1) Test Case Coverage can be measured by ____________________.a. Global data coverageb. Statement Coveragec. All of the listed optionsd. User specified data coveragee. Traceability

2) Functional testing that verifies the application functions in accordance with user-specified requirements is called __________________.

a. User Acceptance testingb. Regression testingc. Ease of Used. Correctness

3) Test technique to simulate system disaster to verify manual procedures are adequate is called __________.a. Volume testingb. Disaster testingc. Stressd. Security testing

4) When we talk about analysis performed by executing the program code, we are talking about ______________.a. Force field analysisb. Dynamic analysisc. None of the listed optionsd. Formal analysis

5) The following entrance criteria are prerequisites to test plan EXCEPT:a. People Issuesb. Constraintsc. Test Objectivesd. KT document

6) Which of the following are the important elements of the control environment?a. Both integrity & ethical valuesb. Integrityc. Integrity onlyd. Ethical values

7) A white box testing technique that executes possible combinations of condition outcomes in each decision is _____________.

a. Condition Coverageb. Decision/condition coveragec. Decision coveraged. Statement coverage

8) The testing technique that is used to verify multiple authorization procedures to perform properly is called ________________.

a. Error handlingb. Recoveryc. Securityd. Control

9) The process of verifying the consistency, completeness and correctness of software at each stage of the development lifecycle is ______________.

a. Lifecycle testingb. Leadershipc. Managementd. All of the listed options

10) Which of the following is an Informal Analysis of the program source code yielding computer software ready for testing?

a. Functional Reviewb. Code Inspectionc. Code Verificationd. Code Walkthrough

11) Which among the following is a primary cause of delays in acknowledging a defect?a. Inability to reproduce the defectb. Defect caused by user error or misunderstandingc. Defect is not validd. No one else has reported a defect like that

12) Which one of the following statement is true about defects?a. All of the listed optionsb. A single defect can cause millions of failuresc. A defect has greater impact even if it does not affect customer and the operation of the systemd. Defects cannot be found in the supporting documentation

13) Computer systems are interconnected into cycles of chains such that problems in one can cascade into and affect others. Identify this technological development from the following options, which impacts testing approach?

a. System Chainsb. Integrationc. Cascade effectd. Domino effect

14) Walter Shewhart is known for his work on _______________.a. Scatter Plot Diagramsb. Run chartc. Control chartd. Histogram

15) Test objectives do not include which of the following?a. Supplemental deliverables, such as application documentation.b. Enabling the tester and project managers to gauge testing progress and success.c. Guide to the development of test cases, procedures, and test data.d. Enhancing of communication both within and outside of the project team by helping to define the scope of the

testing effort.

16) An operator verifies that all production jobs are run. This is ________________.a. Production Planningb. Disaster recoveryc. Quality Assuranced. Quality Control

17) Which among the following is the most effective method to solve dispute regarding a defect?a. Arbitration by software owner and arbitration by software development management

b. All of the listed optionsc. Arbitration by software owner and arbitration by test managerd. Arbitration by software development management

18) _________ is used to verify processing of a single transaction can be reconstructed and examine review trail to verify the appropriate information.

a. Audit trailb. Review trailc. Authorizationd. Correctness

19) High priority activity in any defect management program should be __________.a. to prevent defectsb. All of the listed optionsc. to improve the processd. to identify the best prevention techniques and implement them

20) Which among the following is the correct sequence to test execution?a. All of the listed optionsb. Identify test cases and test cycles, assign test scripts, set up test environments, review test casesc. Set up test environment, identify test case, review test result, assign test scriptsd. Set up test environments, identify test cases and test cycles, assign test scripts, review test results

21) Which among the following techniques is used to create test data?a. Test bedsb. Production datac. All of the listed optionsd. Scripting

22) With thorough testing it is possible to remove defects from a program prior to delivery to customer. State True or False.

23) When does Test Design begin in SDLC?a. Testing Phaseb. Low Level Design Phasec. High Level Design Phased. Requirements Phase

24) The test schedule section does not include which of the following?a. The types of tests that must be conducted.b. Initial estimates for each activity.c. Major test activities.d. Sequence of tests.e. Dependence on other project activities

25) Pareto voting is used in conjunction with _____________.a. Statistical process controlb. Vital Fewc. 80-20d. Cause and effect (Fishbone)

26) The result expected from entering the action is _____________.a. Think timeb. Arrival rate

c. Sequenced. Expected Result

27) The concept of defensive code involves ____________________.a. adding throw() and catch()b. None of the listed optionsc. adding code to a program so that two parts of program must fail before a majord. adding a syntax checker in middle of code

28) Which among the following is the most effective method for validating successful integration?a. Test server componentsb. Test client componentsc. Test networkd. All of the listed optionse. Integrate client, server, network

29) Which of the following validates that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design?a. Unit Testingb. User Acceptance Testingc. Integration Testingd. System Testing

30) A document that describes an input, action or event and an expected response to determine if a feature of an application is working correctly is called as ______________.

a. Flowchartb. All of the listed optionsc. Test cased. Entrance criteria

31) ALE estimation stands for _____________.a. Annual Loss estimationb. Annual loss expectationc. Actual loss expectationd. Actual Loss estimation

32) Which technique is used in test case designing?a. Boundary Value Analysisb. Cause Effect Diagramc. Equivalence Class Partitioningd. All of the listed options

33) Testing defect correction includes ____________.a. regression testingb. All of the listed optionsc. verificationd. validation

34) Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of Assessment?a. Assessment is the thoughtful analysis of testing results, and then taking corrective action on the identified

weaknessesb. Assessment is taking useful actions on the identified strengthsc. Assessment is the process of taking actions on the identified weaknessesd. Assessment is the summarization of testing results, and then taking preventive action on the identified

weaknesses

35) Compatibility testing for products involves all the following EXCEPT:a. Certified and Supported client environmentsb. High and low level sanity testingc. Functional and non-functional compatibilityd. Client and Server side compatibility

36) Performing risk analysis during test planning include all EXCEPT:a. Evaluate risksb. Form the risk analysis teamc. Select testing prioritiesd. Identify risks

37) Which among the following techniques is NOT used for negative testing?a. Error Guessingb. Equivalence Partitioningc. State Transitiond. Boundary Value Analysis

38) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?a. Policies defines the areas in which processes will be developedb. Policies are required in all the areasc. Policies set directionsd. Policies are developed by senior managers

39) Verification methods include EXCEPT:a. Test Executionb. Static analyzersc. Reviewd. Walkthroughs

40) Risk analysis is a process which includes evaluating the following EXCEPT:a. Riskb. threatc. controld. Complexity

41) Which of the following lead to inability to translate user needs into technical requirements?a. Miscommunicationb. Limited testingc. Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient detailsd. Failure to scan output documents

42) Which of the following statement about different risks type is correct?a. It is not difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks.b. Tactical risks are subsets at a higher level of the strategic risks.c. Strategic risks are the high - level business risks faced by the software system.

43) Bottom-up integration testing has as its major advantage(s) so that _______________.a. regression testing is not requiredb. no stubs need to be writtenc. no drivers need to be writtend. major decision points are tested early

44) Which of the following Software Factors correctly reflects-? "Response time in an online system is within the time span tolerance. Application workload can be completed in accordance with the application schedule. Changes to the system can be incorporated within the agreed upon schedule."

a. Service Levelsb. Authorizationc. Continuity of Processd. Audit Traile. File Integrity

45) Regression test level best suited for which type of transaction?a. Multiple transaction multiple terminalb. Single transaction single terminalc. Single transaction multiple terminald. Multiple transaction single terminal

46) How do you track requirements in test case?a. Requirements Documentb. None of the listed optionsc. Traceability Matrixd. Test Plan

47) Which of the following is not a perspective of quality?a. Product - basedb. Transcendentc. User - Basedd. Translucent

48) All are the risk associated with software development EXCEPT:a. Repetition of errorsb. concentration of datac. Inability to control technologyd. Skill of resources

49) Test tool to conduct a recovery test to determine that it can be performed within required time frame is called _____________.

a. Recovery testingb. Tracingc. Disaster testd. Confirmation or Examination

50) Following lead to cascading of errors EXCEPT:a. Inadequate testingb. Change of scopec. Miscommunicationd. Limited testing

51) The primary goal of defect management is __________________.a. to prevent defectsb. to minimize the impact of defectsc. to find defect as quickly as possibled. All of the listed options

52) Testing that attempts to find the level of processing at which, system can no longer function effectively is called _______________.

a. Spike testingb. Performance testingc. Load testingd. Stress testing

53) In designing a test strategy, _________ becomes the objective of testing.a. to present a test process that can reduce cost and timeb. to reduce the risk in the systemc. to identify the phase of System Development Life Cycle in which testing will occur

54) Priority of defects should be given to one that causes data corruption, system crash and security violations. State True or False. False

55) To develop a software test matrix, follow these steps EXCEPT:a. Define tests as requiredb. Definite test planc. Define verification testsd. Prepare the software test matrix

56) Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of good test case?a. A good test case should be repeatable but not traceable to the requirementsb. It should be repeatablec. It is not traceable to the requirementsd. Clear to execute

57) When should you stop testing?a. When you run out of timeb. When all test cases are donec. When quality goals established in the beginning of the projects are metd. None of the listed options

58) Synchronization is not one of the considerations to incorporate into script execution. State True or False.

59) Cost of conformance includes ______________.a. Studiesb. Surveyc. Training Survey etc, Studies and Surveyd. Rework

60) ___________ in a test phase verifies the application being tested could correctly communicate with interrelated application system.

a. Regression testingb. Unit testingc. Couplingd. Functional testing

61) Which among the following does NOT form the part of acquisition activities for informal procurement?a. Score candidatesb. Acquisition planc. RFP generation(only for formal procurement) applying selection criteria(informal)d. Select tool

62) Defect is anything that causes customer dissatisfaction and this view is called __________.a. usability

b. fit for usec. ease of use

63) Fixing defect involves _________________.a. removing defects from systemb. correcting and verifying one or more deliverablesc. All of the listed optionsd. reviewing test data, checklist

64) The largest cost of quality is from production failure. State True or False. True

65) Which of the following testing demonstrates key functional capabilities by testing a string of units that accomplish a specific function in the application?

a. Thread testingb. Black box testingc. Unit testingd. Integration testing

66) Following are the key concepts of the process engineering program EXCEPT:a. Program is driven by management policiesb. Process is driven by testing projectsc. Management provides an organizational structure for the workers to develop their own standards and

proceduresd. Absolute compliance to standard and procedures is required

67) CBOK is prepared and presented by ________________.a. ISOb. QAIc. IEEEd. ANSI

68) Following are the guidelines adhered to tool usage to be more effective and efficient EXCEPT:a. Testers should not be permitted to use tools for which they have not received formal trainingb. Tester should work together to build open source testing toolsc. The use of test tools should be incorporated into test processes so that the use of tools is mandatory, not

optionald. Testers should have access to an individual in their organization, or the organization that developed the tool

69) Without preparation of a test plan, at an earlier testing phase, tests may be _______________.a. economicalb. effectivec. None of the listed optionsd. uneconomical and ineffective

70) Developing scripts to test when there are two or more users accessing the same file at the same time is ___________________.

a. Regression scriptingb. Integration scriptingc. Stress/performance scriptingd. Pseudo concurrency scripting

71) The magnitude of a risk can be determined by any of the following means EXCEPT:a. consensusb. hit and trial

c. intuitiond. risk formula

72) _____________________ is used to record data as it is gathered.a. Check sheetb. All of the listed optionsc. Certificationd. Checkpoint

73) Steps involved in defect discovery are ________, _________ and __________.a. Acknowledge, Find, Reportb. Find, Acknowledge, Reportc. Find, Report, Acknowledge

74) These document test prerequisites. This may include skill level of test resources, budget, and state of the application, tools available and or entrance or exit criteria. Which one of the following is this document?

a. Assumptionsb. Test designc. Test data managementd. Communication approach

75) Which of the following is a correct definition of threat?a. Threat is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application.

Threat includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws.b. Threat an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining

organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets.

c. Threat is a design, implementation, or operations flaw that may be exploited by a threat; the flaw causes the computer system or application to operate in a fashion different from its published specifications and to result in destruction or misuse of equipment or data.

d. Threat is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis.

76) To log ‘incidents’ which of the following is used?a. Test logb. User Reportc. Defect tracking systemd. Test script

77) Which one of the following is the correct definition for Policy?a. Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired

attributes)b. The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance. The basis upon which adherence to

policies is measuredc. The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are metd. Policies provide direction, standards are the rules or measures

78) Test efficiency is always directly proportional to ______________.a. Functional Coverageb. Product Deliveryc. Product Costd. Product Reliability

79) _________________ is a process that follows the flow of computer logic at execution time.a. Test scriptsb. Test datac. None of the listed options (tracing)d. Test tools

80) A change has been done to the design of an application. Which of the following is required after this change is implemented?

a. Subsystem retestingb. All of the listed optionsc. Design re-verificationd. None of the listed optionse. Unit retesting

81) “Post Mortems Review" is In Process Review, True or False

82) Complexity can be measured by the following EXCEPT:a. Business Complexityb. Documentation complexityc. Logic complexityd. Size of module / unit

83) Which among the following is the best way to identify critical risks?a. Identify type of defects most likely to occur and to identify defects that have greatest impact on systemb. Identify type of defects most likely to occur and identify flaws in processc. Identify defects that have greatest impact on systemd. All of the listed options

84) During software acceptance, the testing technique that is relied upon for more accurate results (than any other testing techniques listed below) is ___________.

a. Incrementalb. Threadc. Black Boxd. White Box

85) Which among the following does NOT form the part of acquisition activities for formal procurement?a. RFP Generationsb. Solicitation of Proposalsc. User review of candidatesd. Source Selection

86) Which among process of analyzing and correcting syntactic, logic, and other errors identified during testing?a. Desk Checkingb. Dynamic Analysisc. Error guessing

d. Debugging

87) Following are examples of satisfaction metrics EXCEPT:a. Ease of useb. Customer subjective assessmentc. Acceptance criteria metd. Customer satisfaction

88) The following tasks are provided to help understand what is necessary to develop a good test plan EXCEPT:a. Analyze the test planb. Write the test planc. Build the test pland. Understand the characteristics of the software being developed

89) Joe is performing a test to see that it complies with the user requirement that a certain field be populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values.From the above what kind of testing is Joe performing?

a. White-box testingb. Black-box testingc. Alpha testingd. Regression testing

90) Due to a change in design, the requirements for an already coded critical software component got modified in its entirety. The developer had to modify the code based on the new requirements. Testing team is to choose the appropriate type of regression test to minimize the impact to the project schedule. Which type of regression test would you choose?

a. System Testingb. Regional Regression Testc. Full Regression Testd. Unit Regression Test

91) The Table of Contents of a test plan might contain the following EXCEPT:a. Test Matrixb. Assumptionsc. Test Scoped. Test Objective

92) When evaluating the paybacks received from various test techniques, _____ testing produces a higher defect yield than other techniques when planned and executed correctly.

a. Black Boxb. Incrementalc. Threadd. White Box

93) Which of the following is not one of Deming's 14 points for management?a. Create constancy of purposeb. Eliminate slogans, exhortations, and targets for the work forcec. Mobility of managementd. Adopt a new philosophy

94) Given the following costs: User documentation - $ 1000 Rework - $ 1500 Design - $ 400 Review of User Documents - $ 800, Code review - $ 1200, The cost of Quality is ______________.

a. $2,400

b. $5,000c. $3,500d. $4,000

95) Which among the following are the techniques to prevent defects?a. Quality Assurance, Quality Control, defensive design and code and finally Methodology and Standardsb. Quality Assurance, Training and Education, Quality Control and Methodology & Standardsc. Quality Assurance, Training and Education, defensive design and code and finally Methodology and

Standardsd. Training and Education and Methodology and Standards

96) Risk involves everything EXCEPT:a. test planningb. unauthorized disclosurec. incorrect use of computerd. loss of information

97) Regression analysis is used for the following EXCEPT:a. Projecting performance based on multiple variablesb. Cause and effect relationship of two variablesc. Probing to determine the cause of some unfavorable eventd. Find the regression candidates

98) Which among the following is a suggested prioritization method to follow?a. Major, Minor, Highb. Critical, Major, Minorc. Critical, Major, Minor, Highd. Critical, Major, Low

99) The functional testing that verifies the procedures to balance file function properly is called ______________.a. Compatibility testingb. Compliance testingc. File Integrityd. Integration testing

100) Which among the following are major concerns testers have on entering the test execution?a. All of the listed optionsb. Software not in a testable modec. Significant problems will not be uncovered during testingd. Inadequate time or resources

101) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk?a. None of the listed optionsb. Risk is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or application. Risks

include both hazards and events that can trigger flaws.c. Risk is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining

organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets.

d. Risk is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis.

102) Following are important to perform the analysis of the test process EXCEPT:

a. Effectiveness and efficiency of the test processb. Test program meets the test objective c. Maturity of the test processesd. test methodology is used correctly

103) Decision rules used to determine whether a software item or feature passes or fails a test is Pass/Fail criteria. State True or False. True

104) Which among the following is a parse program looking for violations of company standards?a. compliance checkersb. Affinity diagramc. Checkpoint reviewd. Benchmarking

105) Which among the following is a way to leverage a dynamic analyzer during system testing? a. Determine testing levelsb. All of the listed optionsc. Spend time to do a complete test pland. Generate test cases based on black box test techniques

106) __________ testing involves continuous testing of the solution even after software plans are complete and the tested system is implemented.

a. Life Cycle Testing b. System Testingc. Maintenance Testingd. End-to-End Testing

107) Which of the following testing techniques are used in the Acceptance Testing stage?a. Thread Testingb. Black Box Testing c. Both White box and Black box testing d. Incremental Testinge. White Box Testing

108) ………………………………. is an independent appraisal activity within an organization for the review of operations, and is a service to management.

a. Regression Testingb. Quality Assurancec. All of the listed optionsd. Internal Auditing e. Adhoc Testing

109) The process of generating test sets for structural testing based on use of complexity or coverage metrics is called _________________.

a. Metric based test data generation b. Quality function deploymentc. Cyclomatic complexityd. Regression testing

110) Testers insert additional code into a program to collect information about program behavior during program execution. This is called as ____________.

a. Instrumentation

b. Integration Testingc. Dynamic assertiond. Inspection

111) Activities associated with risk management are ___________.a. Risk Mitigationb. Risk Reduction Methods c. Risk Analysisd. Risk eliminatione. Contingency planning

112) Defects generally occur due to following EXCEPT:a. Unspecified requirementb. Immature processc. Incorrectly implemented specificationd. Specified requirement not builte. None of the listed options

113) Attitude that has shaped a negative view of testing and testers is that ______________.a. letting testers find the problems is not the only way to debugb. testers should not be blamed for the defects found in productionc. giving testers less time to test will reduce the chance that they will find defects d. testers need training

1. Testers hold up implementation.2. Giving testers less time to test will reduce the chance that they will find

defects.3. Letting the testers find problems is an appropriate way to debug.4. Defects found in production are the fault of the testers.5. Testers do not need training; only programmers need training.

114) _________________ permits the testing of programs without data.a. Flow chartb. Trainingc. Symbolic Execution d. Checklist

115) Which of the following strategic issues needs to be addressed in successful software testing process?a. Specify requirements in a quantifiable manner

b. Consider using independent test termsc. All of the listed options d. Conduct formal technical review prior to testing

116) Amount of resources allocated to each test condition is determined by ______________.a. Rankingb. Global data coveragec. Both global data coverage and ranking d. Battlemap

117) Testers get involved with the project only when testing steps are about to begin. State True or False.

118) Techniques for Reporting a defect may include _______________.a. All of the listed optionsb. Computer forums, Electronic mails, help desk c. Static

d. Operational

119) Which among the following are the key elements in the defect management process?a. Management Reportingb. Defect Preventionc. Deliverable base liningd. All of the listed options e. Process Improvement

120) Which among the following is the quantitative measure of the current level of performance? a. Benchmarkingb. Pareto analysisc. Affinity diagramd. Baseline

121) The test technique to enter erroneous data to determine it cannot affect the integrity of the files is called _____________.

a. Error handling b. File integrityc. Functionald. Security

122) Risk analysis is a process which includes evaluating the following EXCEPT:a. Complexity b. control c. threat d. Risk

123) Regression testing mainly helps in ___________.a. checking for side-effects of fixesb. ensuring high level sanityc. retesting fixed defects d. checking the core gaps

124) Process Engineering Manager includes the following EXCEPT:a. Ensure involved parties are adequately trainedb. Promote the concept of Process engineeringc. Be the driving force behind the processd. Be highly certified and qualified in process areas

125) To define test objectives testers need not to do following EXCEPT:a. Validation process for incoming external datab. Data bridges and filtersc. Define each objective so that you can reference it by a number.d. Development of a model showing the internal and external dependency links among core business areas,

processes, and information systems

126) Review falls under which category of Cost of Quality?a. Preventive Costs b. Failure Costsc. None of the listed optionsd. Appraisal Costs

127) Purpose of software reviews is to uncover errors and defects in work products so they can be removed before moving on to the next phase. State True or False. True

128) Testing that simulates problem in original environment so that an alternative processing environment can be tested is _____________.

a. Recovery testing b. Disaster testingc. Performance testingd. Compliance testing

129) Objective of integration testing is to _________________.a. validate the application design and phase and prove application components can be successfully integratedb. integrate all componentsc. application integrated correctly into its environmentd. All of the listed options

130) A defect can be defined in ____________.a. Producer’s viewpoint and tester’s viewpointb. All of the listed optionsc. Producer’s viewpoint and customer’s viewpointd. Customer’s viewpoint

131) ___________ is identifying defects in the stage in which they were created, rather than in later testing stages.a. Defect Validationb. Down streamc. Stage Containmentd. Risk Strategy

132) QAI has identified the following six tests that each measure and metric should be subjected to, EXCEPT:a. Consistency b. Validity c. Reliabilityd. Calibratione. Ease of Use and Simplicityf. Timeliness

133) Following are the main advantages of using work processes EXCEPT:a. Improves communicationb. Enable knowledge transferc. Improves interpersonal skills d. Improves Productivity

134) When conducting risk analysis, the following major components are taken into consideration EXCEPT:a. The probability of losing a customer. b. The probability that the negative event will occur.c. The potential loss or impact associated with the event.

135) Testing on, above and below the edges of classes is called _____________.a. Boundary Value Analysis b. Equivalence Class Partitioning c. Test Combinationsd. Cause Effect Diagram

136) The development of an effective test plan involves the following tasks EXCEPT:

a. Develop the test matrixb. Define test administrationc. Collect test metricsd. Set test objectives

137) The risk team can use which one of the following methods of risk identification?a. Risk Templateb. Risk Control chartc. Risk analysis pland. Risk analysis scenario and risk checklist

138) At a minimum, the developer should always execute Unit Regression testing when a change is made. True

139) Unit testing is conducted in the development environment. True

140) Following are examples of Intentional act EXCEPT:a. Communication protocol may fail to positively identify the transmitter or receiver of a message. b. Messages may be recorded and replayed into the system.c. If encryption (i.e., use of codes) is used, keys may be stolen.d. False messages may be inserted into the system.

141) One of the most effective methods for estimating expected impact of risk is _____________.a. Annual loss Expectation formulab. None of the listed optionsc. Pareto Analysisd. Risk analysis

142) Defect Density is calculated by ______________.a. Total no. of Defects/ Effort b. Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defectc. Invalid Defects/ Valid Defectsd. Valid Defects/ Effort

143) Following are the valid Defect Severity EXCEPT:a. Majorb. Showstopper c. Minord. Critical

144) The best reason for using Independent software testing teams is that ___________________.a. testers do not get involved with the project until testing beginsb. strangers will test the software mercilesslyc. quality of software is given as much consideration as the project budget and timeline d. software developers do not need to do any testing

145) Which one of the following statements is correct?a. Policies are set by Test managersb. Policies are guidelinesc. Policies help in defining productsd. Policies are set by senior management

146) Which one of the following is NOT the part of the test process improvement model?a. Analyze assessment outputb. Conduct Assessment

c. Derive new processesd. Initiate process improvement

147) Test steps are grouped into manageable and schedulable units called ________________.a. Structural Testingb. Test Scenarioc. Test design specification d. Test procedure specification: (specifying a sequence of actions for the execution of a test)

148) The purpose of software testing is to ___________.a. validate the logical designb. demonstrate that the application works properlyc. All of the listed options d. detect the existence of defects

149) Test planning should begin ____p251___________.a. after Designb. before Requirement collectionc. at the time of Requirement definitiond. after Requirement collection

150) Infeasible path is a sequence of program statements that can be executed. False

151) The objective of _________________ is to assure that the requirements are covered for application in test design document.

a. Operation and maintenanceb. Test Coveragec. Management Directived. None of the listed options

152) ________________ is a record of relevant details about execution of tests.a. None of the listed optionsb. Test log c. Defect tracking sheet (incidence)d. Test data

153) _________________ is responsible for conducting Test Readiness Review prior to start of testing.a. Developerb. Test Managerc. None of the listed optionsd. Development Manager

154) Requirement Checklist is an example for which of the following testing technique?a. White Box testingb. Black Box Testingc. Requirement Studyd. Static Analysis

155) Integration testing should begin once unit testing for the components to be integrated is complete. State True

156) Minimizing expected impact of defect involves _______________.a. reducing probability of risk becoming a problemb. All of the listed options c. eliminating the risk

d. reduce impact if there is a problem

157) The inability of a system or component to perform its required functions within specified requirements is called _______________.

a. errorb. Failurec. defect d. bug

158) A catchall term for all software defects or errors __________________.a. Bug b. Faultc. Error

159) The types of conditions that cause erroneous or falsified input data include _____________.a. Records in one format may be interpreted according to a different format b. The evidence from intermediate processing is not retained

c. Early use of new software technologyd. Detailed analysis of the technology

160) Following are important factors in selecting the members of Process engineering committee EXCEPT:a. Make long term assignment to Process engineering committeeb. Ensure that appropriate areas of interest are involvedc. Select the highest level manager who accepts the positiond. Select a tester who lot of experience in audits

161) _____________ testing verifies all the performance criteria have been achieved when the system is placed into production.

a. Security testingb. Compliance testingc. System testingd. User acceptance testing

162) One of the most commonly identified weaknesses in software testing is ________________.a. lack of metricsb. lack of skilled resourcesc. lack of defects countd. lack of time

163) Regression testing is _________________.a. verify authorization rules have been properly implementedb. ensuring functions are performed correctlyc. verification of changes to make sure older programs still works with new changes

164) The tool used to verify the operational system results are in compliance with organizations policies and procedure is called _________________.

a. Tracingb. Confirmation or Examinationc. Fact findingd. Checklists and inspections

165) Run chart doesn’t help to ___________.a. monitor a process

b. Track changes or trendsc. tracking observations in sequence or time orderd. find the problem areas

166) A set of Boolean conditions such that complete test sets for the conditions uncover the same errors is ___________.a. Consistencyb. Consistent condition setc. Complete test set: A test set containing data that causes each element of pre-specified set of Boolean

conditions to be true. In addition, each element of the test set causes at least one condition to be true.d. Correctness

167) Deliverable base lining involves _____________.a. risks and identify key deliverablesb. identify key deliverables and define standards for each deliverablec. All of the listed optionsd. risks and define standards for each deliverable

168) Performing risk analysis during test planning includes all EXCEPT:a. Select testing prioritiesb. Evaluate risksc. Form the risk analysis teamd. Identify risks

169) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things. False

170) Defects are measured in relation to ___________.a. lines of codeb. total number of defectsc. development team sized. project efforts

171) A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision outcomes covered by the test cases designed is called ______________.

a. Decision Coverageb. Basis path coveragec. Modified decision coveraged. condition coverage

172) The objective in Test design is to _____________.a. minimize test maintenance costsb. detect as many defects as possiblec. All of the listed optionsd. minimize test execution cost

173) Testing for the existence or effectiveness of programmed controls requires using ___________.a. Complex datab. Valid datac. Redundant datad. Invalid data

174) Work Processes constitute the following EXCEPT:a. Standardb. Process

c. Procedured. Policy

175) Guidelines to Writing the Test Plans are EXCEPT:a. Finish earlyb. Calculate the planning effortc. Start Early

176) Which of the following statement is NOT correct?a. 90 percent of all defects are caused by process problemsb. Reviews are generally greater than 65 percent efficient in finding defectsc. 60 percent of software defects originate in the requirements phase of the projectd. Over 50 percent of life cycle of software system is spent on requirementse. Over 50% of the life cycle costs of a software system are spent on maintenance

177) Which among the following is an important attribute for test case?a. Test Description & Expected Resultb. Test Description & Actual Resultc. Test Case ID & Expected Resultd. Expected Result and Actual Result

178) ______________ is the method of testing the maintainability of the application system.a. Inspectionsb. Code Walkthroughsc. Reviewsd. Functional testing

Compliance testing

179) Which among the following is a technique designed to ensure the process employed are adequate to produce the desired result and process is being followed?

a. Quality Controlb. Testing Methodologyc. Quality Assuranced. Testing Strategy

180) The effective Control environment strives for everything EXCEPT:a. Attitude of integrityb. Control consciousness and positive “tone at the top”c. Competent peopled. Defect free product

181) Following are the guidelines to establish an organizational structure EXCEPT:a. Establish a Process engineering committeeb. Let the standard Ad Hoc committees develop the technical standardc. Process engineering committeed. Process reengineering committee

1. Establish a Process Engineering Committee compromised of the most senior IT managers possible. 2. Represent all IT organizational areas on the Process Engineering Committee. 3. Appoint an individual as the Process Engineering Manager. (Note that this can be a part-time assignment.) 4. Appoint Ad Hoc Committees (i.e., special task forces) to develop individual standards and procedures. 5. Let the Standards Ad Hoc Committees develop the technical standard.

182) Which of the following Software quality Factors correctly reflects - "Employee gross pay can be substantiated by supporting documentation. Sales tax paid to a specific state can be substantiated by the supporting invoices. Payments made to vendors can be substantiated should the vendor disavow receiving the payment."

a. File Integrityb. Audit Trailc. Authorizationd. Continuity of Processe. Service Levels

183) Removing or reducing which of the following can help in diminishing the undesirable behavior?a. Promotion & Trainingb. Incentive & Temptationsc. Training & Promotiond. Incentive & Promotion

184) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis?a. Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or

application. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws.b. Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining

organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets.

c. Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis.

d. None of the listed options

185) Some organizations divide people into four categories when attempting to identify issues EXCEPT:a. People who will help the software system happenb. People who will attempt to make the software system not happenc. People who will hope the software system happensd. People who will make the software system happene. People who will let the software system happen.

186) Check for defects in process for the primary aim of correcting or establishing new process. This isa. Quality Controlb. Quality Assurancec. Both Quality Control and Quality Assuranced. None of the listed options

187) The following should be used to estimate ALE EXCEPT:a. Calculate an ALE using the loss and frequency tablesb. Understanding of information services concepts and systems designc. Make a preliminary assessment of the lossd. Document the decision reached

188) Decision to stop test execution should be based upon ____________________.a. successful use of specific test case design methodologiesb. All of the listed optionsc. a percentage of coverage for each coverage categoryd. rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold

189) Following lead to improper use of technology EXCEPT:

a. Early use of new hardware technologyb. Detailed analysis of the technologyc. Early use of new software technologyd. Improper skill

1. ƒ Systems analysts and systems programmers improperly skilled in the use of technology 2. ƒ Early user of new hardware technology 3. ƒ Early user of new software technology

4. ƒ Minimal planning for the installation of new hardware and software technology

190) Which of the following factor assures that data is processed in accordance with the intents of management for processing of transactions?

a. Authorizationb. Maintainabilityc. Access Controld. Service Levels

191) When a defect is fixed in production rather than in requirement, how many times can this be expensive?a. 1000 timesb. 10 timesc. 1 timesd. 100 times

192) Which among the following is the correct order in which Defect Resolution process should follow?a. Schedule fix, Prioritize fix, fix defect, Report resolutionb. Prioritize fix, fix defect, Report Resolution, Schedule fixc. Prioritize fix, Schedule fix, fix defect, Report resolution

193) Entering alphabetic characters when numeric characters are expected is not an example of test using valid data. False

194) What is incremental testing?a. Testing a string of units that accomplish a specific function in the applicationb. Testing the interfaces between the unit - tested programs as well as between componentsc. All of the listed optionsd. Testing transaction flow, input validation and functional completeness in incremental order

195) Most common cause of defect is ________________.a. failure to estimateb. failure to assess risksc. ambiguous or incomplete requirementsd. weak communication

196) Following are the most effective way of communicating moral guidance EXCEPT:a. Verbal communicationb. Lead by examplesc. Written code of conductd. CMM and ISO standards

197) Inability to Substantiate Processing includes the following EXCEPT:a. The cost of substantiating processing exceeds the benefits derived from the processb. The evidence from intermediate processing is not retainedc. Users inability to specify requirements in sufficient details

d. Evidence is not retained long enough

198) Test team should investigate the following characteristics in order to evaluate the potential magnitude of the risk EXCEPT:

a. Assess the severity of potential failuresb. Identify the components for the systemc. Evaluate contingency plans for this system and activitiesd. Build the test plan

199) A _______________ is a software item that is an object of testing.a. Both proof of correctness and test itemb. Proof of correctnessc. Test item

200) Which among the following is an example of functional testing?a. Condition coverageb. Branch Coveragec. Decision coveraged. Cause-Effect Graphing (orange)

201) Difficulties surrounding the introduction of tools can arise in the following areas EXCEPT:a. Testers skillsb. Obstacles in the computer environmentc. Organizational obstaclesd. Problems arising from the tools

202) Which among the following are common items to focus on during Integration testing?a. All of the listed optionsb. Performance and load lists on individual application componentsc. Output interface file accuracyd. Validation of links between the client and server

203) The reason for decomposing the strategic risks into tactical risks is to create test scenarios. True

204) Which of the following is not a category under tactical risks?a. Size Risksb. Resource Risksc. Structural Risksd. Technical Risks

205) A deliverable is subject to _________________ once it is base lined.a. All of the listed optionsb. Risk managementc. Defect Managementd. Configuration Managemente. Process Management

206) Most common reason for existence of large number of bugs in a software product is ___________.a. error in codeb. incomplete testingc. wrong use of tools and techniquesd. inadequate requirement analysis

207) Following are valid defect types EXCEPT:a. Wrong

b. Extrac. Change Requestd. Missing

208) System test should begin as soon as a minimal set of components has been integrated. (and successfully completed integration testing . add this sentence then it’s right )State True or False

209) Which one of the following is not a valid step to collect Benchmark data?a. Analysis Phaseb. Integration Phasec. Planning Phased. Construction Phase

Action phase

210) Software testing activities should start _____________.a. during the design stageb. when the requirements have been formally documentedc. as soon as possible in development life cycled. as soon as the code is written

211) Which of the following statement is true about Functional Testing?a. Testing where one wouldn’t think ofb. Testing of software’s structure logicc. Possibility of redundant testingd. Does not mimic real world situations

1. Potential of missing logical errors in software. 2. Possibility of redundant testing.

212) Severity is one which determines the order in which defects should be fixed. False

213) A testing method in which the test data are derived solely from the program structure is ______________.a. white box testingb. All of the listed options c. Structural testingd. Glass box testing

214) Examples of assumptions include EXCEPT:a. Tools available.b. Availability of test equipment.c. Implementation of new test automation tools.d. Skill level of test resources.

1. Skill level of test resources. 2. Test budget3. State of the application at the start of testing. 4. Tools available. 5. Availability of test equipment.

215) These document test prerequisites. This may include skill level of test resources, budget, and state of the application, tools available and or entrance or exit criteria. Which one of the following is this document?

a. Communication approachb. Assumptionsc. Test data management

d. Test design

216) Which among the following options specifies the details of the test approach and identifies the associated tests?a. Test datab. Test Design specificationc. Test procedure specification

217) Which among the following are the key elements in the defect management process?a. Deliverable base liningb. Defect Preventionc. Process Improvementd. Management Reportinge. All of the listed options

218) An operator verifies that all production jobs are run. This isa. Production Planningb. Disaster recoveryc. Quality Assuranced. Quality Control

219) Which among the following techniques are used to find defects?a. All of the listed optionsb. Dynamic techniques, operational techniques and functional techniquesc. Static techniques and dynamic techniquesd. Static techniques, dynamic techniques and operational techniquese. Static techniques, operational techniques and functional techniques

220) Which of the following is NOT a test factor?a. Portabilityb. None of the listed optionsc. Continuity of Processingd. Compliancee. Functionality

1. correctness,2. Authorization3. File integrity4. Audit trail5. Continuity of processing6. service levels7. access control8. compliance9. reliability10. ease of use11. maintainable12. Portable

13. coupling14. performance15. ease of operations

221) Synchronization is not one of the considerations to incorporate into script execution. False

222) Test Plan is not a living document. False

223) Some of the primary testing risks include EXCEPT:a. Lack of management supportb. Lack of Test Toolsc. Lack of Customer and User Involvementd. Not Enough Training/Lack of Test Competencye. None

Not Enough Training/Lack of Test CompetencyUs versus Them MentalityLack of Test ToolsLack of Management Understanding and Support of TestingLack of Customer and User InvolvementNot Enough Schedule or Budget for TestingOver Reliance on Independent TestersRapid ChangeTesters are in A Lose-Lose Situation and Having to Say “No”Test EnvironmentNew technology and new developmental processes

224) In general the earlier a software defect is discovered and corrected the less costly to the overall project budget. True

225) Testers get involved with the project only when testing steps are about to begin. State True or False. False

226) Which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy?a. Capture and Analysis of defect information should be automatedb. Defect management process should be risk drivenc. none of the listed optionsd. Primary goal is to prevent defects

227) Which among the following is NOT a way to define and measure test coverage?a. Modified Decision coverageb. Global data coveragec. User specified data coveraged. Stable/control coverage

228) Which one of the following is the correct definition for Standards?a. The measure used to evaluate products and identify nonconformance The basis upon which adherence to

policies is measuredb. Policies provide direction, standards are the rules or measuresc. Managerial desires and intents concerning either process (intended objectives) or products (desired attributes)d. The step-by-step method that ensures that standards are met

229) _________________ provide direction, _______________ are the rules or measures by which the implemented policies are measured, and the _________________ are the means used to meet or comply with the standards.

a. Standards, Policies, Proceduresb. Policies, Procedures, Standardsc. Policies, standards, procedures

230) Temptations cause employees to engage in the following improper acts EXCEPT:a. Weak Internal Audit functionb. High Decentralizationc. Nonexistent or ineffective controld. High Centralization

231) Which of the following is a correct definition of risk analysis?

a. None of the listed optionsb. Risk analysis is something capable of exploiting vulnerability in the security of a computer system or

application. Risk analysis includes both hazards and events that can trigger flaws.c. Risk analysis is the potential loss to an organization, as for example, the risk resulting from the misuse of its

computer. This may involve unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized modification, and/or loss of information resources, as well as the authorized but incorrect use of a computer. Risk can be measured by performing risk analysis.

d. Risk analysis is an analysis of an organization’s information resources, its existing controls, and its remaining organization and computer system vulnerabilities. It combines the loss potential for each resource or combination of resources with an estimated rate of occurrence to establish a potential level of damage in dollars or other assets.

232) Risk involves everything EXCEPT:a. test planningb. loss of informationc. unauthorized disclosured. incorrect use of computer

233) Test tool used to verify the application limits have been tested is called _______________.a. Load testingb. Volume testing

c. Spike testingd. Disaster testing

234) Which of the following statement is correct about monitoring performance?a. All of the listed optionsb. Management should review the process improvement program regularlyc. Careful analysis of results of testing should be performedd. The risks to the organization and its products from using the process should be monitored

235) Test in Test plan should be following EXCEPT:

a. Reusableb. Controllablec. Coveraged. Repeatable

236) Which among the following is the best strategy to reduce impact if there is a problem?a. Contingency plansb. Disaster recovery plans, contingency plans andc. Disaster recovery plans and contingency plansd. All of the listed optionse. Reduce Scope of the system and also do not use latest unproven technology

237) _________ are important element of test objectives.a. Feasible and simpleb. Reasonable and understandablec. Affordable and Flexibled. Reasonable and Adequate (feasible, reasonable, affordable and adequate)

238) ________________ is a record of relevant details about execution of tests.a. Test data

b. None of the listed optionsc. Test logd. Defect tracking sheet

239) Distribution of responsibilities reduces the chances of selecting a tool that __________________.a. can be available with all the plug-insb. can be used to automate all the applicationsc. lacks trainingd. does not meet the recognized needs of the organization

240) A branch is

a. An unconditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in the component except the next statement

b. A conditional transfer of control from any statement to any other statement in a component

c. When a component has more than one entry point, a transfer of control to any entry point of the component

d. All of the above

241) A metric is:

a. A mathematical number that shows a relationship between two variables.

b. Metrics is quantitative measure of the degree to which a system /component or process possesses a given attribute.

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of the above.

242) Data collected during testing should include:

a. Test Factors.

b. Functions/subroutines

c. Platforms

d. All of the above

243) Which of the following does not represents ways to define and measure test coverage?

a. Statement coverage

b. Point to point coverage

c. Branch coverage.

d. Basic path coverage.

244) For building a test plan following tasks are required. Choose the correct sequence.

a. Understand Project Risks, Form Test Team, Build Test Plan

b. Build Test Plan, Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks.

c. Form Test Team, Understand Project Risks, Build Test Plan

d. None of the above represents the tasks involved in building test plan

245) Choose the correct from those given below.

a. Compliance Testing – Business rules.

b. Black Box Testing – Path Coverage.

c. Regression Testing – End users.

d. File Integrity – Control Totals

e. None of the above.

246) To know with adequate confidence, “when is testing over”, which of the following is the best approach?

a. Declare that it is over when Time is out.

b. Use test appropriate Metrics

c. Declare that it is over when budget is consumed

d. Let the management decide that

247) Which of the following is not a component of “software fit” for acceptance?

a. Data

b. Structure and People

c. Rules

d. Models

248) Which of the following statements are not correct?

a. Structural testing evaluates all aspects of the structure to verify that the structures is sound

b. Functional testing technique help ensure that the requirement/specifications are properly satisfied by the software system

c. Functional testing not concerned with how processing occurs, but with the results of process.

d. Functional testing techniques help to establish the roles and responsibilities of users during acceptance testing.

249) Which of the following is not one of the techniques to find defects?

a. Operational Techniques

b. Dynamics Techniques

c. Functional Techniques

d. Static Techniques

250) Quality Assurance methods are usually considered

a. Preventive

b. Corrective

c. Protective

251) Who has the primary responsibility of setting the quality culture in the organization

a. The Training Dept.

b. The Quality Dept.

c. Senior Management

d. None

252) In statistics, the mean and median are called

a. Variance

b. Standard deviation

c. Control Chart Values.

d. Measure of Central tendency

253) Quality principle dictate that the strategic quality plan should

a. Be incorporated by the quality assurance function

b. Be written for quality assurance function

c. Identify individual quality programs

d. Define the size of the quality assurance department.

254) Pareto analysis will tell us

a. Which problems occur most often

b. Why problem occur

c. Relative value of walkthrough and inspections

d. All of the above

255) Total quality management is a common term applied to a quality management system. Total quality management is

a. A process to produce zero defects

b. Another way of expressing statistical process control

c. A strategy built around control charts

d. A management philosophy

256) Quality Function Deployment

a. helps an organization to decide how the Quality function is deployed

b. is testing of previously verified program of application

c. is another approach to implementing balance score card method

d. is a systematic method to translate customer wants or needs into product or service

257) Which of the following are categories of acceptance requirement from user’s point of view

a. Overall software quality requirements

b. Functionality requirements

c. Performance requirements

d. Interface quality requirements

e. All the above

258) Risk is defined as

a. Frequency * Occurrence

b. Occurrence * Risk Factor

c. Risk Factor * Risk Response Number

d. Probability * Influence

259) Key elements of a defect management process are:

a. Defect Prevention

b. Defect discovery/defect naming

c. Defect resolution

d. All of the above

260) which of the following does not represent the general of defect management philosophy

a. All of the below are the general principles

b. The primary goal is to prevent defects

c. Defect management process should be risk driven

d. Capture and analysis of the defect information should be automated

e. Defect information should be used towards process improvement.

261) ‘Requirement’ is a formal statement of

a. An attribute to be possessed by the product/function to be performed by the product

b. The performance standard for the attribute or a function

c. The measuring process to be used in verifying that the standard has been met

d. All the above

262) Dynamic assertion is

a. All the below

b. a way of empowering people in the organization

c. the analysis performed by executing the program code

d. a powerful way of expressing yourself to make your presence felt

263) Condition coverage is

a. A black box testing technique

b. The property of logical coherence among constituent modules of a system

c. The number of decision statements covered in cyclomatic complexity analysis

d. None of the above

264) A Test Log

a. is a worksheet/spreadsheet to record test activities

b. helps to record incidents into the defect tracking system

c. is responsible for conducting the test readiness review

d. should contain the procedure environment and tools for test execution

e. only(a) and (b) above

265) Which of the following is the correct sequence to test execution?

a. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Review test results, Assign test scripts

b. Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Set up Test environment, Review test results

c. Set up Test environment, Identify test cases and test cycles, Assign test scripts, Review test results

d. Any of the above is a right sequence

266) Which of the following does not represent major concerns in the mind of testers during test execution step?

a. Software not in a testable mode

b. Inadequate time/resources

c. Significant problem will not be uncovered during testing

d. Developer will not appreciate testing

e. None of the above

267) Which of the following is/are factors used by Test Manager to determine whether the application is ready for production

a. MTBF Mean time between failures (MTBF) is the predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation.

b. Failure or % coverage achieve by the executed test

c. Severity level-wise number of open defects

d. Risk associated with moving the application into production

e. All of the above

268) During the recording of test results, deviations must be documented. Which of the following attributes should be documented?

a. All of the following

b. Activities involved

c. Users/Customer served

d. Deficiencies noted

e. Procedure used to perform work

269) The ‘cause’ is the underlying reason for the ‘condition’. The determination of the cause requires a scientific approach. Which of the following represents the correct sequences?

a. Define the problem

b. Identify workflow

c. Identify procedures

d. Identify people involved

e. Recreate the circumstances

i. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

ii.5, 1, 3, 2, 4

iii. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

iv. 3, 5, 2, 4 ,1

270) What technique is most effective in encouraging participation of attendees at meetings?

a. Having the moderator play the devil’s advocate

b. Tell people that participation will be one of the appraisal factors

c. Role playing and requesting suggestions

d. Requiring participation

271) Risk management involves identifying risk and ___________

a. Eliminating risks

b. Avoiding risks

c. Risk analysis

d. Developing strategies to address risk

272) How could root cause analysis be applied to software?

a. It can help identify error-prone parts of the process

b. It cannot be applied; there is no normal variation in software

c. It cannot be used to identify similar types of failures

d. It cannot be applied; software failure expose the root cause directly

273) One of the primary objective of process control is to:

a. Increase competition

b. Improve metrics

c. Find root causes

d. Reduce Variability

274) Quality has been defined as:

a. Meeting requirements

b. Customer satisfaction

c. Zero defects

d. (a) and (b)

275) Three part of the PDCA cycles are act, plan and do. The fourth part of the PDCA cycle is:

a. Calibrate

b. Control

c. Coordinate

d. Create

e. Check

276) The primary purpose of quality control is to:

a. Prevent defect from occurring

b. Assign quality responsibilities

c. Conducting testing

d. Find and correct defects

e. Writing work processes

277) The overall goal of software testing is to:

a. Identify error not removed previously

b. Find who cause the error

c. Keep re-work costs as low as possible

d. None of the above

278) With the acquisition of a testing tool, the test engineer’s first priority is to:

a. Decide how much to pay

b. Check with end-user first

c. Identify the goal for the tool usage

d. Make sure your management agrees to use the tool

279) The objectives of _________Control are to prevent, detect or correct or incorrect processing.

a. Transaction processing system

b. External

c. Internal

d. Environmental

280) Testing to determine that current changes have NOT adversely affected previous functionality is called:

a. Regression Testing

b. System Testing

c. Unit Testing

d. Acceptance Testing

281) White box testing is primarily:

a. Data driven

b. Logic driven

c. Bottom up driven

d. Top down driven

282) The most effective test approach is to begin testing when:

a. After requirements

b. After external design

c. After coding

d. A new project begins

283) Verification is an approach to testing that can occur during:

a. Requirements

b. External design

c. Internal design

d. Coding

e. All of the above

284) Quality is often referred to as being free. This is because:

a. The payback is greater than its cost over time

b. It’s difficult to quantify consumer satisfaction

c. There is a never ending goal to be achieved

d. Of continuous improvement

285) The characteristic of an effective meeting for testing related issues include:

a. Develop an agenda

b. Define the role of the people attending the meeting

c. Encourages attendees to contribute fully

d. Clearly define the test objective

e. All the above

286) Which of the following is NOT part of a process workbench?

a. Input

b. Do Procedure

c. Check Procedure

d. Defect Management

e. Output

287) Quality function deployment is most associated with:

a. Total Quality Management

b. Problem Analysis

c. Regression Testing

d. Tracing requirements

e. Continuous Process Improvement

288) Which among the following is not a defect?

a. An extra function provided in the system

b. None of the listed options

c. A requirement implemented incorrectly

d. A requirement not implemented in the system

289) ----------- is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a testing activity.

a. Test objective

b. Test design

c. None of the listed options

d. Risk analysis

290) Which is the test method satisfying the coverage criteria that each logical path through the program be tested?

a. Integration testing

b. Performance testing

c. Interface testing

d. Usability testing

e. Path testing

291) ----------- is a statement of the overall approach to testing, identifying what levels of testing are to be applied and the

method, techniques and tool to be used.

a. Risk analysis

b. Defect Report

c. Requirement review

d. Test Strategy

292) ---------------------is a test technique that changes a data element in a single file, which is redundant in several files.

This technique also verifies that other files will be changed accordingly.

a. Requirements

b. Control

c. Security

d. File integrity

293) Which among the following are techniques that facilitate the recording of the defect at each stage or test process?

a. All of the listed options

b. Acknowledge defect

c. Report Defect

d. Defect naming

294) Which among the following is a set of predefined action items used by tester for a process to be complete and

acceptable?

a. Exit Criteria

b. Error guessing

c. Force field analysis

d. Formal analysis

295) Testing cost that exceeds the cost of defect uncovered isn’t a indicator of ‘over-testing” state true or false

296) Cost of non-conformance includes --------------------------------

a. survey

b. training survey, etc

c. training survey etc, studies and survey

d. studies

e. rework

297) Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage(S) so that low level modules never need testing. State true

or false

298) Creating representative processing conditions using test transactions is the concept of ---------------------

a. all of the listed options

b. requirement trace ability matrix

c. test data preparation

d. test plan preparation

299) Most of the problems associated with the testing process occur from one of the following causes EXCEPT:

a. failure to define testing objectives

b. testing at the wrong phase in the life cycle

c. use of ineffective test techniques

d. defects present in production environment

300) Following are the valid testing certifications EXCEPT: BSTE

The defect management process is based on the following general principles:

1. The primary goal is to prevent defects. Where this is not possible or practical, the goals are to both find the defect as quickly as possible and minimize the impact of the defect.

2. The defect management process should be risk driven -- i.e., strategies, priorities, and resources should be based on the extent to which risk can be reduced.

3. Defect measurement should be integrated into the software development process and be used by the project team to improve the process. In other words, the project staff, by doing their job, should capture information on defects at the source. It should not be done after-the-fact by people unrelated to the project or system

4. As much as possible, the capture and analysis of the information should be automated.

5. Defect information should be used to improve the process. This, in fact, is the primary reason for gathering defect information.

6. Most defects are caused by imperfect or flawed processes. Thus to prevent defects, the process must be altered.