Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf ·...

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Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. The load connected to the secondary of a transformer pulls ___ amps. The transformer has a primary rated voltage of 480 and a secondary rated voltage of 120. The circuit that is connected to the primary originates from a 2-pole circuit breaker in a 277/480-volt 3Ø, 4-wire panelboard. The current measured in one of the circuit conductors connected to the breaker is 15.9 amps. a. 63.6 b. 36.7 c. 27.55 d. 110.16 e. none of these ____ 2. Duty on elevator driving machine motors shall be rated as ___. a. noncontinuous b. intermittent c. periodic d. varying ____ 3. Equipment grounding reduces voltage that might cause an electric shock by ___. a. eliminating potential differences between metal electrical enclosures b. establishing an electrical potential between metallic electrical enclosures c. eliminating any current flow in the circuit d. raising the alternating current impedance ____ 4. The requirements for protection of transformer secondaries in Article 450 apply only to the protection of transformers, not to the protection of conductors. a. False b. True Figure 216.1 ____ 5. Refer to Figure 216.1 assume a 5 KVA transformer. Which of the transformer connections shown below is correct? The transformer is fed from a 2-pole breaker in Panel #1 which is a 120/240-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panel. a. c. b. d. none of these ____ 6. Refer to Figure 216.1 assume a 5 KVA transformer. Which of the transformer connections shown below is correct? The transformer is fed from a 2-pole breaker in Panel #1 which is a 277/480-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panel.

Transcript of Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf ·...

Page 1: Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf · 2018-09-28 · Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best

Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The load connected to the secondary of a transformer pulls ___ amps. The transformer has a primary rated

voltage of 480 and a secondary rated voltage of 120. The circuit that is connected to the primary originates

from a 2-pole circuit breaker in a 277/480-volt 3Ø, 4-wire panelboard. The current measured in one of the

circuit conductors connected to the breaker is 15.9 amps.

a. 63.6 b. 36.7 c. 27.55 d. 110.16 e. none of these

____ 2. Duty on elevator driving machine motors shall be rated as ___.

a. noncontinuous b. intermittent c. periodic d. varying

____ 3. Equipment grounding reduces voltage that might cause an electric shock by ___.

a. eliminating potential differences between metal electrical enclosures

b. establishing an electrical potential between metallic electrical enclosures

c. eliminating any current flow in the circuit

d. raising the alternating current impedance

____ 4. The requirements for protection of transformer secondaries in Article 450 apply only to the protection of

transformers, not to the protection of conductors.

a. False b. True

Figure 216.1

____ 5. Refer to Figure 216.1 assume a 5 KVA transformer. Which of the transformer connections shown below is

correct? The transformer is fed from a 2-pole breaker in Panel #1 which is a 120/240-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panel.

a.

c.

b.

d. none of these

____ 6. Refer to Figure 216.1 assume a 5 KVA transformer. Which of the transformer connections shown below is

correct? The transformer is fed from a 2-pole breaker in Panel #1 which is a 277/480-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panel.

Page 2: Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf · 2018-09-28 · Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best

a.

c.

b.

d. none of these

____ 7. Refer to Figure 216.1 assume a 5 KVA transformer. Which of the transformer connections shown below is

correct? The transformer is fed from a 2-pole breaker in Panel #1 which is a 120/240-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panel.

a.

c.

b.

d. none of these

____ 8. Refer to Figure 216.1 assume a 5 KVA transformer. Which of the transformer connections shown below is

correct? The transformer is fed from a 2-pole breaker in Panel #1 which is a 277/480-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panel.

a.

c.

b.

d. none of these

____ 9. A conductor used to connect equipment or the grounded circuit of a wiring system to a grounding electrode or

electrodes is defined as a ___.

a. main bonding jumper c. grounded conductor

b. grounding conductor d. neutral conductor

____ 10. ___ is where conductors and metal equipment are connected together.

a. Grounding b. Bonding

Figure 215.51

____ 11. The transformer shown above in Figure 215.51 has two separate secondary windings. The transformer is rated

at 10 KVA and its secondary windings are rated 120/240 volts. This means that each secondary winding is

rated at ___ KVA.

a. 10 b. 5 c. 20

Page 3: Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf · 2018-09-28 · Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best

____ 12. The transformer shown above in Figure 215.51 has two separate secondary windings. The secondary

windings are rated 120/240 volts. If the secondary windings are connected to supply power to a 120/240-volt

load, the windings would be connected in ___.

a. series b. parallel

____ 13. The transformer shown above in Figure 215.51 has two separate secondary windings. The transformer is rated

at 25 KVA and its secondary windings are rated 120/240 volts. If the secondary windings are connected to

supply power to a 240-volt load then the transformer can deliver a maximum of ___ amps.

a. 104 b. 52 c. 208 d. 240 e. 10.4

____ 14. The transformer shown above in Figure 215.51 has two separate secondary windings that are rated for 12/24

volts. The primary winding is rated for 208 volts. Which connection diagram shown below is correct if the

required control circuit is to be 12 V?

a.

c.

b.

d.

____ 15. Which of the following is permitted to be used as a grounding electrode for a separately derived system?

a. steel building columns

b. 9 meters of copper water pipe run underground from the street to the building

c. 5/8 inch rebar used to reinforce grade beams within a poured building slab

d. any of these

e. none of these

____ 16. A 3/0 AWG conductor that is connected to a circuit breaker in a 120/240-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire panelboard can

carry ___ amps of current inside the panel.

a. 200 b. 165 c. 225 d. 175 e. 195

____ 17. Refer to the schedule for Panel LD, shown above. This is a 120/240-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panelboard. If circuits 5

and 6 share a neutral there should be ___ amps of current flowing in the neutral.

a. 0 b. 5.8 c. 6.7 d. 11.7 e. 23.3

____ 18. The minimum size THWN/THHN aluminum conductor permitted to serve a 95 amp load that will operate

continuously is ___ AWG.

a. 2 b. 4 c. 1/0 d. 3 e. 1

____ 19. The grounded conductor is the neutral in a ___ system.

I. 120/208-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire wye

II. 120/240-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire delta

III. 277/480-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire wye

a. II & III only b. I & III only c. I & II only d. I only e. I, II & III

Page 4: Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf · 2018-09-28 · Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best

____ 20. Two-wire DC circuits and AC circuits of two or more ungrounded conductors shall be permitted to be tapped

from the ungrounded conductors of circuits having ___.

a. a properly sized tap conductor c. a balanced neutral system

b. less than 50 volts d. a grounded neutral conductor

____ 21. What size branch circuit THWN copper conductors must be installed to supply a 4,500-watt, 240-volt

baseboard heater?

a. 12 AWG b. 8 AWG c. 14 AWG d. 10 AWG

____ 22. In the case of transformer feeder taps with primary plus secondary not over 25 feet long, conductors

supplying a transformer shall be permitted to be tapped, without overcurrent protection, at the tap where the

conductors supplying the ___ of a transformer have an ampacity at least one-third of the rating of the

overcurrent device protecting the feeder conductors.

a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. none of these

____ 23. When fully loaded, a 480-volt pri/120-volt sec 25 kVA transformer can deliver ___ amps to a 120-volt load.

a. 25 b. 166.667 c. 52.083 d. 260.42 e. none of these

____ 24. Systems are grounded to provide a path for ___.

I. fault current II. lightning III. short-circuit current

a. I & II only c. I & III only e. III only

b. II only d. I, II & III f. II & III only

____ 25. If a 1Ø transformer is connected to a 2-pole breaker in a 3Ø panelboard, the output of the transformer will be

___ -phase.

a. single b. two c. three

____ 26. A circuit breaker with a ___ voltage rating, such as 240V or 480V, shall be permitted to be applied in a circuit

in which the nominal voltage between any two conductors does not exceed the circuit breaker’s voltage

rating.

a. straight b. slash c. high d. low

____ 27. Electrical systems that are required to be grounded must be connected to the earth in a manner that will limit

any current imposed on the system that may be caused by lightning or unintentional contact with higher

voltage lines.

a. True b. False

____ 28. A fuse or an overcurrent trip unit of a circuit breaker shall be connected in series with each ungrounded ___.

a. device b. conductor c. branch circuit d. all of these

____ 29. The secondary of a transformer delivers 12 volts. One of these secondary conductors must be grounded when

the supply voltage to the transformer is from a ___.

I. 2-pole breaker in a 277/480-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panelboard

II. 1-pole breaker in a 277/480-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire panelboard

a. either I or II b. I only c. II only d. neither I nor II

____ 30. Ground is the ___.

a. earth

b. metallic components of a building structure

c. accidental contact made between two ungrounded circuit conductors

d. intentional connection point between grounded and grounding conductors

____ 31. Steel building columns are permitted to be used as a grounding electrode for a separately derived system.

Assume that the building steel has been bonded to the grounding electrode system at the main service.

Page 5: Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf · 2018-09-28 · Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best

a. True b. False

____ 32. A feeder tap less than 25 feet in length is not required to have overcurrent protection if the ampacity of the tap

conductors is at least ___ percent of the feeder overcurrent device.

a. 50 b. 40 c. 331/3 d. 20

____ 33. The grounded conductor is the neutral in a ___ system.

I. 120/240-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire delta

II. 480-volt, 3-ph, 3-wire corner-grounded delta

III. 277/480-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire wye

a. II & III only b. I & III only c. I & II only d. I only e. I, II & III

____ 34. 2011 NEC: 620.4All live parts of electrical apparatus in the hoistways, at the landings, in or on the cars of

elevators and dumbwaiters, in the wellways or the landings of escalators or moving walks, or in the runways

and machinery spaces of platform lifts and stairway lifts shall be ___ to protect against accidental contact.

a. arranged b. enclosed c. separated d. guarded e. grounded

____ 35. On which of the systems listed below is the grounded conductor NOT the neutral?

a. 120/240-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire delta

b. 120/208-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire wye

c. 480-volt, 3-ph, 3-wire corner-grounded delta

d. 277/480-volt, 3-ph, 4-wire wye

____ 36. Examples of resistance heaters are ___.

I. heating blankets II. heating tape III. heating barrel

a. I and II only b. II and III only c. III only d. II only

____ 37. A feeder tap is to be made at a high bay manufacturing building. Overcurrent length protection at the tap is

not required, if the tap conductors are not over 100 feet total and the tap is made no less than ___ feet from

the floor.

a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 50

____ 38. The purpose of grounding is to ___.

a. keep adjacent surfaces at the same potential

b. stabilize the system voltage to ground (earth) during normal operation

c. direct electrons from lightning strikes into the earth

d. limit the voltage due to line surges

e. all of these

____ 39. A circuit from which of the following can be connected to a 1-ph transformer?

a. a 2-pole breaker in a 120/208-V, 3Ø, 4-W panelboard

b. a 1-pole breaker (with a neutral) in a 120/208-V, 3Ø, 4-W panelboard

c. AØ and BØ in a 3-pole, 480-volt safety switch

d. any of these

e. none of these

____ 40. What minimum size copper THHN/THWN conductors are required to feed a 16-KW, 240-volt electric

furnace operated at 240 volts?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 3 e. 1

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____ 41. A single-family residence is served with insulated 120/240-volt service-drop conductors, supported with a

grounded messenger wire from the utility company. This service drop crosses the pool and the pool has a

diving board that is 5 feet above the water level. The minimum height above water level of the service drop as

permitted by the NEC®

is ___ feet.

a. 25 b. 141/2 c. 22

1/2 d. 19

1/2

____ 42. Which of the following statements does NOT describe objectionable current?

a. Neutral current flowing over the neutral conductor

b. Neutral current flowing over the equipment grounding conductor

c. Neutral current flowing over cable shields

d. Neutral current flowing over metal conduit

____ 43. The NEC® permits the grounded conductor for a 277-volt circuit to have an insulation color that is ___.

a. gray c. green e. a or b or c

b. white d. either a or b

____ 44. The ampacity of branch-circuit conductors and the rating or setting of overcurrent protective devices

supplying fixed outdoor electric deicing equipment shall not be less than ___ percent of the full load current

of the equipment.

a. 100 b. 125 c. 80 d. 150

____ 45. The requirements for protection of transformer secondaries in Article 450 will provide adequate protection of

secondary conductors.

a. True b. False

____ 46. For 1Ø systems, the formula ___ is used to determine minimum ampacity of the ungrounded conductors.

a.

b. c.

d. none of these

____ 47. Nine-foot lengths of 1/0 AWG copper THHN/THWN conductors are installed from a 120/240-V, 1-ph,

3-wire panel to the secondary terminals on a 50 KVA transformer. The maximum rating of the main breaker

in the panel is ___ amps. The breaker terminals are rated at 75ºC.

a. 200 b. 250 c. 175 d. 225 e. 150

____ 48. Which of the following power sources would produce the greatest amount of short-circuit current? Assume

that the conductor resistance is .001 ohms.

a. a 50 KW generator c. a 75 KVA transformer

b. a 10 VA door bell transformer d. they would all produce the same

____ 49. Induction coils shall be prevented from inducing circulating currents in surrounding metallic equipment,

supports, or structures by ___.

I. isolation II. shielding III. insulation of the current paths

a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I, II, or III

____ 50. The definition for a grounded conductor is a system or circuit conductor that is intentionally grounded.

a. True b. False

____ 51. Which of the following voltage systems is solidly grounded?

I. 120/208-volt, 3Ø, 4-wire

II. 120/240-volt, 1Ø, 3-wire

III. 480-volt, 3Ø, 3-wire

a. I only b. II only c. I & II only d. I & III only e. I, II & III

Page 7: Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf · 2018-09-28 · Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best

____ 52. A transformer has a nameplate rating of 480-volt primary – 120/240-volt secondary. If instead of rated

voltage the applied primary voltage is 440 volts, a 5 KVA transformer could deliver a maximum output of

___ kVA without overloading.

a. 4 b. 5.45 c. 6.25 d. 4.58

Page 8: Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf · 2018-09-28 · Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best

Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: A Is = Ip (Ep Es) = 15.9 (480 120) = 63.6 amps Ferm’s/Ugly’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 215.1 ABank

BNK: Objective 215.1 Assessment Bank

2. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 620.61(B)(1)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 620.61(B)(1) OBJ: Obj 429.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 429.1 ABank BNK: Objective 429.1 Assessment Bank

3. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 250.4(A)(2)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 250.4(A)(2) OBJ: Obj 301.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 301.1 ABank BNK: Objective 301.1 Assessment Bank

4. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 450.3 I-Note 1

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 450.3 I-Note 1 NAT: 216 NEC ABank

BNK: Lesson 216 NEC Assessment Bank

5. ANS: B

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Yr-2 Annex B > Conn Diag 2 NAT: Obj 216.1 ABank

TOP: DV Pri / DV Sec - Group I MSC: EPS Dwg: 216.01a/b/c

BNK: Objective 216.1 Assessment Bank

6. ANS: C

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Yr-2 Annex B > Conn Diag 2 OBJ: Obj 216.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 216.1 ABank TOP: DV Pri / DV Sec - Group I

MSC: EPS Dwg: 216.01a/b/c BNK: Objective 216.1 Assessment Bank

7. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Yr-2 Annex B > Conn Diag 2

NAT: Obj 216.1 ABank TOP: DV Pri / DV Sec - Group I

MSC: EPS Dwg: 216.01e/a/f BNK: Objective 216.1 Assessment Bank

8. ANS: D

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Yr-2 Annex B > Conn Diag 2 NAT: Obj 216.1 ABank

TOP: DV Pri / DV Sec - Group I MSC: EPS Dwg: 216.01d/a/b

BNK: Objective 216.1 Assessment Bank

9. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 100

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PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 100 OBJ: Obj 301.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 301.1 ABank BNK: Objective 301.1 Assessment Bank

10. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 100

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 100 OBJ: Obj 303.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 303.1 ABank BNK: Objective 303.1 Assessment Bank

11. ANS: B

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge OBJ: Obj 215.5 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 215.5 ABank TOP: SV Pri / DV Sec

BNK: Objective 215.5 Assessment Bank

12. ANS: A

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 215.5 ABank

TOP: SV Pri / DV Sec BNK: Objective 215.5 Assessment Bank

13. ANS: A

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 215.5 ABank

TOP: SV Pri / DV Sec BNK: Objective 215.5 Assessment Bank

14. ANS: D

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 215.5 ABank

TOP: SV Pri / DV Sec MSC: EPS Dwg: 215.51A/B/C/D

BNK: Objective 215.5 Assessment Bank

15. ANS: D 2011 NEC: 250.30(A)(4) & Exc 1

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 250.30(A)(4) & Exc 1 NAT: Obj 206.1 ABank

TOP: GE Types BNK: Objective 206.1 Assessment Bank

16. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 110.14(C)(1)(b)(1) w/T. 310.15(B)(16)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 110.14(C)(1)(b)(1) w/T. 310.15(B)(16)

NAT: Obj 204.2 ABank TOP: AmpCorr-Capacity

BNK: Objective 204.2 Assessment Bank

17. ANS: E

(1400 120) + (1400 120) = 23.33 amps

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 204.1 ABank

BNK: Objective 204.1 Assessment Bank

18. ANS: C 95 1.25 = 118.75 1/0 2011 NEC: 210.19(A)(1) w/T. 310.15(B)(16)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 210.19(A)(1) w/T. 310.15(B)(16)

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NAT: Obj 204.2 ABank TOP: CondSizing-Continuous

BNK: Objective 204.2 Assessment Bank

19. ANS: E

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 205.1 ABank

TOP: Conductor ID BNK: Objective 205.1 Assessment Bank

20. ANS: D 2011 NEC: 210.10 & 215.7

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 210.10 & 215.7 OBJ: Obj 429.3 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 429.3 ABank BNK: Objective 429.3 Assessment Bank

21. ANS: D I = Ea R where R = (ENP)

2 PNP = (240)

2 4500 = 12.8 ohms

I = Ea R = 240 12.8 = 18.75 amps

Then 18.75 1.25 = 23.4375 amps 12 AWG with a 25 A ocpd

BUT 240.4(D) doesn’t permit 12 AWG for this equipment 10 AWG Note that, when nameplate rated voltage equals the applied voltage, fixed resistance does not need to be calculated to find line current. Under these conditions only, line current can be found by simply dividing nameplate power by applied voltage:

I = P Ea = 4500 W 240 V = 18.75 amps 2011 NEC: 240.4(D)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 240.4(D) NAT: Obj 204.2 ABank

TOP: CondSizing-Noncontinuous BNK: Objective 204.2 Assessment Bank

22. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 240.21(B)(3)(1)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 240.21(B)(3)(1) OBJ: Obj 429.3 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 429.3 ABank BNK: Objective 429.3 Assessment Bank

23. ANS: E I = P E = 25000 120 = 208.3333 amps

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 215.2 ABank

BNK: Objective 215.2 Assessment Bank

24. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 250.4(A)(1)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 250.4(A)(1) NAT: Obj 303.2 ABank

BNK: Objective 303.2 Assessment Bank

25. ANS: A

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge OBJ: Obj 215.4 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 215.4 ABank BNK: Objective 215.4 Assessment Bank

26. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 240.85

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 240.85 OBJ: Obj 429.3 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 429.3 ABank BNK: Objective 429.3 Assessment Bank

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27. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 250.4(A)(1)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 250.4(A)(1) OBJ: Obj 303.2 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 303.2 ABank BNK: Objective 303.2 Assessment Bank

28. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 240.15(A)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 240.15(A) NAT: Obj 429.3 ABank

BNK: Objective 429.3 Assessment Bank

29. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 250.20(A)(1)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 250.20(A)(1) NAT: Obj 205.2 ABank

BNK: Objective 205.2 Assessment Bank

30. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 100

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 100 OBJ: Obj 301.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 301.1 ABank BNK: Objective 301.1 Assessment Bank

31. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 250.30(A)(4)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 250.30(A)(4) NAT: Obj 206.1 ABank

TOP: GE Types BNK: Objective 206.1 Assessment Bank

32. ANS: C 2011 NEC: 240.21(B)&(B)(2)(1)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 240.21(B)&(B)(2)(1) OBJ: Obj 429.3 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 429.3 ABank BNK: Objective 429.3 Assessment Bank

33. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge

NAT: Obj 205.1 ABank TOP: Conductor ID

BNK: Objective 205.1 Assessment Bank

34. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 620.4

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 620.4 OBJ: Obj 429.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 429.1 ABank BNK: Objective 429.1 Assessment Bank

35. ANS: C

Ferm’s/Ugly’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge OBJ: Obj 205.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 205.1 ABank TOP: Conductor ID

BNK: Objective 205.1 Assessment Bank

36. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 427.2 I-Note

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 427.2 I-Note OBJ: Obj 429 NEC Worksheet

NAT: 429 NEC ABank BNK: Lesson 429 NEC Assessment Bank

37. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 240.21(B)(4)(2)&(9)

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PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 240.21(B)(4)(2)&(9) OBJ: Obj 429.3 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 429.3 ABank BNK: Objective 429.3 Assessment Bank

38. ANS: E 2011 NEC: 250.4(A)(1) & (2)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 250.4(A)(1) & (2) NAT: Obj 303.2 ABank

BNK: Objective 303.2 Assessment Bank

39. ANS: D

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge OBJ: Obj 215.4 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 215.4 ABank BNK: Objective 215.4 Assessment Bank

40. ANS: B I = [16000 125%] ÷ 240 = 83.33 amps 4 AWG 2011 NEC: 240.4(B) & 210.20(A) w/424.3(B)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 240.4(B) & 210.20(A) w/424.3(B)

OBJ: Obj 204.2 Worksheet NAT: Obj 204.2 ABank

TOP: CondSizing-Continuous BNK: Objective 204.2 Assessment Bank

41. ANS: C 2011 NEC: Fig. 680.8 & T. 680.8

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: Fig. 680.8 & T. 680.8 OBJ: Obj 429.2 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 429.2 ABank BNK: Objective 429.2 Assessment Bank

42. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 250.6

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 250.6 OBJ: Obj 303.4 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 303.4 ABank BNK: Objective 303.4 Assessment Bank

43. ANS: D 2011 NEC: 200.6(A) & (B)

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 200.6(A) & (B) OBJ: Obj 303.2 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 303.2 ABank BNK: Objective 303.2 Assessment Bank

44. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 426.4

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 426.4 OBJ: Obj 429 NEC Worksheet

NAT: 429 NEC ABank BNK: Lesson 429 NEC Assessment Bank

45. ANS: B 2011 NEC: 450.3 I-Note 1

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 450.3 I-Note 1 OBJ: 216 NEC Worksheet

NAT: 216 NEC ABank BNK: Lesson 216 NEC Assessment Bank

46. ANS: C

Ugly’s/Ferm’s

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 202.1 ABank

BNK: Objective 202.1 Assessment Bank

47. ANS: E 2011 NEC: 240.21(C)(2)

Page 13: Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 - Brealeecqi.weebly.com/uploads/5/2/1/2/5212972/test_11.pdf · 2018-09-28 · Sprig Test 11 due 06/01/2013 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 240.21(C)(2) OBJ: 216 NEC Worksheet

NAT: 216 NEC ABank BNK: Lesson 216 NEC Assessment Bank

48. ANS: C

General Knowledge

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge NAT: Obj 204.3 ABank

TOP: SC/GF/OL/Normal BNK: Objective 204.3 Assessment Bank

49. ANS: D 2011 NEC: 427.37

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 427.37 OBJ: Obj 429 NEC Worksheet

NAT: 429 NEC ABank BNK: Lesson 429 NEC Assessment Bank

50. ANS: A 2011 NEC: 100

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 100 OBJ: Obj 301.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 301.1 ABank BNK: Objective 301.1 Assessment Bank

51. ANS: C 2011 NEC: 100

PTS: 1 REF: 2011 NEC: 100 OBJ: Obj 301.1 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 301.1 ABank BNK: Objective 301.1 Assessment Bank

52. ANS: D

FLA = 5000/240 = 20.83

220 20.83/1000 = 4.58 kVA

PTS: 1 REF: Gen Knowledge OBJ: Obj 215.4 Worksheet

NAT: Obj 215.4 ABank BNK: Objective 215.4 Assessment Bank