Multiple Choice Questions

1. A planned undertaking of related activities to reach an objective that has a beginning and an end best defines:

a. task development

b. activity plan

c. project

d. task schedule2. An individual with a diverse set of skills--management, leadership, technical, conflict management, and customer relationship--who is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project best defines:

a. systems analyst

b. consultant

c. project scheduler

d. project manager3. Arguably, the most instrumental person to the successful completion of any project is the:

a. project manager

b. chief information officer

c. department manager

d. staff consultant

4. Which of the following are activities involved in managing a project?

a. .closing down the project

b. planning the project

c. executing the project

d. all of the above 5. A controlled process of initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project best defines:

a. systems development

b. project management

c. project development

d. systems management6. Influencing the activities of others toward the attainment of a common goal through the use of intelligence, personality, and abilities refers to which of the following project manager activities?

a. conflict management

b. management

c. leadership

d. team management7. Managing conflict within a project team to assure that conflict is not too high or too low best defines which of the following project manager activities:

a. conflict management

b. leadership

c. team management

d. problem solving

8. Skills that include interpreting system requests and specifications, site preparation and user training, and contact point for customers best represent:

a. customer relations

b. conflict management

c. leadership

d. team management9. Skills that include defining and sequencing activities, communicating expectations, assigning resources to activities, and monitoring outcomes best represent:

a. technical problem solving

b. management

c. leadership

d. team management

10. The phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities best defines:

a. project initiation

b. scope development

c. project planning

d. project assessment

11. Which of the following project management activities is associated with project initiation?

a. establishing a relationship with the customer

b. describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility

c. estimating resources and creating a detailed resource plan

d. identifying and assessing risks12. Defining the necessary activities required to organize the initiation team while they are working to define the scope of the project is the focus of which of the following activities?

a. establishing the project initiation team

b. establishing management procedures

c. establishing the project initiation plan

d. establishing the project management environment and project workbook13. Which of the following principles of project management defines and controls the functions that are to be included in the system?

a. Project quality management

b. Project cost management

c. Project time management

d. Project scope management

14. A ____ describes the purpose of the new system, the potential start and completion dates, and the key stakeholders and sponsors of the new system.

a. cost/benefit analysis

b. work breakdown structure (WBS)

c. project schedule

d. project charter15. Which of the following is a responsibility of the project manager from an external perspective?

a. report project status and progress

b. assess team members to tasks

c. assess project risks

d. develop project schedule16. Which of the following is true of a team leader?

a. has high to almost total authority

b. primarily leads big IT projects

c. may have both project management duties and some technical duties

d. works primarily on projects in which the all business functions are interdependent17. The project lifecycle consists of

a. evaluating, defining, planning, implementing, closing

b. planning, defining, implementing, closing, evaluating

c. evaluating, implementing, defining, planning, closing

d. defining, planning, implementing, closing, evaluating18. Which of the following types of activities is more closely associated with projects rather than processes?

a. an activity that is ongoing

b. an activity that is day-to-day

c. an activity that uses existing systems

d. an activity that establishes its own work rules19. Which of the following is accomplished through project management?

a. A cellular phone company activates a new customer's service.

b. An automotive manufacturer produces a day's quota of vehicles.

c. A software developer creates a new crash-proof operating system.

d. A retailer restocks the shelves after a day of brisk sales.20. A project typically has:

a. a defined start and end date.

b. a defined start date but no defined end date.

c. no defined start but a defined end date.

d. no defined start or end date.21. Project members may be from:

a. different departments.

b. other organizational units.

c. one functional area.

d. all of the above.

22. There is no such thing as a project team:

a. with a deliverable.

b. with an on-going, non-specific purpose.

c. with a goal.

d. with a project manager23. A project that results in "doing the wrong things well" has ignored the:

a. budgetary goal.

b. technical goal.

c. customer satisfaction goal.

d. scheduling goal.

24. Which of these is NOT characteristic of a project?

a. Projects are responsible for the newest and most improved products, services, and organizational processes.

b. Projects are ad hoc endeavors with a clear life cycle.

c. Projects provide a philosophy and strategy for the management of change.

d. Traditional process management functions of planning, organizing, and controlling do not apply to project management.

25. Which of the following is NOT a project constraint?

a. the budget

b. the customer requirements

c. the schedule

d. the technical specifications26. Projects differ from classic organizational processes because projects are:

a. discrete activities.

b. part of line organization.

c. well established systems in place to integrate efforts.

d. multi-objective.

27. Process management features __________ with respect to project management.

a. greater heterogeneity

b. greater certainty of performance

c. greater numbers of goals and objectives

d. lower adherence to established practices

28. A business reality that makes effective project management critical is the fact that:

a. products are becoming increasingly simple.

b. inflation is rampant.

c. product life cycles are compressing.

d. product launch windows are widening.

29. Individual activities and their durations are developed during the __________ phase of the project life cycle.

a. planning

b. conceptualization

c. execution

d. termination30. Client interest is typically at its lowest during the:

a. conceptualization phase.

b. planning phase.

c. execution phase.

d. termination phase.31. The commitment of financial, human, and technical resources is highest during the:

a. conceptualization phase.

b. planning phase.

c. execution phase.

d. termination phase.

32. The most recent addition to the four criteria of project success is:

a. time

b. cost

c. performance

d. client acceptance33. A project screening criterion that allows the company to compare long term versus short term projects, projects with different technologies, and projects with different commercial objectives is:

a. flexibility.

b. ease of use

c. capability

d. realistic34. An internal operating issue in project screening and selection is:

a. expected return on investment.

b. change in physical environment.

c. patent protection.

d. the chance that the firm's goodwill will suffer due to the quality of the finished project.35. Quality risk refers to the chance that:

a. the project relies on developing new or untested technologies.

b. the firm's reputation may suffer when the product becomes available.

c. the well-being of the users or developers may decline dramatically.

d. the firm may face a lawsuit.36. One facet of risk in project screening is:

a. the change in manufacturing operations resulting from the project.

b. the initial cash outlay.

c. the potential for lawsuits or legal obligation.

d. the strategic fit of the project with the company.

37. A commercial factor in project selection and screening might be:

a. a need to develop employees.

b. the likelihood that users of the project are injured.

c. the long-term market dominance.

d. the impact on the companys image.38. A checklist screening model does not consider:

a. whether one criterion is more important than another.

b. governmental or stakeholder interference.

c. product durability and future market potential of the product line.

d. the riskiness of the new venture.

39. A simple scoring model for project evaluation requires:a. importance weights from 1 to 10 assigned to each criterion.

b. score values assigned to each criterion in terms of its rating.

c. a division of weights by scores to arrive at a standardized score for each criterion.

d. a summation for each criterion to achieve an overall criterion score.40. The profile model plots a graph on a:

a. perception-reality pair of axes.

b. risk-return pair of axes.

c. efficiency-effectiveness pair of axes.

d. Saxon-Norman pair of axes.

41. A simple scoring model is used to decide among three projects that we'll call A, B, and C. The total score for project A is 30, for project B is 20, and for project C is 10. Which of the following statements is best?

a. If project A is successfully completed, it will yield three times the benefits that project C would have provided.

b. If project C is chosen, the company would benefit only half as much as if they had chosen project B.

c. Project C is better than project B for this company at this point in time.

d. Project A is better than project B for this company at this point in time.

42. One project factor that directly impacts a firm's internal operations is the:

a. expected return on investment.

b. financial risk.

c. need to develop employees.

d. impact on company's image.