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Short Answers

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JG COLLEGE OF COMMERCE

AHMEDABAD

Affiliated to Gujarat University

DEPARTMENT FACULTY

Accountancy / Taxation /

Law

Dr. Jigar Aggarwal Dr. Kandarp Chavda Prof. C.A. Kartik Patel Prof. Rajmohan Nair Prof. Arpit Dave

(Visiting Faculty)

Prof. Amit Savani (Visiting Faculty)

Statistics

Dr. Arati Shah Dr. Delnaz Jokhi

Economics

Prin. Dr. Satyajeet S. Deshpande

Dr. Megha Bhatt Prof. Dinesh Patel

Management

Prof. Shimoni Trivedi Prof. Mrunal Mehta

English / Commercial

Communication

Dr. Minnie Mattheew Prof. Jigar Joshi Dr. Dhaval Kataria

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F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

SR. No

SUBJECT PAGE NO.

1.

Financial Accounting - I

4 - 10

2.

Accountancy – I

11 - 17

3.

Statistics – I

(Basic Statistics)

18 - 26

4.

Principles of Economics - I 27 - 35

5. Human Resource Management 36 - 49

6.

General English - I 50 - 64

7.

Commercial Communication – I

65 - 75

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F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

(ONE MARK ANSWERS)

OR

(SHORT ANSWERS)

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F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Financial Accounting - I

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F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Financial Accounting - I

(Short Answers)

1. In Piecemeal Distribution according to surplus capital method, final deficit of each partners-

a) Will not be in ratio of capital b) Will not be in ratio of profit & Loss c) Will be in ratio of profit & loss d) Will be in capital ratio

2. __________is the correct sequence of payment of dues on dissolution of a partnership firm.

a) Partner‟s Loan - Capital- Creditors- Secured Loan

b) Creditors- Secured Loan – Partner‟s Loan – Capital

c) Secured Loan- Partner‟s Loan – Creditors- Capital

d) Secured Loan – Creditors- Partner‟s Loan – Capital

3. Amount Reserved for dissolution expenses will be subtracted from the _________ instalment.

a) First b) Second c) Third d) Last Instalment

4. Under _________ assumption the amount received on each instalment is distributed while making piecemeal distribution on dissolution of a partnership firm.

a) All partners are solvent b) All partners are insolvent c) One partner is solvent d) No Amount will be realized in future.

5. When piecemeal distribution of cash is done according to surplus of a partnership firm. a) Partner having the highest capital

gets first

b) All partners get in profit sharing ratio.

c) All partners get equal amount d) Partner whose capital is more in proportion of his profit-sharing ratio gets

first.

6. In Piecemeal distribution of cash, an amount of Rs. 12,000 was kept aside for the dissolution expenses, but the actual amount of expenses comes to Rs. 10,000, then-

a) Rs. 10,000 deduct from cash b) Rs. 10,000 deduct from first instalment c) Rs. 10,000 deduct from last

instalment

d) Rs. 12,000 Will be deducted from the first instalment and Rs. 2,000 will be added to

the last instalment.

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7. In piecemeal distribution of cash, the credit balance of Profit & Loss Account is- a) Deducted from Partner‟s Capital

A/c

b) Added in Partner‟s Capital A/c.

c) Should not be distributed d) Deducted from cash.

8. In piecemeal distribution of cash, the debit balance of Profit & Loss Account is- a) Deducted from Partner‟s Capital

A/c

b) Added in Partner‟s Capital A/c.

c) Should not be distributed d) Deducted from Instalment.

9. Ram, Shyam, Ghanshyam are sharing profits & Losses in the ratio 3: 4: 2 respectively, their capitals are Rs. 84,000, Rs. 42,000 and Rs. 36,000 respectively. On selling of

assets, the first instalment of Rs. 27,000 is received. According to maximum loss

method-

a) Shyam Will get Rs. 27,000 b) Ghanshyam will get Rs. 27,000 c) Ram, Shyam & Ghanshyam each

will get Rs. 9,000

d) Ram will get Rs. 27,000

10. Depreciation is calculated on the asset purchased by company in- a) Time Ratio b) Turnover Ratio c) Post- Incorporation Period d) Pre-Incorporation Period

11. If there is a loss prior to incorporation, it will be debited to- a) Profit & Loss Account b) Goodwill A/c c) Capital Reserve Account d) None of the Above

12. Salesmen‟s Commission is divided in profit prior to incorporation according to - a) Time Ratio b) Turnover Ratio c) Prior to Incorporation d) Post to Incorporation

13. Share issue expenses written off are recorded in _________ Period. a) Pre-Incorporation Period b) Post Incorporation Period c) Both A and B d) Not Recorded

14. Time Ratio 1:2, Accounting Year April to March. The Sales of every month from July to March is equal. There was strike in the month of

November, due to which there is no sales in that month. The total sales of first three

months were 15% of the total sales of remaining months. Find out sales Ratio.

a) 10:23 b) 3:8 c) 11:35 d) 3:17

15. Profit prior to incorporation is transferred to_____ Account. a) General Reserve b) Capital Reserve c) Goodwill d) Reserve Fund

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16. From the information given below, Find out the proportion of sales for the period prior to and after incorporation.

Date of Purchase of Business: 1-7-2020

Date of incorporation: 1-10-2020

Date of Year Ending: 31-3-2021

Average sales of first three months are half of average sales for the remaining months.

a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:3 d) 1:4

17. How should we allocate the expenses of incorporation of company? a) As expenses after incorporation b) As expenses before incorporation period c) In the proportion of time before

and after incorporation

d) In the proportion of sales prior to and after incorporation.

18. Profit of Pre-Incorporation period is called - a) Capital Income b) Revenue Income c) Capital Profit d) Revenue Profit

19. On Equity shares of Rs. 10 each, Issued at a premium of Rs. 10, the minimum amount must be called up along with the application is-

a) Rs. 1 b) Rs. 0.50 c) Rs. 2 d) Rs. 1.50

20. The annual interest on calls in advance as per Table F Should be ______As per companies Act,2013.

a) 5% b) 6% c) 10% d) 12%

21. Minimum amount required to call on application is ________ as per Companies Act,2013.

a) Rs. 1 b) 5% of face value c) Rs. 10 d) Amount decided by the Company

22. X Ltd issued Equity Shares of Rs. 150 each at 100% Premium. The minimum amount to be called per share on application as per SEBI Guidelines-

a) Rs. 7.50 b) Rs. 15 c) Rs. 37.50 d) Rs. 75

23. When Shares are Forfeited, then the amount called up on forfeited shares is debited to - a) Share Capital A/c b) Share Call A/c c) Capital Reserve A/c d) Share Forfeited A/c

24. The maximum Rate of interest received by a company on call in arrears as per table-F a) 6% b) 12% c) 5% d) 10%

25. Shares Cannot be Issued at Discount Except- a) Sweat Equity Share b) Preference Share c) Potential Equity Shares d) None of the Above.

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26. ___________ are included in issued and paid up capital of the company. a) Shares Bought Back b) Sweat Equity Shares c) Potential Equity Shares d) None of the Above.

27. Which Type of Shares can be bought back? a) Partly Paid up b) Fully Paid Up c) Partly or Fully Paid up any share d) Share Cannot be bought back as per

Company Law

28. Under _______ Process the price per share is not pre decided by the company. a) Right Share Issue b) Book Building c) Potential Equity shares d) Sweat equity share issue

29. If the buyback of share is made at face value - a) General Reserve Account is

debited

b) Capital Reserve is debited

c) Bank Account is credited d) None of the above is true

30. Which of the following Company cannot buy back its own shares? a) Public Company b) Default Company c) Manufacturing Company d) Finance Company

31. After the Buy Back is completed, With in How Many Days the company has to physically destroy the purchased shares?

a) Seven b) Fifteen c) Ten d) Twenty

32. The convertible debentures to be converted into equity shares next year‟s such issued shares are called-

a) Potential Equity Shares b) Sweat Equity shares c) Buy Back of Shares d) None of the Above

33. When a purchaser bears the firms Dissolution Expenses, Then the same is debited to ______account in the books of Purchaser.

a) Goodwill b) Share Capital c) Vendor‟s Account d) Dissolution Expenses

34. If the Purchase price is less than the net assets, the difference is considered as_________.

a) Capital Reserve b) Goodwill c) Purchase Price d) None of the Above

35. While Calculating the Purchase price, the number of shares issued by the purchasing company is calculated at their __________.

a) Market Price b) Discounted Price c) Face Value d) None of the Above

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36. When old bad debts are recovered, it is credited to ____________Account in the purchasing company book.

a) Vendor‟s Suspense Account b) Vendor‟s Creditors Account c) Vendor‟s Debtors Account d) Bad debt recovery

37. Pukar Ltd has taken over gargi Bros. Sundry Assets are Rs. 10,00,000 and the above value of goodwill is Rs. 1,00,000 Other sundry Liabilities are Rs. 8,00,000. Then

purchase price of the business will be -

a) Rs. 2,00,000 b) Rs. 2,50,000 c) Rs. 3,50,000 d) Rs. 3,00,000

38. Total Assets of a firm are Rs. 6,40,000. Total liabilities are Rs. 90,000. Purchase price is determined at Rs. 4,80,000. Then What it would be -

a) Goodwill b) Capital Reserve c) Goodwill & Capital Reserve Both d) None of the above

39. Purchase Consideration of a business + Capital Reserve = a) Net Assets of the business b) Goodwill c) Consideration d) Total Assets of the Business

40. Dosti Ltd. Purchased the business of dostana Bros. Purchase Consideration was paid by 10,000 equity shares of Rs 100 Each at 25% Premium. Capital Reserve arrived at Rs.

50,000 If the value of total liabilities taken over was Rs. 2,50,000 then the value of total

assets taken over would be-

a) Rs. 15,50,000 b) Rs. 10,00,000 c) Rs. 15,00,000 d) Rs. 13,00,000

41. Share Premium Account is shown in the balance sheet under the heading of - a) Share Capital b) Current Liabilities c) Reserve & Surplus d) Non-Current Liabilities

42. ___________Dividend declared by the directors between two annual general meetings. a) Final b) Interim c) Proposed d) Unpaid

43. Dividends are usually paid on __________ Capital. a) Paid Up Capital b) Authorised Capital c) Reserve Capital d) Issued Capital

44. Corporate Dividend Tax is paid on ________. a) Profit After Tax b) Income Tax c) Proposed Dividend d) Profit before Tax

45. The Company has 1,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each. Rs 7 per share paid up then interim dividend payable at 8% will be Rs. _________.

a) 80,000 b) 70,000 c) 56,000 d) None of the above.

46. In balance-sheet the amount of calls in arrears will be shown as- a) Deducted from the called-up share

capital

b) Under the head Reserve and Surplus

c) Deducted from Capital Reserve d) Deducted from forfeited Shares A/c

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47. Which of the following item is considered as „contingent Liability‟ for a company? a) Proposed Dividend b) Unpaid Dividend on cumulative

preference shares

c) Unclaimed dividend d) Provision for taxes

48. The Provision for income tax to be shown under the head ________ in the balance sheet as per Schedule III of companies Act,2013.

a) Short term provisions b) Long term provisions c) Trade payables d) None of the Above

49.

Particulars Debit (Rs.) Credit (Rs.)

6% Debenture Account - 3,00,000

Debenture Interest

Account 6,000 _-

What Amount of interest will be shown in profit and loss statement?

a) Rs 6,000 b) Rs. 12,000 c) Rs. 18,000 d) Rs. 24,000

50. In the balance of trail balance, Balances of 10% debentures is Rs. 1,00,000 and interest on debentures paid Rs. 5,000, then what will be debited to Profit & Loss Account Rs.

________ ?

a) 5,000 b) 10,000

c) 15,000 d) None of the Above.

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F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Accountancy - I

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F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Accountancy - I

(Short Answers)

CONSIGNMENT

Q1) Del credere commission is calculated on the

(A) Total Sales (B) Only Cash Sales

(C) Only Credit Sales (D) Total Goods Sent

Q2) In Consignment accounts, abnormal loss is debited to –

(A) Consignment Account (B) Consignee Account

(C) Principal‟s Account (D) Profit and Loss Account

Q3) Which type of commission is paid on the goods purchased by the consignee himself?

(A) Normal Commission (B) Additional Commission

(C) Del Credere Commission (D) Commission is not paid.

Q4) The relation between Consignor and Consignee is of –

(A) Debtor and Creditor (B) Principal and Agent

(C) Seller and Purchaser (D) All of the above.

Q5) From the following expenses which is recurring expenses?

(A) Insurance on goods sent

(B) Goods Clearing charges

(C) Advertisement Expense

(D) All of the above

Q6) Abnormal Loss in consignment business is –

(A) Debited to Consignment Account

(B) Credited to Insurance Company Account

(C) Credited to Profit and Loss Account

(D) Credited to Consignment Account

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Q7) When del credere commission is not given and there is bad debt for credit sales, which

account is debited in the books of consignee?

(A) Debtors Account (B) Commission Account

(C) Consignor Account (D) Bad Debt Reserve Account

Q8) In relation to consignment account-

(A) Consignor sends „Account Sale‟ to Consignee.

(B) Consignee sends „Account Sale‟ to Consignor.

(C) Debtor sends „Account Sale‟ to Consignor.

(D) Consignee sends „Account Sale‟ to Customer.

Q9) If market price of closing stock is also known while preparing Consignment Account-

(A) Closing stock is to be valued at Cost.

(B) Closing stock is to be valued at Market price.

(C) Closing stock is to be valued at Cost or Market price, whichever is lower.

(D) Closing stock is to be valued at Cost or Market price, whichever is higher.

Q10) If the goods are sent at Invoice price, the profit in closing stock of consignment is –

(A) Debited to Consignment Stock Reserve Account.

(B) Credited to Consignment Stock Reserve Account.

(C) Credited to Consignment Account.

(D) Credited to Profit and Loss Account.

Q11) Cost of required repair on damaged closing stock of Consignment will be –

(A) Debited to Consignment Account

(B) Debited to Consignment Stock

(C) Debited to Repairs Account

(D) Deducted from Value of Closing stock

Q12) Which of the following statements is correct in respect of goods sent to consignee?

(A) Consignor and Consignee enter into an agreement for sale of goods.

(B) The relationship between consignor and consignee is that of a trader and customer.

(C) The relations ship between consignor and consignee is no that of „Principal‟ and „Agent‟.

(D) Consignee is entitled to return the goods if remaining unsold.

Q13) When there is a shortage due to natural causes before goods are reaching the

consignee, what will be its final effect in consignment accounts

(A) Profit of consignment account will decrease

(B) Profit of consignment account will increase

(C) There will be no change in the profit of consignment account.

(D) None of these

Q14) The consignor consigned goods worth Rs. 20,000 to the consignee and paid expense of

Rs. 1,000. Consignee paid Rs. 500 for freight and octroi. What will be the value of closing

stock if 30% of the goods are unsold?

(A) Rs. 6,450 (B) Rs. 6,000 (C) Rs. 6,150 (D) Rs. 6,300

Q15) The abnormal loss of Rs. 20,000 occurred in consignment business. The insurance

company accepted 40% claim. What amount will be credited to consignment account?

(A) Rs. 8,000 (B) Rs. 20,000 (C) Rs. 12,000 (D) Rs. 17,500

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BRANCH ACCOUNTS Q16) For an independent branch, H.O. A/c is like –

(A) P and L Account (B) Real Account

(C) Capital Account (D) Nominal Account

Q17) Under the Stock and Debtors system, Branch A/c is treated as-

(A) Personal Account (B) Real Account

(C) Nominal Account (D) Joint Account

Q18) Branch Account is a –

(A) Personal Account (B) Real Account

(C) Nominal Account (D) None of these

Q19) Head office sends goods to its branch at invoice price after adding 25% profit on cost

price. So, profit would be _______ percentage of invoice price.

(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 40%

Q20) Decentralization of authority in dependent branch in comparison to independent branch

is –

(A) Less (B) More (C) Equal (D) None of the above

Q21) For finding out the amount of sundry expenses paid by the branch, the following

account should be prepared.

(A) Petty Cash Account (B) Creditors A/c

(C) Debtors A/c (D) Prepaid expense A/c

Q22) How the goods in transit is shown in the balance sheet of the head office ?

(A) It is shown on Assets side

(B) It is shown on Liabilities side

(C) It is deducted from the stock on Assets side.

(D) It is added into creditors on Liabilities side.

Q23) For goods sent by head office, but not received by the branch before the end of the year,

by debiting it to goods in transit, which account should be credited?

(A) Cash Account (B) Trading Account

(C) Head Office Account (D) Branch Account

Q24) Which account is to be credited by branch for Cash in Transit?

(A) Branch Account (B) Head Office Account

(C) Cash Account (D) Bank Account

Q25) During the year, Head office sent Rs. 3,000 to its branch for Petty cash expenses, the

opening balance is Rs. 800 and closing balance of Petty cash is Rs. 550, then petty cash

expenses will be –

(A) Rs. 3,000 (B) Rs. 3,250 (C) Rs. 3,800 (D) Rs. 3,550

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Q26) Head Office Sent Rs. 6,000 as Petty cash to its branch during this year, Opening and

closing balance of petty cash was Rs. 1,700 and Rs. 1,200 respectively with the branch. Then

petty cash expenses of the branch during the year will be –

(A) Rs. 6,000 (B) Rs. 1,700 (C) Rs. 6,500 (D) Rs. 7,700

Q27) In which account, adjustment entry of Goods in transit is not recorded?

(A) Head Office (B) Branch (C) Branch account (D) Bank Account

Q28) Which of the following branches, taking into consideration the scope of authority and

responsibility, prepares its own independent final accounts?

(A) Foreign branch

(B) Dependent branch

(C) Independent branch

(D) Independent branch and Foreign branch both

Q29) Goods sent by head office, but not received by the branch before end of the year is

called –

(A) Cash in transit (B) Goods in transit

(C) (A) and (B) both (D) None of these

Q30) In the books of independent branch, Cash in transit is –

(A) Debited to Head office A/c

(B) Credited to Head office A/c

(C) Credited to Cash A/c

(D) Debited to Trading A/c

JOINT VENTURE ACCOUNTS

Q31) In which of the following business, Joint venture can be possible?

(A) Run a fast-food stall in a festival fair

(B) Oil refinery

(C) Daily Newspaper

(D) None of these

Q32) In Joint-venture, if goods are given as gift to customer, which of the following

account is debited?

(A) Gift Account (B) Joint Venture Account

(C) Profit and Loss Account (D) None of the above

Q33) Normal loss of goods in Joint venture is debited to –

(A) General Profit and Loss Account

(B) Joint Venture Account

(C) Not debited to any account

(D) None of the above

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Q34) Following activities are appropriate for Joint Venture business:

(A) Construction of a river bridge (B) Cloth shop

(C) Medical store (D) DTT Cement Agency

Q35) Which of the following statement is true for Joint Venture Business?

(A) There is an aim to earn profit from the business for a long time.

(B) It has a short business life

(C) It has a long Business life.

(D) The business is always of proprietary firm.

Q36) Which act applies to the Joint Venture business?

(A) Companies Act, 1956 (B) No Particular Law

(B) Partnership Act, 1932 (D) Co-operative societies Act.

Q37) The balance of Memorandum Joint Venture Account indicates-

(A) Amount payable to Co-venturer;

(B) Profit or Loss;

(C) Closing Stock

(D) Amount of balance to be carried forward

Q38) Joint Venture Account is similar to which option?

(A) Similar to only Trading Account

(B) Similar to only Profit and Loss Account

(C) Similar to mixture of Trading and Profit and Loss Account

(D) Similar to only Balance sheet and profit and loss account.

Q39) When independent books of accounts are maintained for joint venture business, the

expense paid for joint venture is.

(A) Credited to Joint bank account.

(B) Credited to expenses account

(C) Debited to the partner who paid it

(D) Credited to Joint venture account

Q40) Which of the following account is not opened under Joint Venture Accounts?

(A) Joint Bank Account (B) Joint Venture Account

(C) Co-venture‟s Account (D) Stock reserve account

Q41) A and B entered into joint venture. A gives Rs. 60,000 to B. To which account this

transaction will be recorded in the books of A?

(A) Joint-Venture Account (B) B‟s Account

(C) Expenses Account (D) None of these

Q42) Abnormal loss of joint venture is debited to the following account:

(A) Joint Venture Account (B) Insurance company Account

(C) General Profit and Loss Account (D) No Account

Q43) Which of the following account does not follow double entry system of book-keeping?

(A) Joint Venture Account

(B) Memorandum Joint Venture Account

(C) Joint Bank Account

(D) None of the above

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Q44) In a Joint venture of selling electronic items, if one item is given as a gift to a customer.

The following account is debited-

(A) Joint Venture Account (B) Profit and Loss Account

(C) Abnormal Loss Account (D) No Account.

COMPUTERIZED ACCOUNTING

Q45) To view the detailed report of Balance sheet and P and L Account in Tally which key is

used?

(A) F11 (B) Ctrl + F2 (C) Alt + F1 (D) F12

Q46) If entry of cash payment is made in tally, the following key is used;

(A) F8 (B) F7 (C) F6 (D) F5

Q47) So far, following versions of Tally have been put into market;

(A) 5.4, 6.3, 7.2, 9, ERP 9 (B) 540, 611, 723

(C) A1, B2, C3 (D) None of these

Q48) In Tally, which key is used for Journal?

(A) F5 (B) F7 (C) F6 (D) F8

Q49) In 7.2 version of Tally, following reports are not available

(A) Balance sheet (B) GST Report

(C) VAT Report (D) None of these

Q50) After entering all transactions in Tally, the following statement has to be prepared;

(A) Trial Balance (B) Profit and Loss Account

(C) Balance Sheet (D) None of these

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F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Statistics – I (Basic statistics)

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F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Statistics – I (Basic statistics)

(Short Answers)

LINEAR CORRELATION AND

ASSOCIATION OF ATTRIBUTES

DO AS DIRECTED:

1. If there is a positive association between attributes A and attribute B, there would be

_______ association between A &B and ______ association between &.

2. If A and B are independent attributes, find (A), if (AB) = 60, () = 150 and (B) = 120.

3. Find the value of (AB) if the attributes A and B are independent and N = 500, (A) = 50 and (B) = 150.

4. For a 2 x 2 contingency table ,

find the coefficient of association.

5. A and B are two attributes then find (AB) + (A).

6. For 2x2 contingency table having two attributes A and B then find (B) + ()

7. For 2 x 2 contingency table (AB) = 75, () = 175, () = 400 and N = 500 then decide the type of association between A and B.

8. Is the data consistent, for (AB) = 140, (B) 260, () = 200, (N) = 300.

9. (A) = 3(B), (AB) = (B) - 20, (N) = 400. () = 300 then decide the type of association between A and B using comparison method.

1 2

3 4

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10. The 2x2 contingency table is

Decide the type of association between and B by using Proportion method.

11. When two attributes A and B are said to be independent?

12. If N = 2000, (A) = 800, () = 1200 and (AB) = 200, find coefficient of association

between A and B.

13. (AB) = 3 (A ) and (B) = 2 () then find coefficient of association between A and

B.

14. If (AB) = 75, (B) = 150 and () = 50 then find (A) if A and B are independent

attributes.

15. Give an example/illustration of perfect positive correlation.

16. For each pair of the observations in the method of rank correlation Rx = Ry then r =

_____.

17. If all the points are on one slanting line in a scatter diagram then the value of r =

____.

18. Correlation coefficient is a _________ measure.

19. The range of the value of correlation coefficient is from _____ to _____.

20. If all the points of a scatter diagram are on the same line, then r =________.

21. If all the points of a scatter diagram are scattered in a random manner, then r = ____.

22. In rank correlation if ranks for both the variables of each pair are same, then r = ____.

23. In rank correlation if d2 = 0, then r = ________.

24. In rank correlation sum of differences of ranks is always________.

B Total

A 40 35 75

50 75 125

Total 90 110 200

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25. If correlation coefficient between x and y is = 0.565

(i) r between 2x and 4y will be________.

(ii) r between x + 5 and y + 15 will be________.

(iii) r between 2 2

and 10 5

x y will be________.

(iv) r between -3x and -2y will be________.

(v) r between 5

x and 13 - y will be________.

26. What is partial correlation?

27. What is the limitation of Scatter diagram method?

28. Which method is the most reliable for the study of correlation? Why?

29. If correlation coefficient between x and y is 0.7, what is correlation coefficient

between 7 7

and ?10 10

x y

30. If r(x, y) = -0.58, what will be r (3 - x, y + 2)?

31. Which method can be used to study the correlation for qualitative data?

32. If for 12 pairs of observations the covariance is -30 and variance of x and y are

respectively 72 and 32. Find correlation coefficient.

33. If covariance of two variables is positive what type of correlation is there between two

variables?

34. What rank is assigned to the observations of a variable with tie in case of rank

correlation.

35. For the quantitative data when number of observations is large how should the

correlation be studied?

LINEAR REGRESSION

DO AS DIRECTED:

1. If bxy = 3 and both the variables have a perfect relationship then byx = ______.

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2. When both the regression lines coincide with each other than r = ___, and when the lines

are perpendicular to each other than r = _______.

3. If the regression line of x on y is 3x - 5y + 12 = 0 then bxy = _____.

4. The equation of y on x line is 4x + 5y – 17 = 0 and r = 2/5, then find bxy.

5. The two regression co-efficients are 0.8 and 0.2, hence correlation co-efficient is ____.

6. One of the regression co-efficients of two perfectly correlated variables is 0.5, hence the

other regression co-efficient is _________.

7. The two regression lines are perpendicular to each other hence the correlation co-efficient

between them is ________.

8. The correlation co-efficient is a geometric mean of ______.

9. The greater the angle between the regression lines, the _________ the correlation

between the variables.

10. The regression equation of y on x is y = -3 + 2

x and that of x on y is x = - 7 + By. If the

correlation co-efficient between x and y is 0.1, then B = __________.

11. The probable change in the value of y with unit change in the value of x can be given by

_________.

12. Two regression lines intersect each other at (____, ____)

13. Two regression lines are 3x = y and 4y = 3x and Sx = 2, then r = _______ and Sy _____.

14. For two related variables byx = -1.7 and bxy = - 0.7; true or false?

15. 0.8, 0.45,yx xyb b hence r = 0.6 ;true or false ?

16. If two regression co-efficients are - 4.0 and - 0.25 the regression lines coincide ; true or

false ?

17. Two variables are uncorrelated, hence their regression lines are perpendicular ; true or

false ?

18. The regression co-efficients are independent of change in origin and scale ;true or false ?

19. Explain Linear Regression.

Page | 23

20. Explain Regression Lines.

21. Why are there two regression lines?

22. The two regression equations are y - 0.1x - 1.7 = 0 and 7 – 5y + x = 0. Find out the means

of x and y.

23. When do regression lines between two variables become mutually perpendicular to each

other?

24. Explain the regression coefficients.

25. The well-known mathematical principle of ______________________ is used to obtain

the line of the best fit.

BUSINESS FORECASTING

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Regression analysis can be used for business forecasting. Is the statement is true or false?

2. What is the main drawback of method of least square used for business forecasting?

3. In method of exponential smoothing the most recent observation is assigned the highest

weight age and it decreases in…………. as it moves towards the order observations.

4. For a straight line equation how many normal equations are required to fit the equation?

5. In exponential smoothing method if smoothing constant is 0.4, X1 = 210 and initial

smoothed values is 200 then find S1

6. If α = 0.4, S1 = 108, S0 = 100 then find T

Page | 24

7. Using method of exponential smoothing method taking initial estimate as 150 and (1 - α)

= 0.6, find the missing value.

Year Sales Smoothed

Value

∆S, Trend Forecast

2010 180 (?) (?) (?) (?)

8. The fitted straight line equation

y = 156.85 + 23.5 X - 2004

2

Estimate y for the year 2012.

9. The second degree equation is y = 24.15 + 5.15 [2 (x-2007.5)] + 0.24 [2 (x - 2007.5)]2

where x indicate the years & y sales. Estimate sales for the year 2011.

10. In exponential smoothing method, X3 = 116.33, S3 = 110.5, & T3 = 2.5 then find

smoothing constant.

11. If α = 0.4, S1 = 104, T1 =1.6 then find X1

12. Fit a straight line to the following data and from it forecast the value of y for x = 5, n = 5,

x = 0, x2 = 10, xy = 22, y = 50

13. Second degree parabolic equation for production y is as given below. If x is the year,

obtain the forecast of production for year 2018.

Y = 6.43 - 0.3 X1 - 2012 + 0.95 x - 2012 2

2 2

14. The equation of linear trend is y = 12.5 + 0.75 Year - 2015 find

5

Forecast value for the year 2025.

15. Write normal equations of linear trend.

16. The constants „a‟, „b‟ and „c‟ of a second degree parabolic trend y = a + bx + cx2 are 2,

0.5 and -0.1 respectively. Where y = production and X = (year - 2010). Find forecast of

production for the year 2012.

Page | 25

17. The weights assigned to different observation in exponential smoothing method are

in……………

18. If α = 0.4, S1 = 108. T1 = 3.2, then find initial forecast value.

DEMOGRAPHIC METHODS

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. In a village total number deaths during the year 2010 is 1760 out of the total population

of 50,000. Find crude death rate.

2. From the following find crude death rate.

Age (Yrs.) Population Death rate

20 8000 100

more than 20 6000 100

3. In a town total number o deaths = 1560 and crude death rate is 25.65 then find total

population of the town.

4. Among 40,000 children born in a city during and year 500 died within one year. Find

infant mortality rate of the city.

5. In a village total number of live births is 12o and total number of women in child bearing

age-group is 1500. Find general fertility rate.

6. In a town, SFR values for different age-groups with class interval 5 are 19, 95, 120, 105,

70, 25, 3. Then find Total fertility rate.

7. For a city, crude birth rate = 24 and total population is 5 lakhs. Find total number of live

births.

Page | 26

8. The SFR values for a town are 65, 115, 120, 100, 65, 35, 15. Find General fertility rate.

9. In a city GFR = 42 and women in child bearing age-group are 1,25,000. Estimate the

number of children likely to be born in the city in the next year.

10. In a city total population is 60 lakhs and crude birth rate is 22 and general fertility rate is

80 then find total number of females in child bearing age-group.

11. In a city CBR = 30. If 7500 total number of births have been taken during a year in that

city then find the total population of that city.

12. In a city, SFR values for different age-groups with class interval 5 are 25, 70, 105, 180,

60, 10, 4. Then find total fertility rate.

13. Total population of a city is 60 lakhs and its crude birth rate (CBR). Is 22. If number of

women in child bearing age group is 16.5 lakhs obtain GFR.

14. For Standard city………………. is same as it‟s…………………..

15. Generally child bearing are group of females is………….

(a) 18-40 (b) 15-49 (c) 20-60 (d) None

16. If SDR of City A…………SDR of City B, then City A must for healthier than City B.

(a) < (b) > (c) = (d) None

17. In the year 2016, 25000 births had observed in a town of which 200 children died before

attaining their age of one year. What is infant mortality rate of the town?

(a) 125 (b) 8000 (c) 8 (d) 500

18. The sum of fertility rate of seven age groups of females of a city is 525. What is the

value of GFR?

(a) 52.5 (b) 267.5 (c) 75 (d) 0.0133

19. CBR………………GFR

(a) < (b) > (c) = (d) None

Page | 27



F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Principles of Economics - I

Page | 28



F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Principles of Economics - I

(Short Answers)

1. Who has given the law of demand analysis through marginal utility?

(a) Alfred Marshall (c) Hicks

(b) Robbins (d) Adam Smith

2. Generally indifference curve has ______ slope.

(a) Negative (b) Parallel to X-axis

(c) Parallel to Y-axis (d) Positive

3. On which factor is Budget line dependent?

(a) Consumer Disposable Income (b) Price of both goods

(c) Income and Price of goods (d) All of the given

4. What else Budget line is called?

(a) Indifference Curve (b) Marginal rate of substitution

(c) Opportunity line (d) Demand line

5. From the following in which situation consumer equilibrium is obtained?

(a) Price > Marginal Utility (b) Price < Marginal Utility

(c) Price = Marginal Utility (d) None of these

6. What is indicated by Indifference curve?

(a) Income of Consumer (b) Price of commodity

(c) Standards of preferences (d) Income of consumer and Price

7. What is indicated by Budget line?

(a) Purchase of Consumer (b) Possibility of Purchase of Consumer

(c) Income of consumer (d) Price

8. What is the nature of relationship between marginal utility and consumption?

(a) Inverse (b) Positive

(c) Parallel (d) Neither

9. Consumer Equilibrium implies

(a) Maximum Expenditure (b) Maximum Utility

(c) Maximum Income (d) Maximum Consumption

Page | 29

10. Generally Demand curve has which slope?

(a) Negative (b) Parallel to X-axis

(c) Parallel to Y-axis (d) Positive

11. Utility implies_______.

(a) Pleasure (b) goodness

(c) Usefulness (d) A commodity‟s capacity to satisfy

wants

12. Giffen goods and its demand have ______ relationship.

(a) Positive (b) Neutral

(c) Negative (d) None of the above

13. Substitution effect is always_____.

(a) Negative (b) Zero

(c) Positive (d) Steady

14. What else is opportunity line called?

(a) Demand line (b) Indifference curve

(c) Price line (d) Budget line

15. Which type of relationship is between price and demand?

(a) Positive (b) Inverse

(c) Equal to (d) Zero

16. Which economist has used cardinal analysis to measure demand analysis?

(a) Alfred Marshall (b) Robbins

(c) Hicks (d) Pareto

17. Generally indifference curve is of what nature?

(a) Convex (b) Concave

(c) Straight line (d) Right angle

18. When does budget line Shift?

(a) Changes in consumer income

(b) When price of the commodities changes

(c) When the price of both the goods changes

(d) All of the given

19. If the price of both the commodities remains constant and disposable income

increases then the new budget line slides towards which side?

(a) Upward/Right side (b) Downwards

(c) Left side (d) None of the above

20. Which economist has presented the consumers equilibrium on the basis of

marginal utility?

(a) Marshall (b) Hicks

(c) Pareto (d) Samuelson

Page | 30

21. Where the consumers get the equilibrium?

(a) Inside budget line (b) Outside budget line

(c) On the budget line (d) Any place

22. Which condition is necessary to fulfill for consumer‟s equilibrium?

(a) Budget line and indifference curve intersect each other

(b) Tangency between Budget line and indifference curve

(c) Indifference curve should be convex to the origin

(d) Indifference curve should be convex to the origin and tangent to budget line

23. At the time of consumer‟s equilibrium, what is the marginal rate of substitution

between two commodities?

(a) Decreasing (b) Stable

(c) Increasing (d) Any

24. A rational consumer aims at -

(a) Maximum Quantity (b) Maximum welfare

(c) Maximum Income (d) Maximum utility

25 Marginal utility means _______.

(a) Utility of the first unit (b) Utility of the additional unit

(c) Utility of the last unit (d) Neither

26. According to law of Diminishing marginal utility there is ________relationship

between marginal utility and consumption?

(a) Positive (b) Inverse

(c) Parallel (d) Neither

27. What is the shape of marginal utility curve?

(a) Negative (b) Positive

(c) Parallel to X-axis (d) Parallel to Y-axis

28. The change in total utility caused by one unit change in consumption is called-

(a) Average utility (b) Marginal utility

(c) Total utility (d) Positive utility

29. On what does marginal utility depends?

(a) Price (b) Quality of commodity

(c) Quantity of consumption (d) Income

30. Which law has been derived from the law of diminishing marginal utility?

(a) Law of supply (b) Law of diminishing returns

(c) Law of demand (d) Law of consumption

31. The law of diminishing marginal utility implies to -

(a) Production (b) Consumption

(c) Population (d) Supply

Page | 31

32. The consumer is in equilibrium when following condition is fulfilled?

(a)

<

(b)

>

(c)

=

(d) Neither

33. Indifference curve analysis is based on the concept of

(a) Cardinal utility (b) Ordinal utility

(c) Time utility (d) Place utility

34. Who developed indifference curve analysis?

(a) Marshall (b) Keynes

(c) Pigou (d) Hicks

35. Its slope represents MRSxy -

(a) Budget line (b) Indifference curve

(c) Equal product curve (d) PCC

36. Its slope represents the ratio of price of X and Y -

(a) Budget line (b) Indifference curve

(c) Equal product curve (d) PCC

37. A rational consumer aims at maximizing utility. (TRUE/FALSE)

38. When MU is zero, TU is maximum. (TRUE/FALSE)

39. A consumer is in equilibrium when price line cuts MU curve. (TRUE/FALSE)

40. Utility means pleasure only. (TRUE/FALSE)

41. Indifference Curve analysis based on ordinal utility. (TRUE/FALSE)

42. Marshal developed the concept of cardinal utility. (TRUE/FALSE)

43. Price line is negatively sloped. (TRUE/FALSE)

44. Substitution effect is always negative. (TRUE/FALSE)

45. How many types of price elasticity of demand are there?

(a) Two (b) Four

(c) Five (d) Seven

46. What will the nature of demand if elasticity of demand is 1?

(a) Perfectly elastic demand (b) Unit elastic demand

(c) Perfectly inelastic demand (d) Elastic demand

47. What is the slope of demand curve when demand is perfectly inelastic?

(a) Negative slope (b) Parallel to horizontal axis

(c) Positive slope (d) Parallel to vertical axis

48. How is the demand of most of goods of rich people?

(a) Elastic (b) Perfectly elastic

(c) Unit elastic (d) Inelastic

Page | 32

49. What is the slope of demand curve when demand is perfectly elastic?



50. For luxury income elasticity of demand is ________.

(a) Positive and less than one (b) Negative and less than one

(c) Positive and greater than one (d) Negative and greater than one

51. How many types of Income elasticity of demand are there?

(a) One (b) Two

(c) Three (d) Four

52. What will be the elasticity of demand if percentage change in demand is less

than the percentage change in price?

(a) Elastic Demand (b) Inelastic Demand

(c) Perfectly Elastic Demand (d) Perfectly Inelastic Demand

53. What is the meaning of change in demand of a good due to change in its price?

(a) Price elasticity of demand (b) Cross elasticity of demand

(c) Income elasticity of demand (d) Price elasticity of supply

54. What is elasticity of demand in case of perfect competition?

(a) Elastic Demand (b) Inelastic Demand

(c) Perfectly Elastic Demand (d) Perfectly Inelastic Demand

55. Which of the following goods may have zero income elasticity?

(a) Bajara (b) Scooter

(c) Niddle (d) Ghee

56. What is the slope of demand curve when demand is perfectly elastic?



57. When there is a little change in the price and there is an unlimited or infinitive

change in demand then it is called ________ demand.

(a) Price elastic demand (b) Price inelastic demand

(c) Perfectly inelastic demand (d) Perfectly elastic demand

58. How is the elasticity of demand when two commodities are more substitutes?

(a) More (b) Less

(c) Equal (d) Zero

59. How is the elasticity of demand in long run compare to short run?

(a) More (b) Less

(c) Equal (d) Infinitive

60. Cross elasticity of demand of which goods can be zero?

(a) Complementary (b) Substitute

(c) Neither Complementary nor

Substitute

(d) All of the above

Page | 33

61. How is the demand curve of cross elasticity of demand in context of petrol and

car?

(a) Negative slope (b) Positive slope

(c) Parallel to vertical axis (d) Parallel to horizontal axis

62. What would be PED when consumer‟s expenditure remains constant in spite of

the change in price?

(a) Unity (b) Less than unity

(c) Greater than unity (d) Zero

63. In which case, total expenditure of the buyers would increase?

(a) PED = 1 and price falls (b) PED > 1 and 1 and price rises

(c) PED < 1 and price falls (d) PED < 1 and price rises

64. A firms total revenue will increase with the rise in price of its product if:

(a) PED > 1 (b) PED < 1

(c) PED = 1 (d) PED = 0

65. When price elasticity of demand Ed = 0, the demand curve is parallel to Y-axis.

(TRUE/FALSE)

66. For luxury goods, income elasticity of demand is positive and greater than 1.

(TRUE/FALSE)

67. Firm‟s total revenue will increase with the fall in the price of the product if Ed >1.

(TRUE/FALSE)

68. Relationship between which factors are shown by production function?

(a) Production and Factor of production (b) Production and Sales

(c) Production and Purchase (d) Sales and Purchase

69. What is the size of firm in short run production function?

(a) Fixed (b) Variable

(c) Flexible (d) Uncertain

70. To which sector law of diminishing returns applied first?

(a) Agriculture (b) Industry

(c) Service (d) Trade

71. In Law of variable proportion_______.

(a) All factor fixed (b) All factors variable

(c) Only one factor variable (d) None of the above

Page | 34

72. Production function means ___________

(a) Relationship between total income and total cost

(b) Relationship between supply and price

(c) Relationship between production and marginal cost

(d) Relationship between factor amount and output

73. In Which type of production function the law of constant returns applied?

(a) Long run (b) Short run

(c) Short and Long run (d) None of the above

74. How many forms of production function have?

(a) One (b) Two

(c) Three (d) Four

75. On whom production function is based?

(a) Technology (b) Market Demand

(c) Market Supply (d) Political factor

76. In law of variable proportion, in which stage of production the total, average and

marginal production increases?

(a) First (b) Second

(c) Third (d) Each

77. At which stage entrepreneur stop to increase the proportion of factor?

(a) Maximum marginal production

(b) Maximum average production

(c) Marginal production = Average production

(d) Zero Marginal production

78. Which of the following is not included in the law of variable proportion?

(a) Decreasing returns (b) Increasing returns

(c) Fixed/constant returns (d) Negative returns

79. By which production function, law of variable proportion explained?

(a) Short-run production function (b) Long-run production function

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the given

80. Which changes are measured in the law of variable proportion?

(a) Total production (b) Marginal production

(c) Average production (d) All of the given

81. Which factor of production is constant for a farmer in the context of short run?

(a) Seeds (b) Fertilizers

(c) Land (d) Pesticides

82. Production function shows relationship between factor amount and output.

(TRUE/FALSE)

83. Returns to scale emerge in the long-run. (TRUE/FALSE)

84. In economics, short-run refers to all factors are variable. (TRUE/FALSE)

Page | 35

F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Principles of Economics – I

Q.

No.

Answer Q.

No.

Answer Q.

No.

Answer Q.

No.

Answer Q.

No.

Answer

1. a 21. c 41. TRUE 61. a 81. c 2. a 22. d 42. TRUE 62. d 82. TRUE 3. c 23. a 43. TRUE 63. d 83. TRUE 4. c 24. d 44. TRUE 64. b 84. FALSE 5. c 25. b 45. c 65. TRUE 85.

6. c 26. b 46. b 66. TRUE 86. 7. b 27. a 47. d 67. TRUE 87. 8. a 28. b 48. d 68. a 88.

9. b 29. c 49. b 69. a 89.

10. a 30. c 50. c 70. a 90.

11. d 31. b 51. c 71. c 91.

12. a 32. c 52. b 72. d 92.

13. a 33. b 53. a 73. a 93.

14. d 34. d 54. c 74. b 94.

15. b 35 b 55. c 75. a 95.

16. a 36. a 56. b 76. a 96.

17. a 37. TRUE 57. d 77. d 97.

18. a 38. TRUE 58. a 78. c 98. 19. a 39. TRUE 59. a 79. a 99. 20. a 40. FALSE 60. c 80. d 100.

Page | 36



F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Human Resource Management

Page | 37



F.Y.B.Com. Sem. 1

Subject: Human Resource Management

(Short Answers)

1. HRM is a _________ philosophy.(2019)

a. Old

b. Modern

c. Rigid

d. Curative

Ans.: b

2. ____________ is the first stage of HRP.(2019)

a. Collecting data

b. Forecasting manpower

c. Determining the goal/ objective of organization

d. None of these.

Ans.: c

3. Which of the following is not a role of HR manager.(2019)

a. Counsellor

b. Mediator

c. Self -improvement

d. Spokesman

Ans.: C

4. Which of the following is not internal factor affecting HRP.(2019)

a. Social

b. Size of business

c. Production

d. Financial resources

Ans.: A

Page | 38

5. Appointing new employee in place of old employee who leave the organization is

referred as ___________. (2019)

a. Absenteeism

b. Labour turn over

c. Promotion

d. Transfer

Ans.: b

6. Which of the following is not an employment function of HRM.

a. Selection

b. Training

c. Placement

d. Orientation

Ans.: b

7. Which of the following is not an external factor affecting HRP.

a. Labour Law

b. Trade cycle

c. Local customs

d. Rate of labour turnover in the firm.

Ans.: d

8. HRM is rigid in compare to PM .(true/false)

9. HRM deals with financial area of management.(true/false)

10. HRM functions are classified into _____ & _____ groups.(Ans.: Managerial and

Operative)

11. HR planning is an objective activity linked with the ______ use of

manpower.(optimum use , minimum use , underutilised )( Ans.: optimum use)

12. HRM has wider scope than PM.(true/false)

13. HRM is concern for all employees of the organization.(true/false)

14. PM is highly concern with paper work in compare to HRM.(true/false)

15. According to PM, functions related to employees is a task of expertise.(true/false)

16. Give meaning of HRM.(2018)

- HRM means employing people, developing, utilising, maintaining and

compensating their services in turn with job and organizational requirement.

Page | 39

17. What is HRP?(2018)

- HRP is the process of determining manpower requirement and the means for

meeting these requirements in order to carry out integrated plan of the

organization.

18. Mention four qualities of HR manager.(2018)

- 1. Communication 2. Educational 3. Leadership 4. Sympathetic attitude are the

qualities required in HR manager.

19. Mention four importance of HRP.(2018)

- 1. Maximum utilization of Employees 2. Increase job satisfaction in employees 3.

Reduces expenses and 4. Profitable investments are four importance of HRP.

20. What is Absenteeism.(2018)

- Absenteeism means being absent from work. Employees may take a leave or not

report to work for a variety of reasons. Some of these may be uncontrollable

factors like sickness, emergency, accidents etc.

21. What is Labour turnover?(2018)

- Labour turnover, also known as staffing turnover, refers to the ratio of a number

of employees who leave a company through attrition, dismissal or resignation to

the total number of employees on the payroll in that period.

22. “Human resource does not mean an employees.” (2017,2015)

- HR does not mean only an employees but it includes special aspects of employees

such as virtues, skills, attitude, creative ability etc. and develop these special

aspects.

23. “Employees are an assets to the unit.”- explain(2015)

- Employees are the most valuable assets of an organization we can say this because

Human resource is the most important element to determining the success or

failure of an organization. Without their support, the organization functions will

not be done well and ready. Human resource is always related to one organization

profitability and their ability cannot be replaced by machines.. Without it, other

resources are of little/no use. Their conscious efforts realise the organizational

goal.

24. Which information‟s are collected for calculation of human skills.(2015)

- Educational qualifications, Past experience, Logical trend, Decision making

ability and Technical skill are the information collected for calculating human

skills.

25. Mind your men and men will mind other things.-explain(2015)

- Managers have to take care of the employees , they have solve the problems of

employee in the satisfactory way and they have be motivated in such a way that

they feel satisfied and they can be retained for long the period in the organization.

Page | 40

As a result the productive of employee‟s increases, cost decreases, profitability

and prestige of organization increases. In short by taking enough care of

employees will increase the prestige and performance of organization as all

activities are done effectively and efficiently.

26. Satisfied and qualified employee is valuable asset of the organization.(2018)

- Employees are only live resource of organization. When they are place at right

places and position, imparted adequate training, problems and accidents reduces,

receive good culture and facilities at work place they have job satisfaction, high

morale and motivation which leads optimum productive and utilization of

resources. So we can say Satisfied and qualified employee is valuable asset of the

organization.

1. _____ is the first stage of selection according to Richard Uhrbroch. (2019)

a. Interview

b. Preliminary interview

c. Reception of application

d. Placement

Ans : c

2. _____ is an act to increase the knowledge and skill of a worker for doing a

certain job.(2019)

a. Selection

b. Training

c. Recruitment

d. Placement

Ans.: b

3. The scope of training is _____.(2019)

a. Wide

b. Broad

c. limited

d. None of these

Ans.: c

4. Which one is not a technique of HR development?(2019)

a. Performance appraisal

b. Potential appraisal

c. Career development

d. None of these

Ans.: d

Page | 41

5. Which is not a method of external sources of recruitment?(2019)

a. Employment exchange

b. Waiting list

c. Labour union

d. Education institution

Ans.: b

6. Recruitment is the inductive while Selection is deductive process. (true/false)

7. Training is given to only the fresher not to the experience employees.(true/false)

8. Training is less costly in comparison to development.(true/ false)

9. State two methods of recruitment.(2018)

- Internal and External are two methods of recruitment.

10. What is scientific recruitment?(2018)

- Scientific recruitment means appointment of Right person, on Right job, at Right

place and in Right numbers.(4R‟S)

11. Mention any three advantages of training.(2018)

- Three advantages of training are Decrease industrial fatigue, maintenance of

resources and Refresher course.

12. Mention any two methods of training for workers.(2018)

- Vestibule training and Apprentice training are two methods for workers training.

13. Mention techniques for HRD.(2018)

- Workers participation in management, Career planning, Performance appraisal,

Executive development programme are the techniques for HRD.

14. “Executive development is essential”.-Explain(2017,2014)

- Executive development is essential as it develops strength of executive and make

full fledge growth of executives. Executive development is essential even due to

following reasons like demand of technical managers, for development of

organization, for leadership development and etc.

15. “Recruitment procedure can‟t be same for all employees.-Explain(2017,2014)

- Recruitment procedure can‟t be same for all employees as this process is based on

the job analysis. The job analysis can‟t be same for any two jobs, it help to apply

scientific recruitment in the organization. When job analysis is not the same

process of recruitment can‟t be same for all employees.

16. State any four reasons of need of training.(2015)

- 1. Human relationship 2. Technical advancement 3. Increase productivity and 4.

Organizational complexities are the four need of training.

Page | 42

17. What is HRD?

- HRD are those learning experience which are organised for a specific time and

designed to bring about the possibility of behavioural changes.

18. What is Recruitment?

- Recruitment is a process of researching for prospective employees and stimulating

them to apply for the job in organization.

19. Mention any four internal sources of recruitment.

- 1. Promotion

- 2. Transferring

- 3. Waiting list

- 4. Past employee

20. Mention any four external sources of recruitment.

- 1. Education campus

- 2. Employment exchange

- 3. Chamber of commerce

- 4. Jobber

21. Mention first three stages of selection.

- 1. Reception of candidates

- 2. Verification of application

- 3. Primary interview

22. Mention list of different test conducted during selection process.

- 1. Interest test

- 2. Aptitude test

- 3. Attitude test

- 4. Trade test

23. Which of the following is not a component of scientific recruitment?

a. Right Personal

b. Right Place

c. Right Time

d. Right Experience

Ans.: d

24. Which of the following is not a part of stages of Training procedure?

a. Preparing trainee

b. Follow up

c. Preparing teaching material

d. None of above

Ans.: d

Page | 43

25. Training and Development programme is an expensive but absence of Training and

development is more expensive. (true/false)

26. Write any two differences between training and development.

1. Training: the scope of training is limited & Development: the scope of

development is wider.

2. Training: training programme is mostly for workers and supervisors &

Development: Development programme is mostly for officers.

27. Mention the characteristics of HRD.

- 1. It is planned concept

- 2. It is continuous process

- 3. Development of skill at all level

- 4. Essential in every field

1. Which is the systematic description of an employee‟s job relevant strengths and

weakness?

A. Performance Appraisal is the systematic description of an Employees job relevans

strengths and weakness.

2. Under which method a checklist of statement on the Trains of the employee and

his or her job is prepared in Two columns, a „yes‟ column and a „no‟ column?

A. Under Checklist method a checklist of statements on the traits of the employee and his

or her job is prepared in two columns, a „Yes‟ and a „No‟ column.

3. Which method is develop to prevent the raters from Rating too high or too low?

A. Forced Distribution method used to prevent the raters from rating too high or too low.

4. Under paired comparison system each individual is compared with whom?

A. Under paired comparison system each individual is compared with Every Other

individual.

5. Superior appraisal the performance of his sub-ordinates is based on what?

A. Superior appraisal, the performance of his subordinates is based on Observation,

Judgment and Institution.

6. The concept of „Management of Objectives‟ was first given by whom and which

year?

A. The concept of „Management of Objectives‟ was first given by Peter Drucker in the

year 1954.

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7. Who deals with costs of contribution of human resource to the organization?

A. Human Resource Accounting (H.R.A) deals with costs of contribution of human

resource to the organization.

8. Assessment center method of appraising was first applied by whom and in which

year?

A. Assessment and center method of appraising was first applied by Germany army in

the year 1930.

9. 360 Degree feedback is also known ______.

A. 360 Degree feedback is also known as Multi-rater feedback.

10. Write a Name one of the fundamentals of jobs of HRM.

A. Employee Assessment is one of the fundamentals of job of HRM.

11. Performance may be attribute to inadequate knowledge Or skills.

A. Employee Assessment is one of the fundamentals of job of HRM.

12. How are better performers often rewarded with?

A. Better performers are often rewarded by Merit-pay.

13. How are the results of the appraisal communicated and discussed with

employees?

A. The results on One to one basis the appraisal communicates and discuss with

employees.

14. Promotion policy should be in form and must be understood by all employees to

avoid any suspicion in the minds of employee?

A. Promotion policy should be in writing form and must be understood by all the

employees to avoid any suspicion on the minds of employees.

15. What may lead to the loss of other privileges associated with a more senior rank

and/or reduction in salary or Benefits?

A. Demotion may lead to the loss of other privileges associated with a more senior rank

and/or in salary or benefits. Demotion may lead to the loss of other privileges

associated with a more senior rank and/or in salary or benefits.

16. Which is the horizontal dynamism of employees from one place of work to

another?

A. Transfer is the horizontal dynamism of employees from one place of work to another.

17. How transfers mode as to the misuse of office or Misappropriation of fund by the

e1mployees?

A. Pre-cautionary are transfers made as to the misuse of office or misappropriation of

funds by the employees.

18. How management personals generally prefer as the basis promotion?

A. Management personnel‟s generally prefer Merit basis promotion as the basis

promotion.

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19. Which is a mental condition or attitude of individuals and groups which

determines their willingness to Co-operate?

A. Morale is mental condition or attitude of individuals and groups which determines

their willingness to co-operate.

20. When a particular employee has a favorite attitude towards his work, he is said

to have which type of morale?

A. A particular employee has a favorite attitude towards his work, he is said to have a

high type of morale.

21. For improvement of morale, which action may be initiated?

A. For improvement of morale, 3-Fold (three fold) action may be initiated.

22. What reduces employee‟s satisfaction and high level of morale?

A. Grievances reduce employee‟s satisfaction and high level of morale.

23. What is performance appraisal?

A. Performance appraisal means to measure the qualities of an employee.

E.G.:- Expertise, loyalty, leadership, perfectness etc.

24. Who are known as performance appraisers?

A. Performance Appraisal are as follows:-

1) Self-appraisal 4) Consultants

2) Subordinates 5) Customers

3) Supervisors4) 6) Peers

25. What is human resource accounting?

A. H.R.A is the act of recording and presenting systematically the worth of human

resources in the book of account of an organization.

26. Write a Name of the two aspects of human resource accounting.

A. Name of the two aspects of H.R.A

1) Cost of Human Resources

2) Contribution of human resource to the Organization.

27. State the methods of valuation of human resource accounting.

A. Methods of valuation of H.R.A are as follows:-

1) Value of Re-Establishment

2) Present economical value

3) Capitalization of salary

4) Optional expense or Action method

5) Return on contribution of employees

6) Change in employee‟s behaviour

7) Increase in value of Goodwill

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29. In H.R.A what does cost of human resource include?

A. In H.R.A costs of Human Resources Includes are as follows:-

1) Costs of manpower planning

2) Recruitment

3) Selection

4) Placement

5) Training

6) Development

7) Wages

30. In H.R.A what does contribution of human resource include?

A. A monetary value of employee service which can be measured by labor productivity

or value added by human resource.

31. Which are the psychological appraisal methods?

A. Psychological Appraisal Methods are as follows:-

1) Psychological tests

2) Constitution with employees

3) In-Depth interview

4) Discussion with supervisors

5) Discussion with sub ordinates

6) Peers

32. State the areas of psychological appraisal?

A. Areas of psychological appraisal are as follows:-

1) Motivational response

2) Intellectual abilities

3) Reasoning abilities

4) Analytical abilities

5) Emotional Stability

6) Forecasting abilities

7) Interpretation Skill

33. Who developed five degree rating scales include in Management appraisal?

A. Harold Koontz developed managerial appraisal.

34. What does five degree rating scale in managerial appraisal?

A. Five degree rating scale includes:-

1) Extremely poor performance

2) Poor performance

3) Neither poor nor fair performance

4) Fair performance

5) Extremely fair performance

35. What is promotion?

A. According to Pigars and Mayer Promotion is the advancement of an employee to a

better job in the terms of great responsibility, more prestige and status, greater skills

and specially increased rate of pay or salary.

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36. What is dry-promotion?

A. By Promoting an employee when designation increases but its salary remains the

same or there are no monetary advantages, that type of promotion is called day

promotion.

37. What is Transfer?

A. Transfer means a worker is transferred one place to another department without any

change in duties, responsibilities, skills, needs or compensation.

38. What is demotion?

A. According to D. S. Beach, Demotion means the assignment of an individual to a job

of lower rank and pay usually involving lower level of difficulty and responsibility.

1. What reduces monotony of work and boredom and thus increase morale?

A. Job rotation reduces monotony of work and boredom and thus increases morale

2. Which Job design refers to the way that a set of tasks or an entire job?

A. Job design refers to the way that set of tasks or an entire job Organized.

3. Which structure of tasks, consists of three elements planning, executing and

controlling?

A. Internal Structure of each task, consists of three elements planning, executing and

controlling.

4. What refers to the quality of relationship between employees and hotel working

environment? A. Quality of work life refers to the quality of relationship between employees and total

working environment.

5. Which group of employees are given the freedom of decision making?

A. Autonomous work group of employees are given the freedom of decision making.

6. The concept of quality circles was first popularized when and by whom?

A. The concept of quality circles was first popularized in early 1960s by JAPAN.

7. Who is known as the father of quality circles?

A. Dr. Ishikawa Kaoru is known as the father of the quality circles.

8. A small group if volunteered employees from same work area, doing similar

work, who most regularly to identify analysis and solve problems in their work

field is known as?

A. Quality circles

Page | 48

9. State the approaches/concepts of JOB Design.

A. Concepts of job designs are as follows:-

1) Scientific Approach

2) Human Element Concept

3) Engineering Concepts

4) Bio-Psychological Approach

10. Who presented Job design based time study and motion study?

A. Fredrik Tailor presented job design time study and motion study.

11. Concept of human element in job is given by whom?

A. Concept of human element in job is given by Keith Davis.

12. Who introduced the engineering concept in job design?

A. Davis Kranter introduced the engineering concept in job design.

13. Physio-psychological approach to job design is given by whom?

A. Physio-psychological approach to job design is given by K. U. Smith.

14. What is the job rotation?

A. The shifting of an employee from one job to another sp that monotony and boredom

are reduced.

15. What is job enlargement?

A. Job enlargement consists of making larger in the scope by adding the additional

activities into each job which is called “horizontal expansion” or “loading”.

16. What is job enrichment?

A. Job enlargement is concerned with designing job so that it includes so that in includes

a greater variety of the work content, requires a higher level of knowledge and skill,

give workers more autonomy and responsibility in terms of planning, directing and

controlling their performance and provides opportunity for personal growth and

meaningful work experience.

17. Define Job DESIGN.

A. Job design is a process of deciding the contents of jobs in terms of its duties and

responsibilities the method to be used in carrying out the job in terms of techniques

systems and procedures and so on. The relationship that should exist between the job

holders and hid/her superiors, sun-ordinates, and colleagues would also be considered

in job design.

18. Define job REDESIGN.

A. Job redesign means considering the new technical, organizational and personnel

oriented factors. The procedure of work, method and environment make more

consistences with an employee it is a result of fed-back of original job-design.

19. What do you mean by quality of work life?

A. Quality of work life includes all the matters which are affecting on employees

working at all levels of an organization it includes wages, working hours, situation of

work , behavior of superiors, distribution of work, authority and responsibility control

on employees, motivation terms of job etc.

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20. What is Quality Circle?

A. Quality circle means voluntarily framed group of on employees working in any

section or department of the unit. The aim of this group is to prove quality of the work

and to increase the productivity of the unit.

21. When was Quality circle established in INDIA?

A. Quality circle was established in 1981 at Sikandrabad.

22. Quality circle are consists of how many members?

A. Quality Circle ideally consists 8 to 10 members.

23. Draw the structure of quality circle?

A

Top level management : Directors, CEO, & General Managers Steering committee : Departmental heads, Coordinators, Leaders Coordinator : appointed by top management Leaders : selected by the members of quality circle Members : voluntarily join 8 to 10 employees of same department

TOP LEVEL

MANAGEMENT

STEERING

COMMITIEE

CO-ORDINATER

LEADERS

MEMBERS

Page | 50


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