SOLUTIONS FOR SBI PO PRELIMS LIVE LEAK QUESTION …

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1 | Page SOLUTIONS FOR SBI PO PRELIMS LIVE LEAK QUESTION PAPER 2018 Q 1. The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., ‘CD’. Part C has an error because it uses the wrong form of the verb ‘kill’ i.e. ‘killed’ with the auxiliary ‘could’. Here, the auxiliary ‘could’ is used for two verbs: ‘act’ and ‘kill’. When two verbs have the same auxiliary, they should be used in forms that are suitable to that auxiliary. ‘Could’ is always followed by the base form of the verb. Here, it is followed by ‘killed’ instead of ‘kill’. Part D has an error because it uses incorrect word order. The words ‘with a gun’ should appear at the beginning and not the end of Part D. In their current position, they give the sense that the man bade his wife goodbye with a gun while what actually meant is that he killed himself with a gun. Therefore, the correct sentence will be ‘While everyone certainly knew that he was in extreme distress, who could have predicted that he could act so impulsively and kill himself with a gun after bidding his wife goodbye’. Q 2. After we had discussed about my problem, (A) she gave me an The correct answer is Option 3, i.e., ‘AB’. Part A has an error because it uses a preposition (‘about’) right after a transitive verb (‘discuss’). Transitive verbs like discuss, mention, etc., are not followed by prepositions. Part B has an error because you never give someone ‘an advice’. The noun ‘advice’ is uncountable, and cannot take the indefinite article ‘an’, which is used before singular countable nouns. The correct expression is ‘some advice’ or ‘a piece of advice’. Therefore, the correct sentence will be ‘After we had discussed my problem, she gave me a piece of advice which I acted upon and it bore immediate results’.

Transcript of SOLUTIONS FOR SBI PO PRELIMS LIVE LEAK QUESTION …

SOLUTIONS FOR SBI PO PRELIMS LIVE
LEAK QUESTION PAPER 2018
The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., ‘CD’.
Part C has an error because it uses the wrong form of the verb ‘kill’ i.e. ‘killed’ with the auxiliary ‘could’.
Here, the auxiliary ‘could’ is used for two verbs: ‘act’ and ‘kill’. When two verbs have the same auxiliary, they should be used in forms that are suitable to that auxiliary. ‘Could’ is always followed by the base form of the verb. Here, it is followed by ‘killed’ instead of ‘kill’.
Part D has an error because it uses incorrect word order. The words ‘with a gun’ should appear at the beginning and not the end of Part D. In their current position, they give the sense that the man bade his wife goodbye with a gun while what actually meant is that he killed himself with a gun.
Therefore, the correct sentence will be ‘While everyone certainly knew that he was in extreme distress, who could have predicted that he could act so impulsively and kill himself with a gun after bidding his wife goodbye’.
Q 2.
After we had discussed about my problem, (A) she gave me an
The correct answer is Option 3, i.e., ‘AB’.
Part A has an error because it uses a preposition (‘about’) right after a transitive verb (‘discuss’). Transitive verbs like discuss, mention, etc., are not followed by prepositions.
Part B has an error because you never give someone ‘an advice’.
The noun ‘advice’ is uncountable, and cannot take the indefinite article ‘an’, which is used before singular countable nouns. The correct expression is ‘some advice’ or ‘a piece of advice’.
Therefore, the correct sentence will be ‘After we had discussed my problem, she gave me a piece of advice which I acted upon and it bore immediate results’.
Q 3.
Neither the parents nor the child (A) is here to collect the report-card, (B) and I’m
The correct answer is Option 1, i.e., ‘AB’.
When one of the subjects joined by ‘nor’ is plural, the verb must be plural, and the plural subject should be placed nearest to the verb.
Here, parts A and B have errors.
One of the subjects joined by ‘nor’ is plural (‘the parents’), but the verb is singular (‘is’) and also, the singular subject (‘the child’) is placed nearest the verb.
Therefore, parts A and B violate the rule stated above.
The correct sentence will be ‘Neither the child nor the parents are here to collect the report-card, and I’m afraid we’ll have to ring them up and call them to school as soon as possible’.
Q 4.
The correct answer is Option 4, i.e., ‘BD’.
In part B, ‘protuberance’ meaning 'a thing that protrudes from something else' has been misspelt as ‘protuberence’.
Similarly, in part C, ‘abscess’ meaning 'a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus' has been misspelt as ‘abcess’.
Therefore, the correct sentence will be ‘Initially, he didn’t pay heed to what the doctor dismissed as a mere protuberance on his stomach, and soon it festered into a full-grown abscess’.
Q 5.
The correct answer is option 3, i.e., ‘AB’.
Part A has an error because the verb ‘suggest’ must always be followed by a ‘that- clause’.
It can never be used with the ‘to-infinitive’.
In other words, you always ‘suggest that someone should do something’ or ‘suggest something to somebody’, but you never ‘suggest somebody something’.
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Part B has an error because it uses a plural verb (‘spread’) with the noun ‘news’, which is used in the singular form.
Singular nouns take singular verbs, and ‘spread’ should be replaced by ‘spreads’.
The correct sentence will be ‘I suggest that you go and speak to him at once because once news about this spreads, the entire office will be rife with gossip and that will be very difficult to deal with’.
Q 6.
Part B-
‘With the use of panache and grace’ should be replaced by ‘with panache and grace’.
‘Panache’ and ‘grace’ are not mechanical instruments using which Sunanda dances.
When we describe the use of something as an implement/ instrument, the right phrase is ‘with the use of’. However, here they are abstract qualities that describe ‘how’ Sunanda dances, and only the preposition ‘with’ is enough.
Part D-
When the same noun is qualified by two possessive nouns both must have the possessive sign. In case joint possession is indicated, the possessive sign is added to only the latter noun.
In Part D, the same noun (‘Sunanda’) is qualified by two possessive nouns (‘Raj’ and ‘Maya’). However, Sunanda is the daughter of both Raj and Maya, and not Raj and Maya separately. In other words, in the given sentence, joint possession is indicated.
This, in turn, means that only the latter noun, and not both, will have the possessive sign (Raj and Maya’s instead of Raj’s and Maya’s).
Therefore, the correct sentence will be ‘When it comes to dancing on stage with panache and grace, Sunanda has taken after her parents- she is Raj and Maya’s daughter after all’.
Q 7.
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In Part A, the auxiliary ‘did’ is followed by the verb ‘know’ in the simple past tense (‘knew’), and not the infinitive. The auxiliary ‘did’ is always followed by the infinitive or the base form of the verb. Therefore, ‘knew’ should be replaced by ‘know’ in part A.
In Part C, ‘occurred’ has been misspelt as ‘occured’.
The correct sentence will be ‘Little did the king know that the incident would soon erupt into a massive uprising that would mark the end of his rule, for it never occurred to him that the people could ever rise up against him’.
Q 8.
The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., ‘BD’.
The verb ‘stink’ in simple past tense is ‘stank’ and not ‘stinked’. Therefore, ‘stinked’ in Part B should be replaced by ‘stank’.
The past participle of the verb ‘shave’ is ‘shaven’ and not ‘shaved’. Moreover, ‘unkempt’ has been misspelt as ‘unkept’. Therefore, ‘shaved’ and ‘unkept’ in Part D should be replaced by ‘shaven’ and ‘unkempt’ respectively.
'Unkempt' means '(especially of a person) having an untidy or dishevelled appearance'.
The correct sentence will be ‘I spilled sauce all over my shirt, which then stank of garlic the whole day, a wasp stung me while I was driving, and I realized that my hair was unkempt and I had not shaven’.
Q 9.
In Part A-
The word ‘influxation’ does not exist and therefore should be replaced by the correct word ‘influx’ meaning 'an arrival or entry of a large number of people or things'.
In Part B-
Grammatically, any comparison can only be made between two objects of the same type/nature/category.
However, in part D, a comparison is made between two things that cannot be compared: 1) the population of Delhi and 2) other cities or 1) a number and 2) cities (and not between a number and another number). Therefore, a comparison is made between two things that belong to different categories.
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The comparison should be made between 1) the population of Delhi and 2) ‘the population’ of any other city in India (a number and a number) i.e. two things of the same type.
So, the correct sentence will be ‘With the rapid influx of migrants from other states and an already burgeoning population, the day isn’t far when the population of Delhi will be greater than that of any other city in India’.
Q 10.
Part B-
A collective noun (such as ‘jury’) takes a singular verb when thought of as one unified whole. However, it takes a plural verb when it is thought of not as one united whole, but in terms of the different individuals, it consists of.
The given sentence tells us that the ‘jury was divided’, or, it no longer remained one single whole. The jury here is thought of in terms of its different members who disagreed with each other over the judgement.
Therefore, the verb to be used for the collective noun ‘the jury’ should be plural and not singular (‘were’ instead of ‘was’).
Part D-
The noun ‘proceeds’ has been incorrectly used in place of ‘proceedings’.
‘Proceeds’ refers to ‘the money that you receive when you sell something’, whereas ‘proceedings’ refers to ‘the process of using a court to settle a disagreement’.
The correct sentence will be ‘The trial was so contentious that the jury were divided till the very end, and it lasted months, and its proceedings hogged all the headlines’.
Comprehension 11 – 20
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This can be concluded from the following lines: ‘A NASA rover has detected a bonanza of organic compounds on the surface of Mars … that mark some of the strongest evidence ever that Earth’s neighbor may have harboured life. But National Aeronautics and Space Administration scientists emphasized there could be non-biological explanations …’.
While the passage tells us that traces of organic compounds have been discovered on the surface of Mars, it also tells us that this ‘hints at’ the existence of life, and there could well be non-biological reasons for the existence of those compounds.
In light of this, it is only Option 3 that is true.
All other options jump to conclusions that are false.
Q 12.
The correct answer is Option 2.
This can be inferred from the following line: ‘About 95% of the methane in Earth’s atmosphere is produced from biological activity, though the scientists said it is too soon to know if the Martian methane also is related to life’.
In light of this, Option 2 is false.
Q 13.
The correct answer is Option 3.
This can be inferred from the following line: ‘The scientists hope to find better preserved organic compounds with Curiosity or other rovers that would allow them to check for chemical signatures of life’.
Q 14.
The correct answer is Option 2.
We are told this by the following lines: ‘"There are three possible sources for the organic material,” said astrobiologist Jennifer Eigenbrode ... “The first one would be life, which we don’t know about. The second would be meteorites. And the last one is geological processes, meaning the rock-forming processes themselves”’.
Q 15.
The correct answer is Option 3.
We are told this by the following line: ‘After drilling, Curiosity heats the rock samples, releasing the compounds’.
Q 16.
The correct answer is Option 4.
We can infer this from the following lines: ‘“What the organic detections in the rock do is to add to the story of habitability. It tells us that this ancient environment on Mars could have supported life,” Eigenbrode said. “Everything that was needed to support life was there. But it doesn’t tell us that life was there.”’.
All other options are statements which Dr. Eigenbrode didn’t make.
Q 17.
The correct answer is Option 1, i.e., ‘Nurtured’.
‘To harbour’ someone/ something is ‘to hide and protect someone/ to contain something and allow it to develop’.
It is ‘nurture’ which comes the closest in meaning to ‘harboured’.
All the other options have vastly different meanings and they are:
Loaded: carrying or bearing a load, especially a large one
Deserted: (of a place) empty of people
Exploited: make full use of and derive benefit from (a resource)
Oppressed: keep (someone) in subjection and hardship, especially by the unjust exercise of authority
Q 18.
The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., ‘Confirmation’.
A ‘confirmation’ is ‘a statement, letter, etc. that shows that something is true, correct or definite’.
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‘Confirmation’ comes quite close to what ‘evidence’ means, and is the right answer.
All the other options have vastly different meanings and they are:
Refutation: the action of proving a statement or theory to be wrong or false
Dismissal: the act of ordering or allowing someone to leave
Renunciation: the formal rejection of something, typically a belief, claim, or course of action
Denunciation: public condemnation of someone or something
Q 19.
‘Desolate’ means ‘devoid of inhabitants and visitors’, whereas ‘populated’ means ‘occupied and inhabited’.
Therefore, out of the given options, it is ‘populated’ which is the opposite in meaning of ‘desolate’.
All the other words- ‘derelict’, ‘solitary’, ‘uninhabited’, and ‘forlorn’- are synonyms of ‘desolate’.
Q 20.
The correct answer is Option 3, i.e., ‘Neglected’.
‘Preserve’ means ‘maintain something in its original state’, whereas ‘neglect’ means ‘fail to care for properly’.
Therefore, out of the given options, it is ‘neglected’ which is the opposite in meaning of ‘conserved’.
All the other words- ‘protected’, ‘safeguarded’, ‘conserved’, and ‘maintained’- are synonyms of ‘preserved’.
Q 21.
The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., ‘lay, laid’.
The given sentence needs improvement because it uses the right verbs ‘lie’ and ‘lay’ but in the wrong tenses.
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The first verb has to be the right form of the verb ‘lie’, which means ‘to put yourself in a flat or horizontal position’. Similarly, the second verb has to be the right form of the verb ‘lay’, which is used for animals when they produce eggs.
The given sentence uses the infinitive for both the verbs, but we must use the simple past (because of ‘yesterday’) tense in order to correct the sentence as justified by the usage of the word 'yesterday'.
The verbs ‘lie’ and ‘lay’ become ‘lay’ and ‘laid’ in the simple past tense.
Therefore, the correct sentence will be ‘Yesterday, the cat lay on the eggs laid by the hen’.
Q 22.
The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., ‘Implying, inferred’.
The given sentence needs improvement because it uses the verbs ‘imply’ and ‘infer’ in the wrong tenses.
The first verb has to be the right form of the verb ‘imply’, which means ‘to suggest that you feel or think something’.
Similarly, the second verb has to be the right form of the verb ‘infer’, which means ‘to reach an opinion on the basis of available information’.
The given sentence uses the infinitive for both the verbs, which is incorrect.
‘Is’ is always followed by the present participle of a verb. So, ‘is imply’ has to be replaced by ‘is implying’. ‘Have’ is always followed by the past participle of a verb. So, ‘have infer’ has to be replaced by ‘have inferred’.
Therefore, the correct sentence will be ‘The question asks us to write what we think the author is implying, but I will write what I have inferred from my reading’.
All the other options are wrong because they use the wrong set of verbs.
Q 23.
The correct answer is Option 5, i.e., ‘No improvement’.
The given sentence is correct as the verbs ‘appraise’ and ‘apprise’ fit the intended sense.
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‘To appraise something’ is ‘to consider or examine something and form an opinion about it’.
‘To apprise somebody of something’ is ‘to inform or tell somebody of something’.
Both these verbs have been used correctly and there is no need for improvement.
Q 24.
The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., ‘prescribe, proscribed’.
The given sentence needs improvement because it uses the verbs ‘recommend’ and ‘ban’ in the wrong tenses.
The past tense of the verb ‘recommend’ (‘recommended’) is used after ‘will’, which is incorrect as ‘will’ is always followed by the infinitive.
Similarly, the verb ‘ban’ is intended as an adjective, but the sentence uses it in the simple present tense, instead of its past participle (‘banned’).
Therefore, the correct answer will be ‘I am no specialist but even I can tell you that no doctor will recommend medicines banned by the government for their side-effects’.
However, we have to replace the errors with the words given in the four options.
Out of the words given in the options, only ‘prescribe’ and ‘suggest’ have meanings similar to that of ‘recommend’ (‘to prescribe’ is ‘to tell somebody to take a particular medicine’).
Similarly, only ‘proscribed’ and ‘forbidden’ are close to ‘banned’ in meaning (‘to proscribe’ is ‘to say officially that something is banned‘).
This rules out Options 1, 3, and 4, as one of the two words they provide, does not fit the sense.
Therefore, Option 2 is correct, as both words provided can replace the emboldened words while retaining the intended meaning.
The correct sentence then is ‘I am no specialist but even I can tell you that no doctor will prescribe medicines proscribed by the government for their side-effects’.
Q 25.
The given sentence needs improvement because it uses nouns i.e. eminence and imminence instead of adjectives while describing the nouns ‘scientist’ and ‘calamities’ respectively.
The correct sentence should have been ‘The eminent scientist has forecasted imminent calamities’.
However, we have to replace the errors with the words given in the four options.
The first adjective should be ‘eminent’, which means ‘someone who is famous and respected’, or a word with a similar meaning.
The second adjective should be ‘imminent’ which means ‘likely to happen very soon’, or a word with a similar meaning.
Out of the words given in the options, only ‘distinguished’ and ‘preeminent’ have meanings similar to that of ‘eminent’ (‘distinguished’ means ‘successful and admired by other people’ and ‘preeminent’ means ‘more important and successful than others’).
Similarly, only ‘impending’ and ‘inevitable’ are close to ‘imminent’ in meaning (‘impending’ means ‘likely to happen’ and ‘inevitable’ means ‘bound to happen’).
This rules out Options 1, 2, and 3, as one of the two words they provide, does not fit the sense.
Therefore, Option 4 is correct, as both words provided can replace the emboldened words while retaining the intended meaning.
The correct sentence then is ‘The preeminent scientist has forecasted inevitable calamities’.
Q 26.
The correct answer is Option 1.
The given sentence needs improvement because it uses the wrong adjectives: it uses ‘ingenious’ in place of ‘ingenuous’ and vice-versa.
The correct sentence should have been ‘While everyone always took her for an ingenuous fool, it was her ingenious idea that came to everyone’s rescue in the crisis’.
However, we have to replace the errors with the words given in the three options.
The first adjective should be ‘ingenuous’, which means ‘someone who is naive and willing to trust people easily’, or a word with a similar meaning.
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The second adjective should be ‘ingenious’, which means ‘very suitable’ clever’, or a word with a similar meaning.
‘Artless’ also means ‘naive, or someone who isn’t clever’, and carries a meaning quite similar to that of ‘ingenuous’.
‘Resourceful’ means ‘good at solving problems’, and comes quite close to ‘ingenious’ in meaning.
Therefore, Option ! is correct.
The correct sentence will be ‘While everyone always took her for an artless fool, it was her resourceful idea that came to everyone’s rescue in the crisis’.
Option 2 is incorrect because it uses the word ‘ingenuous’ in the same wrong position as the given sentence.
Options 3 and 4 use the words ‘ingenious’ and ‘ingenuous’ in the right positions as the given sentence, but the second word they offer as replacements- ‘involuntary’ and ‘incorrigible’- do not make sense when used. Options 3 and 4 are therefore wrong.
So, Option 1 is the correct answer.
Q 27.
The correct answer is Option 3, i.e., ‘eldest, older’.
The given sentence is incorrect as it uses the wrong adjective (‘big’ instead of ‘old’) to describe and compare ages.
‘Oldest’/ ‘eldest’ are valid adjectives used to describe someone’s age.
However, ‘elder’ is never used with ‘than’ following, unlike ‘older’.
This rules out all options as grammatically incorrect except Option 3.
Therefore, the correct sentence is ‘My eldest brother is older than me by 10 years’.
Q 28.
The correct answer is Option 3, i.e., ‘flak, policing’.
The given sentence needs improvement because it uses the wrong words: it uses the verb ‘censor’ in place of the noun ‘censure’ and vice-versa.
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The correct sentence should have been ‘The government has been at the receiving end of much censure for censoring the movie’.
However, we have to replace the errors with the words given in the three options.
The first word should be a noun similar in meaning to ‘censure’, which means ‘strong criticism’.
The second word should be a verb similar in meaning to ‘censor’, which means ‘to remove the parts of a book /movie, etc. because it is considered offensive, immoral, or a political threat’.
‘Flak’ is only used as a noun, and means ‘severe criticism’.
‘To police’ is ‘to monitor and regulate’.
Both of these words have meanings similar to those of ‘censure’ and ‘censoring’.
The correct sentence will be ‘The government has been at the receiving end of much flak for policing the movie’.
Q 29.
The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., ‘averted, dispersed’.
The given sentence needs improvement because it uses the wrong verbs: it uses ‘diffused’ in place of ‘defused’ and vice-versa.
The correct sentence should have been ‘The terror threat can be defused only after the crowd has been diffused’.
However, we have to replace the errors with the words given in the three options.
The first verb should be similar in meaning to ‘defused’, which means ‘to stop a possibly dangerous situation from developing, especially by making people less angry or nervous’.
The second verb should be similar in meaning to ‘diffused’, which means ‘to spread something widely in all directions’.
‘Averted’ also means ‘to prevent something bad or dangerous from happening’, and carries a meaning quite similar to that of ‘defuse’.
‘Dispersed’ means ‘to make somebody/ something move apart and go away in different directions’, and comes quite close to ‘diffused’ in meaning.
Therefore, Option 2 is correct.
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The correct sentence is ‘The terror threat can be averted only after the crowd has been dispersed’.
Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect as one of the two words they provide will be used in the same position as the given sentence, while the other does not fit the sense.
Q 30.
The correct answer is Option 3, i.e., ‘unlawful, provoked’.
The given sentence needs improvement because it uses the wrong words: it uses the verb ‘elicit’ in place of the adjective ‘illicit’ and vice-versa.
The correct sentence should have been ‘The illicit smuggling of liquor into the state has elicited a strong reaction from the authorities’.
However, we have to replace the errors with the words given in the four options.
The first word should be an adjective similar in meaning to ‘illicit’, which means ‘illegal’.
The second word should be a verb similar in meaning to ‘elicit’, which means ‘to provoke a reaction from someone’.
‘Unlawful’ and ‘provoked’ are close to ‘illicit’ and ‘elicited’ in their meanings.
Therefore, Option 3 is correct.
The correct sentence will be ‘The unlawful smuggling of liquor into the state has provoked a strong reaction from the authorities’.
Options 1 and 2 are incorrect as one of the two words they provide will be used in the same position as the given sentence.
Option 4 is incorrect because the word ‘elicitated’ doesn’t exist.
Q 31.
BODMAS , ,
- 1 '' ,
- 2 '' '' ,
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- 3 , ''; '' ,
- 4 '' ''
, :
35/100 × ? = 362 - 322 - 62
∴ ? = 210 × 100/35 = 600
Q 32.
:
? = 150 28% + √(63 × 7) + 82
BODMAS , ,
- 1 '' ,
- 2 '' '' ,
- 3 , ''; '' ,
- 4 '' ''
, :
? = 150 28% + √(63 × 7) + 82
? = 28 × 150/100 + √(9 × 7 × 7) + 82
? = 42 + 21 + 64
∴ ? = 127
Q 33.
:
√1444 + 25 × 28 – 25/100 × ? = 20/100 × 190
BODMAS , ,
- 1 '' ,
- 2 '' '' ,
- 3 , ''; '' ,
- 4 '' ''
, :
√1444 + 25 × 28 – 25/100 × ? = 20/100 × 190
38 + 700 - (1/4) × ? = 38
Q 34.
:
32 + 8 + 31 + x = 25/100 × 700
BODMAS , ,
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- 1 '' ,
- 2 '' '' ,
- 3 , ''; '' ,
- 4 '' ''
, :
32 + 8 + 31 + x = 25/100 × 700
71 + x = 25 × 7
x = 104
Q 35.
:
? ≈ 43 × 243 ÷ 27 – 41
BODMAS , ,
- 1 '' ,
- 2 '' '' ,
- 3 , ''; '' ,
- 4 '' ''
, :
? ≈ 43 × 243 ÷ 27 – 41
? = 43 × 9 - 41
Q 36.
:
? ≈ 1440/36 + 2/9 × 4050 – 125
BODMAS , ,
- 1 '' ,
- 2 '' '' ,
- 3 , ''; '' ,
- 4 '' ''
, :
? ≈ 1440/36 + 2/9 × 4050 – 125
⇒ ? × 0.25 = 6
⇒ 6 × 0.50 = 3
⇒ 3 × 1 = 3
⇒ 3 × 2 = 6
⇒ 6 × 4 = 24
⇒ 24 × 8 = 192
∴ ? = 6 × 0.25 = 24
⇒ 03 – 0 = 0
⇒ 13 – 1 = 0
⇒ 23 – 2 = 6
⇒ 33 – 3 = 24
⇒ 43 – 4 = 60
⇒ 53 – 5 = 120
⇒ 8 - 6 × 1 = 2
⇒ 2 + 6 × 2 = 14
⇒ 14 - 6 × 3 = -4
⇒ -4 + 6 × 4 = 20
⇒ 20 - 6 × 5 = ? = -10
∴ 5
⇒ (26 × 0.5) - 1 = 12
⇒ (12 × 1) - 2 = 10
⇒ (10 × 2) - 4 = 16
⇒ (16 × 4) - 8 = 56 = ?
Q 42.
:
⇒ 999 = 103 – 1
⇒ 727 = 93 – 2
⇒ 509 = 83 – 3
⇒ 339 = 73 – 4
⇒ 211 = 63 – 5 = ?
= x
= x ×
,
= y ×
, = z ×
, =
z × = x × + y ×
‘t’, ‘f’ ‘p’
zt = xp + yf
zt = x(t – f) + yf
zt = xt – xf + yf
t(z – x) = f(y – x)
= t (z – x)/(y – x)
= (f/t) × 100 = [t(z – x)/t(y – x)] × 100
∴ = 100(x – z)/(x – y)
Q 44.
23%
= x (100 – 23)% = x 77%
50% x 77% = 0.5 × 0.77 = 0.385
38.5%
= [100 – (23 + 38.5)] = 38.5%
x 38.5% = 231
⇒ 38.5/100 × x = 231
⇒ x = (231 × 100)/38.5
⇒ x = 600
∴ = 600
Q 45.
‘x’ ‘y’
∴ A = 3 ×

7
B = 3 ×

3
, = x – (x/3) - (x/3) = x/3
∴ C = 3 ×
∴ C = xy/3
, A : B : C = 21 :
9 :
, 3 : 7 : 21 = 3 : 7 : 21
‘m’
, A, B C 3m, 7m 21m
, 3m + 7m + 21m = 837
⇒ 31m = 837
⇒ m = 27
Q 46.
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= (7/100) × 36000 = 2520 .
20000 . = (8/100) × 20000 = 1600 .
10000 = (5/100) × 10000 = 500 .
, 6000 . = 2520 - (1600 + 500) = 2520 - 2100 = 420 .
∴ = (420/6000) × 100 = 7%
Q 47.
3x 11x
= 8x = 24
∴ x = 3
3 = 9 + 3 = 12
3 = 33 + 3 = 36
= 12/36 = 1 3
Q 48.
'm1' 'd1' 'h1' 'w1' 'm2' 'd2' 'h2' 'w2' ,
m1d1h1/w1 = m2d2h2/w2
m1 = 6, d1 = 7, h1 = 7, w1 = 12
m2 = 14, h2 = 9, w2 = 18
∴ d2 = 6 × 7 × 7 × 18/(14 × 9 × 12) = 3.5
Q 49.
1 = 3
1 4 = 4 × 1/6 = 2/3
= 1 - 1/2 = ½
4 = ½ ÷ 2/3 = ¾ = 45
∴ = 3 45
Q 50.
= 45 /
= 45×1000
3600 /
= 12.5 /

∴ = 250 + 750 = 1000
1000 = ( )/( )
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1000 = 1000 12.5
, 1000 = 80
∴ 80
Q 51.
= (680.4 - 645.3) = 35.1 .
3 = 35.1 × 3 = 105.3 .
, = +
⇒ 645.3 = + 105.3
Q 52.
, (2082 - 2), (1602 - 2) (578 - 2) ...
(2082 - 2), (1602 - 2) (578 - 2) ...= 2080, 1600 576 ... = 32
∴ 2082, 1602 578
2
Q 53.
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= 40
40 2 = = 40C2 = (40 × 39)/(2 × 1) = 780
= ( 12 2 ) + ( 9 2) + ( 10 2 ) + ( 9 2 )
⇒ 12C2 + 9C2 + 10C2 + 9C2
⇒ 66 + 36 + 45 + 36 = 183
= ( / ) = 183/780 = 61/260
∴ = 61/260
Comprehension (24 to 29):
= R + T = 2000
= P + Q + S = 2400
= V = 1400
= U = 1200
∴ = 2000 2400 1400 1200 = 10 12 7 6
Q 55.
28 | P a g e
2014 P, Q S = 2400
2014 R T = 2000
2014 = 4400
2016 = 1.25 × 4400 = 5500
∴ 2016 = 5500/2 = 2750
Q 56.
2015 P Q = (P + Q) × 120/100 = 1400 × 120/100 = 1680
V S = 1/7 × 1400 = 200
S = 200 + 1000 = 1200
∴ = 1680 + 1200 = 2880
Q 57.
2014 = (P + Q + R + S + T + U + V) = 600 + 800 + 1400 + 1000 + 600 + 1200 + 1400 = 7000
2013 = (7000/125) × 100 = 5600
2015 = 7000 × 110/100 = 7700
∴ = 5600 + 7700 = 13300
Q 58.
29 | P a g e
2015 40% 20%
, 2015 P R = P × 140/100 + R × 120/100 = 600 × 140/100 + 1400 × 120/100 = 840 + 1680 = 2520
Q = 800 × 140/100 = 1120
U = 1200 × 130/100 = 1560
Q U = 2680
∴ = 2520/2680 = 63 67
Q 59.
2014 V = 1400 × (100 - 14.28)% = 1200
∴ 2015 1200 × 110/100 = 1320
Comprehension 30 to 35
Q 60.
... = 35%
= 14%
= 21%
⇒ = 53130
= 2530
23%
⇒ 0.23x = 253000
⇒ x = 253000/0.23
⇒ x = 1100000
Q 61.
= 1100000
x
20%
⇒ x = 0.2 × 1100000 = 220000
y
= +
2516 + y + y = 220000
∴ 108742
Q 62.
= 1100000

= 1100000 20% = 220000
= 1100000 14%= 154000
= 1100000 8% = 88000
= 1100000 17% = 187000
= 1100000 23% = 253000
= 1100000 18% = 198000
10% ,
, = /1.1
⇒ (253000 + 154000 + 220000)/1.1
= 570000
, = /0.86
⇒ (198000 + 88000 + 187000)/0.86 = 550000
∴ = 570000 + 550000 = 1120000
Q 63.
⇒ = 8%
= = 1100000 8%
x = 0.08 × 1100000
x = 88000
2530 × 14 = 35420
∴ = 88000 + 35420 = 123420
Q 64.
23%

⇒ 0.23 × 1100000 = 253000
... = 253000 35%= 88550
... = 253000 28% = 70840
3 = 253000 37% = 93610
33 | P a g e
, ..., ... = 93610 - 88550 + 1
⇒ 5061
Q 65.
= 1100000
⇒ = 18%
= 1100000 18%
x = 0.18 × 1100000
x = 198000
... 10%
∴ ... = 198000 10%
= 19800
∴ = 19800
Comprehension 36 to 38
34 | P a g e
1)
2) ,
,
“Superman” ‘S’ , S’ 'U'
3)

,
Avengers → @E3
Loves → @O2
Captain → !E3
, “Avengers loves Captain” “@E3 @O2 !E3"

Q 67.
35 | P a g e
,
1)
2) ,
,
“Superman” ‘S’ , S’ 'U'
3)

,
‘Marvelous’ ,
→ '@' 'S'
→ 'O' ‘M’ ,
→ '4'
, ‘Marvelous’ ‘@O4’
Q 68.
,
1)
2) ,
,
“Superman” ‘S’ , S’ 'U'
3)

,
‘Jaguar’ ,
→ '%' 'R'
→ ‘O' ‘J’ ,
→ '3'
, ‘Jaguar’ ‘%O3’
Compression 39 to 43
Q 69.
: , , , , , ,
: GTBU, SGBAU, AU, UPTU, AMU, DU, JNU TU
1. GTBU
2. , SGBAU DU ,

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
1 / SGBAU / DU
3.
4.

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
7
6
1 / SGBAU / DU
5. SGBAU ,

9 SGBAU
3
2
1 DU
6. AMU , AU
7. AU

9 SGBAU
2 AMU
1 DU
8. TU
9. JNU

9 SGBAU
Q 70.
: , , , , , ,
: GTBU, SGBAU, AU, UPTU, AMU, DU, JNU TU
1. GTBU
2. , SGBAU DU ,

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
1 / SGBAU / DU
3.
4.

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
7
6
2
1 / SGBAU / DU
5. SGBAU ,

9 SGBAU
1 DU
6. AMU , AU
7. AU

9 SGBAU
7
6
2 AMU
1 DU
8. TU
9. JNU

9 SGBAU
UPTU
Q 71.
: , , , , , ,
: GTBU, SGBAU, AU, UPTU, AMU, DU, JNU TU
1. GTBU
2. , SGBAU DU ,

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
1 / SGBAU / DU
3.
4.

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
7
6
1 / SGBAU / DU
5. SGBAU ,

9 SGBAU
3
2
1 DU
6. AMU , AU
7. AU

9 SGBAU
2 AMU
1 DU
8. TU
9. JNU

9 SGBAU
2 AMU
1 DU
, TU JNU
Q 72.
: , , , , , ,
: GTBU, SGBAU, AU, UPTU, AMU, DU, JNU TU
1. GTBU
2. , SGBAU DU ,

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
1 / SGBAU / DU
3.
4.

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
7
6
2
1 / SGBAU / DU
5. SGBAU ,

9 SGBAU
1 DU
6. AMU , AU
7. AU

9 SGBAU
8 GTBU
7
6
2 AMU
1 DU
8. TU
9. JNU

9 SGBAU
1 DU

Q 73.
: , , , , , ,
: GTBU, SGBAU, AU, UPTU, AMU, DU, JNU TU
1. GTBU
2. , SGBAU DU ,

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
52 | P a g e
3.
4.

9 / SGBAU / DU
8 GTBU
7
6
1 / SGBAU / DU
5. SGBAU ,

9 SGBAU
5
1 DU
6. AMU , AU
7. AU

9 SGBAU
8. TU
9. JNU

9 SGBAU
2 AMU
1 DU
, -JNU
Q 74.
: ‘A < B ≤ C > E’, ‘C ≥ D’ ‘I ≥ B’
: A < B ≤ C > E; A < B ≤ C ≥ D; A < B ≤ I; I ≥ B ≤ C > E; I ≥ B ≤ C ≥ D
:
55 | P a g e
1) I = C → ( I ≥ B ≤ C → I C )
2) A < I → ( A < B ≤ I → A < I)
3) D = I → ( I ≥ B ≤ C ≥ D → D I )
4) A < E → ( A < B ≤ C > E → A E )
,
Q 75.
: R < A; X = R; Z ≥ A; B > X
: B > X = R < A ≤ Z
:
I. R ≤ Z → ( B > X = R < A ≤ Z)
II. A > X → ( B > X = R < A ≤ Z)
III. R < B → ( B > X = R < A ≤ Z)
IV. Z > R → ( B > X = R < A ≤ Z)
II, III IV
Q 76.
: 15 ≤ 11; 20 = 11; 22 > 15; 18 ≥ 20
: 22 > 15 ≤ 11 = 20 ≤ 18
:
I. 22 = 11 → ( 22 > 15 ≤ 11 = 20 ≤ 18 22 11 )
II. 22 = 20 → ( 22 > 15 ≤ 11 = 20 ≤ 18 22 20 )
III. 15 ≤ 20 → ( 22 > 15 ≤ 11 = 20 ≤ 18)
IV. 18 ≥ 11 → ( 22 > 15 ≤ 11 = 20 ≤ 18)
III IV
Q 77.
: V ≥ W ≥ Q ≥ Z; H < J ≤ Y < O < Z
: V ≥ W ≥ Q ≥ Z > O > Y ≥ J > H
:
I. V > Z → , V ≥ W ≥ Q ≥ Z, V, Z
II. V = Z → , V ≥ W ≥ Q ≥ Z, V, Z
I II
, I II
Q 78.
1) N
10 > N
2) M 24
M > 24
( M )
3) M N
(, M 1 10 )
,
(1 10 ) M > N > 23
, 25 + 9 = 34
, 34
Q 79.
E, P
Q, E
B, D
Q 80.

59 | P a g e
E W 17
Comprehension 51 to 55
Q 81.
: , , , , , ,
: 15, 17, 13, 18, 24, 22, 23 28
1) , 23 , 1 2
1:
2:
2. 23 ,
3. , 24
4. 22
5. 5 ( )
61 | P a g e
: , 1 1(a) 1(b), 2 2(a) 2(b)
1:
2:
6.
( - 1(a) - 1 (b), – 2 (a) – 2 (b) )
1:
2:
7. , 25
8. , 13
9. 5 , 18
63 | P a g e
, 17 (22 ) 5

Q 82.
: , , , , , ,
: 15, 17, 13, 18, 24, 22, 23 28
1) , 23 , 1 2
1:
2:
2. 23 ,
3. , 24
4. 22
5. 5 ( )
65 | P a g e
: , 1 1(a) 1(b), 2 2(a) 2(b)
1:
2:
6.
( - 1(a) - 1 (b), – 2 (a) – 2 (b) )
1:
2:
7. , 25
8. , 13
9. 5 , 18
67 | P a g e
, 46
46
Q 83.
: , , , , , ,
: 15, 17, 13, 18, 24, 22, 23 28
1) , 23 , 1 2
1:
2:
2. 23 ,
3. , 24
4. 22
5. 5 ( )
69 | P a g e
: , 1 1(a) 1(b), 2 2(a) 2(b)
1:
2:
6.
( - 1(a) - 1 (b), – 2 (a) – 2 (b) )
1:
2:
7. , 25
8. , 13
9. 5 , 18
71 | P a g e
, , 17 ,
Q 84.
: , , , , , ,
: 15, 17, 13, 18, 24, 22, 23 28
1) , 23 , 1 2
1:
2:
2. 23 ,
3. , 24
4. 22
5. 5 ( )
73 | P a g e
: , 1 1(a) 1(b), 2 2(a) 2(b)
1:
2:
6.
( - 1(a) - 1 (b), – 2 (a) – 2 (b) )
1:
2:
7. , 25
8. , 13
9. 5 , 18
75 | P a g e
, ,
Q 85.
: , , , , , ,
: 15, 17, 13, 18, 24, 22, 23 28
1) , 23 , 1 2
1:
2:
2. 23 ,
3. , 24
4. 22
5. 5 ( )
77 | P a g e
: , 1 1(a) 1(b), 2 2(a) 2(b)
1:
2:
6.
( - 1(a) - 1 (b), – 2 (a) – 2 (b) )
1:
2:
7. , 25
8. , 13
9. 5 , 18
79 | P a g e
,

Q 86.
i) X, Y, Z, M, N, O L
ii) Y Z, O X
Y, Z < O → , Y, Z > X →
iii) M, Y Z
M > Z → , M > Y →
80 | P a g e
iv) N, M O
O < N < M →
v) O, M
O > M →
vi) X, N O
O < X < N →
vii) L, Y Z X
L < Y, Z → , L < X →
Y Z Y, N Z
:
L < Y, Z < O < X < N < M → ,
O > M > Y > X > L, Z > X > L →
:
M > N > X > O > Z, Y > L → ,
O |
Q 87.
i) X, Y, Z, M, N, O L
ii) Y Z, O X
Y, Z < O → , Y, Z > X →
iii) M, Y Z
M > Z → , M > Y →
iv) N, M O
O < N < M →
v) O, M
O > M →
vi) X, N O
O < X < N →
vii) L, Y Z X
L < Y, Z → , L < X →
Y Z Y, N Z
:
L < Y, Z < O < X < N < M → ,
O > M > Y > X > L, Z > X > L →
, X, L M
Comprehension 58 to 62
: D, E, F, G, H, I J
: 3, 7, 10, 13, 17, 18 20
1) G 13
2) G, 13
3) G, D
4) I 17
5) D 17
6) 17 7
7) D 10
8) H 10
( , )
1:
H 7
H
D
G
17
H
D
7
G
10
17
4:
H 7
13
9) E J
( )
10) E 7
1:
H 7
2:
H 7
H
D
G
H
D
G
H
D
H 7
H 7
J 17
I 10
E 13
11) G G 13
(, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 7 , 5 )
88 | P a g e
12) J J

H 18
D 3
J 7
G 20
E 10
F 17
I 13
, E 18 ,
Q 89.
: D, E, F, G, H, I J
: 3, 7, 10, 13, 17, 18 20
1) G 13
2) G, 13
3) G, D
4) I 17
5) D 17
89 | P a g e
6) 17 7
7) D 10
8) H 10
( , )
1:
H 7
H
D
G
17
https://testbook.com/offers
I 10
H
D
7
G
10
17
H 7
I 10
13
9) E J
( )
10) E 7
1:
H 7
H 7
J 17
I 10
E 13
3:
H
D
G
H
D
G
I 10
E 13
H
D
H 7
I 10
J 13
7:
H 7
J 17
I 10
E 13
11) G G 13
(, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 7 , 5 )
12) J J

H 18
D 3
J 7
G 20
E 10
F 17
I 13
, H 3
Q 90.
: D, E, F, G, H, I J
: 3, 7, 10, 13, 17, 18 20
1) G 13
2) G, 13
3) G, D
4) I 17
5) D 17
6) 17 7
7) D 10
8) H 10
( , )
1:
H 7
H
D
G
17
H
D
7
G
10
17
H 7
13
9) E J
( )
10) E 7
1:
H 7
H 7
H
D
G
H
D
G
H
D
H 7
H 7
J 17
I 10
E 13
11) G G 13
(, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 7 , 5 )
12) J J

H 18
D 3
J 7
G 20
E 10
F 17
I 13
, D 3
Q 91.
: D, E, F, G, H, I J
: 3, 7, 10, 13, 17, 18 20
1) G 13
2) G, 13
3) G, D
4) I 17
5) D 17
6) 17 7
7) D 10
8) H 10
( , )
1:
H 7
I 10
H
D
G
17
H
D
7
G
https://testbook.com/offers
10
17
H 7
13
9) E J
( )
10) E 7
1:
H 7
G
H 7
H
D
G
I 10
J 13
H
D
G
H
D
E 10
H 7
H 7
E 13
11) G G 13
(, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 7 , 5 )
12) J J

H 18
D 3
J 7
G 20
E 10
F 17
I 13
, ‘G’ 20
Q 92.
: D, E, F, G, H, I J
: 3, 7, 10, 13, 17, 18 20
109 | P a g e
1) G 13
2) G, 13
3) G, D
4) I 17
5) D 17
6) 17 7
7) D 10
8) H 10
( , )
1:
H 7
H
D
G
17
H
D
7
G
10
17
H 7
13
9) E J
( )
10) E 7
1:
H 7
2:
H 7
H
D
G
H
D
G
H
D
H 7
H 7
J 17
I 10
E 13
11) G G 13
(, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 7 , 5 )
115 | P a g e
12) J J

H 18
D 3
J 7
G 20
E 10
F 17
I 13
, G I I
Comprehension 63 to 65
Q 93.
1) 12 | ‘FRIEND’ 4 ( )
2) 6 K
3) M F
4) M N B D
5) 14 B
6) X Y 5
2 → B
4 → D
6 → K
8 → E
10 → X
12 → F
14 → Q
16 → I
18 → M
20 → N
22 → Y
24 → R

⇒ B → 2
⇒ F → 12
⇒ D → 4
Q 94.
1) 12 | ‘FRIEND’ 4 ( )
2) 6 K
3) M F
4) M N B D
5) 14 B
6) X Y 5
2 → B
4 → D
6 → K
8 → E
10 → X
12 → F
14 → Q
16 → I
18 → M
20 → N
22 → Y
24 → R
18 M
⇒ M + 3 = Q
⇒ M – 3 = I ( )
14 Q 16 I Q I 7
Q 95.
1) 12 | ‘FRIEND’ 4 ( )
2) 6 K
3) M F
4) M N B D
5) 14 B
6) X Y 5
2 → B
4 → D
6 → K
8 → E
10 → X
12 → F
16 → I
18 → M
20 → N
22 → Y
24 →R

10, 16, 20 22 X, I, N, Y
I, N, X Y “NIXY”
Comprehension 66 to 70
: A, B, C, D,E, F, G H
: 1992, 1993, 1994, 1996, 1991, 1989, 1983, 1982
1) A
2) 22 A
120 | P a g e
3) A 1993 , 1993 B
4) B 1982 C, B A
5) C C, B
6) C 24
7) F G
8) F G F 33
9) H, F
10) 1983
11) D
12) 21 24
13) 1992 , C
: D 1996
Q 97.
: A, B, C, D,E, F, G H
: 1992, 1993, 1994, 1996, 1991, 1989, 1983, 1982
1) A
2) 22 A
3) A 1993 , 1993 B
4) B 1982 C, B A
5) C C, B
6) C 24
122 | P a g e
7) F G
8) F G F 33
9) H, F
10) 1983
11) D
12) 21 24
13) 1992 , C
, B (1982)
Q 98.
: A, B, C, D,E, F, G H
: 1992, 1993, 1994, 1996, 1991, 1989, 1983, 1982
1) A
2) 22 A
3) A 1993 , 1993 B
4) B 1982 C, B A
5) C C, B
6) C 24
7) F G
8) F G F 33
9) H, F
10) 1983
11) D
12) 21 24
13) 1992 , C
D , , E
Q 99.
: A, B, C, D,E, F, G H
: 1992, 1993, 1994, 1996, 1991, 1989, 1983, 1982
1) A
2) 22 A
125 | P a g e
3) A 1993 , 1993 B
4) B 1982 C, B A
5) C C, B
6) C 24
7) F G
8) F G F 33
9) H, F
10) 1983
11) D
126 | P a g e
12) 21 24
13) 1992 , C
A B 20 30
Q 100.
: A, B, C, D,E, F, G H
: 1992, 1993, 1994, 1996, 1991, 1989, 1983, 1982
1) A
2) 22 A
127 | P a g e
3) A 1993 , 1993 B
4) B 1982 C, B A
5) C C, B
6) C 24
7) F G
8) F G F 33
9) H, F
10) 1983
11) D
12) 21 24
13) 1992 , C
128 | P a g e
A