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20
LTS / Page 1/20 Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) ( ) : Form Number : in figures : : in words : Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ( ) : Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature : : : *0999DMD613720012* (0999DMD613720012) Test Pattern : 1. -1 -2 2. 1 60 4 4 240 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Important Instructions : 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The test is of 1 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 60 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 240. 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet. 8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank. Correct Method Wrong Method In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final. DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2020 - 2021) Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2021 NEET(UG) SET 06-05-2021 Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. This Booklet contains 20 pages. 20 PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE / RANK BOOSTER COURSE Test Type : Self Evaluation Test - 08 12 th Undergoing/Pass Students

Transcript of SH 6HOI (YDOXDWLRQ 7HVW - allentestseries.com

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ( ) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature : : :
*0999DMD613720012*(0999DMD613720012) Test Pattern
Important Instructions :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 1 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 60 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 240.
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank. Correct Method Wrong Method
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME (Academic Session : 2020 - 2021)
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2021
NEET(UG) SET
06-05-2021
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. This Booklet contains 20 pages. 20
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE / RANK BOOSTER COURSE
Test Type : Self Evaluation Test - 08 12th Undergoing/Pass Students
ALLEN Topic : Capacitor, Current electricity and Heating Effects of Current
1. 1. 2 × 10 10V
(1) 3.2 × 10 F
(2) 1.6 × 10 F
(3) 2 × 10 F
(4)
2. 2. C :-
(1)
(2)
(4)
3. 3. 2μF -
(1) 160 μC (2) 80 μC
(3) 40 μC (4) 20 μC
When 2 × 10 electrons are transferred from one
conductor to another, a potential difference of
10V appears between the conductors. Calculate
the capacitance of the two conductor system. 
(1) 3.2 × 10 F
(2) 1.6 × 10 F
(3) 2 × 10 F
16
–4
–4
–4
16
–4
–4
–4
If air filled capacitor has capacitance ‘C’ then in the figure a capacitor is filled with dielectrics the resultant capacitance is :-
(1)
(2)
(4)
(1) 160 μC (2) 80 μC
(3) 40 μC (4) 20 μC
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ALLEN 4. 4. 11μF 2μF

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
5. 5.
 τ  
  τ  
 τ /τ :
(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) 2
(4) 1/4
6. 6.  
  C
?
(2) 2C      
(3) 2C C
(4) C
Calculate the minimum number of 2μF capacitor to design 11μF capacity -
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
the capacitor is charged with time constant τ
and when switch is open, then capacitor
discharge with time constant τ then τ /τ is :
(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) 2
(4) 1/4
capacitance C merge to form a single drop. The
resultant capacitance is :-
(4) Less than C
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ALLEN 7. 7. E E
r r ,

  :-
(1) E  + E   
(3)   
(4)   r  + r
8. 8. 60W, 120V 120 V



                                                                   
      
(1) 180 W (2) 20 W
(3) 40 W (4) 60 W
9. 9. 1
0.81 Ω 10
 –
(1) 0.03 Ω (2) 0.3 Ω
(3) 0.9 Ω (4) 0.09 Ω
Two cells of e.m.fs. E and E and internal
resistances r and r are connected in parallel.
Then the e.m.f. and internal resistance of the
equivalent source is :-
(3)  and 
1 2 1 2
+E 1 r 2 E 2 r 1 +r 1 r 2
r 1r 2 +r 1 r 2
+E 1 r 2 E 2 r 1 +r 1 r 2 1 2
1 2
1 2
1 2 1 2
+E 1 r 2 E 2 r 1 +r 1 r 2
r 1r 2 +r 1 r 2
+E 1 r 2 E 2 r 1 +r 1 r 2 1 2
Three 60 W, 120 V light bulbs are connected
across a 120 V power source.If the resistance
of each bulb does not change with current then
find out the total power delivered to the three
bulbs.
An ammeter reads upto 1 A. Its internal
resistance is 0.81 Ω. To increase the range to
10 A, the value of the required shunt is –
(1) 0.03 Ω (2) 0.3 Ω
(3) 0.9 Ω (4) 0.09 Ω
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ALLEN 10. 10. , L 9r AB
r   ε D C 2r G   AJ :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
11. 11. A B .. 2V
R = 1 Ω
 A 1.9 Ω B
0.9 Ω   A
?
(1) 2 V
(2) 3.8 V
(3)
(4) 1.2 V
In the figure, the potentiometer wire AB of length L and  resistance 9r is joined to the cell D of emf ε and internal resistance r. The cell
C's emf is   and its internal resistance is 2r.
The galvanometer G will show no deflection when the length AJ is :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
ε 2
4L 9
5L 9
7L 18
11L 18
4L 9
5L 9
7L 18
11L 18
Two batteries A and B each of e.m.f. 2V are connected in series to an external resistance R = 1 ohm. If the internal resistance of battery A is 1.9 ohm and that of B is 0.9 ohm, what is the potential difference between the terminals of battery A.
(1) 2 V
(2) 3.8 V
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ALLEN 12. 12.   (1/3)A
, R :-
(1) 8 Ω (2) 10 Ω (3) 16 Ω (4) 20 Ω
13. 13. (network) , a b - ( r ) ?
(1) r/2 (2) 4r (3) r/4 (4) r/3
14. 14. A B 2 : 3 1 : 2 A  10 , B ?
(1) 2.5 Ω (2) 3 Ω
(3) 3.75 Ω (4) 4 Ω
15. 15. i t   i = 7 + 12t t = 2 t = 6 ( )  :-
(1) (2) 55
(3) 110 (4) 220
If the ammeter in the given circuit reads (1/3)A, the resistance R is :-
(1) 8 Ω (2) 10 Ω (3) 16 Ω (4) 20 Ω
What is the equivalent resistance of the network shown in the adjoining figure between the points a and b (Each resistance is of value r) ?
(1) r/2 (2) 4r (3) r/4 (4) r/3
Two wires of A and B of same material but have length ratio 2 : 3 and radius ratio 1 : 2. If resistance of wire A is 10Ω then what would be resistance of wire B ?
(1) 2.5 Ω (2) 3 Ω
(3) 3.75 Ω (4) 4 Ω
The current in a conductor varies with time according to the relation i = 7 + 12t where i is in ampere and t is in second. Find the amount of charge (in coulomb) passing through the conductor during the time interval t = 2 s to t = 6 s  :-
(1) (2) 55
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ALLEN Topic : Solid State, Solutions, Surface Chemistry
16. 16. fcc ( 60)  
 4 × 10 cm. 6 × 10 mole

(1) 6·25 g/c.c. (2) 6·25 kg/m
(3) 10 g/c.c.  (4) 64 × 10 g/c.c.
A face centered cubic solid of element (atomic mass 60) has a cubic edge of 4 × 10 cm. If Avogadro's number is 6 × 10 mole , then the density of the solid is
(1) 6·25 g/c.c. (2) 6·25 kg/m
(3) 10 g/c.c.  (4) 64 × 10 g/c.c.
–8
–30 –10
17. 17. , P Q Q
P CCP
:-
(1) PQ (2) PQ (3) P Q (4) P Q
A compound contains P and Q elements. Atoms Q occupy all tetrahedral sites and P occupies CCP arrangement. Formula of the compound is :
(1) PQ (2) PQ (3) P Q (4) P Q2 2 3 2 2 3
18. 18. ? 
(1) AgBr (2) AgCl (3) CsCl (4) ZnS
Which one of the following crystals does not exhibit Frenkel defect ?
(1) AgBr (2) AgCl (3) CsCl (4) ZnS
19. 19. , :
(1) 0.155 – 0.225 (2) 0.225 – 0.414
(3) 0.414 – 0.732 (4) 0.732 – 1
For the tetrahedral co-ordination, the radius ratio is :
(1) 0.155 – 0.225 (2) 0.225 – 0.414
(3) 0.414 – 0.732 (4) 0.732 – 1
20. 20. ?
(1) hcp (2) ccp (3) bcc (4) fcc
Which of the following is not a closed packing?
(1) hcp (2) ccp (3) bcc (4) fcc
21. 21. CaF   Ca   F   :
(1) 4 : 8 (2) 8 : 4 (3) 4 : 4 (4) 3 : 2
CaF   have fluorite structure. The coordination number of Ca  and F  ions are in the ratio :
(1) 4 : 8 (2) 8 : 4 (3) 4 : 4 (4) 3 : 2
2 ++ –
2 ++

22. 22. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) -
Which kind of catalysis can be explained on the basis of adsorption theory?
(1) Homogeneous catalysis
(2) Heterogeneous catalysis
(3) Negative catalysis
(4) Auto catalysis
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ALLEN 23. 23. :-
(1)
(4)
24. 24.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
25. 25.  :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
26. 26. 0.01 M
-
(i) Al (SO ) (π )    (ii) Na PO (π )
(iii) BaCl (π )        (iv) Glucose (π )
(1) π > π > π > π
(2) π > π > π > π
(3) π > π > π > π
(4) π > π > π > π
Butter is an example of :-
(1) Gel
(2) Sol
(3) Emulsion
(4) Foam
positively charged colloidal solution ? 
O3 M 10
O3 M 20
O3 M 10
O3 M 20
O3 M 10
O3 M 20
O3 M 10
O3 M 20
(1) Low temperature and low pressure 
(2) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) High temperature and high pressure     
(4) High temperature and low pressure     
What is the correct sequence of osmotic
pressure of 0.01 M aqueous solution of :
(i) Al (SO ) (π )    (ii) Na PO (π )
(iii) BaCl (π )        (iv) Glucose (π )
(1) π > π > π > π
(2) π > π > π > π
(3) π > π > π > π
(4) π > π > π > π
2 4 3 1 3 4 2
2 3 4
2 3 4
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ALLEN 27. 27. 0.01
100% ΔT /K  :
(1) 0.01
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.0175
(4) 0.02
28. 28. ?
(1) HNO + H O
(2) C H OH + H O
(3) C H + C H CH
(4) C H Br + C H Cl
29. 29. ( = 1.787 g/ml) 86% ( ) :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30. 30. 250 mL Na CO 2.65 g
10 mL 500 mL
  -
(1) 0.01 M
(2) 0.001 M
(3) 0.05 M
(4) 0.002 M
aqueous solution. Hence ΔT /K is:
(1) 0.01
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.0175
(4) 0.02
(1) HNO + H O solution
(2) C H OH + H O solution
(3) C H + C H CH solution
(4) C H Br + C H Cl solution
3 2
2 5 2 5
2 5 2 5
A bottle of commercial sulphuric acid (density = 1.787 g/ml) is labelled as 86% by weight. What is the molarity of the acid.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
98× 86 1.787
98× 86 1.787
250 mL of sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 g of Na CO . If 10 mL of this solution is diluted to 500 mL, the concentration of the solution will be :-
(1) 0.01 M
(2) 0.001 M
(3) 0.05 M
(4) 0.002 M
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ALLEN Topic : Reproduction : Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health, Origin and Evolution
31. 31. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
32. 32. - ?
(1) 4000
(2)
(3)

(4) ""

33. 33.
:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
34. 34. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Liberation of oxygen by which bacteria brought a revolutionary change in history of earth ?
(1) Nitrifying bacteria
(4) Cyanobacteria
Which one of the following statement is not related with theory of special creation?
(1) Earth is about 4000 years old.
(2) Diversity was always same since creation
and will be same in feature.
(3) All living organism that we see today were
created as such.
different planets including earth.
These synapsids gave rise to :
(1) Therapsids and mammals
(2) Dinosaurs and crocodile
(4) Dinosaurs and bird
(1) Molar teeth
(2) Ear pinna
(3) Canine teeth
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ALLEN 35. 35.  
: -
(2)
(3)
(4)
36. 36. :-
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) ,
(4) ,
37. 37. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

38. 38. - -   : -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1) Homologous and Analogous organs
(2) Analogous and vestigeal organs
(3) Only Homologous organs
Two key concepts of Darwinians theory –
(1) Branching descent, mutation
(3) Natural selection, Branching descent
(4) Branching descent, variations
What is not true about mutation according to Hugo de Vries theory ?
(1) They are large & discontinous changes
(2) Mutations are random and directionless
(3) They are heritable and establish new
species
produce a species
Process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography is called:-
(1) Parallel evolution
(2) Retrogressive evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Adaptive radiation
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ALLEN 39. 39. , ,
:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
40. 40. - A a , a 0.2 Aa ?
(1) 0.20 (2) 0.32
(3) 0.42 (4) 0.80
41. 41. ?
(1)
(2)
(4)
42. 42. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Some mammals like dolphin, whale, seal etc. have evolved in such a way that their characters appear similar to that of the fishes, in order to adjusting in aquatic habitats. These similarities are an example of:
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Cyclical evolution
In   a  Hardy-Weinberg  population  with   two  alleles, A and a, that  are  in  equilibrium,  the frequency  of  allele  a   is  0.2.  What   is   the  frequency  of  individuals  with  Aa  genotype?
(1) 0.20 (2) 0.32
(3) 0.42 (4) 0.80
(1) Disruptive selection
(2) Directional selection
(3) Stabilizing selection
(4) Sexual selection
Which of the following is considered as missing link between reptiles and birds?
(1) Coelacanth (2) Therapsids
(3) Archeopteryx (4) Synapsids
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ALLEN 43. 43. ?
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) , ,
(4) , ,
44. 44. ?
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) ,
(4) ,
45. 45. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
46. 46. :-
(1) Androgens
(2) Testosterone
(3) Fructose
(4) Inhibin
(2) life came from both living & non-living matter
(3) life came from pre-existing, non-living, organic molecules
(4) life originated from decaying & rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
Which of the following pairs is correct?
(1) Insect wing and bird wings are homologous organ
(2) Seal flippers and bats paw are homologus organ
(3) Bats wing and insect wing are analogus organ
(4) Thorn of bouigainvillea and tendril of pea are analogus organ
First evidence of ceremonial burial of dead body and used of hides to protect their bodies have been found with which human ancestor?
(1) Homo erectus
(2) Homo habilis
(3) Neanderthal man
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ALLEN 47. 47.
:-
(1)
(2)
(4)
48. 48. :-
(A)
(i)
(B) (ii)


(1) A-(i), B-(iv),C-(ii),D-(iii)
(2) A-(iii),B-(iv),C-(ii),D-(i)
(3) A-(iv),B-(iii),C-(i),D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii),B-(i),C-(ii),D-(iv)
49. 49. -
(1)
(3)
(4) ()
A tiny-finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above urethral opening is :-
(1) Birth canal
(A) Proximal
centriole (i)
(1) A-(i), B-(iv),C-(ii),D-(iii)
(2) A-(iii),B-(iv),C-(ii),D-(i)
(3) A-(iv),B-(iii),C-(i),D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii),B-(i),C-(ii),D-(iv)
If uterine bleeding is more than normal then this condition called :-
(1) Amenorrhoea
(2) Menarche
(3) Menorrhagia
(4) Menopause
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ALLEN 50. 50.
?
(1)
(2)
(3) 40-80 ml
(4)  
51. 51. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
52. 52. .....
(1)
(4)
53. 53. -
(1) - 
(2) -
(3) -     
(4) -
Which one of the following statement is incorrect about menstruation?
(1) Menstruation can be deferred by the administration of progesterone.
(2) Menstruation fluid can easily clot.
(3) During normal menstruation about 40-80 ml blood is lost.
(4) Menstruation is result of breakdown of endometrium.
What is chorionic frondosum :-
(2) The part of chorion  which helps in placenta formation.
(3) Part of endometrium which fuse with embryo.
(4) The part of decidua parietalis which have a chorionic villi.
The first movement of the foetus is usually observed during ..... month of pregnancy
(1) 2  
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6
(1) Gynecomastia -  Developement of mammary glands in male
(2) Ectopic pregnancy - Uterine implantation
(3) Oophorectomy -     Removal of ovaries  
(4) Castration -     Crushing of testes
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ALLEN 54. 54.
  (A-D) -  
  Method   Mode of action
(A) -N (a)
(B) (b)
(C) Cu7 (c)
(D) (d)
 
(1) (A)-(c), (B)-(d), (C)-(a), (D)-(b)
(2) (A)-(b), (B)-(c), (C)-(a), (D)-(d)
(3) (A)-(c), (B)-(a), (C)-(d), (D)-(b)
(4) (A)-(b), (B)-(c), (C)-(d), (D)-(a)
55. 55. :
(1)
(2)
(3) 'pk  
(4)
Given below are four method (A-D) and their modes of action (a-d) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching.  
  Method   Mode of action
(B) Today (b) Prevents ovulation
(C) Cu7 (c) Spermicides
 
Select the incorrect statement for given figure:
(1) This is a permanent method of contraception in females
(2) Menstrual flow isn’t affected after using this method of contraception
(3) Maturation of graffian follicles permanently ceases after applying this contraceptive method
(4) Reversibility of this technique is very poor
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ALLEN 56. 56.
:-
(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3)
(4)
57. 57. , , ?
(1)
(3) -I
(4) 'pk-I
58. 58. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
59. 59. (IUD) :
(1)
(2)
(3)  
(4)
If male is impotent and female is fertile that what posible assisted reproductive technology is used for treating the infertility is particular couple?
(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) Intrauterine insemination
(4) Embryo transfer
During Oogenesis in mammals Oocytes are arrested in which phase of cell division?
(1) Interphase
(2) Prophase-I
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Anaphase-I
(1) Luteal phase or pre-ovulatory phase
(2) Follicular phase or progesteronic phase
(3) Estrogenic phase or proliferative phase
(4) Progesteronic phase or luteal phase
The function of hormonal IUD's is:
(1) To supress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperm
(2) To prevent the ovulation
(3) To make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(4) To block the fallopian tube's
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ALLEN 60. 60.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
,
(4) -

Which of the following is incorrect regarding medical termination of pregnancy?
(1) It is legalized in India with some strict condition
(2) It is safe upto twelve weeks of pregnancy
(3) It has significant role in decreasing the population though it is not meant for that
(4) It can also be performed legally by unqualified qualks.
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NEET(UG) - 2021 / 06052021Page 18/20
Space for Rough Work /
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No.
Correction Paper Code Form No.  2 [email protected] mail

LEADER TEST SERIES - JOINT PACKAGE / RANK BOOSTER COURSE 0999DMD613720012
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Read carefully the following instructions :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
2. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
LTS / Page 20/20 NEET(UG) - 2021 / 06052021
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+91-744-2757575 [email protected] www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in