SPHR Assessment Test

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Assessment Test 1. An employee has come forward with an allegation of quid pro quo harassment by her supervisor. As the HR manager, you are responsible for investigating the charges. The supervisor in question is someone with whom you have become quite friendly. In this case, the best person to conduct the investigation is A. You. B. The corporate attorney. C. The direct manager of the accused supervisor. D. A third party investigator. 2. The motivation theory that suggests people are motivated by the reward they will receive when they succeed and that they weigh the value of the expected reward against the effort required to achieve it is known as: A. Vroom’s Expectancy Theory B. Adams’ Equity Theory C. McClelland’s Acquired Needs Theory D. McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y 3. Which of the following is an example of a passive training method? A. Vestibule training B. Demonstration C. Distance learning D. Self-study 4. One purpose of a diversity initiative is to: A. Increase workplace creativity

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SPHR assessment test

Transcript of SPHR Assessment Test

Assessment Test

Assessment Test

1. An employee has come forward with an allegation of quid pro quo harassment by her supervisor. As the HR manager, you are responsible for investigating the charges. The supervisor in question is someone with whom you have become quite friendly. In this case, the best person to conduct the investigation is

A. You.

B. The corporate attorney.

C. The direct manager of the accused supervisor.

D. A third party investigator.

2. The motivation theory that suggests people are motivated by the reward they will receive when they succeed and that they weigh the value of the expected reward against the effort required to achieve it is known as:

A. Vrooms Expectancy Theory

B. Adams Equity Theory

C. McClellands Acquired Needs Theory

D. McGregors Theory X and Theory Y

3. Which of the following is an example of a passive training method?

A. Vestibule training

B. Demonstration

C. Distance learning

D. Self-study

4. One purpose of a diversity initiative is to:

A. Increase workplace creativity

B. Increase the effectiveness of the workforce

C. Increase the organizations ability to attract customers

D. All of the above

5. The concept that recognized businesses as social organizations as well as economic systems and recognized that productivity was related to employee job satisfaction is known as:

A. Human resource management

B. Strategic management

C. Human relations

D. Human resource development

6. Before selecting an HRIS system, which of the following questions should be answered?

A. What information will be converted to the HRIS?

B. Who will have access to the information stored in the HRIS?

C. How will the HRIS be accessed?

D. All of the above.

7. The correlation coefficient is a statistical measurement that is useful for:

A. Determining whether or not one variable affects another

B. Compensating for data that may be out of date

C. Determining which variables are outside acceptable ranges

D. Describing standards of quality

8. The process of identifying risks and taking steps to minimize them is referred to as:

A. Liability management

B. Risk management

C. Qualitative analysis

D. Risk assessment

9. Examples of workplace ethics issues include:

A. Workplace privacy

B. Conflicts of interest

C. Whistle-blowing

D. All of the above

10. Which of the following points is important to effective lobbying, that is, attempting to influence or persuade an elected official to pass, defeat, or modify a piece of legislation?

A. Learn how the legislative and political process works.

B. Begin by using persuasion to convince the elected official to accept your position.

C. Make big financial contributions.

D. Let the elected official choose a solution rather than present a proposal solution.

11. An HR audit is designed to help management

A. Improve employee morale.

B. Analyze HR policies, programs, and procedures against applicable legal requirements.

C. Improve HR effectiveness.

D. All of the above.

12. Which of the following is a productivity type of statistical HR measurement?

A. Turnover and retention

B. Cost per hire

C. Revenue per employee

D. Job satisfaction

13. A statement of cash flows is a financial report that tells you:

A. The financial condition of the business at a specific point in time

B. Where the money used to operate the business came from

C. The financial results of operations over a period of time

D. How much money is owed to the company by its customers

14. Which of the following activities is not a responsibility of the operations function of a business?

A. Designing the product

B. Scheduling production runs to coincide with customer demand

C. Ensuring that products or services meet quality standards

D. Determining what new products will be produced

15. A PEST analysis is used during the strategic planning process. PEST is an acronym for:

A. Political, environmental, strengths, threats

B. Political, economic, specific, timely

C. Political, economic, social, technology

D. Product, environment, social, technology

16. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Delphi technique?

A. It is a quantitative tool used to build consensus.

B. It is a structured meeting format.

C. The participants never meet.

D. It requires a facilitator to guide the process.

17. Which of the following alternative staffing methods would be most appropriate for a company with ongoing yet sporadic needs for a specific job to be done?

A. Intern program

B. On-call worker

C. Seasonal worker

D. Temp worker

18. A standard employment practice that seems to be fair yet results in discrimination against a protected class is a description of:

A. Disparate treatment

B. Disparate impact

C. Adverse impact

D. Unfair treatment

19. Measuring staffing needs against sales volume could be done most effectively by using which of the following techniques?

A. A multiple linear regression

B. A ratio

C. A simulation model

D. A simple linear regression

20. When an interviewer is aware that a candidate scored particularly high on an assessment test, this bias is known as the:

A. Halo effect

B. Knowledge-of-predictor effect

C. Cultural noise effect

D. Stereotyping effect

21. According to the WARN Act, an employer with 200 employees is required to provide 60 days notice of a mass layoff when:

A. The employer is seeking additional funding and will lay off 70 employees if the funding falls through.

B. A major client unexpectedly selects a new vendor for the companys products and the company lays off 75 employees.

C. The employer lays off 5 employees a week for 3 months.

D. A flood requires that one of the plants be shut down for repairs and 55 employee are laid off.

22. The Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act (VEVRA) requires that

A. All contractors list all job openings with state employment agencies.

B. All employers list all job openings with state employment agencies.

C. State employment agencies give preference to Vietnam veterans for senior-level management position referrals.

D. State employment agencies give preference to Vietnam veterans for positions lasting 3 days or longer.

23. A high involvement organization is an example of what type of OD intervention?

A. human process

B. human resource management

C. techno-structural

D. strategic

24. The ______________________ seating arrangement is best for case discussions where everyone can observe each other and a trainer.

A. theater style

B. U-shaped style

C. classroom style

D. banquet style

25. According to the Copyright Act of 1976, which of the following is most likely to be considered a fair use of copyrighted material?

A. Distributing 30 copies of a chapter in a book to a study group

B. Copying a book for 10 staff members of a non-profit organization

C. Distributing 30 copies of a paragraph in a book to a study group

D. None of the above

26. A process for reducing the impact of bias during performance reviews by using multiple raters is known as:

A. Inter-rater reliability

B. An MBO review

C. A rating scale

D. Paired comparison

27. To increase the chances for successful repatriation of employees, the process should include:

A. Development of a qualified pool of candidates for global assignments

B. A formal repatriation program that includes career counseling

C. Setting expectations for repatriation before employees begin global assignments

D. All of the above

28. Total quality management focuses all employees on producing products that meet customer needs. This is done by:

A. Eliminating processes that waste time and materials

B. Developing a high level of expertise in all employees

C. Sharing information with all levels in the organization

D. Balancing the needs of all stakeholders in the organization

29. Which of the following is an example of a strategic OD intervention?

A. Leadership development

B. Total quality management

C. A learning organization

D. Teambuilding activities

30. The most effective method of performance evaluation is

A. A field review process

B. A continuous feedback process

C. A forced ranking process

D. A behaviorally anchored rating scale process

31. An employee earning $12,500 per year supervises three employees and spends 35 hours per week on essential job duties that require discretion and independent judgment. Is this employee:

A. Exempt, based on the short executive exemption test.

B. Exempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.

C. Nonexempt, based on the short executive exemption test.

D. Nonexempt, based on the short administrative exemption test.

32. As of September 1, 1997, the federal minimum wage is set at:

A. $5.15 per hour

B. $7.16 per hour

C. $5.75 per hour

D. $6.75 per hour

33. The FLSA requires employers to pay nonexempt employees for time spent:

A. At home while waiting to be called to work

B. At work reading a book while waiting for an assignment

C. Attending a voluntary training program

D. Commuting to work

34. Which of the following would be considered an extrinsic reward?

A. Challenging work on a new project

B. A 10 percent salary increase

C. A feeling of accomplishment after completing a tough assignment

D. Recognition by the CEO at a company meeting

35. An example of a nonqualified deferred compensation plan is

A. An excess deferral plan

B. A target benefit plan

C. A money purchase plan

D. A cash balance plan

36. The Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001

A. Requires pension plans to account for employee contributions separately from employer contributions.

B. Allows employers to contribute a percentage of company earnings to retirement plans each year.

C. Allows employees over 50 years old to make catch up contributions to retirement accounts.

D. Requires employer pension contributions to be funded on a quarterly basis.

37. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

A. Prevents HR from investigating claims issues

B. Requires continuation of health benefits

C. Established EPO networks

D. Limited preexisting condition restrictions

38. A target benefit plan

A. Uses actuarial formulas to calculate individual pension contribution amounts.

B. Requires an actual deferral percentage test to be performed each year.

C. Provides a means for employees to become owners of the company.

D. Uses a fixed percentage of employee earnings to defer compensation.

39. Thanks for such a great presentation! Youll always have a job with us. This is an example of

A. The duty of good faith and fair dealing.

B. An express contract.

C. An implied contract.

D. Fraudulent misrepresentation.

40. A lockout occurs when

A. The employees shut down operations by refusing to work.

B. The employer refuses to allow the union to unionize the workplace.

C. The employer shuts down operations to keep employees from working.

D. The employees patrol the entrance to the business.

41. Which one of the following statements is true of a hostile work environment?

A. When a single incident of unwanted touching occurs a hostile work environment has been created.

B. A hostile work environment may be created when an individual witnesses the ongoing harassment of a coworker.

C. A hostile work environment can only be created by a supervisor.

D. A grievance procedure and policy against discrimination protect employers from hostile work environment claims.

42. An effective progressive disciplinary process begins with

A. A written warning.

B. A verbal warning.

C. A suspension.

D. Coaching or counseling.

43. During the union organizing process, the bargaining unit is determined

A. By the union organizers.

B. Jointly, by the union and the employer.

C. By the National Labor Relations Board.

D. By the employees during the election.

44. The Excelsior list is

A. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the employer to the union within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.

B. A list of the employees who do not want the union to represent them.

C. A list of the employees who have signed authorization cards for the union.

D. A list of all employees in the bargaining unit provided by the union to the employer within 7 days of the scheduling of an election by the NLRB.

45. When an employer wants to obtain insight into employee goals and job satisfaction and provide career counseling to those in the work group, the most effective method to utilize would be

A. An employee survey.

B. A skip-level interview.

C. An employee focus group.

D. A brown-bag lunch.

46. Health and wellness programs are beneficial for employers because they:

A. Increase productivity, reduce medical costs, and attract top-quality job candidates

B. Provide nutrition counseling, exercise programs, and health education programs

C. Require employees to lose weight, stop smoking, and avoid substance abuse

D. Provide on-site opportunities for physical fitness

47. Which of the following statements is not true about substance abuse policies?

A. Substance abuse policies identify who will be tested.

B. Federal law requires all employers to implement substance abuse policies.

C. An effective policy describes when tests will occur and what drugs will be tested.

D. An effective policy describes what happens to employees who test positive.

48. According to the OSHA inspection priorities, which type of workplace hazard receives first priority for an inspection?

A. Catastrophes and Fatal Accidents

B. Programmed High-Hazard Inspections

C. Imminent Danger

D. Employee Complaints

49. When workplace conditions pose a threat to an unborn child, the company must:

A. Do nothing. It is up to employees to protect their unborn children.

B. Move the employee into a different job that does not pose a threat to the unborn child.

C. Advise the employee of the potential threat and allow the employee to make the decision.

D. Allow only sterile employees to work in jobs that pose a threat to unborn children.

50. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 grants employees the right to do all of the following except:

A. Be advised of potential safety hazards.

B. Speak privately to an OSHA inspector during an inspection.

C. Observe the employer when measuring and monitoring workplace hazards.

D. View detailed reports of all workplace accidents.

51. Which of the following activities does not contribute to ergonomic injuries?

A. Awkward postures

B. Extended vibrations

C. Falling down stairs

D. Contact stress

52. The OSHA consulting service

A. Helps employers identify the OSHA standards that apply to their workplace.

B. Fines employers for violating OSHA safety standards.

C. Does not require compliance with OSHA standards.

D. Is a one-time service.

Answers

1.D. In this case, the organization will be best served by a third-party investigator. The most important consideration in an investigation of sexual harassment is that the investigator is seen as credible and impartial. See Chapter 2 for more information.

2.A. Vroom explains his theory with three terms: expectancy, the individuals assessment of their ability to achieve the goal; instrumentality, whether or not the individual believes they are capable of achieving the goal; and valence, whether or not the anticipated goal is worth the effort required to achieve it. See Chapter 2 for more information.

3.C. Distance learning is similar to a lecture in that a presenter provides information to a group of participants but does not require active participation. See Chapter 2 for more information.

4.B. The purpose of a diversity initiative is to increase the effectiveness of an already diverse workforce by educating the employee population about the benefits of a diverse workforce, which include increased creativity and an enhanced ability to attract customers. See Chapter 2 for more information.

5.C. The concept of human relations was first introduced in the 1920s and challenged previous assumptions that people work only for economic reasons and could be motivated to increase productivity simply by increasing monetary incentives. See Chapter 2 for more information.

6.D. A needs analysis will provide answers to these questions as well as whether or not the HRIS will be integrated with payroll or other systems and what kinds of reports will be produced. See Chapter 2 for more information.

7.A. The correlation coefficient is useful in determining whether or not two factors are connected. For example, the correlation coefficient will tell you whether an increase in resignations is related to a change in location of the worksite, and if so, whether the change had a strong impact on resignations. See Chapter 2 for more information.

8.B. Risk management identifies areas of possible legal exposure for the organization and reduces those risks with preventive actions. A risk assessment is used to determine how likely it is that an emergency will occur. See Chapter 2 for more information.

9.D. Workplace privacy, conflicts of interest, and whistle-blowing are all examples of workplace ethics issues. Ethics are considered a standard of conduct and moral judgment defined by the processes that occur and the consequences of these processes. See Chapter 3 for more information.

10.A. To be effective, most experts agree that it is best to first do your homework, that is, learn how the legislative and political process works. In this way, you can participate effectively in the process. See Chapter 3 for more information.

11.D. An HR audit is an organized process designed to identify key aspects of HR in the organization such as employee morale, HR policies, programs, and procedures, and HR effectiveness. See Chapter 3 for more information.

12.C. There are three types of statistical HR measurements: employee measures, such as turnover/retention and job satisfaction; productivity measures, such as revenue per employee and OSHA incident rates; and HR activities measures, such as cost per hire and ratio of total employees to HR staff. See Chapter 3 for more information.

13.B. A statement of cash flows provides information about the money that flowed through the business. It identifies whether the cash was received from customers, loans, or other sources, how much cash was spent to operate the business, and how much was reinvested in the business. See Chapter 3 for more information.

14.D. Marketing is responsible for determining what new products will be produced based on market research designed to find out what products customers are willing to purchase. See Chapter 3 for more information.

15.C. A PEST analysis is used to scan the political, economic, social, and technological conditions in the external environment to determine what impact those conditions will have on the success of the organization. See Chapter 3 for more information.

16.C. The Delphi technique is a qualitative tool for building consensus using a consecutive round of questions that are collated and distributed for review in subsequent rounds. Participants in the process never meet, so this is an advantageous method to use when participants are geographically separated. See Chapter 4 for more information.

17.B. An on-call worker is the best solution for situation in which the employer needs the same job to be done on a sKelly_82074s. This allows the employer to rely on the same person to do the job, reducing training requirements. An intern program would not be appropriate because it is a short-term training solution. Seasonal workers are generally only required at specific times of the year. Temp workers provided by agencies may not be available when needed because they may be on other assignments. See Chapter 4 for more information.

18.B. Disparate impact occurs when an employment practice that seems to be fair unintentionally discriminates against members of a protected class. See Chapter 4 for more information.

19.D. A simple linear regression measures one variable against another. See Chapter 4 for more information.

20.B. The knowledge-of-predictor effect occurs when an interviewer is aware that a candidate has scored particularly high or low on an assessment test and allows this to affect the hiring decision. The halo effect occurs when the interviewer allows a single positive characteristic of the candidate to overshadow other considerations. Cultural noise occurs when a candidate gives answers they think the interviewer wants to hear. Stereotyping occurs when the interviewer makes assumptions about a candidate based on generalizations about the group the candidate belongs to (for example, women). See Chapter 4 for more information.

21.C. The WARN Act requires employers to provide 60 days notice when 500 employees or 33 percent of the workforce are laid off, and it requires the number be counted over a period of 90 days. Five employees a week for 3 months is a total of 65 employees (5 employees times 13 weeks) which is 33 percent of the workforce. The three exceptions are the faltering company exception, when knowledge of a layoff will negatively impact the companys ability to obtain additional funding, the unforeseeable business circumstance, when unexpected circumstances occur, and the natural disaster exception. See Chapter 4 for more information.

22.D. VEVRA applies to government contractors and requires that all job openings be listed with state employment agencies except those that will be filled from within, are for senior-level management positions, or will last less than 3 days. See Chapter 4 for more information.

23.C. Techno-structural interventions address issues of how work gets done in an organization. A high involvement organization is one in which employees at all levels are involved in making decisions about how work is accomplished. For more information, see Chapter 5.

24.B. Theater style is best for lectures, films, and so on, while classroom style is best for listening to presentations. Banquet style is best for small group discussions, and U-shaped style is best for case discussions where everyone can observe each other and a trainer. For more information, see Chapter 5.

25.C. Four factors are considered in determining whether or not use of published material is a fair use: the purpose of the use, the nature of the work being copied, how much of the work is copied, and what economic effect copying the material will have on the market value of the work. For more information, see Chapter 5.

26.A. Inter-rater reliability seeks to reduce bias by having multiple reviewers rate an individuals performance and averaging the ratings. For more information, see Chapter 5.

27.D. Organizations that are able to successfully repatriate employees after global assignments do so by carefully selecting candidates for global assignments, setting appropriate expectations before the assignment begins, and establishing a formal program to assist employees in reintegrating into the home office after a global assignment. See Chapter 5 for more information.

28.A. The TQM concept reviews processes to eliminate waste, relies on teamwork, and involves all members of the organization in meeting customer needs. See Chapter 5 for more information.

29.C. Learning organizations and knowledge management are examples of strategic OD interventions; TQM is an example of a techno-structural intervention; leadership development and teambuilding activities are examples of human process interventions. See Chapter 5 for more information.

30.B. A continuous feedback review process is most effective because it provides immediate feedback to employees, enabling them to correct performance issues before they become major problems. See Chapter 5 for more information.

31.C. To be exempt based on a short exemption test, an employee must earn at least $13,000 per year ($250 per week x 52 weeks = $13,000). See Chapter 6 for more information.

32.A. The federal minimum wage was raised to $5.15 per hour on September 1, 1997. See Chapter 6 for more information.

33.B. A nonexempt employee who is waiting for an assignment while at work must be paid for the time spent waiting. See Chapter 6 for more information.

34.D. Extrinsic rewards are nonmonetary rewards from which self-esteem comes from others, such as formal recognition for a job well done. See Chapter 6 for more information.

35.A. An excess deferral plan makes up the difference between what an executive could have contributed to a qualified plan if there had not been a limit on contributions and how much was actually contributed because of the discrimination test required by ERISA. These plans are nonqualified because they are not protected by ERISA; they are limited to a small group of executives or highly compensated employees. See Chapter 6 for more information.

36.C. EGTRRA made changes to pension contribution limits and allows employees over 50 to make catch-up pension contributions. See Chapter 6 for more information.

37.D. HIPAA prohibits health insurance providers from discriminating on the basis of health status and limited restrictions for preexisting conditions. See Chapter 6 for more information.

38.A. A target benefit plan is a hybrid plan that has similarities to defined benefit pension plans and money purchase plans. These plans use actuarial formulas to calculate individual pension contribution amounts. See Chapter 6 for more information.

39.B. An express contract can be oral or written and states what the parties to the contract agree to do. The duty of good faith and fair dealing is a common law doctrine that parties to an oral or written contract have an obligation to act in a fair and honest manner to facilitate achievement of the contract goals. An implied contract can be created by conduct and doesnt have to be stated explicitly. Fraudulent misrepresentation occurs when an employer makes false statements to entice a candidate to join the company. See Chapter 7 for more information.

40.C. A lockout is an action taken by the employer to stop employees from working. A strike occurs when employees refuse to work. An employer that refuses to allow the union to conduct an organizing campaign is committing an unfair labor practice. Picketing occurs when employees patrol the entrance to the business. See Chapter 7 for more information.

41.B. A coworker who witnesses the ongoing harassment of another individual may have an actionable claim of a hostile work environment. A single incident of unwanted touching, unless it is particularly offensive or intimidating, will not reach the threshold of a hostile work environment established by the courts. A hostile work environment may be created by any individuals in the workplace, including customers, vendors, or visitors, in addition to supervisors or coworkers. In the case of Meritor Savings Bank v Vinson, the Supreme Court held that the mere existence of a grievance procedure and anti-harassment policy does not necessarily protect an employer from hostile work environment claims. See Chapter 7 for more information.

42.D. An effective progressive discipline process begins with coaching or counseling, acknowledging good performance, and providing guidance on performance that needs to be changed. Providing ongoing feedback, both positive and negative, reduces the stress level for both employees and supervisors when serious performance issues arise and must be addressed. See Chapter 7 for more information.

43.C. The National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) determines which jobs will be included in the bargaining unit based on the community of interest shared by the requirements of the jobs. See Chapter 7 for more information.

44.A. Once an election has been scheduled, the employer must provide a list, known as an Excelsior list, containing the names and address of all employees in the bargaining unit determined by the NLRB. See Chapter 7 for more information.

45.B. A skip-level interview provides an opportunity for a managers manager to obtain insight into the goals and satisfaction of employees in the work group. An employee survey is best used to gather information on various issues that can be collated and summarized. A focus group can be utilized to involve employees in the decision making process. A brown bag lunch is an effective way for senior managers to meet with small groups of employees to answer questions about the company goals and mission and to obtain feedback about operations. See Chapter 7 for more information.

46.A. Employers look for benefit programs that add value to the bottom line. Health and wellness programs do this by increasing productivity and reducing costs. These programs are attractive to job candidates and enhance recruiting efforts. For more information, see Chapter 8.

47.B. The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 requires only federal contractors and subcontractors to establish substance abuse policies. A fair and effective policy will describe which employees will be tested, whether it is all or specific job groups. The policy should describe when tests will be done (pre-employment, randomly, upon reasonable suspicion, or according to a predetermined schedule), what drugs are included in the process, and the consequences for employees who test positive. For more information, see Chapter 8.

48.C. First priority for OSHA inspections are those that will prevent injury or illness. An Imminent Danger hazard is one that has a reasonable certainty of death or serious injury occurring before normal enforcement procedures can occur. For more information, see Chapter 8.

49.C. The Supreme Court determined in Automobile Workers v Johnson Controls, Inc. that it is the responsibility of prospective parents to protect their unborn children. While employers must provide information about potential hazards, the employer may not decide for the employee whether or not to work in a job that poses a risk to an unborn child. For more information, see Chapter 8.

50.D. Employees have the right to review accident reports without information that identifies the employees involved in the accident. For more information, see Chapter 8.

51.C. Ergonomic injuries are caused by repeated stress to a part of the body. A fall down the stairs is a single occurrence and therefore not an ergonomic injury. For more information, see Chapter 8.

52.A. OSHA consultants provide free services to assist employers in identifying workplace hazards and the standards that apply in their workplaces. The consulting service requires employers to abate any hazards that are identified during the consultation, but does not fine them for violations. To receive a free consultation, employers must agree to advise OSHA of changes in operating processes that may require additional consultations. For more information, see Chapter 8.