher than that of elementary.3. Public expenditure on education per year is greater than that in Defence sector.Choose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

According to the latest UNDP report the government spending on education is 4.1 per cent of GDP

which is lower than the global weighted average of 4.9 per cent. Defence sector accounts for

around 2.5 per cent of GDP in India.

Expenditure on elementary education has to be greater than that in tertiary because of the huge

number of students. For e.g. 12 crore children are served mid day meals daily in school!!!

Q.66 66)Non Banking Financial Company - Micro Finance Institutions (NBFC-MFIs) can serve which offollowing purposes in India?


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1. Education loans2. Loan for Income generation activities3. Savings account for the poorChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

As per RBI regulations, a part (i.e. maximum of 30%) of the aggregate amount of loans by NBFC- MFIs

may be extended for other purposes such as housing repairs, education, medical and other

emergencies. However aggregate amount of loans given for income generation should constitute at

least 70 per cent of the total loans of the NBFC-MFI.

Microcredit is part of microfinance, which provides a wider range of financial services, especially

savings accounts, to the poor. Modern microcredit is generally considered to have originated with

the Grameen Bank founded in Bangladesh in 1983.

Q.67 67)Consider the following with reference to the unorganised sector in India.1. It generates a miniscule part of India’s GDP.2. It employs a majority of India’s working population.3. It is not regulated by any laws, rules or regulations.Choose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Answer : D,

Solution :

It employs nearly 90% of India’s population and generates more than 50% of India’s GDP. A number

of social security schemes, laws, rules and regulations have been there for these workers. You can

read about them here:

http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/unorganised-sector-1/categories-of-unorganised-labourforce#


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section-8

Q.68 Assertion: The Ilbert bill can be seen as a bill that tried to establish equalityReason: It tried to introduce the system of Universal Adult Franchise irrespective of the wealthearned.A. A is right and R is the correct explanation of AB. A is right but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is not correct but R is correctD. Both A and R are not correct

Answer : B,

Solution :

Ilbert Bill, in the history of India, a controversial measure proposed in 1883 that sought to allowsenior Indian magistrates to preside over cases involving British subjects in India. The bill,severely weakened by compromise, was enacted by the Indian Legislative Council on Jan. 25,1884. The bitter controversy surrounding the measure deepened antagonism between Britishand Indians and was a prelude to the formation of the Indian National Congress the followingyear.

Q.69 Arrange the following in chronologically1. Ilbert Bill2. Formation of AryaSamaj3. Vernacular Press Act4. Formation of Indian National CongressA. 1-2-3-4B. 2-3-1-4C. 2-1-4-3D. 3-2-4-1

Answer : B,

Solution :

Formation of AryaSamaj: 1875

Vernacular Press Act: 1878

Ilbert Bill: 1884

Formation of INC: 1885


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Q.70 Assertion: The Vernacular Press Act was introduced by Lord Lytton to control the activity ofPress excluding the ones that were published in English languageReason: The British administration wanted to control the opposition that grew around the timeof 2nd Anglo-Afghan warA. A is right and R is the correct explanation of AB. A is right but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is not correct but R is correctD. Both A and R are not correct

Answer : A,

Solution :

Vernacular Press Act, in British India, law enacted in 1878 to curtail the freedom of the Indian-language (i.e., non-English) press. Proposed by Lord Lytton, then viceroy of India (governed1876–80), the act was intended to prevent the vernacular press from expressing criticism ofBritish policies—notably, the opposition that had grown with the outset of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80). The act excluded English-language publications. It elicited strong andsustained protests from a wide spectrum of the Indian populace.

Q.71 Consider the following. Choose the correct statement(s)1. The proceedings for creation of abolition of State Legislative Council can be initiated by theState Legislative Assembly or the RajyaSabha2. It will be then brought out as an ordinary bill by the Parliament and not as a ConstitutionalAmendment BillA. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. None of the above

Answer : B,

Solution :

A resolution should be first passed by the State Legislative Assembly with a majority of 2/3rd ofmembers present and voting and half of the membership of the house. (No role of RajyaSabhahere)

No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for thepurposes of article 368.

Q.72 Consider the following about Financial Emergency. Choose the correct statement(s)1. All money bills passed by the State legislatures should be submitted to the President for


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his/her approval2. The salaries of high officials like judges of Supreme Court can also be reducedA. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. None of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

n case of a financial emergency, the President can reduce the salaries of all governmentofficials, including judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. All money bills passed by theState legislatures are submitted to the President for his approval. He can direct the state toobserve certain principles (economy measures) relating to financial matters; but fundamentalrights cannot be suspended. (Article 360)

Q.73 Consider the following. Choose the correct statement(s)1. LalaLajpatRai led a protest against the Simon Commission after which he succumbed to hisinjuries2. He played a role in the founding of both Dayananda Anglo-Vedic School, Lahore and PunjabNational BankA. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. None of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

LalaLajpatRai helped found the Punjab National Bank. While studying Law at Lahore, Rai alsohelped to establish the Dayananda Anglo-Vedic School

In 1928, the British government set up a commission and no Indian was named in the list.LalaLajpatRai led the silent march in protests and in return, British police declared a lathicharge, where Rai was assaulted and injured. LalaLajpatRai died on November 17, 1928, due tohis serious injuries

Q.74 Biodiesel can be produced from among the following-1. Jatropa2. Pongamia Pinnata3. Sunflower4. Rape Seeds


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Select the correct codeA. 1 and 2

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. Only 1

D. All

Answer : D,

Solution :

Pongamia Pinnata is a viable non-toxic alternative to jatropha for making biodiesel. Being a

legume, it fixes nitrogen into the soil and is often used as a windbreak between fields on

farms. Bio Diesel fuel can be produced from oilseed plants such as rape seeds, sunflower,

canola and or JATROPHA CURCAS.

Q.75 Recently India applied for membership of Missile Technology Control Regime. Considerthe following statements with respect to MTCR1. MTCR is a binding treaty between member nations to limit the proliferation ofmissiles and missile technology.2. The activities of the MTCR are consistent with the UN’s non-proliferation and exportcontrol efforts.Select the correct codeA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : B,

Solution :

MTCR is not a treaty itself. The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is

an informal and voluntary partnership between 34 countries to prevent

the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying a

500 kg payload for at least 300 km.

While there is no formal linkage, the activities of the MTCR are consistent with the UN’s

non-proliferation and export control efforts. For example, applying the MTCR Guidelines

and Annex on a national basis helps countries to meet their export control obligations under

UN Security Council Resolution 1540.


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Q.76 Consider the following regarding BRAHMOS Missile jointly developed by India andRussia1. Its range of 290km is governed by Missile technology Control Regime (MTCR) of whichRussia is a member.2. Its only disadvantage is its surface to surface variant.3. It works on the principle of ‘Fire and Forget’.Select the correct codeA. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. All

Answer : C,

Solution :

Brahmos is a supersonic cruise missile.

MTCR controls the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable

of carrying a 500 kg payload for at least 300 km. Since India is not a member of MTCR and

Russia is, therefore the joint development could not cross the limit of 300 Km and hence the

missile’s range is 290 km

Brahmos can be launched from Submarines, Ships, Land and Air. So, it can be surface to

surface, Submarine to Air and under development Air to Air. Hence second statement is

wrong.

Q.77 Recently Lead (Pb) was making news due to its contamination in Maggie. Consider thefollowing statements with respect to Lead1. High concentration of Pb leads to Dyslexia.2. One if its major uses is in the glass of computer and television screens, where it shieldsthe viewer from radiation.Select the correct codeA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : C,

Solution :

Lead is a major constituent of the lead-acid battery used extensively in car batteries. It is


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used as a coloring element in ceramic glazes, as projectiles, in some candles to threat the

wick. It is the traditional base metal for organ pipes, and it is used as electrodes in the

process of electrolysis. One if its major uses is in the glass of computer and television

screens, where it shields the viewer from radiation. Other uses are in sheeting, cables,

solders, lead crystal glassware, ammunitions, bearings and as weight in sport equipment.

Once taken into the body, lead distributes throughout the body in the blood and is

accumulated in the bones. Depending on the level of exposure, lead can adversely affect

the nervous system, kidney function, immune system, reproductive and developmental

systems and the cardiovascular system. Lead exposure also affects the oxygen carrying

capacity of the blood. The lead effects most commonly encountered in current populations

are neurological effects in children and cardiovascular effects (e.g., high blood pressure and

heart disease) in adults. Infants and young children are especially sensitive to even low

levels of lead, which may contribute to behavioural problems, learning deficits and lowered

IQ.

Q.78 The class of compound known as Biocides are used by Archaeologists in thepreservation and reconstruction of archaeological sites. However, it has variety of otherapplications like1. Antibiotics2. Pesticides3. Antifouling Products4. Anticancer Agent5. AntifungalSelect the correct codesA. 1, 2, 3 and 5

B. 2,3,4 and 5

C. 2, 3, and 4

D. All of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

A biocide is a chemical substance or microorganism which can deter, render

harmless, or exert a controlling effect on any harmful organism by chemical or biological


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means. Biocides are commonly used in medicine, agriculture, forestry, and industry.

A biocide can be:

A pesticide- this includes fungicides, herbicides, insecticides, algicides and rodenticides etc

An antimicrobial- this includes germicides, antibiotics, antiviral, antibacterial, antifungal and

antifouling products etc.

Q.79 Consider the following w.r.t Mangroves Forest1. The Pichavaram mangroves in Tamil Nadu is India's largest Mangrove Forest2. Asia has the largest concentration of the world’s mangroves except Middle EastSelect the correct codeA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : A,

Solution :

Pichavaram mangroves is India’s largest mangrove Forest. Middle East also has

good concentration of Mangroves. Oman, near Muscat, supports large areas of mangroves,

in particular at Shinas, Qurm Park and Mahout Island. In Arabic, mangrove trees are known

as qurm, thus the mangrove area in Oman is known as Qurm Park.

Q.80 The term micro-satellite is associated with which of the following?1. Genetics2. Space TechnologySelect the correct codeA. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : C,

Solution :

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Miniaturized_satellite#Microsatellite

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microsatellite

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microsatellite


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Q.81 81) “Global-warming potential (GWP) is a relative measure of how much heata greenhouse gas traps in the atmosphere”. Consider the statements on which GWPdepends1. the absorption of infrared radiation by a given species2. the spectral location of its absorbing wavelengths3. the atmospheric lifetime of the speciesIdentify the correct statement/sA. 1 and 2

B. Only 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer : D,

Solution :

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global-warming_potential

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/india-needs-clear-policy-on-ozonegases/

article6205565.ece

Q.82 With reference to “Sankirtana”, consider the following1. Ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur2. It encompasses an array of arts performed to mark religious occasions and variousstages in the life of the Vaishnav people of Manipur plains.3. It is practiced at the centre of a temple, where performers narrate the lives anddeeds of Krishna through songs and dance4. It is inscribed on the Representative List of the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritageof HumanityIncorrect statement is/areA. 1 and 2

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. All

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-newdelhi/manipuri-sankirtanainscribed-

on-unescos-intangible-heritage-list/article5435312.ece

Q.83 With reference to ‘System of Rice Intensification’, consider the following1. It originated in USA2. It’s a water intensive methodology


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3. It is a patented methodology and India has access to it.Correct statement is/ areA. 1,2 and 3

B. 2 and 3

C. Only 1

D. None

Answer : D,

Solution :

Originated in Medagascar not USA. It helps in saving water. Not a patent

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/more-rice-from-less-water/article6183223.ece

Q.84 As per Indian culture, the word ‘Kolam’ is associated with1. Art of Rangoli in southern parts of the country2. A type of tribe3. Art of Weaving of people of ancient originCorrect statement(s)A. Only 1

B. 1 and 2

C. Only 3

D. None

Answer : B,

Solution :

http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/kolam-women-dish-outknowledge-

on-traditional-food/article6318693.ece

Q.85 “Albedo is the percentage of incoming radiation reflected off a surface”. Consider thefollowing statements1. The more radiation reflected the more Global warming that occurs.2. Polar ice has highest albedo.Incorrect statement(s)A. Only 1

B. Only 2

C. Both

D. None

Answer : A,

Solution :


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http://www.ecocem.ie/environmental,albedo.htm

http://www.eoearth.org/view/article/149954/

Q.86 Which of the following factors have never been accounted in the calculation of poverty in Indiabefore the Rangarajan committee came up with its report on Poverty?1. Cost of basic Education2. Health expenses3. Housing expenses4. Nutrition based expensesChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. All of the above

D. 4 only

Answer : D,

Solution :

The Tendulkar committee, appointed before the Rangarajan committee, had included the estimates

of health and education in its estimation of poverty. But the Rangarajan committee also included

nutrition (fat etc.) and a richer basket of commodities for the poor’s consumption.

Q.87 The concept of ‘Depreciation’ is applicable to which of the following?1. Human capital2. Physical capital3. CurrencyChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Depreciation is nothing but a continous reduction in the value of something over time. Continuous

use of machine leads to depreciation and change of technology makes a machine obsolete. That is

an example of depreciation of physical capital. In the case of human capital, depreciation takes place

with ageing but can be reduced, to a large extent, through continuous investment in education,

http://www.eoearth.org/view/article/149954/


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health, etc. This investment also facilitates the human capital to cope with change in technology

which is not the case with physical capital.

Q.88 Entrepreneurs, bureaucrats and politicians are now advancing views about how India cantransform itself into a knowledge-based economy byA. making its skilled and educated youth fully employed in knowledge sectors

B. increasing the enrolment ratio in tertiary education

C. leveraging the power of the Information technology and intellectual capital

D. reviving its ancient knowledge of science, medicine and astrology from scriptures

Answer : C,

Solution :

In a knowledge economy, a significant part of a company's value may consist of intangible assets,

such as the value of its workers' knowledge (intellectual capital).

Lesser-developed countries tend to have agriculture or agriculture and manufacturing-based

economies, while developing countries tend to have manufacturing or manufacturing and servicebased

economies, and developed countries tend to have service-based economies, which revolve

mostly around intellectual capital. IT, research, consultancy etc. are major examples of a knowledge

based economy.

Q.89 Consider the following statements with regard to the public expenditure on education in India.1. Elementary education takes a major share of total education expenditure.2. Expenditure per student in tertiary education is higher than that of elementary.3. Public expenditure on education per year is greater than that in Defence sector.Choose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

According to the latest UNDP report the government spending on education is 4.1 per cent of GDP

which is lower than the global weighted average of 4.9 per cent. Defence sector accounts for


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around 2.5 per cent of GDP in India.

Expenditure on elementary education has to be greater than that in tertiary because of the huge

number of students. For e.g. 12 crore children are served mid day meals daily in school!!!

Q.90 Non Banking Financial Company - Micro Finance Institutions (NBFC-MFIs) can serve which offollowing purposes in India?1. Education loans2. Loan for Income generation activities3. Savings account for the poorChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

As per RBI regulations, a part (i.e. maximum of 30%) of the aggregate amount of loans by NBFC- MFIs

may be extended for other purposes such as housing repairs, education, medical and other

emergencies. However aggregate amount of loans given for income generation should constitute at

least 70 per cent of the total loans of the NBFC-MFI.

Microcredit is part of microfinance, which provides a wider range of financial services, especially

savings accounts, to the poor. Modern microcredit is generally considered to have originated with

the Grameen Bank founded in Bangladesh in 1983.

Q.91 Consider the following with reference to the unorganised sector in India.1. It generates a miniscule part of India’s GDP.2. It employs a majority of India’s working population.3. It is not regulated by any laws, rules or regulations.Choose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Answer : D,


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Solution :

It employs nearly 90% of India’s population and generates more than 50% of India’s GDP. A number

of social security schemes, laws, rules and regulations have been there for these workers. You can

read about them here:

http://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/unorganised-sector-1/categories-of-unorganised-labourforce#

section-8

Q.92 What is meant by the ‘casualization of workforce’?A. Majority of labour moving from regular salaried jobs to self-employment

B. Majority of labour moving from informal jobs to self-employment

C. Majority of labour moving from regular salaried jobs to informal jobs

D. Majority of labour moving from regular salaried and self-employment to informal jobs

Answer : D,

Solution :

In the last four decades (1972-2010), people have moved from self-employment and regular salaried

employment to casual wage work. Yet self-employment continues to be the major employment

provider. Scholars call this process of moving from self-employment and regular salaried

employment to casual wage work as casualization of workforce.

Q.93 Which of the following human development indicators are published by the United NationsDevelopment Program (UNDP)?1. Multi-dimensional poverty Index (MPI)2. Inequality-adjusted HDI3. Gender Development Index4. Gender Inequality IndexChoose the correct answer using the codes below.A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : D,

Solution :

Refer to this link. It has presented all the indicators beautifully.


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http://hdr.undp.org/en/data/map

Q.94 Consider the following statements with reference to inequality in India.1. India has the lowest income inequality among all emerging economies.2. Its income inequality is lower than that in all the western developed countries.3. Income inequality in India has increased in the last decade.Which of the above is/are true?A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. All of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

http://www.thehindu.com/data/indias-staggering-wealth-gap-in-five-charts/article6672115.ece

http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/income-inequality-in-india-lowestamong-

emerging-nations-oecd/articleshow/47373128.cms

Q.95 The Atal Pension Yojana launched in the Union Budget 2015-16 focuses on1. All citizens in the unorganized sector2. All income tax payer citizens3. Only BPL citizens in the unorganized sector4. All BPL citizensChoose the correct answer from the codes below.A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 4 only

Answer : A,

Solution :

To address the longevity risks among the workers in unorganized sector and to encourage the

workers in unorganized sector to voluntarily save for their retirement

· The APY is focussed on all citizens in the unorganized sector. All bank account holders may

join APY. APY is applicable to all citizen of India aged between 18-40 years.

· The scheme is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

http://hdr.undp.org/en/data/map


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(PFRDA) through NPS architecture.

· Under the APY, there is guaranteed minimum monthly pension for the subscribers ranging

between Rs. 1000 and Rs. 5000 per month. GoI will also co-contribute 50% of the

subscriber’s contribution or Rs. 1000 per annum, whichever is lower. Government cocontribution

is available for those who are not covered by any Statutory Social Security

Schemes and is not income tax payer. The pension is guaranteed by GoI.

Q.96 96)Consider the following. Choose the correct statement(s)1. Money bill can be introduced by a Minister only2. It can be introduced in Rajya Sabha provided the Vice Chairman deems it fit based on theadvice tendered by the SpeakerA. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. None of the above

Answer : A,

Solution :

It can be introduced in Lok Sabha only and not in Rajya Sabha

Indian Polity by Laxmikant

Q.97 97)Consider the following. Choose the incorrect statement(s)1. The offences of impersonation and subsequent fraud pertaining to Aadhaar cards can betaken up by the courts on their own2. Articles 110 and 111 discuss the provisions of money bills at length and article 117 talksabout financial billsA. Only 1 is correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Both are correctD. None of the above

Answer : C,

Solution :

The courts cannot take cognizance of the cases unless it is raised by the UIDAI or any personauthorized by it.


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Articles 109 and 110 talk about money bills and 117 about financial bills

Article 111 talks about President’s assent to the bills

Q.98 98)Soligas are tribes found in which of the following states?A. KarnatakaB. Madhya PradeshC. OrissaD. Jharkand

Answer : A,

Solution :

Soliga, also spelled Sholaga and Shōlaga, is an ethnic group of India. Its members inhabit theBiligiriranga Hills and associated ranges in southern Karnataka, mostly in the Chamarajanagarand Erode districts of Tamil Nadu. Many are also concentrated in and around the BR Hills inYelandur and Kollegal Taluks of Chamarajanagar District, Karnataka. The Soliga speak Sholaga,which belongs to the Dravidian family. A scheduled tribe, they have a population of around20,000 individuals.

Q.99 99)Assertion: Early puberty and early menopause indicate the risk of serious health issues inwomenReason: Recent studies indicate this increases the chance of incidence of breast cancerA. A is right and R is the correct explanation of AB. A is right but R is not the correct explanation of AC. A is not correct but R is correctD. Both A and R are not correct

Answer : B,

Solution :

Recent studies indicate that the chances of incidence of heart diseases and stroke are higher.

Q.100100)Consider the following about Coliform Bacteria. Choose the correct statement(s)1. Most of the coliform bacteria do not cause diseases2. They are good indicators to test the contamination levels in water bodies3. They are naturally found in the digestive tracts of humans and animalsA. Only 1 and 2 are correctB. Only 2 is correctC. Only 1 and 3 are correctD. All of the above


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Answer : D,

Solution :

Coliforms are bacteria that are always present in the digestive tracts of animals, includinghumans, and are found in their wastes. They are also found in plant and soil material.Mostcoliform bacteria do not cause disease. However, some rare strains of E. coli, particularly thestrain 0157:H7, can cause serious illness.

Coliforms are relatively easy to identify, are usually present in larger numbers than moredangerous pathogens, and respond to the environment, wastewater treatment, and watertreatment similarly to many pathogens. As a result, testing for coliform bacteria can be areasonable indication of whether other pathogenic bacteria are present.

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