SEBI MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS MAY 2019...

www.letslearnindia.in CA Abhishek Bansal

SEBI – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – MAY 2019 ONWARDS

1. The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established in _______

a. 1992

b. 1988

2. SEBI was primarily set up to

a. regulate the activities of the merchant banks

b. to control the operations of mutual funds

c. to work as a regulator of the stock exchange activities

d. all of the above

3. The prime objective of the SEBI Act,1992 is to protect the interests of

a. Creditors

b. Investors

c. Directors

4. The Board consists of ….. members from the RBI

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

5. The central government does not have the right to terminate the services of

a. Its own officials

b. RBI officials

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

6. The Chairman and other members shall have the right to relinquish office at any time

before the expiry of their tenure by giving a notice of ………… in writing to the Central

Government.

a. Two months

b. Three months

c. Four months

d. Five months

7. the Chairman and Whole time Members may hold office for a period of three years

a. three years

b. thirty years

c. six years

d. five years

8. The Central Government shall have the power to remove a member or the Chairman appointed to the Board, if he has been convicted of an offence which in the opinion of the Central Government, does not involve a moral turpitude.

a. True b. False

9. The Board can call for furnishing information to, other authorities, in the matters relating to the prevention or detection of violations in respect of securities laws without the prior approval of the central government

a. True b. False

10. the Board provides for measures for a. promoting fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities markets

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b. promoting investors' education and training of intermediaries' of securities markets

c. promoting insider trading in securities d. all of the above

11. the Board may take measures to undertake inspection of any book, or register, or other document or record of

a. all public companies b. only listed companies c. only unlisted companies d. all listed public companies and public companies which intend to get listed

12. the Board can pass on order a. on completion of investigation b. on completion of inquiry c. both of the above

13. transactions involved in …………….. are allowed to be attached with the order a. violation of any of the provisions of this Act b. violation of any of the rules or the regulations made c. both of the above d. the entire business

14. The amount disgorged, pursuant to a direction issued shall be credited to a. The shareholders b. The creditors c. IPEF

15. The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 had given certain powers to a. The central government b. SEBI

16. It shall be open to SEBI to inspect at all reasonable times books of accounts and other documents to be maintained by the Stock Exchanges for periods

a. Not less than five years b. Not exceeding five years c. Not less than seven years d. Not exceeding seven years

17. SEBI may make bye-laws on matters specified in Section 9 of SCRA or amend any bye-laws made by a stock exchange on

a. Its own motion b. Request received by the governing body of a stock exchange c. Any of the above

18. To be a collective investment scheme, a. the contributions, or payments made should be pooled and utilized for the

purposes of the scheme b. the property, contribution or investment forming part of scheme should be

managed on behalf of the investors c. it should be not be made or offered by a co-operative society registered under

the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 d. all of the above

19. An insurance scheme is a collective investment scheme a. True b. False

20. Schemes under which contributions made are in the nature of subscription to a mutual fund are not a collective investment scheme

a. True b. False

21. It shall be the duty of ……………….. to produce to the Investigating Authority or any person authorised by it in this behalf all related documents

a. Manager b. Managing director c. Employee d. All of the above



22. The Investigating Authority may keep in its custody any books, registers, other documents and record produced for six months

a. Six years b. Six months c. Three months d. Five months

23. If any person fails without reasonable cause or refuses to produce to the Investigating Authority any record, he shall be punished with

a. imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years b. with fine, which may extend to ten crore rupees c. a further fine which may extend to five lakh rupees for every day after the first

during which the failure or refusal continues. d. All of the above

24. Notes taken by the examiner and not signed by the person examined can be used as evidence

a. True b. False

25. the Investigating Authority may make an application to the Magistrate or Judge of such designated court in Mumbai, as may be notified by the ………… for an order for the seizure

a. Central Govt b. State Govt c. RBI

26. the Magistrate or Judge of the Designated Court shall not authorise seizure of books, registers, other documents and record, of

a. listed companies b. public companies indulging in insider training c. unlisted public companies intending to get listed d. a and c

27. The Impounded documents will remain in the custody of………… a. Manager of the company b. SEBI c. Investigating authority

28. A ………… is authorized to buy, sell or deal in securities a. Depository b. Credit rating agency c. Stock broker d. All of the above

29. Nobody shall directly or indirectly acquire control of any company or securities more

than the percentage of equity share capital of a company whose securities are listed

or proposed to be listed on a recognised stock exchange

a. True

b. False

30. ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, should be credited to Securities and Exchange Board of India General

Fund

a. grants, fees and charges received by the Board

b. public deposits

31. The Fund shall be applied for

a. the salaries, allowances and other remuneration of the members, officers

and other employees of the Board

b. the expenses of the Board in the discharge of its functions under section 11

c. the salaries, allowances and other remuneration of the members, officers

and other employees of listed companies

d. all of the above

e. a and b



32. The Board shall maintain proper accounts and prepare an annual statement of

accounts in such form as may be prescribed by

a. The central government

b. The CAG

33. any expenditure incurred in connection with such audit shall be payable

by …………….. to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

a. RBI

b. Central Govt

c. SEBI

34. The accounts of the Board shall be forwarded annually to the Central

Government by the CAG

a. Monthly

b. Quarterly

c. Half-yearly

d. Annually

35. If any person, who is required under this Act or any rules or regulations made thereunder

fails to ……………………. shall be liable to a penalty which shall not be less than one lakh

rupees but which may extend to one lakh rupees for each day during which such failure

continues subject to a maximum of one crore rupees

a. furnish any document, return or report to the Board

b. file any return or furnish any information, books or other documents within the

time specified therefor in the regulations

c. maintain books of account or records

d. all of the above

36. If any listed company or any person who is registered as an intermediary fails to redress

the grievances of investors in ………………, they shall be liable to a penalty

a. Five months

b. Six months

c. One month

d. Time specified by the Board

37. If a person registered as a stock broker fails to deliver any security, he is liable to a penalty of

a. More than Rs. 1 lakh

b. Upto Rs. 1 lakh

c. More than Rs. 10 lakh

d. Upto Rs. 10 lakh

38. Any insider shall be liable to a penalty of

a. more than one lakh rupees extending upto twenty five crore rupees/thrice the

amount of profits made out of insider trading, whichever is higher

b. more than ten lakh rupees extending upto twenty five crore rupees/ thrice the


c. more than one lakh rupees extending upto twenty crore rupees/ thrice the amount

of profits made out of insider trading, whichever is higher



d. more than ten lakh rupees extending upto twenty five crore rupees thrice the


39. An insider will not be penalized if he

a. communicates any unpublished price-sensitive information to any person, with his

request

b. counsels, or procures for any other person to deal in any securities of any body

corporate on the basis of unpublished price-sensitive

c. both of the above

d. none of the above

40. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall consist of …………. to exercise the powers and

discharge the functions conferred

a. a Presiding Officer

b. Judicial Members

c. Technical Members

d. All of the above

41. every Bench constituted shall include at least

a. one Presiding officer

b. one Judicial Member and one Technical Member

c. one Judicial Member

d. a and b

e. a and c

42. a Bench may be constituted by the Presiding Officer of the Securities Appellate Tribunal

a. Judicial member

b. Presiding officer

c. Technical member

43. the Benches of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall ordinarily sit at Mumbai

a. Mumbai

b. New Delhi

c. Kolkata

44. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as the Presiding Officer unless he is or

has been

a. a Judge of the Supreme Court for at least seven years

b. a Judge of High Court for at least five years

c. a Chief Justice of a High Court for at least five years

d. a and c

45. The Presiding Officer and Judicial Members of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be

appointed by

a. Central Govt

b. Chief Justice of India

c. SEBI

46. A member or part time member of the Board shall not be appointed as Presiding

Officer or Member of the Securities Appellate Tribunal –

a. during his service or tenure as such with the Board

b. within two years from the date on which he ceases to hold office as such in the

Board



c. within four years from the date on which he ceases to hold office as such in the

Board

d. a or b

e. a or c

47. The Presiding Officer or every Judicial or Technical Member of the Securities Appellate

Tribunal shall hold office for a term of

a. Three years

b. Five years

c. Four years

d. Ten years

48. The Presiding Officer or every Judicial or Technical Member of the Securities Appellate

Tribunal can hold office upto the age of

a. Sixty-five years

b. Seventy years

c. Fifty years

d. Seventy-five years

49. In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the Presiding Officer of the

Securities Appellate Tribunal, ………………. shall act as the Presiding Officer until the date

on which a new Presiding Officer is appointed

a. First Judicial member

b. Seniormost technical member

c. Seniourmost judicial member

50. the Presiding Officer or any other Member shall continue to hold office until

a. expiry of his term

b. expiry of three months from the date of receipt of such notice

c. expiry of one month from the date of receipt of such notice

d. a or b, whichever is earlier

e. a or c, whichever is earlier

51. the Presiding Officer and Member appointed before the commencement of Part XIV

of Chapter VI of the Finance Act, 2017

a. shall be governed by SEBI, 1992

b. shall be governed by the provisions of section 184 of that Act.

52. The officers and employees of the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall discharge their

functions under general superintendence of

a. Judicial member

b. Presiding officer

c. Technical member

53. Any person aggrieved by an order ………………….. may prefer an appeal to a Securities

Appellate Tribunal having jurisdiction in the matter.

a. of the Board made, on and after the commencement of the Securities Laws

(Second Amendment) Act, 1999

b. made by an adjudicating officer

c. of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority or the Pension Fund

Regulatory and Development Authority

d. all of the above



54. Every appeal shall be filed within a period of forty-five days from the date on which a

copy of the order made is received by him

a. Thirty days

b. Fifty days

c. Forty-five days

d. Sixty days

55. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to

a. The board

b. the parties to the appeal

c. the concerned Adjudicating Officer.

d. All of the above

56. The appeal filed before the Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be disposed finally

within six months from the date of receipt of the appeal.

a. One year

b. Six months

c. Eight months

d. Ten months

57. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down by the

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

a. True

b. False

58. The Securities Appellate Tribunal shall have, for the purposes of discharging their

functions under this Act, the powers for

a. setting aside any order of dismissal of any application for default or any order

passed by it ex parte

b. issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents



59. No civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of

any matter which an adjudicating officer appointed under this Act or a Securities

Appellate Tribunal constituted under this Act is empowered by

a. True

b. False

60. Any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Securities Appellate Tribunal may

file an appeal to the …………….. within sixty days from the date of communication of the

decision

a. High court

b. Supreme court

61. Supreme Court may, if it is satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient

cause from filing the appeal within the said period, allow it to be filed within a further

period not exceeding ………… days.

a. Thirty

b. Forty-five

c. Sixty



62. If at any time the Central Government is of opinion that Board unable to perform its

functions, it may by notification, supersede the Board for such period, not exceeding six

months.

a. Six months

b. Three months

c. Two months

d. One year

63. The Board not being able to discharge its functions and duties on account of a grave

emergency can be considered as a reason for the Central Government to supersede the

Board

a. True

b. False

64. Upon the publication of a notification of superseding the Board all property owned or

controlled by the Board shall, until the Board is reconstituted vest in the Central

Government

a. Board

b. Board members

c. Central govt

65. In case of a supersession, any person or persons who vacated their offices, shall be

deemed disqualified for appointment on reconstitution of the Board

a. True

b. False

66. the Board shall, within ninety days after the end of each financial year, submit to the

Central Government a report in such form, as may be prescribed, giving a true and full

account of its activities, policy and programmes during the previous financial year.

a. Sixty

b. Thirty

c. Forty-five

d. ninety

67. if any person contravenes or attempts to contravene or abets the contravention of the

provisions of this Act or of any rules or regulations made thereunder, he shall be

punishable with imprisonment for a term

a. of minimum one month

b. which may extend to ten years


68. No immunity shall be granted by the Central Government in cases where the

proceedings for the prosecution for any such offence have been instituted after the date

of receipt of application for grant of such immunity.

a. True

b. False

69. An immunity granted to a person above may, at any time, be withdrawn by the

…………………., if it is satisfied that such person had, in the course of the proceedings, not

complied with the conditions on which immunity was granted.

a. Central government

b. Board



70. The person who has not complied with the conditions may

a. be tried for the offence with respect to which the immunity was granted

b. be tried for any other offence of which he appears to have been guilty

c. become liable to the imposition of any penalty under this Act to which such

person would have been liable, had not such immunity been granted.

d. All of the above

71. A Special Court shall consist of a single judge who shall be appointed by the Central

Government with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the

a. Supreme Court

b. The High Court

72. where an offence under this Act has been committed by a company and it is proved

that the offence has been committed with the neglect of any director of the company,

such director shall also be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to

be proceeded against and punished accordingly.

a. True

b. False

73. the Recovery Officer shall proceed to recover from such person the amount specified

in the certificate by

a. attachment and sale of the person's immovable property

b. arrest of the person and his detention in prison

c. attachment of the person's bank accounts

d. all of the above

74. The SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2009 lays down guidelines relating to

a. listing of different segments of the capital market

b. disclosure norms

c. public issues

d. all of the above

75. …………………. is when an unlisted company makes either a fresh issue of securities or an

offer for sale of its existing securities to the public.

a. Rights issue

b. Further public issue

c. Initial Public Issue

76. FPO is when a listed company which proposes to issue fresh securities to its existing

shareholders as on a record date

a. True

b. False

77. A ……………… is an issue of shares or of convertible securities by a company to a select

group of persons

a. Bonus issue

b. Private placement

78. An issuer may make an initial public offer, if

a. They have a net tangible assets of at least three crore rupees in each, of the

preceding three full years

b. They have a net tangible assets of at least two crore rupees in each, of the

preceding three full years



c. They have a net tangible assets of at least two crore rupees in each, of the

preceding two full years

79. An unlisted company intending to be listed should have at least …….. % of its net tangible

assets held in monetary assets

a. 40

b. 50

c. 60

d. 25

80. An unlisted company intending to be listed should have a minimum average pre-tax

operating profit of rupees fifteen crore, calculated on a restated and consolidated

basis, during the

a. Preceding three years

b. Preceding five years

c. the three most profitable years out of the immediately preceding five years

d. the two most profitable years out of the immediately preceding five years

81. An issuer not satisfying the conditions may make an Initial Public Offer if the issue is

made through the book-building process and the issuer undertakes to allot, at least of

the net offer to public, to qualified institutional buyers

a. 50

b. 75

c. 80

d. 60

82. An issuer cannot make an initial public offer of Convertible Debt Instruments without

making a prior public issue of its equity shares and listing thereof

a. True

b. False

83. An issuer shall make an allotment pursuant to a public issue if the number of

prospective allottees is more than 1000.

a. True

b. False

84. For an IPO, ……………… is appointed

a. Investment banker

b. Merchant banker

85. Any amendments to be made in the prospectus should be done within 21 days of filing

the offer document.

a. 14

b. 28

c. 27

d. 21

86. Book Building is essentially a process used by companies raising capital through

a. IPO

b. FPO




87. ………………… is a mechanism where, during the period for which the book for the offer

is open, the bids are collected from investors at various prices, which are within the

price band specified by the issuer.

a. Book building Issue

b. Fixed price issue

88. The issue price is determined after the bid closure based on ……………., under the book

bulding issue

a. the demand generated

b. the highest bid

c. the capital required

89. Bids can be revised by the bidders before the book closes.

a. True

b. False

90. …………….. decide the final price at which the securities shall be issued, under the book

building issue

a. Book runners

b. Issuer


91. Issue size should not be …………… as per the audited balance sheet of the preceding

year.

a. Not more than 3 times pre-issue net-worth

b. Not more than 5 times pre-issue net-worth

c. More than 5 times pre-issue net-worth

92. if the issue price is ` 500 or more then the Company may fix the face Value

a. below ’10 per share but not lower than ‘1 per share

b. below ‘100 per share but not lower than ’10 per share

c. below ’50 per share but not lower than ’10 per share

d. below ’50 per share but not lower than ’20 per share

93. if the issue price is less than ` 500 then the Company must have a face Value of ` 10 per

share

a. ’10 per share

b. ‘1 per share

c. ’50 per share

94. The promoter group includes

a. any body corporate in which the promoter holds 10% or more of the equity

share capital

b. a body corporate which holds 10% or more of the equity share capital of the

promoter



95. In case the promoter is an individual, ……………… counts as a promoter

a. an immediate relative of the promoter who holds upto 10% of the equity share

capital in a body corporate



b. any Hindu Undivided Family or firm in which the aggregate shareholding of the

promoter and his immediate relatives is equal to or more than 10% of the total



96. ………………. shall not be deemed to be a promoter merely by virtue of the fact that 10 %

or more of the equity share capital of the issuer is held by such person.

a. Immediate relative of promoter

b. Foreign institutional investor

c. Scheduled bank

d. All of the above

e. B and c

97. In case of an FPO, the promoters’ minimum contribution should be

a. not less than 20% of the post issue capital

b. to the extent of 20 % of the proposed issue size

c. not less than 20% of the proposed issue size

98. in case of a composite issue, the post-issue capital ……………… the rights issue component for

calculating the promoters’ contribution

a. includes

b. excludes

99. Under lock-in period, shares are ………..

a. Non-transferable

b. Partially transferable

100. Locked-in shares cannot be pledged or transferred inter-se between promoters

a. True

b. False

101. In case of an IPO, the entire pre-issue capital of an Unlisted Company subject

to certain exceptions is locked in for

a. 1 year from date of allotment

b. 1 year from commencement of commercial production

c. 3 years from commencement of commercial production

d. 3 years from date of allotment

102. is the listing of a company's common shares on a different exchange than its

primary and original stock exchange

a. external listing

b. secondary listing

c. cross-listing

103. Cross-listing gives issuing companies more liquidity and a greater ability to raise

capital.

a. True

b. False

104. A listed issuer company cannot make any rights issue of securities, where the

aggregate value of such securities, including premium, if any exceeds 50 lakhs unless a

draft letter of offer has been filed with the board

a. 1 crore

b. 75 lakhs



c. 65 lakhs

d. 50 lakhs

105. The draft letter must be filed within ……. Days prior to the filing of the letter of

offer with the designated Stock Exchange.

a. 25

b. 30

c. 15

d. 45

106. If the issuer withdraws the rights issue after announcing the record date, it shall

not make an application for listing of any of its specified securities on any recognized

stock exchange for a period of ten months from the record date announced.

a. true

b. false

107. Bonus issue cannot be made out of

a. Revaluation reserves

b. Free reserves



108. Bonus shares can be issued on partly paid up shares

a. True

b. False

109. Before issuing bonus shares, it is to be ensured that the company hasn’t defaulted in

a. payment of interest or principal in respect of fixed deposits

b. payment of statutory dues of the employees

c. all of the above

110. issuer can issue of bonus shares in lieu of dividend

a. true

b. false

111. Issuer company cannot make preferential allotment to an person who has sold

any equity shares during …………….months preceding relevant date

a. Six

b. Three

c. Two

d. Four

112. for the preferential issue by listed Company, existing proposed allottees shall

have shares in ………………….. form

a. physical

b. dematerialized

113. a company cannot make a preferential issue unless it has acquired PANs of ……….

Possible allottees

a. all

b. existing

114. ………………. Is considered as a QIB for a Qualified Institutional Placement

a. Provident fund with a minimum corpus of twenty five crore rupees

b. pension fund with minimum corpus of twenty five crore rupees



c. scheduled commercial bank

d. all of the above

115. The Company shall pass a …………….. resolution approving the qualified

institutional placement by its shareholders.

a. Special

b. General

116. the allotment of securities shall be completed within a period of 12 months

from the date of passing of the resolution.

a. One year

b. Six months

c. Three months

d. Two years

117. no single allottee shall be allotted more than 50% of the issue size in a QIP

a. 25%

b. 30%

c. 50%

d. 65%

118. the minimum number of allottees for each placement of eligible securities

that has to be made under QIPs shall not be less than ……….., where the issue size is

less than or equal to ……………..; and ………………, where the issue size is greater than

……………

a. two, less than or equal to `250 crores; five, greater than `250 crores;

b. five, less than or equal to `250 crores; greater than `250 crores;

119. At the time of allotment under the QIPs, minimum 10% of the eligible

securities shall be allotted to ………..

a. provident funds

b. pension funds

c. venture capital funds

d. mutual funds

120. The applicants in qualified institutional placement can withdraw their bids after

the closure of the issue.

a. True

b. false

121. The aggregate of the proposed qualified institutional placement and all previous

qualifies institutional placements made by the issuer in the same financial year shall

not exceed 5 times the net worth

a. 2 times

b. Half of

c. 3 times

d. 5 times

122. QIPs shall be made on the basis of a …………… which shall contain all material

information.

a. Qualification document

b. PAN

c. Placement document



123. The (final) placement document shall be serially numbered and copies shall be

circulated only to ……

a. The Board

b. Merchant banker

c. QIBs

124. Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure

Requirements) Regulations, 2015 applies only to companies

a. True

b. False

125. Securities and Exchange Board of India (Listing Obligations and Disclosure

Requirements) Regulations, 2015 regulations shall apply to the listed entity who has

listed

a. Specified securities listed on SME Exchange

b. Indian depository receipts

c. Non-convertible debt securities

d. All of the above

126. A listed entity shall appoint a qualified Company Secretary as the Compliance

Officer.

a. Qualified CA

b. Qualified Company Secretary

c. Lawyer

d. Finance manager

127. One ………………. Director on Board shall be a Director on Board of Unlisted

Material Subsidiary.

a. Independent

b. Managing

128. A listed entity shall not dispose of shares in its material subsidiary resulting in

reduction of its shareholding (either on its own or together with other subsidiaries) to

less than 50 % or cease the exercise of control over the subsidiary without passing a

………………………

a. General resolution

b. Special resolution

129. A listed entity shall submit a statement showing holding of securities and

shareholding pattern separately for each class of securities

a. On a quarterly basis

b. On a monthly basis

c. On a half-yearly basis

d. On an annual basis

130. A listed entity shall submit a statement showing holding of securities and

shareholding pattern separately for each class of securities Within 10 days of any

capital restructuring of the listed entity resulting in a change exceeding …… per cent

of the total paid-up share capital

a. 1

b. 5

c. 2



d. 4

131. For declaration of dividend, Intimation shall be required to be made at least 2

working days in advance

a. Seven

b. Two

c. Fourteen

d. Ten

132. The listed entity shall give intimation of Any alteration in the form or nature of

any of its securities that are listed to the stock exchange(s) at least 11 working days

before

a. Altering the given securities

b. Placing the proposal in front of the Board

c. Declaring dividend on said securities

133. A listed entity shall recommend or declare all dividend and/or cash bonuses

At least ……… working days (excluding the date of intimation and the record date) before

the record date.

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

134. A listed entity shall update any change in the content of its website Within …..

working days from the date of such change in content.

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

135. Listed entity shall submit audited standalone financial results for the financial

year, along with the audit report and either Form A or Form B within ………days from

end of Financial Year.

a. 30

b. 45

c. 50

d. 60

136. A listed entity shall submit the annual report to the stock exchange within 21

working days of it being

a. Sent by the auditor

b. Approved in Board Meeting

c. Approved in AGM

137. The role of a Compliance Officer is

a. Report to Board

b. Determining materiality of information to be reported to stock exchange

c. assist board in conduct of affairs of the Company

d. all of the above

138. Compliance Report is to besubmitted within 6 months from the end of financial

year to the Board



a. 6 months

b. 60 days

c. 3 months

d. 4 months

139. Every listed entity shall constitute a qualified and independent audit committee

which consist of

a. minimum two directors as members

b. 1/3rd of members being independent directors

c. All of the above


140. Every listed entity shall constitute a qualified and independent audit committee

which consist of

a. A CS acting as the secretary to the committee

b. One independent director as the chairman



141. The audit committee shall meet at least ……. times in a year

a. Two

b. Three

c. Four

d. Six

142. At least ….. percent of the directors shall be independent directors in the

nomination and remuneration committee

a. 25

b. 45

c. 75

d. 50

143. All directors of the nomination and remuneration committee shall be ………..

Directors

a. Executive

b. Non-executive

144. The listed entity shall constitute a … … … … … . Committee to specifically look

into the mechanism of redressal of grievances of shareholders, debenture holders and

other security holders.

a. Audit

b. Grievance

c. Stakeholders Relationship

145. The provisions of this regulation regarding risk management committee shall be

applicable to top ……. listed entities, determined on the basis of market capitalization,

as at the end of the immediate previous financial year.

a. 50

b. 75

c. 120

d. 100



146. The Board of directors shall define the role and responsibility of the Risk

Management Committee

a. SEBI

b. Chairman

c. BoD

ANSWER KEY

1. B 2. D 3. B

4. A 5. C 6. B

7. A 8. B 9. B

10. B 11. D 12. C

13. C 14. C 15. A

16. B 17. C 18. D

19. B 20. A 21. D

22. B 23. D 24. B

25. A 26. D 27. C

28. C 29. B 30. A

31. E 32. A 33. C

34. d 35. d 36. d

37. a 38. b 39. d

40. d 41. d 42. b

43. a 44. a 45. a

46. e 47. b 48. b

49. c 50. d 51. a

52. b 53. d 54. c

55. d 56. b 57. b

58. c 59. a 60. b

61. c 62. a 63. a

64. c 65. b 66. d

67. b 68. b 69. a

70. d 71. b 72. a

73. d 74. c 75. c

76. b 77. b 78. a

79. b 80. c 81. b

82. b 83. a 84. b

85. d 86. c 87. a

88. a 89. a 90. c

91. b 92. a 93. a

94. c 95. b 96. e

97. b 98. b 99. a

100. b 101. a 102. c

103. a 104. d 105. b

106. b 107. a 108. b

109. c 110. b 111. a

112. b 113. a 114. d

115. a 116. a 117. c

118. a 119. d 120. b



121. d 122. c 123. c

124. b 125. d 126. b

127. a 128. b 129. a

130. c 131. b 132. b

133. d 134. a 135. d

136. c 137. d 138. a

139. d 140. c 141. c

142. d 143. b 144. c

145. d 146. c

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SEBI MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS MAY 2019...

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