Sample Paper Ntse 1

(NTSE – STAGE - 1) MAT

Time for marking all 90 Questions : 1:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 90

NOTE

1. This question booklet contains 90 questions numbered from 1 to 90 and each question carries 1 mark.

All questions are compulsory. There is no-negative marking.

2. Tally the number of pages along with no. of questions printed on cover page of the booklet. Also check that

question booklet contains the questions of all relevant subjects/topics, as required and stated above and no

repetition or omission of questions is evident.

3. If any discrepancy is found in the Question Booklet, the same can be replaced with another correct Question

Booklet within first 15 minutes.

4. Before answering the questions please read carefully the instructions printed on the back cover page of the

question booklet and strictly follow them. Indicate your answers by blacking bubbles carefully only on the

O.M.R. Answer Sheet provided.

5. Use of any type of calculator, mobile phone or any other electronic equipment and log table etc. is strictly

prohibited.

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MAT Directions (Q. Nos. 1- 4) To answer the questions, read the information carefully : The six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are travelling together. B is the son of C but C is not the mother

of B. A and C are married coupple. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. 1. How many male members are there in family ? (A) 1 (B)2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans. D 2. Who is the mother of B ? (A) D (B) F (C) E (D) A Ans. A 3. How many children does A have ? (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Ans. C 4. Which of the following is a pair of females ? (A) AE (B) BD (C) DF (D) AD Ans. D Directions (Q. Nos. 5-8): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions given below : (i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on wall and facing east. (ii) C is on the immediate right to D. (iii) B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour. (iv) G is between E and F. (v) D is sitting third from south end. 5. Who is sitting to the right of E ? (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) G Ans. A 6. Which of the following pairs of people is sitting at the extreme ends ? (A) AB (B) AE (C) CB (D) FB Ans. A 7. Name the person who should change the place with C such that he gets the third place from north end (A) E (B) F (C) G (D) D Ans. D 8. Immediately between which of the following pairs of people is D sitting ? (A) AC (B) AF (C) CE (D) CF Ans. D

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Directions (Q. Nos. 9-12): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below : (i) Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests, (ii) No two students get similar marks, (iii) V always scores more than P. (iv) P always scores more than Q. (v) Each time either R scores the highest and T gets least, or alternatively S scores highest and U or Q spores

(east. 9. If S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, whion of the following can be true ? (A) V is ranked first or fourth (B) R is ranked second or third (C) P is ranked second or fifth (D) U is ranked third or fourth Ans. B 10. If R is ranked second and Q is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true ? (A) S is ranked third (B) T is ranked sixth (C) P is ranked sixth (D) V is ranked fourth Ans. B 11. If S is ranked second, which of the following can be true ? (A) U gets more than (B) V gets more than S (C) P gets more than R V (D) P gets more than V Ans. A 12. If V/s ranked fifth, which of the following must be true ? (A) S scores the highest (B) R is ranked second (C) T is ranked third (D) Q is ranked fourth Ans. A

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-15): Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below : The sum of the income of A and B is

more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of the income of A and C is same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D.

13. Whose income is highest ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D Ans. B 14. Which of the following statements is not correct ? (A) A earns more than B (B) B earns more than D (C) C earns more than D (D) B earns more than C Ans. A 15. If A's income be Rs. 80,000 per annum and the difference between the income of B and D be the same as A's

income, B's income is : (A) Rs. 40,000 (B) Rs. 60,000 (C) Rs. 80,000 (D) Rs. 1,20,000 Ans. B 16. A man is facing North-West. He turns 90° in clockwise direction and then 135° in the anticlockwise direction.

Which direction is he facing now ? (A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South Ans. B

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17. I am facing East. I turn 100° in the clockwise direction and the 145° in anticlockwise direction. Which direction am i facing now ?

(A) East (B) North-East (C) North (D) South-East Ans. B 18. Vinay goes 30 m North, then turns right and walks 40 m, then again turns right and waiks 20 m, then again turns

right and walks 40 m. How many metres is he from his original position ? (A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 40 Ans. B 19. A man walks 1 km towards East and then turns towards South and walks 5 km. Again he turns to East and walks

2 km. After this he turns to North and walks 9 km. Now, how far is he from his starting point ? (A) 3km (B) 4km (C) 5km (D) 7km Ans. C 20. A and B starts moving towards each other from two places 200 m apart. After walking 60 m, B turns left and

goes 20 m, then he turns right and goes 40 m. He then turns right again and comes back to the road on which he had started walking. If A and B walk with the same speed, what is the distance between A and B now ?

(A) 20 m (B) 30 m (C) 40 m (D) 50 m Ans. C 21. If A is to the South of B and C is to the East of B, in what direction is A with respect to? (A) North-East (B) North-West (C) South-East (D) South-West Ans. D 22. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards North-East. In which direction does its hour

point at 1.30 p.m. ? (A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West Ans. C Directions (Q. Nos. 23-27): In each of the following questions, find which word cannot be made from the letters of the given word ? 23. CARPENTER (A)Y NECTAR (B) CARPET (C) PAINTER (D) REPENT Ans. C 24. TRIBUNAL (A) LATIN (B) BRAIN (C) URBAN (D) TRIBLE Ans. D 25. ORGANISATION (A) NATION (B) GRANT (C) RECOGNISE (D) SATAN Ans. D 26. DEPARTMENT (A) ENTER (B) PERMIT (C) TEMPER (D) RENTED Ans. B 27. CONSTITUTIONAL (A) LOCATION (B) TUTION (C) TALENT (D) CONSULT Ans. C

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Directions (Q. No. 28-32): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary

and then choose the correct sequence : 28. (1) Preach (2) Praise (3) Precinct (4) Precept (5)

Precede (A) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 (B) 2,1,3,4,5 (C) 2, 5, 1,4,3 (D) 1,2,5,4,3 Ans. A 29. (1) Select (2) Seldom (3) Send (4) Selfish

(5) Seller (A) 1,2,4,5,3 (B) 2,1,5,4,3 (C) 2,1,4,5,3 (D) 2,5,4,1,3 Ans. C 30. (1) Liver (2) Long, (3) Late (4) Load

(5) Luminous (6) Letter (A) 3,1,6,2,4,5 (B) 3,1,6,2,5,4 (C) 3,6,1,2,4,5 (D) 3,6, 1,4, 2, 5 Ans. D 31. (1) Page (2) Pagan (3) Palisade (4) Pageant (5)

Palate (A) 1,4,2,3,5 (B) 2,4,1,3,5 (C) 2,1,4,5,3 (D) 1,4,2,5,3 Ans. C 32. Which name will be in second place if given names arranged as they appear in telephone directory ? (A) Avdash (B) Avadhesh (C) Awadesh (D) Awdjiesh Ans. B 33. In a queue, Amrita is 10th from front while Mukul is 25th from behind and Mamta is just in the middle of the two.

If there be 50 persons in queue, what position does Mamta occupy from front ? (A) 26th (B) 19th (C) 18th (D) 17th Ans. C 34. Raman ranks sixteenth from top and forty-ninth from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the

class ? (A) 64 (B) 65 (C) 66 (D) None of these Ans. A 35. Manisha ranked sixteenth from top and twenty-ninth from the bottom among those passed an examination. Six

boys did not appeared in examination and five failed. How many boys were there in the class ? (A) 40 (B) 44 (C) 50 (D) 55 Ans. D

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36. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kama! ranked seventeenth from the top ? If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank ?

(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 12 (D) 23 Ans. C 37. In a row of ten boys, when Rohit was shifted by two places towards the left, he became seventh from the left

end. What was his earlierposition from the right end of the row ? (A) First (B) Second (C) Fourth (D) Sixth Ans. B Directions (Q. No. 38-42): In each of the following questions, arrange the given words in meaningful sequence and then choose the most

appropriate sequence from amongst the alternative provided below : 38. (1) Site (2) Plan (3) Rent (4) Money (5)

Building (A) 4,1,2,5,3 (B) 3,4,2,5,1 (C) 2,3,5,1,4 (D) 1,2,3,5,4 Ans. A 39. (1) Cutting (2) Dish (3) Vegetable (4) Market (5)

Cooking (A) 1,2,4,5,3 (B) 3,2,5,1,4 (C) 4,3, 1,5,2 (D) 5,3,2,1,4 Ans. C 40. (1) Poverty (2) Population (3) Death (4) Unemployment

(5) Disease (A) 3,4,2,5,1 (B) 2,4, 1,5,3 (C) 2,3,4,5,1 (D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. B 41. (1) Rainbow (2) Rain (3) Sun (4). Happy (5)

Child (A) 2,1,4,3,5 (B) 2,3,1,5,4 (C) 4,2,3,5,1 (D) 4,5,1,2,3 Ans. B 42. (1) Index (2) Contents (3) Title (4) Chapters (5)

Introduction (A) 3,2,5, 1,4 (B) 2,3,4,5,1 (C) 5,1,4,2,3 (D) 3,2,5,4,1 Ans. A Directions (Q. Nos. 43-46) : In each question, a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong

number. 43. Given series - 5531, 5506, 5425, 5304, 5135, 4910, 4621 : (A) 5531 (B) 5425 (C) 4621 (D) 5135 Ans. A

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44. Given Aeries 6,7,9, 13, 6, 37, 69 : (A) 7 (B) 26 (C) 69 (D) 37 Ans. B 45. Given series - 1,3,10, 36, 152, 760, 4632 : (A) 3 (B) 36 (C) 4632 (D) 760 Ans. D 46. Given series - 4,3, 9, 34, 96, 219, 435 : (A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 34 (D) 435 Ans. A Directions (Q. Nos. 47- 49): Study the information given below and answer the questions. An article was purchased for Rs. 5,600. Its price was marked up by 12%. It was sold at 5% discount on the

marked price. 47. The marked price of article will be : (A) Rs. 6,207 (B) Rs. 6,242 (C) Rs. 6,292 (D) Rs. 6,272 Ans. D 48. What was the per cent profit on the transaction ? (A) 6.8% (B) 6.3% (C) 6.4% (D) 6.6% Ans. B 49. What was the amount of discount given ? (A) Rs.319.6 (B) Rs. 303.6 (C) Rs. 306.3 (D) Rs. 313.6 Ans. D Directions (Q. Nos. 50-52): What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the questions given below ? 50. 25 x 43 5 = ? (A) 215 (B) 220 (C) 205 (D) 251 Ans. A 51. + 729 = ? (A) 758 (B) 763 (C) 741 (D) 751 Ans. A 52. 2850 ? = 75 (A) 31 (B) 34 (C) 38 (D) 39 Ans. C

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Directions (Q. Nos. 53-57): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below : P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are sitting around a round table. V is second to the left of T. T is fourth to the right of

M. D and P are not immediate neighbours of T. D is third to the right of P. W is not an immediate neighbour of P. P is to the immediate left of K,

53. Who is second to the left of K ? (A) P (B) R (C) M (D) W Ans. B 54. Who is to the immediate left of V ? (A) D (B) M (C) W (D) None of these Ans. A 55. Who is third to the right of V ? (A) T (B) K (C) P (D) None of these Ans. D 56. What is R's position with respect to V ? (A) Third to the right (B) Fifth to the right (C) Second to the left (D) Fourth to the left Ans. A 57. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above sitting arrangement and

so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group ? (A) DW (B) TP (C) VM (D) RD Ans. D Directions (Q. Nos. 58-62): There is certain Veialroriship between two words on left side of ::. One word is given on right side of::. Find the

word from given alternative, having same relationship as the pair of words has on left side. 58. Paw : Cat:: Hoof: ? (A) Horse (B) Lion (C) Lamb (D) Elephant Ans. A 59. Race : Fatigue :: Fast: ? (A) Food (B) Fruit (C) Hunger (D) Water Ans. C 60. Hot: Oven :: Cold : ? (A) IceCream (B) Air Conditioner (C) Fan (D) Refrigerator Ans. D 61. Cunning : Fox :: Timid :? (A) Horse (B) Ant (C) Rat (D) Lion Ans. C 62. College : Student:: Hospital: ? (A) Nurse (B) Doctor (C) Treatment (D) Patient Ans. D

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Directions (Q. Nos. 63-65): Read the following questions carefully and answer. 63. Mathematics is related to Numbers in the same way History is related to : (A) People (B) Events (C) Dates (D) Wars Ans. B 64. Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way Disease is related to : (A) Sanitation (B) Treatment (C) Medicine (D) Doctor Ans. A 65. Oriya is related to Orissa in the same way Dogri is related to ; (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Sikkim (C) Jammu (D) Assam Ans. C Directions (Q. Nos. 66-68): In each of the following questions, a group of three interrelated words is given. Choose a word from the given

alternative, that belongs to same group. 66. Ohm : Watt: Volt:? (A) Light (B) Electricity (C) Hour (D) Ampere Ans. D 67. Potato : Carrot: Radish : ? (A) Tomato (B) Spinach (C) Sesame (D) Groundnut Ans. D 68. Clutch : Brake : Horn : ? (A) Scooter (B) Steering (C) Car (D) Accident Ans. B 69. Four words are given below out of which three are alike in some manner and fourth one is different. Choose out

the odd one : (A) Walk (B) Run (C) Ride (D) Crawl Ans. C 70. Four words are given below out of which three are alike in some manner and fourth one is different. Choose out

the odd one : (A) Barauni (B) Trombay (C) Neyveii (D) Mettur Ans. D 71. Four words are given below out of which three are alike in some manner and fourtl one is different. Choose out

the odd one. (A) Circle (B) Ellipse (C) Sphere (D) Cube Ans. D 72. Choose odd pair of the words : (A) Volume : Litre (B) Time : Seconds (C) Length: Metre (D) Pressure : Barometer Ans. D

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73. Choose odd pair of the words : (A) Hard : Soft (B) Long : High (C) Sweet: Sour (D) Pointed : Blunt Ans. B 74. Choose odd pair of the words : (A) Taiwan : Taipei (B) China : Mongolia (C) Iran : Tehran (D) Japan : Tokyo Ans. B 75. Four numbers are given below out of which three are alike in some mariner and fourth is different. Choose the

different number: (A) 11 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 17 Ans. C 76. Four numbers are given below out of which three are alike in some manner and fourth is different. Choose the

different number: (A) 7 (B) 15 (C) 31 (D) 57 Ans. A 77. Four numbers are given below out of which three are alike in some manner and fourth is different. Choose the

different number : (A) 144 (B) 168 (C) 196 (D) 256 Ans. B 78. If HEATER is written as KBDQHO, how will you writs COOLER . (A) ALRHV (B) FLRIHO (C) FLIRHO (D) FRLIHO Ans. B 79. In certain code PAPER is written as SCTGW, how will MOTHER written in that code ? (A) ORVLGW (B) PQVJGT (C) PQXJJT (D) PQXKJV Ans. C 80. If in certain code POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be coded as GBNPVT ? (A) FAMOSU (B) FAMOUS (C) FASOUM (D) FOSAUM Ans. B 81. If in certain code CALCUTTA is coded as GEPGYXXE, which word would be coded as^SQFCE ? (A) BOMBYA (B) BOMBAY (C) BOMYAB (D) BOBAYM Ans. A Directions (Q. Nos. 82-84): If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 and NAKED is coded as 84123, how the words will be coded in the following

questions ; 82. DISTANT: (A) 3765485 (B) 4798165 (C) 3697185 (D) 4768296 Ans. A 83. STAIN: (A) 98175 (B) 89483 (C) 68194 (D) 65478 Ans. D

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84. ASSIST: (A) 166762 (B) 466765 (C) 488976 (D) 435985 Ans. B 85. If REASON is coded as 5, BELIEVED as 7, what is the code number of GOVERNMENT? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10 Ans. C 86. If rain is water, water is road, road is cloud, cloud is sky, sky is sea and sea is path, where do aeroplanes fly? (A) Road (B) Sea (C) Cloud (D) Water Ans. B 87. If a man is called girl, girl is called woman, woman is called boy, boy is called butler and butler is called rogue,

who will serve in restaurant ? (A) Butler (B) Girl (C) Man (D) Rogue Ans. D 88. A man said to a lady "Your mother's husband's sister is my aunt." How is the lady related to man ? (A) Daughter (B) Grand-daughter (C) Mother (D) Sister Ans. D 89. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl's; (A) Cousin (B) Son (C) Uncle (D) Son-in-law Ans. A 90. Arun said, "This girl is the wife of the grand-son of my mother." Who is Arun to the girl? (A) Father (B) Grand-father (C) Husband (D) Father-in-law Ans. D

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(NTSE – STAGE - 1)

Time for marking all 90 Questions : 1:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 90

SAT NOTE

1 . This paper has Three sections, Science : Q. Nos. 1-35, Social Science : Q. Nos. 36-70 and Mathematics :

Q. Nos. 71-90.

2. This question booklet contains 90 questions numbered from 1 to 90 and each question carries 1 mark. All

questions are compulsory. There is no-negative marking.

3. Tally the number of pages along with no. of questions printed on cover page of the booklet. Also check that

question booklet contains the questions of all relevant subjects/topics, as required and stated above and no

repetition or omission of questions is evident.

4. If any discrepancy is found in the Question Booklet, the same can be replaced with another correct Question

Booklet within first 15 minutes.

5. Before answering the questions please read carefully the instructions printed on the back cover page of the

question booklet and strictly follow them. Indicate your answers by blacking bubbles carefully only on the

O.M.R. Answer Sheet provided.

6. Use of any type of calculator, mobile phone or any other electronic equipment and log table etc. is strictly

prohibited.

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SECTION - A SCIENCE

1. Ribosomes are the centre for : (A) Respiration (B) Protein synthesis (C) Photosynthesis (D) Fat synthesis Ans. B Sol. Ribosomes are also known as ‘Protein Factories of Cell’ Mitochondria is responsible for Respiration. Chloroplast helps in photosynthesis Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum helps in fats synthesis 2. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by : (A) John Ray (B) Aristotle (C) A.P. DeCandolle (D) Carolus Linnaeus Ans. D Sol. Carolus Linnaeus is also known as ‘Father of Binomial Nomenclature’. The term ‘species’ was coined by John Ray. Father of Biology is Aristotle. A.P. Decandolle introduced the term ‘taxonomy’. 3. Which of the following is rich in vitamin A ? (A) Carrot (B) Amla (C) Apple (D) Green vegetables Ans. A Sol. Carrot is rich in carotene, Amla is a rich source of Vitamin-C. 4. Typhoid is caused by : (A) Streptococcus (B) Salmonella (C) Giardia (D) Mycobacterium Ans. B Sol. Typhoid is a bacterial disease caused by Salmonella typhi. Streptococcus sp. are responsible for meningitis, pneumonia, endocarditis etc. Giardia is an anaerobic flagellate protozoans causes giardiasis. Mycobacterium sp. causes tuberculosis and leprosy. 5. The percentage of oxygen in air is : (A) 78% (B) 0.03% (C) 21% (D) 80% Ans. C Sol. The percentage of oxygen in air is about 21% by volume 6. Which of the following is the high milk yielding variety of cow ? (A) Holstein (B) Sahiwal (C) Red Sindhi (D) Mehsana Ans. A Sol. Holstein is a breed of cattle known today as the world’s highest production dairy animal. 7. In the year 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy was caused by the leakage of : (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Methyl isocyanate (C) Nitrogen oxide (D) Sulphur oxide Ans. B Sol. Methyl isocynate gas (CH

3NCO) was leaked from the union carbide plant of Bhopal (M.P.)

8. The ceptre of curvature of a concave mirror (A) lies in front of it (B) lies behind it (C) lies on the surf ace of mirror (D) is apart of mirror Ans. A

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9. If a lens has power -2.5D, then it is a : (A) convex lens, with a focal length of 40 cm (B) concave lens with a focal length of 40 cm (C) convex lens with a focal length of 0.4 cm (D) concave lens with a focal length of 0.4 cm Ans. B

Sol. 1P

f(in meter)

1 1 10f

P 2.5 25

1000f cm 40 cm

25

10. Which of the following substances has lowest electrical resistivity at room temperature ? (A) Aluminium (B) Iron (C) Nichrome (D) Diamond Ans. A Sol. Lowest Resistivity = Highest Conductivity 11. An electric current through a horizontal metal wire flows in East to West direction, direction of magnetic field at

point directly above it is from : (A) East toWest (B) West to East (C) North to South (D) South to North Ans. D Sol. By Right Hand thumb rule 12. One atomic mass unit (a.m.u.) is equal to: (A) 1 eV of energy (B) 931 eV of energy (C) 1 MeV of energy (D) 931 MeV of energy Ans. D Sol. E = mc2 (Einstein’s equation) mass defect 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–27 kg E = 1.66 × 10–27 × (3 × 108)2 = 1.66 × 9 × 10–11 J

11

19 6

1.66 9 10MeV

1.6 10 10

13. The planet nearest to Sun is : (A) Mercury (B) Mars (C) Saturn (D) Venus Ans. A 14. If the displacement-time graph for the motion of a car is parallel to the time axis, the velocity of that car is :(A)

constant but not zero (B) zero (C) infinite (D) linearly increasing Ans. B Sol. As slope of displacement-time graph represents velocity 15. S.I. unit of momentum is : (A) kg ms–1 (B) kg ms–2 (C) kg ms2 (D) kg m–1s-1 Ans. A Sol. p mv

16. The density of a substance is 7100 kg m–3 . Its relative density is : (A) 7100 (B) 71 (C) 7.1 (D) 71 x105 Ans. C

Sol. Density of bodyR.D.

Density of water

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17. The mass of a body on earth is 60 kg. Its mass on moon will be : (A) 360kg (B) 60kg (C) 10kg (D) 1/6kg Ans. B Sol. As mass is a property so it doesn’t changes 18. If the difference of temperature of two bodies is 5°C, then the difference of temperature on Kelvin scale is : (A) 268 K (B) 278 K (C) 5K (D) 54.6 K Ans. C Sol. K 273 C K C

19. Which of the following sound of given frequencies can be heard by us ? (A) 10 Hz (B) 10kHz (C) 10MHz (D) 10 GHz Ans. B Sol. 20 Audiblefreq. 20 kHz

20. Which statement is correct about a proton ? (A) It is nucleus of deuterium (B) It is ionised hydrogen molecule (C) It is ionised hydrogen atom (D) It is - particle Ans. C Sol. Hydrogen atom contain 1 proton and 1 electron.

1

1H H e , Hence H+ is a proton

2 2

1 1(Deuterium) (Deuterium Nucleus)

H ( H ) e

21. Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (A) Charges on an electron and proton are equal and opposite (B) Neutron have no charge (C) Electron and proton have same mass (D) Masses of proton and neutron are nearly the same Ans. C Sol. Mass of a proton is about 1840 times mass of an electron. m

e = 9.1 × 10–31 kg

mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg

22. Oxidation is defined as : (A) loss of electron (B) gain of electron (C) loss of proton (D) gain of proton Ans. A Sol. Oxidation involve the loss of electron(s) and reduction involve gain of electron(s) 23. In periodic table generally following similarity is found in elements of same group : (A) atomic number (B) number of electrons in outermost orbit of an atom (C) number of isotopes (D) atomic volume Ans. B Sol. Eleements belonging to the same group of the periodic table have similar valence shell electronic configuration 24. When two atoms combine to form molecule then : (A) energy is released (B) energy is absorbed (C) energy is neither released nor absorbed (D) energy may either be released or absorbed Ans. A Sol. Generally bond formation is an exothermic process.

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25. The electronic structure of four elements a, b, c, d respectively are : (a) 1s2 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p2 (c) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 The tendency to form electrovalent bond will be largest in : (A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d Ans. C Sol. Element ‘C’ is most electronegative element. It form electrovalent bond with metal, by gaining one electron to

complete its octet. 26. Method used for purifying Petroleum is : (A) Simple distillation (B) Steam distillation (C) Vacuum distillation (D) Fractional distillation Ans. D Sol. Crude petroleum is mainly a mixture of many hydrocarbons, with a wide range of boiling points. 27. Unsaturated hydrocarbon is : (A) CH

4 (B) C

2H

6 (C) C

2H

4 (D) C

2H

5OH

Ans. C

Sol. 28. If 0.5 g of any substance is completely transformed into energy, then how much energy in kilo-joule will be

obtained ? (A) 1.5 x1010 kilo-joule (B) 3.0 x 1010 kilo-joule (C) 4.5 x 1010 kilo-joule (D) 6.0 x 1010 kilo-joule Ans. C Sol. Using E = mc2 m = 0.5 g = 5 × 10–4 kg c = 3 × 108 m/s Hence E = 5 × 10–4 × (3 × 108)2 J = 45 × 1012 J = 4.5 × 1010 kJ 29. Brass contains : (A) Cu and Sn (B) Cu and Ni (C) Cu and Zn (D) Mg and Al Ans. C Sol. Brass is an alloy of Zn and Cu 30. On passing CO

2 in excess in aqueous solution of sodium carbonate the substance obtained is :

(A) NaOH (B) NaHCO3 (C) Na

2CO

3 .10H

2O (D) Na

2CO

3.H

2O

Ans. B Sol. 2 3 2 2 3Na CO CO H O 2NaHCO

31. Botanical name of amla is : (A) Medicago sativa (B) Emblica officinalis (C) Zingiber officinale (D) Ocimum sanctum Ans. B Sol. Emblica officinalis - Amla Zingiber officinale - Ginger Ocimum sanctum - Tulsi Medicago sativa - Alfalfa

H

C HH

H

H

C CH

H

H

H

H

C C

H

H H

HH

C CH

H

O

H

H

H

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32. Example of fossil energy is : (A) Alcohol (B) Hydrogen (C) Petrol (D) Gobar gas Ans. C 33. Hormone which stimulate initiation of flowering process is : (A) Gibberellin (B) Ethylene (C) Vernalin (D) Florigen Ans. D Sol. Florigen is also known as flowering hormone. 34. What happens when a cell placed in hypertonic solution ? (A) Endosmosis (B) Exosmosis (C) Deplasmolysis (D) Imbibition Ans. B Sol. Osmosis is the movement of solvent(water) particles from low concentrated solution to high concentrated

solution through a semipermeable membrane. 35. Organisms lacking nuclear membrane and cell organelles is called as : (A) Prokaryotes (B) Eukaryotes (C) Protozoa (D) Virus Ans. A Sol. Prokaryotes are the organisms lacking nuclear membrane and membrane bound cell organelles.

SECTION - B SOCIAL SCIENCE

36. In which year Reserve Bank was set up ? (A) 1930 (B) 1935 (C) 1940 (D) 1945 Ans. B 37. Which Bank was merged with Punjab National Bank in 1993 ? (A) New Bank of India (B) Bank of Maharashtra (C) Kashi Nath Bank (D) lndus Bank Ans. A 38. Where is the headquarters of Life Insurance Corporation situated ? (A) Kolkata (B) Chennai (C) Mumbai (D) New Delhi Ans. C 39. Which was the capital of Mahajanpad Vatsa in 6th century B.C. ? (A) Champa (B) Kaushambi (C) Varanasi (D) Mathura Ans. B 40. How was Jamil related to Swami Mahavir ? (A) Son (B) Friend (C) Son-in-law (D) Father Ans. C 41. Who is regarded as Light of Asia ? (A) Gautam Buddha (B) Gandhiji (B) Swami Mahavir (D) Mao-Tse Tung Ans. A 42. God Rudra mentioned in Rigveda is : (A) Brahma (B) Vishnu (C) Mahesh (D) Yamraj Ans. C

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43. When was Hajrat Mohammad born ? (A) 550 A.D. (B) 560 A.D. (C) 570 A.D. (D) 580 A.D. Ans. C 44. Who was the author of the book 'Divine Comedy' ? (A) Acquinas (B) Marsilio (C) John of Paris (D) Dante Ans. D 45. Who was the founder of British colonial empire in America ? (A) James I (B) Edward I (C) George V (D) Charles II Ans. A 46. Who said, "I am the state, and my words are law" ? (A) Louis XIV (B) Louis XV (C) Louis XVI (D) Rousseau Ans. C 47. Who is regarded as father of Italian unification ? (A) Mazini (B) Cavour (C) Garivaldi (D) None of these Ans. C 48. Who led Russian revolution of 1917 ? (A) Stalin (B) Brezhnev (C) Lenin (D) Karl Marx Ans. C 49. Who is egarded chief of solar system ? (A) Sun (B) Moon (C) Earth (D) Sky Ans. A 50. Which is the nearest planet of sun ? (A) Venus (B) Jupiter (C) Mercury (D) Mars Ans. C 51. How much part of Earth is covered by land ? (A) 26% (B) 27% (C) 28% (D) 29% Ans. D 52. In which continent, there is no active volcano ? (A) Asia (B) Africa (C) Europe (D) Australia Ans. D 53. Which country of Europe is called 'Playground of Europe' ? (A) England (B) Holland (C) Switzerland (D) Belgium Ans. C 54. Areawise what is the position of India in the world ? (A) Third (B) Fourth (C) Sixth (D) Seventh Ans. D

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55. Which State of India does not have common boundary with Myanmar ? (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Tripura (C) Nagaland (D) Manipur Ans. B 56. Which of the following countries is not in Indian sub-continent ? (A) Maldives (B) Pakistan (C) Bangladesh (D) Nepal Ans. A 57. Which State has Satpuda hills (A) Utter Prades (B) Bihar (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans. D 58. Rajsamand lake is in the Indian province of : (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Jharkhand (C) Rajasthan (D) Uttarakhand Ans. C 59. Who was the author of the book 'Republic' ? (A) Aristotle (B) Socrates (C) Machiavelli (D) Plato Ans. D 60. "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely." Who said it ? (A) Lord Acton (B) Abraham Lincoln (C) Garner (D) Easton Ans. A 61. Which of the following is not an essential element of the State ? (A) Population (B) Political Party (C) Definite Territory (D) Sovereignty Ans. B 62. In which year India's rule was given to the British Crown ? (A) 1773 (B) 1813 (C) 1833 (D) 1858 Ans. D 63. By which Act, Communal Electoral System was introduced in India ? (A) Indian Councils Act, 1892 (B) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (C) Indian Councils Act, 1919 (D) Indian independence Act, 1947 Ans. B 64. In which year the first meeting of Constituent Assembly took place ? (A) 1945 (B) 1946 (C) 1947 (D) 1948 Ans. B 65. By which country India was inspired to include Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution?

(A) Britain (B) United States of America (C) Russia (D) Ireland Ans. D 66. In which year IX Schedule was included in the Indian Constitution ? (A) 1950 (B) 1951 (C) 1952 (D) 1953 Ans. A

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67. Which part became 22nd State of India on 26th April, 1975 ? (A) Nagaland (B) Tripura (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Sikkim Ans. D 68. In which year the tenure of the present President will come to an end ? (A) 2016 (B) 2017 (C) 2018 (D) 2019 Ans. B 69. By which Five Year Plan, Community Development Programme was launched in India ? (A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth Ans. A 70. Who is the Chairman of Planning Commission in India ? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Planning Minister (D) Vice-President Ans. B

SECTION - C MATHEMATICS

71. The probability of getting a number greater than 2 by throwing a fair dice is : (A) 2/3 (B) 1/3 (C) 1 (D) 3/5 Ans. A

Sol. n(E)

P(E)n(S)

= 4/6 = 2/3

72. Which one of the following is a factor of the expression (a + b)3 – (a– b)3 ? (A) a (B) 3a2 - b (C) 2b (D) (a + b) (a - b) Ans. C Sol. 3 3(a b) (a b)

3 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 2a b 3a b 3ab (a b 3a b 3a b)

3 2 2 22b 6a b 2b(b 3a )

73. If a number with 12 has the same ratio as 8 having with 10 then the number is : (A) 15 (B) 9.6 (C) 7.5 (D) 10 Ans. A

Sol. 12 8x 15

x 10

74. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to product of their reciprocal, then: (A) a2 + bc = 0 (B) b2 + ca = 0 (C) c2 + ab = 0 (D) b + c = 0 Ans. A Sol. b / a c / a

1 1c / a

2b aa bc

a c

2a bc 0

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75. In the figure, triangle ABC is similar to triangle EDC :

If we have AB = 4 cm, ED = 3 cm, CE = 4-2 cm and CD = 4-8 cm, then the values of CA and CB respectively are

(A) 6 cm, 6.6 cm (B) 4.8 cm, 6.6 cm (C) 5.4 cm, 6.4 cm (D) 5.6 cm, 6.4 cm Ans. D

Sol. AB BC AC

DE DC CE

4 BC AC

3 4.8 4.2

BC = 6.4 AC = 5.6 76. If two circles are such that one is not contained in the other and are non-intersecting, then number of common

tangents are : (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four Ans. D

77. 2

2

1cot

sin is equal to :

(A) 1 (8) -1 (C) 2 (D) -2 Ans. A

Sol. 2 2 2

2 2 2 2

1 cos 1 cos sin1

sin sin sin sin

78. On the level ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30°. On moving 20 metres nearer to it the

angle of elevation becomes 60°. The height of the tower is : (A) 10m (B) 15m (C) 20m (D) m Ans. D

Sol. htan30

20 x

1 h

20 x3

20 x

h3

h

tan60x

h 3x

20 x

3x3

3x = 20 + x x = 10

h 3 10

A

B C

D

E

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79. A sphere of diameter 12.6 cm is melted and cast into a right circular cone of height 25.2 cm. The diameter of the base of the cone is :

(A) 158.76 cm (B) 79.38 cm (C) 39.69 cm (D) 69.39 cm Ans. No Option is correct Sol. V

1 = V

2

3 24 1(6.3) (r ) 25.2

3 3

2

2 4 6.3 (6.3)r

25.2

r = 6.3 2r = 12.6 80. If the mean of x and is M, then the mean of x2 and is :

(A) M2 (B) 2M

4 (C) 2M2 – 1 (D) 2M2 + 1

Ans. C

Sol. 2

2

11xx

x xM ?2 2

1x 2M

x 2 2

2

1x 2 4M

x

2 2

2

1x 4M 2

x Mean =

222

2

1x

4M 2x 2M 12 2

81. Positional mean is : (A) Arithmetic mean (B) Geometric mean (C) Median (D) Harmonic mean Ans. C 82. Number of zero's in the product of 5 x 10 x 25 x 40 x 50 x 55 x 65 x 125 x 80 (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 13 Ans. B 83. If in 3 33 5, x 3 and y 5 , then its rationalising factor is :

(A) x + y (B) x - y (C) x5 + x4y + x3y2 + x2y3 + xy4 + y5 (D) x5 – x4y + x3y2 – x2y3 + xy4 – y5 Ans. D 84. If one root of x2 – 4x + k = 0 is 6, then the value of k is : (A) -12 (B) 2 (C) -2 (D) 12 Ans. D 85. A farmer divides his herd of x cows among his 4 sons so, that first son. gets-one-half of the herd, the second

son gets one-fourth, the third son gets one-fifth, and the fourth son gets 7 cows, then the value of x is : (A) 100 (B) 140 (C) 160 (D) 180 Ans. B

Sol. x x xA B C D 7

2 4 5

x x x7 x

2 4 5

10x 5x 4x

x 720

19x = 20x – 140 140 = x

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86. If sin cos 1, then sin cos is equal to :

(A) 0 (B) 1

3 1 (C) 1 (D)

1 2

1 3

Ans. A Sol. sin cos 1

2 2sin cos 2sin cos 1

sin cos 0

87. If A merchant purchases 9 pens and sells 8 pens at the cost price of 9 pens, then his profit percent is :

(A) 15

517

(B) 2

83

(C) 1

122

(D) 1

119

Ans. C Sol. Let CP of 1 pen = x CP of 9 pen = 9x CP of 8 pen = 8x SP of 8 pens = 9x

% profit = 9x 8x

1008x

100 1

128 2

88. Marked price of a Saree is Rs. 600 and is available on Rs. 450. Rate of discount is : (A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 15% (D) 40% Ans. A Sol. MP = 600 SP = 450

Disc. = 150

100 25%600

89. PQRS is a parallelogram and M, N are the mid-points of PQ and RS respectively. Which of the following is not

true ?

(A) RM trisects QS (B) PN trisects QS (C) PSN QMR (D) MS is not parallel to QN Ans. C 90. The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to : (A) The ratio of corresponding medians (B) The ratio of corresponding sides (C) The ratio of the squares of corresponding sides (D) None of these Ans. C

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