Soalan 3rd Week (1)

8/3/2019 Soalan 3rd Week (1)

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MODULE : INFECTION AND IMMUNITY

WEEK : 3 (23-27 OCT 2011)

SEMESTER : 3

YEAR : 2 (2011-2012)

1. Which of the following is the non specific primary prevention except?A. Nutritional intervention

B. Immunization

C. Health education

D. Environmental sanitation

2. What is the meaning of secondary prevention?

A. Actions taken prior to the onset of disease

B. Action which hinder the progress of disease at early stage.

C. Action taken after the onset of disease

D. Action taken to control the causation of disease

3. What is the term for is the application of disinfective measures as soon as possible after the

discharge of infectious material from the body of an infected person?

A. Sterilization

B. Terminal disinfection

C. Concurrent disinfection

D. Cleaning

4. Arrange the measures applied to cases of communicable disease?

i)isolation of the patient

ii)reporting

iii)case finding and early detectioniv)treatment

A. iii,ii,i,iv

B. iii,ii,iv,i

C. ii,iii,iv,i

D. i,ii,iii,iv

5. How long the best period to observe the contacts of communicable disease?

A. Shortest incubation period

B. Longest incubation period

C. Forever

D.

Until the communicable disease disappear

6. Which of the following is FALSE regarding virus?

A. It is a parasite at genetic level

B. Required energy,protein synthesis machine & building blocks for synthesis of viral

protein & nucleic acids

C. Its interaction with cell may end in either lytic,steady state or latent state of cell

D. Virus not depend on susceptible cell to become metabolically active


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7. Choose the CORRECT pair regarding virus growth cycle

I. Uncoating > adsorption>penetration>eclipse phase>assembly>release

II. Eclipse phase is the phase of transcription & translation of viral genome

III. The penetration of virus into susceptible host depend on its structure either

envelope or not

IV. Uncoating involve the separation of virus envelope away from its virion

A. I,II

B. II,III

C. III,IV

D. I,III

8. Which of the following is FALSE regarding bacteriophage?A. Used in prophylaxis and treatment of bacterial infections

B. It may exist inside the host as mature phage and developed either to vegetative or

prophage

C. The DNA phage is chemically & physically different from bacteria it infects

D. Tail consists of hollow core, contractile sheath, terminal base-plate attached to

prongs, fibers or both.

9. Choose the correct pair regarding bacteriophage replication

I. The tail act as the adsorption organ

II. The viruss DNA is injected into bacteria after the action of gyrase present on base

plate

III. The action of the gyrase result in lysis of the bacteria

IV. Eclipse phase involve the translation & transcription of viral genome

A. I,II

B. II,III

C. III,IV

D. I,IV

10.Which is true regarding effect of lysogeny on genome bacteria cell?

A. Lysogenic conversion will result in production of toxin by staphylococcus

B. Transducing phages may contain RNA strand and DNA strand

C. New property in bacteria found in bacterias genome

D. The transduction process deal with the phage genome

11.Which of the following is true about the properties of interferon?

A. Stimulus specific in function

B. Divided into two groups that is IFN- and IFN-

C. Host species specific in function

D. None of the above


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12.All of the following are true about interferon EXCEPT

A. It is a host-coded protein that inhibit viral replication

B. Have immunomodulatory effectsC. A member of the large cytokine family

D. It is believed to be the body's third line of defense against viral infection

13.Which of the following can be used to describe the synthesis of interferon?

A. Produced by cells of all vertebrate species in response to stimuli

B. Viral infection is a potent inducer for interferon synthesis

C. Its synthesis can also be induced by synthetic double stranded dna ,bacterial endotoxin,

and mitogen

D. All of the above

14.All of the following are the cell regulatory activity of interferon EXCEPTA. Inhibition of viral replication

B. Inhibition of cell growth

C. Increased expression of histocompatibility antigens

D. Activation of cytotoxic cells

15.All of the following are true about the clinical use of interferon EXCEPT

A. Chronic hepatitis C

B. Acute hepatitis B

C. Treatment of multiple sclerosis

D. Used as anti-cancer agent

16.The role of acyclovir triphosphate

A. Activate viral DNA synthesis

B. Inhibit viral RNA synthesis

C. Inhibit nucleoside reverse tansciptase

D. Inhibit viral DNA synthesis

17.All of the following are the adverse effects of acyclovir except:

A. Bone marrow suppression

B. Neurotoxicities

C. Nephropathy

D. GIT disturbance

18.Which of the following can be used to treat cytomegalovirus infections?

A. Acyclovir

B. Valacyclovir

C. Gancyclovir

D. Valgancyclovir

19.Forcarnet is given to the patient that resistant to:

A. Acyclovir

B. Gancyclovir

C. Valacyclovir

D. Valgancyclovir


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20.Acyclovir is converted to triphosphate compound by virus-specified thymidine kinase (VTK)

to be activated showing the selective toxicity of acyclovir.

A. True

B. False

21.All of the followings are medical importance of fungi EXCEPT : (page 32)

A. Antifungal

B. Ergot

C. Toxins

D. Mycoses

22.Which of the following are pre disposing factor that leads to mycoses : (lecture)

I. Prolonged treatment of antibiotics

II. Concurrent disease as malignancy

III. Debilitating condition of host such as diabeticIV. Transient treatment of corticosteroids

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. I,II and III

D. I,II,III and IV

23.Aflatoxin are : (page 32)

I. Active in inducing uterine contractions and controllong bleeding

II. Powerful toxin that produced by Aspergillusflavus

III. It can induce hallucination

IV.

Generally incriminated in liver malignancyA. II and IV

B. II and III

C. I, II and III

D. II, III and IV

24.Which of the following are TRUE about morphological classification of fungi : (page 33)

A. Filamentous fungi short branching hyphae

B. Yeasts example of this fungi is Candida

C. Dimorphic fungi typical yeast morphology when grown at room temperature

D. Yeast-like fungi form of budding yeast-like cells and as chains of elongated unbrancehd

filamentous cells

25.Fungi that never produces filaments is : (lecture )

A. Yeasts

B. Yeast-like fungi

C. Filamentous fungi

D. Dimorphic fungi


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26. Which of following specific or obligatory mysiasis causing fly larvae do not cause

furuncularmyiasis?

I- DermatobiaII- Cordylobiaanthropophaga

III- Wohlfartia and Oestrus

IV- CochliomyiaChrysmyia

V- Hypoderma

A. I and II

B. I, II and IV

C. I, III and V

D. III, IV and V

27. All of the following is true about internal myiasis EXCEPT:

A. intestinal myiasis can be diagnosed from dead larvae that may appear in stools or vomitus

B. larvae ofEristalis fly is commonly called rat-tailed larva because of its long posterior tail like

process

C. in urogenital myiasis, higher diptera cause obstruction to urinary flows if their eggs are in

urinary tract

D. intestinal myiasis is facilitated by lowered gastric acidity

28. Screw worm that invade wounds and ulcers can cause

A. furuncular swellings

B. traumatic cutaneous myiasis

C. creeping eruption

D. conjunctivitis

29. All of following is incorrect about myiasis according to biological habit of fly EXCEPT:

A. in accidental myiasis, fly eggs or larvae that are deposited on food material can accidentally

ingested leading to gastric myiasis

B. presence of facultative myiasis causing larvae prevent healing of the affected site

C. in the ear, Wolhfartia and Oestrus can cause internal otitisD.eggs of chrysmyia on mosquito abdomen hatch into larvae when it is stimulated by the

warmth of human


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30. Which of all of following related to diagnosis and treatment of myiasis ?

I. Pattern of larvae posterior spiracles are characteristic for each of different group of

flies

II. Surgical removal of larvae then treating the lesion

III. Treatment of furuncularmyiasis by stimulating the larva to leave the wound with

Vaseline application

IV. Irrigation of the area with 5- 10 % chloroform in animal oil

A. I, II, and III

B. I, III, and IV

C. II, III and IV

D. I, II, III and IV

31. The following are INCORRECT regarding anti-influenza virus agent EXCEPT:

A. H1N1 and H1N5 strains are treated and prevented by amantadine and rimantidine

drugs

B. Zanamivir is given orally while oseltamivir is given through inhalation

C. Cross resistance will not develop between oseltamivir and zanamivir

D. Oseltamivir and zanamivir have the same target and the same site of action

32. Choose the correct adverse effect with its anti-viral drug?

I.Bronchospasm-Zanamivir

II.Bone marrow suppression-Oseltamivir

III.Neurotoxicity-Interferon

IV.Hemolytic anemia-Ribavirin

A. I,II and III ONLY

B. II and IV ONLY

C. I,III, and IV ONLY

D. IV ONLY

33. The following are patients that are NOT suitable for intake of Interferon EXCEPT:

A. Pregnant female with hepatitis B

B. Hepatitis C patient with kidney failure

C. Hepatitis C patient with rheumatoid arthritis

D. Patient with chronic hepatitis B

E. Patient after heart transplantation


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34. Choose the correct statement from the following:

I.

HCV can be eliminated through treatment with standard or pegylated interferon alphaII. Main side effect of Lamivudine is pancreatitis

III. HBV infection can be eradicated through anti-hepatitis drugs

IV. Unmodified interferon alpha must be injected only once a week

A. I ONLY

B. I and II ONLY

C. I, II and III ONLY

D.All of the above

35. The following are main factors that affect the response to IFN infection EXCEPT:

A. The viral load

B. The viral phenotype

C. The duration of the disease

D. The hepatic iron concentration

36. Choice of the method of decontamination depends on all the following except:

A. Nature of object to be decontaminated

B. Objects tolerance to the process of decontamination

C. Destroys all vegetative bacteria including tubercle bacilli

D.Objects microbial load

37. What is the meaning of disinfection?

A. Process by which organisms are removed or destroyed in order to render an object safe

B. Freeing of an article from some or all of its contaminating microorganisms except spores

C. Kill microorganisms by causing a destructive oxidation of essential cell constituents

D.Process which achieves the complete destruction or killing of all microorganism including

spores

38. All the following are true regarding cleaning except:

A. Essential step before successful disinfection and sterilization

B. Suitable method for decontamination of environmental surfaces

C. Visible dirt or organic matter are mechanically removed

D. Rinsing laundry or eating utensil in water at 70-80Cfor few minutes

39. Choose the false statement regarding tyndallization process:

A. Exposure to boiling water for 20 minutes achieves high level disinfection

B. Spores that survive the initial heating will germinate in the medium in room temperature

C. Useful method of sterilization of laboratory media containing sugar or gelatin

D. Vegetative forms will be killed on the second day when medium is reheated


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40. All the following are true regarding sterilization by moist heat except:

A. Requires temperatures above that of boiling water

B. Raising the pressure to double atmosphere increases the temperature to 150C

C. Autoclave is used in all operating theatres for sterilization of high risk (critical items)

D. Kills microorganisms by coagulating and denaturing their enzymes and structural proteins

41. Component of antigen can be the following EXCEPT

A.pure lipids

B.protein

C.polysaccharide

D.lipopolysaccharide

42. ALL the following are iso-antigens EXCEPT

A. blood group antigens

B. Rh factors

C. MHC

D.H antigens

43. Which of the following is WRONG?

I- Staphylococcal exotoxinII- Staphylococcal pyrogenic exotoxin

III-Exfoliative dermatitis toxin

IV-Toxic shock syndrome endotoxin

A. I, II, III

B. III, IV

C. I, II, IV

D. I, IV

44. Which of the following immunoglobulins fixes the complement?

I- IgG

II- IgM

III-IgE

IV-IgA

A. I, II

B. I, II, III

C. II, IIID.All of the above

Antibodies are immunoglobulins formed in response to antigens and they react specifically with

them.

Superantigens are mostly of bacterial origin.


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Hybridoma cell has the ability to produce unlimited quantities of highly specific monoclonal

antibodies.

45. Why myeloma cells (malignant plasma cells) are chose to produce hybridoma cells?

A. those poses broken cell division cycle

B. myeloma cells have unique enzymes that accelerate antibodies production

C. genetic coding for antibodies found in myeloma cells

D. only malignant plasma cells can produce antibodies in our body

46. Statements below are all true regarding the importance of MHC EXCEPT:

A. paternity testing

B. MHC Restriction in Thelper cells recognizing the Ag in association with MHC I

C. MHC Restriction in APC cells recognizing the Ag in association with MHC ID. Disease association

47. Choose the correct characteristic of MHC class-1:-

I- Found on all nucleated cells

II- They include HLA-DP, DQ , DR for classical types

III- It can be determined by serological tests

IV- They include HLA-G, E for non classical types

A. I , II, III

B. II, III, IV

C. I , III, IV

D. All of the above

48. Statements below are all about Complement system EXCEPT:-

I- A complex group of serum proteins only

II- Only being synthetised by hepatic parenchymal cells, monocytes and intestinal epithelium

III- It is a system that help in completing the immune system of the body

IV- Alternative pathway is the natural immunity of the body

A. II , III

B. I, II

C. III, IV

D. I, IV


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49. The statement above refers to :

A. anaphylatoxins

B. chemotaxis

C. cell lysis

D. opsonization

50. This substance are believed to be one of the major causes of graft rejecting.

What is this substance?

A. immunoglobulin M

B. Short arm of chromosome 6

C. serum proteins

D. human leukocytic antigens HLA

ANSWERS:

Eg: B 27-8 (Answer B, page 27 and 28)

1.B 74 11. C 150 21. A 31. C 153 41. A 89

2.B 74 12. C 150 22. C 32. C 153 42. D 89

3.C 75 13. D 150 23. A 33. D 155 43. C 90

4.A 76 14. A 151 24. D 34. B 153-4 44. A 90-1

5.B 77 15. B 151-2 25. A 35. B 154-5 45. B

6.D 27 16. D 26. D 59-60 36. C 46. B

7.B 27-8 17. A 27. C 59 37. B 47. C

8.B 29 18. C 28. B 59 38. D 48. B

9.D 30 19. B 29. B 60 39. A 49. A

10.A 31 20. B 30. A 61 40. B 50. D

It is a certain components of complement system that can produce degranulation of

an inflammatory cell that causes increased in vascular permeability

Be nice to nerds. Chances are you'll end up

working for one.

Bill Gates
http://www.brainyquote.com/quotes/quotes/b/billgates382922.htmlhttp://www.brainyquote.com/quotes/quotes/b/billgates382922.htmlhttp://www.brainyquote.com/quotes/quotes/b/billgates382922.html

Soalan 3rd Week (1)

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