Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) · Space for Rough Work Aakash National...

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Sample Paper Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)

1

SECTION - A : SCIENCE

1. Four bulbs, each of rating (100 W, 220 V) and

connected in parallel across a voltage supply of

220 V, are operated for five hours daily. If all the bulbs

are replaced by LEDs of rating (8 W, 220 V), how

many units of electrical energy will be saved every

month (30 days)?

(1) 55.2 units

(2) 60 units

(3) 4.8 units

(4) 32 units

2. In the circuit given below, the potential difference

across the arm PQ will be

P Q

24 V

5

6

6

(1) 4.5 V (2) 12 V

(3) 24 V (4) 9 V

3. A real object is kept at a distance of 2f, first in front

of a convex lens and then in front of a concave

mirror, each having focal length f. The ratio of

magnifications produced by them will be

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : –1

Time : 2 Hours MM : 360

Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior)Sample Paper

HkkxHkkxHkkxHkkxHkkx - A % % % % % foKkufoKkufoKkufoKkufoKku

1. pkj cYc] ftuesa ls çR;sd ij (100 W] 220 V) vafdrgS] dks 220 V dh oksYVrk&vkiwfrZ ls lekarj Øe esa tksM+kx;k gS ,oa bUgsa çfrfnu ik¡p ?kaVs tyk;k tkrk gSA ;fn lHkhcYcksa ds LFkku ij LEDs] ftu ij (8 W] 220 V) vafdrgS] yxk fn, tk,a rks çfr ekg (30 fnu) esa fdruh fo|qrÅtkZ dh cpr gksxh?

(1) 55.2 ;wfuV (2) 60 ;wfuV

(3) 4.8 ;wfuV (4) 32 ;wfuV

2. uhps fn, x, ifjiFk esa] Hkqtk PQ ds fljksa ij foHkokarjgksxk

P Q

24 V

5

6

6

(1) 4.5 V (2) 12 V

(3) 24 V (4) 9 V

3. ,d okLrfod oLrq dks 2f dh nwjh ij] igys ,d mÙkyysal ds lEeq[k vkSj fÝQj ,d vory niZ.k ds lEeq[k j[kktkrk gS] ftuesa çR;sd dh ÝQksdl nwjh f gSA buds }kjkmRiUu vkoèkZuksa dk vuqikr gksxk

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : –1


Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2015 (Senior) Sample Paper

2

4. A rectangular glass slab having refractive index 3 ,

is silvered at one surface as shown in the figure. If

the angle of refraction of the light ray at the interface

AB is 30°, then the measure of angle x will be

A

B

x

30°

Light ray

Silvered

AIR

(1) 45° (2) 30°

(3) 60° (4) 90°

5. The effective focal length of two lenses in contact with

each other, having focal lengths f1 and f

2, is given by

(1) f1 + f

2

(2)1 2

1 2

f f

f f

(3)1 2

1 2

f f

f f

(4)1

2

f

f

6. Same net force is applied on two different objects of

masses m and 3m. If x and y are the magnitudes of

their acceleration respectively, then the ratio x

y will

be

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1

4. fn;s x, fp=k ds vuqlkj ,d vk;rkdkj dk¡p dh flYyhdh ,d lrg dks jtfrr fd;k x;k gS vkSj bldkviorZukad 3 gS] ;fn varjki"B AB ij çdk'k fdj.kdk viorZu dks.k 30° gks] rks dks.k x dk eki gksxh

A

B

x

30°

izdk'k fdj.k

jtfrr

ok;q

(1) 45° (2) 30°

(3) 60° (4) 90°

5. ,d&nwljs ds laidZ esa j[ks f1 rFkk f

2 ÝQksdl nwfj;ksa okys nks

ysalksa dh çHkkoh ÝQksdl nwjh gksxh

(1) f1 + f

2

(2)1 2

1 2

f f

f f

(3)1 2

1 2

f f

f f

(4)1

2

f

f

6. m rFkk 3m æO;eku okyh nks fHkÂ&fHkÂ oLrqvksa ij lekuusV cy yxk;k tkrk gSA ;fn buds Roj.k ds ifjek.k Øe'k%

x vkSj y gksa] rks budk vuqikr x

y gksxk

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 1

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1



3

7. Match the following and choose the appropriate

option. (Symbols have their usual meanings)

Column (A) Column (B)

a. v

t

(i) Particle undergoing

uniform positive

acceleration

b. v

t

(ii) Particle is at rest

c. s

t

(iii) Particle undergoing

constant retardation

d. v

t

(iv) Particle moving with

uniform velocity

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

8. A boy runs on a circular track of radius 20 m and

stops after covering one sixth of the track. The

magnitude of his displacement will be

(1) 20 m (2) 20 m

(3) 40 m (4)20

3

m

7. fuEukafdr dk feyku djsa vkSj mi;qDr fodYi pqusaA (çrhdksads vFkZ ogh gSa tks lkekU;r% gksrs gSa)

dkWye dkWye dkWye dkWye dkWye (A) dkWyedkWyedkWyedkWyedkWye (B)

a. v

t

(i) ,dleku èkukRed Roj.kls xqt+jrh gqbZ oLrq

b. v

t

(ii) oLrq fojkekoLFkk esa gS

c. s

t

(iii) oLrq fu;r eanu ls xqt+jjgh gS

d. v

t

(iv) oLrq ,dleku osx ls xfrdj jgh gS

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

8. ,d yM+dk 20 eh- f=kT;k okys oÙkkdkj iFk ij nkSM+rk gSvkSj iFk ds NBosa Hkkx rd nkSM+ dj #d tkrk gSA mldsfoLFkkiu dk ifjek.k gksxk

(1) 20 eh- (2) 20 eh-

(3) 40 eh- (4)20

3

eh-



4

9. A pistol of mass 2 kg fires a bullet of mass 50 g.

The bullet strikes a stationary block of mass 1

2 kg.

If the block, with the bullet embedded in it, moves

with a velocity of 4 m/s, the recoil velocity of the

pistol will be (Ignore friction and air resistance)

(1) –1.10 m/s (2) –0.5 m/s

(3) –0.55 m/s (4) –1 m/s

10. A girl of mass 40 kg takes a staircase of 15 steps,

each of height 20 cm. If she utilizes a power of

80 W to climb the staircase, the time taken by her

is [Take g = 10 m/s2]

(1) Half a minute (2) 40 s

(3) 45 s (4) 15 s

11. Two copper wires A and B have their cross sectional

areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and lengths in the ratio 2 : 1

respectively. The ratio of the resistivities of A and B

will be

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

12. If ratios of masses and velocities of two bodies are

2 : 3 and 4 : 5 respectively, then the ratio of

magnitude of their momenta is

(1) 15 : 8 (2) 8 : 15

(3) 5 : 6 (4) 6 : 5

13. As shown in the figure, a 4 kg ball initially moving

with horizontal velocity v strikes the wall and

rebounds with 75% of its initial speed. It then

undergoes head on collision with the 6 kg ball and

sticks to it. If both start moving with common speed

of 6 m/s, then the value of v is

Smooth surface

6 kg(At rest) 4 kg

v

Wall

(1) 20 m/s (2) 15 m/s

(3) 60 m/s (4) 12 m/s

9. 2 fdxzk- æO;eku okyh ,d fiLrkSy 50 xzk- æO;eku okyh

,d xksyh nkxrh gSA xksyh 1

2 fdxzk- æO;eku okys ,d fLFkj

CykWd ls Vdjkrh gSA ;fn xksyh dks lekfgr fd;s gq, ;gCykWd] 4 eh-@ls- ds osx ls xfr djs] rks fiLrkSy dk çfr{ksiosx D;k gksxk? (?k"kZ.k vkSj ok;q dk çfrjksèk ux.; eku ysa)(1) –1.10 eh-@ls- (2) –0.5 eh-@ls-(3) –0.55 eh-@ls- (4) –1 eh-@ls-

10. 40 fdxzk- æO;eku okyh ,d yM+dh 15 lhf<+;ks okyk ,d t+hukp<+rh gSA çR;sd lh<+h dh ÅapkbZ 20 lseh- gSA ;fn mlus t+hukp<+us esa 80 W 'kfDr dk mi;ksx fd;k gks rks mlds }kjk fy;kx;k le; gksxk [g = 10 eh-@ls-2 yhft,](1) vkèkk feuV (2) 40 lsd.M(3) 45 lsd.M (4) 15 lsd.M

11. rkacs ds nks rkjksa dh vuqçLFk dkV ds {ks=kÝQy 1 : 2 dsvuqikr esa gSa rFkk mudh yackbZ Øe'k% 2 : 1 ds vuqikresa gSaA A vkSj B dh çfrjksèkdrkvksa dk vuqikr gksxk(1) 1 : 4 (2) 8 : 1

(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1

12. ;fn nks fiaMksa ds æO;ekuksa ,oa osxksa ds vuqikr Øe'k% 2 : 3

vkSj 4 : 5 gksa rks muds laosxksa ds ifjek.k dk vuqikr gS(1) 15 : 8 (2) 8 : 15

(3) 5 : 6 (4) 6 : 5

13. tSlk fd fp=k esa fn[kk;k x;k gS] vkjaHk esa {kSfrt osx v lsxfreku 4 fdxzk- dh ,d xsan] nhokj ls Vdjkrh gS vkSjviuh vkjafHkd pky dh 75% pky ls okil ykSVrh gSAblds ckn og 6 fdxzk- dh xsan ls lhèks Vdjkrh gS vkSjmlls fpid tkrh gSA ;fn nksuksa xsansa 6 eh-@ls- dh mHk;fu"Bpky ls pyuk vkjaHk dj nsrh gSa] rks v dk eku gS

fpduh lrg

6 fdxzk-(fojke ij) 4 fdxzk-

v

nhokj

(1) 20 eh-@ls- (2) 15 eh-@ls-

(3) 60 eh-@ls- (4) 12 eh-@ls-



5

14. Choose the pair of quantities having same unit.

(1) Power and energy

(2) Current and potential difference

(3) Work and energy

(4) Magnification and power

15. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, then at the

highest point

(1) Acceleration is zero but velocity is non-zero

(2) Acceleration is non-zero but velocity is zero

(3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero

(4) Both acceleration and velocity are non-zero

16. A colourless and odourless gas P is evolved during

thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. P reacts with

the main component of biogas to form compounds Q

and R. P, Q and R respectively are

(1) N2O, O

2 and H

2O (2) CO

2, O

2 and Cl

2

(3) O2, CO

2 and H

2O (4) O

2, CO

2 and H

2

17. The number of C – H bonds present in propanol is

(1) 8 (2) 9

(3) 10 (4) 7

18. Identify which of the following statements is/are true

and choose the appropriate option.

(i) Unsaturated hydrocarbons generally burn with a

sooty flame.

(ii) The possible structural isomers for butane are

three.

(1) Both (i) & (ii) are correct

(2) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect

(3) Only (i) is correct

(4) Only (ii) is correct

19. Which of the following gases is evolved at cathode

during the electrolysis of brine?

(1) Cl2

(2) O2

(3) H2

(4) NO2

14. mu jkf'k;ksa ds ;qXe dks pqusa ftlds ek=kd leku gSaA

(1) 'kfDr ,oa ÅtkZ (2) fo|qrèkkjk ,oa foHkokarj

(3) dk;Z ,oa ÅtkZ (4) vkoèkZu ,oa 'kfDr15. tc fdlh xsan dks ÅèoZr% Åij dh vksj ÝQsadk tkrk gS rks

vf/dre Å¡pkbZ ij

(1) Roj.k 'kwU; gksrk gS fdarq osx gksrk gS

(2) Roj.k gksrk gS fdarq osx 'kwU; gksrk gS

(3) Roj.k vkSj osx] nksuksa 'kwU; gksrs gSa

(4) Roj.k vkSj osx] nksuksa gksrs gSa

16. ysM ukbVªsV ds rkih; vi?kVu ds nkSjku ,d jaxghu oxaèkghu xSl P mRiUu gksrh gSA P] ck;ksxSl ds eq[; vo;ods lkFk vfHkfØ;k djds ;kSfxd Q vkSj R cukrh gSAP, Q vkSj R Øe'k% gSa

(1) N2O, O

2 vkSj H

2O (2) CO

2, O

2 vkSj Cl

2

(3) O2, CO

2 vkSj H

2O (4) O

2, CO

2 vkSj H

2

17. çksisukWy esa mifLFkr C – H vkcaèkksa dh la[;k gS(1) 8 (2) 9

(3) 10 (4) 7

18. igpkusa fd fuEu esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lR; gS@gSa vkSjmi;qDr fodYi pqusaA

(i) vlarIr gkbMªksdkcZu lkekU;r% /q¡,a okyh Tokyk ds lkFktyrs gSaA

(ii) C;wVsu ds rhu lajpukRed leko;o laHko gSaA(1) (i) vkSj (ii)] nksuksa lgh gSaA

(2) (i) vkSj (ii)] nksuksa xyr gSaA

(3) dsoy (i) lgh gSA

(4) dsoy (ii) lgh gSA

19. czkbZu ds fo|qr vi?kVu ds nkSjku ½.kkxz (dSFkksM) ij buesals dkSu&lh xSl eqDr gksrh gS?(1) Cl

2(2) O

2

(3) H2

(4) NO2



6

20. On thermal decomposition of CaCO3, a gas ‘X’ is

obtained. The aqueous solution of X

(1) Turns red litmus blue

(2) Does not change the colour of phenolphthalein

(3) Gives red colour with turmeric

(4) Gives blue colour with methyl orange

21. aMnO2 + bHCl cMnCl

2 + dH

2O + eCl

2

pC2H5OH + qO

2 rCO

2 + sH

2O

a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations

respectively are

(1) 2, 4, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 and 2

(3) 4, 2, 2 and 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 and 2

22. The number of moles of ammonia that have the

same mass as that of 3 moles of carbon dioxide is

(1) 0.19 mol (2) 2.58 mol

(3) 9.04 mol (4) 7.76 mol

23. Two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’ have same number of

electrons in their valence shells. The number of

electrons present in the second last shell of atom ‘A’

is two times the number of electrons present in the

second shell of atom ‘B’. A and B respectively are

(1) Aluminium and phosphorus

(2) Magnesium and calcium

(3) Silicon and carbon

(4) Oxygen and sulphur

24. Match the following and choose the correct option.

Element Valency

a. C (i) 3

b. B (ii) 4

c. K (iii) 2

d. Mg (iv) 1

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

25. Mass of 48.176 × 1023 molecules of CH4 will be

(1) 68 g (2) 92 g

(3) 128 g (4) 188 g

20. CaCO3 ds rkih; vi?kVu ij] xSl ^X* çkIr gksrh gSA

^X* dk tyh; foy;u

(1) yky fyV~el dks uhyk dj nsxk

(2) ÝQhukWyÝFksfyu ds jax dks ifjo£rr ugha djrk

(3) gYnh ds lkFk yky jax nsxk(4) esfFky vkWjsat ds lkFk uhyk jax nsxk

21. aMnO2 + bHCl cMnCl

2 + dH

2O + eCl

2

pC2H5OH + qO

2 rCO

2 + sH

2O

mijksDr jklk;fud lehdj.kksa esa] a, c, q vkSj r Øe'k% gSa

(1) 2, 4, 2 vkSj 1 (2) 1, 1, 3 vkSj 2

(3) 4, 2, 2 vkSj 1 (4) 2, 1, 4 vkSj 2

22. fdrus eksy veksfu;k dk æO;eku] 3 eksy dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbMds nzO;eku ds cjkcj gksxk?

(1) 0.19 eksy (2) 2.58 eksy

(3) 9.04 eksy (4) 7.76 eksy

23. nks rRoksa 'A' rFkk 'B' ds la;ksth dks'k esa bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;kleku gSA ijek.kq 'A' ds f}rh; vafre dks'k esa mifLFkrbysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k] ijek.kq 'B' ds f}rh; dks'k esa mifLFkrbysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k dh nksxquh gSA A vkSj B Øe'k% gSa

(1) ,Y;wfefu;e ,oa ÝQkWLÝQksjl (2) eSXuhf'k;e ,oa dSfY'k;e

(3) flfydu ,oa dkcZu (4) vkWDlhtu ,oa lYÝQj

24. fuEukafdr dk feyku djsa vkSj lgh fodYi pqusaA

rRorRorRorRorRo la;kstdrkla;kstdrkla;kstdrkla;kstdrkla;kstdrka. C (i) 3

b. B (ii) 4

c. K (iii) 2

d. Mg (iv) 1

(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

25. CH4 ds 48.176 × 1023 v.kqvksa dk æO;eku gksxk

(1) 68 xzk- (2) 92 xzk-

(3) 128 xzk- (4) 188 xzk-



7

26. Dehydration of ethanol results in the formation of a

compound ‘X’ along with water. Hydrogenation of ‘X’

forms another compound ‘Y’. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively

are

(1) Ethanoic acid and methane

(2) Ethene and ethane

(3) Ethanol and ethane

(4) Ethane and methane

27. Which of the following contains the maximum

number of atoms?

(1) 48 g of helium

(2) 3.011 × 1021 molecules of ammonia

(3) 48 molecules of methane

(4) 3 mol of oxygen

28. Which of the following pairs of elements have same

number of valence electrons?

(1) Sodium and magnesium

(2) Carbon and nitrogen

(3) Oxygen and sulphur

(4) Potassium and calcium

29. On thermal decomposition of baking soda, salt ‘X’ is

obtained. The aqueous solution of ‘X’ will be

(1) Acidic (2) Basic

(3) Amphoteric (4) Neutral

30. Compound A on reacting with baking soda produces

a colourless gas C, which when passed through lime

water forms a solution D. On further passing the gas

C through D, another solution E is formed. Identify

the nature of A and the colour of the solution E.

(1) Acidic, blue (2) Basic, red

(3) Basic, yellow (4) Acidic, colourless

31. The green coloured pigment present in chloroplast

helps in

(1) Absorption of phosphorus from the soil

(2) Absorption of light energy

(3) Removal of excess water through lenticels

(4) Exchange of respiratory gases

26. ,FkukWy ds futZyhdj.k ds ifj.kkeLo:i ty ds lkFk&lkFk,d ;kSfxd 'X' fufeZr gksrk gSA 'X' ds gkbMªkstuhdj.k ls,d vU; ;kSfxd 'Y' fufeZr gksrk gSA 'X' vkSj 'Y' Øe'k% gSa

(1) ,FkukWbd vEy ,oa ehFksu (2) ,Fkhu ,oa ,Fksu

(3) ,FkukWy ,oa ,Fksu (4) ,Fksu ,oa ehFksu

27. fuEu esa ls fdlesa ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k lokZfèkd gS?

(1) 48 xzke ghfy;e

(2) veksfu;k ds 3.011 × 1021 v.kq

(3) ehFksu ds 48 v.kq

(4) 3 eksy vkWDlhtu

28. fuEu esa ls fdl rRo&;qXe esa la;ksth bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;kleku gS?

(1) lksfM;e ,oa eSXuhf'k;e (2) dkcZu ,oa ukbVªkstu

(3) vkWDlhtu ,oa lYÝQj (4) iksVSf'k;e ,oa dSfY'k;e

29. csfdax lksMk ds rkih; fo;kstu ij] yo.k 'X' çkIr gksrk gSA'X' dk tyh; foy;u dh izoQfr gksxh?

(1) vEyh; (2) {kkjh;

(3) mHk;èkehZ (4) mnklhu

30. ;kSfxd A, csfdax lksMk ls vfHkfØ;k djus ij jaxghu xSlC mRiUu djrk gSA bl xSl dks pwus ds ikuh ls xqt+kjusij foy;u D curk gSA D ls xSl C dks iqu% xqt+kjus ij],d vU; foy;u E curk gSA A dh çÑfr vkSj foy;uE dk jax igpkfu,A

(1) vEyh;, uhyk (2) {kkjh;] yky

(3) {kkjh;, ihyk (4) vEyh;] jaxghu

31. gfjr yod esa mifLFkr gjs jax ds o.kZd fdl dk;Z esalgk;d gksrs gSa\

(1) enk ls iQkWLiQksjl dk vo'kks"k.k

(2) çdk'k ÅtkZ dk vo'kks"k.k

(3) okrjaèkzksa ds ekè;e ls vfrfjDr ty dk fu"dklu

(4) 'olu xSlksa dk fofue;



8

32. In humans, the centre associated with hunger is

present in the

(1) Fore brain (2) Hind brain

(3) Mid brain (4) Spinal cord

33. In humans, ________ provides a surface where

exchange of gases can take place.

(1) Neuron (2) Villi

(3) Nephron (4) Alveolus

34. Statement-1 : Carbon dioxide is insoluble in water.

Statement-2 : Haemoglobin has a high affinity for

oxygen.

(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false

(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false

(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true

35. GlucoseIn cytoplasm

Pyruvate

Lack ofoxygen

(in our musclecells)

P + Energy(3-Carbonmolecule)

(6-Carbonmolecule)

The accumulation of ‘P’ in humans leads to

(1) Dwarfism (2) Muscle cramps

(3) Diabetes (4) Hepatitis A

36. Which of the following is not a part of excretory

system in human beings?

(1) Kidney (2) Ureter

(3) Vas deferens (4) Urethra

37. In which of the following test tubes digestion of

protein would not take place?

Pepsin

+

HCl

+

Protein

P

Pepsin

+

Alkali

+

Protein

Q

Trypsin

+

Alkali

+

Protein

R

Trypsin

+

HCl

+

Protein

S

(1) P and R (2) P and S

(3) Q and S (4) R and Q

32. ekuo esa] Hkw[k ls lacafèkr dsaæ dgka mifLFkr gksrk gS?(1) vxz efLr"d esa (2) i'p efLr"d esa(3) eè; efLr"d esa (4) es# jTtq esa

33. ekuoksa esa] ________ xSlksa ds fofue; ds fy, lrg çnkudjrh@djrk@djrs gS@gSaA(1) raf=kdk dksf'kdk (2) jlkadqj(3) oDdk.kq (4) dwfidk

34. dFkudFkudFkudFkudFku-1 : dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM ty esa v?kqyu'khy gksrh gSAdFkudFkudFkudFkudFku-2 : gheksXyksfcu esa vkWDlhtu ds çfr mPp ca/qrkgksrh gSA(1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa(2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa(3) dFku&1 lgh gS ,oa dFku&2 xyr gS(4) dFku&1 xyr gS ,oa dFku&2 lgh gS

35.6( −

⎯⎯⎯⎯→

dkfs 'kdknzO; esa

dkcZu v.k)qikb#osVXydw kts

(3P

−

+⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→

dkcZu v.kq)

vkWDlhtu dh deh

(gekjh is'kh&dkfs 'kdkvks a ea)sÅtkZ

ekuo esa ^P* ds lap;u ls D;k gksrk gS?(1) okeurk (ckSukiu) (2) isf'k;ksa esa ,saBu(3) eèkqesg (4) gSisVkbfVl A

36. fuEu esa ls dkSu] ekuo esa mRltZu&ra=k dk Hkkx ugha gS?(1) oDd (2) ew=kokfguh(3) 'kqØokgd (4) ew=kekxZ

37. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ij[kufy;ksa esa çksVhu dk ikpu ugha gksxk?

+

HCl

+

P

isfIlu

+

+

Q

+

+

R

fVªfIlu

+

HCl

+

S

fVªfIluisfIlu

izksVhuizksVhuizksVhuizksVhu

{kkj {kkj

(1) P vkSj R (2) P vkSj S

(3) Q vkSj S (4) R vkSj Q



9

38. In which part of the alimentary canal digestion of

starch begins?

(1) Stomach

(2) Large intestine

(3) Liver

(4) Buccal cavity

39. The endocrine gland ‘A’ is located at the top of a

human excretory organ ‘B’. Identify the organ ‘B’ and

the hormone secreted by ‘A’

(1) Ureter Adrenaline

(2) Kidneys Thyroxine

(3) Kidneys Adrenaline

(4) Urethra Thyroxine

Hormone secreted Organ 'B'

by endocrine gland 'A'

40. Receptor'P' neuron

Spinal cord

'Q' neuron

Effector

Identify ‘P’.

(1) Motor neuron (2) Relay neuron

(3) Sensory neuron (4) Interneuron

41. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the two endocrine glands located in

the brain. ‘X’ releases a hormone ‘Z’ which regulates

growth in humans. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are

(1) X – Hypothalamus and Y – Pituitary gland

(2) X – Thyroid gland and Y – Pineal gland

(3) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Pineal gland

(4) X – Pituitary gland and Y – Thyroid gland

38. vkgkj uyh ds fdl Hkkx esa eaM (LVkpZ) dk ikpu vkjaHkgksrk gS?

(1) vkek'k; (2) cM+h vkar

(3) ;dr (4) eq[k xqfgdk

39. var%lzkoh xzafFk ^A*] ,d ekuoh; mRlthZ vax ^B* ds 'kh"kZij fLFkr gSA vax ^B* vkSj ^A* }kjk lzkfor gkWekZsu dhigpku djsaA

' 'B

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

'A'

vax

var%lkz oh xfaz Fk }kjklzkfor gkWekuZs

ew=kokfguh

oDd Fkk;jkfW Dlu

,sM ªhusfyu

,sM ªhusoDd

ew= kekx Z Fkk;jk

f

W

yu

fDlu

40. xzkgh'P' raf=kdksf'kdk

es# jTtq'Q' raf=kdksf'kdk

dk;Zdj

^P* dh igpku djsaA

(1) çsjd raf=kdksf'kdk

(2) çlkfjr raf=kdksf'kdk

(3) laosnh raf=kdksf'kdk

(4) varjkraf=kdk.kq

41. ‘X’ vkSj ‘Y’ efLr"d esa fLFkr nks var%lzkoh xzafFk;ka gSaA ‘X’]gkekZsu ‘Z’ dk lzko djrh gS tks euq";ksa esa of¼ dks fu;af=krdjrk gSA ‘X’ vkSj ‘Y’ gSa

(1) X – gk;iksFksysel ,oa Y – ih;w"k xzafFk

(2) X – Fkk;jkWbM xzafFk ,oa Y – fifu;y xzafFk

(3) X – ih;w"k xzafFk ,oa Y – fifu;y xzafFk

(4) X – ih;w"k xzafFk ,oa Y – Fkk;jkWbM xzafFk



10

42. Rings of cartilage are present in the throat to

(1) Absorb more oxygen from the air

(2) Filter the inhaled air

(3) Prevent the air passage from collapsing

(4) Produce more energy

43. Trypsin (Trypsinogen) is secreted from

(1) Pancreas

(2) Stomach

(3) Small intestine

(4) Liver

44. Which of the following is the first step of

photosynthesis?

(1) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and

oxygen

(2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll

molecules

(3) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates

(4) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy

45. The structure illustrated below is responsible for

Guard cells

Stomatal pore

Chloroplast

(i) Gaseous exchange (ii) Transpiration

(iii) Storage of food (iv) Transport of food

(1) (ii) and (iv) only (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

42. xys esa mikfLFk;ksa ds oy; fdlfy, mifLFkr gksrs gSa?

(1) ok;q ls vfèkd vkWDlhtu vo'kksf"kr djus ds fy,(2) lkal }kjk vanj yh xbZ ok;q dks Nkuus ds fy,

(3) ok;q ekxZ dks ladqfpr gksus ls jksdus ds fy,(4) vfèkd ÅtkZ mRikfnr djus ds fy,

43. fVªfIlu (fVªfIlukstu) fdlls lzkfor gksrk gS?

(1) vXU;k'k; (2) vkek'k;

(3) NksVh vk¡r (4) ;Ñr

44. buesa ls dkSu] çdk'kla'ys"k.k dk çFke pj.k gS?

(1) ty ds v.kqvksa dk gkbMªkstu ,oa vkWDlhtu esa foHkDrgksuk

(2) i.kZgfjr v.kqvksa }kjk çdk'k ÅtkZ dk vo'kks"k.k fd;k tkuk

(3) dkcZu MkbZvkWDlkbM dk vip;u dkckZsgkbMªsV esa gksuk

(4) çdk'k ÅtkZ dk jklk;fud ÅtkZ esa :ikarj.k gksuk45. uhps n'kkZbZ xbZ lajpuk fdlds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS?

}kj&dksf'kdk

ja/zh ja/z

gfjr yod

(i) xSlh; fofue; (ii) ok"iksRltZu

(iii) Hkkstu dk HkaMkj.k (iv) Hkkstu dk ifjogu(1) dsoy (ii) vkSj (iv) (2) (i), (iii) vkSj (iv)

(3) dsoy (i) vkSj (ii) (4) (i), (ii) vkSj (iv)



11

SECTION - B : MATHEMATICS

46. If , and are the zeroes of a cubic polynomial

ax3 + cx + d, then (1 + ) + + is equal to

(1)2c

a

(2)

2d

a

(3)d

a

(4)

c

a

47. In the given figure, area of quadrilateral ABCD is

HA

E

B

PC

O

D

1 cm 1 cm

1 cm 1 cm

1 cm

1 cm

1 cm

1 cm

(1) 2 cm2 (2)1

2 cm2

(3)1

4 cm2 (4)

1

8 cm2

48. If y2 + 7y + 5p = 0, then the integral value of p for

which the given equation does not have real roots can

be

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) –1

49. If (2 ) 16a a , then the value of a is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 16

HkkxHkkxHkkxHkkxHkkx - B % % % % % xf.krxf.krxf.krxf.krxf.kr

46. ;fn , vkSj ,d ?ku cgqin ax3 + cx + d, ds 'kwU;dgksa rks (1 + ) + + dk eku gksxk

(1)2c

a

(2)

2d

a

(3)d

a

(4)

c

a

47. fn, x, fp=k esa] prqHkZqt ABCD dk {ks=kÝQy gksxk

HA

E

B

PC

O

D

1 lseh- 1 lseh-

1 lseh- 1 lseh-

1 lseh-

1 lseh-

1 lseh-

1 lseh-

(1) 2 lseh-2 (2)1

2 lseh-2

(3)1

4 lseh-2 (4)

1

8 lseh-2

48. ;fn y2 + 7y + 5p = 0] rks] p dk og iw.kkZadh; ekudkSu&lk gks ldrk gS ftlds fy, fn;s x;s lehdj.k dsewy okLrfod ugha gksaxs?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) –1

49. ;fn (2 ) 16a a ] rks a dk eku gksxk

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 16



12

50. In the given figure, PRCB is a square. If 1

3

AQ

AC

and BC = 6 cm, then the length of AP is

A

PQ

R

B C

(1) 2 cm (2) 1 cm

(3) 4 cm (4) 3 cm

51. An English word consists of 9 alphabets. The sum

of twice the number of vowels and three times the

number of consonants present in the word is equal

to four more than four times the total number of

vowels in the English alphabets. The product of the

number of vowels and consonants present in the

word is

(1) 9 (2) 20

(3) 18 (4) 14

52. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If

x + y = 180°, then the value of z is

O C

BA

y

z

x

(1) 120° (2) 30°

(3) 60° (4) 90°

53. The ratio of the radius of the base of a cylinder to

its height is 7 : 6. If the volume of the cylinder is

294 cm3, then its base diameter is

(1) 1 cm (2) 14 cm

(3) 7 cm (4) 12 cm

50. fn, x, fp=k esa] PRCB ,d oxZ gSA ;fn 1

3

AQ

AC vkSj

BC = 6 lseh-] rks AP dh yEckbZ gksxhA

PQ

R

B C

(1) 2 lseh- (2) 1 lseh-

(3) 4 lseh- (4) 3 lseh-51. vaxzsth ds ,d 'kCn esa 9 v{kj gSaA 'kCn esa mifLFkr Lojksa

dh la[;k ds nksxqus ,oa O;atuksa dh la[;k ds rhu xqus dk;ksx] vaxzsth o.kZekyk esa mifLFkr Lojksa dh dqy la[;k dspkj xqus ls pkj vfèkd gSA 'kCn esa mifLFkr Lojksa vkSj O;atuksadh la[;kvksa dk xq.kuÝQy gksxk(1) 9 (2) 20

(3) 18 (4) 14

52. fn, x, fp=k esa] O oÙk dk dsaæ gSA ;fn x + y = 180°]rks z dk eku gS

O C

BA

y

z

x

(1) 120° (2) 30°

(3) 60° (4) 90°

53. ,d csyu ds vkèkkj dh f=kT;k dk mldh ÅapkbZ ls vuqikr7 : 6 gSA ;fn csyu dk vk;ru 294 lseh-3 gks] rks mldsvkèkkj dk O;kl gksxk

(1) 1 lseh- (2) 14 lseh-

(3) 7 lseh- (4) 12 lseh-



13

54. If the product of HCF and LCM of two natural

numbers is 378000, then which of the following can

be their HCF?

(1) 66 (2) 130

(3) 34 (4) 20

55. In the given figure, the length of AD is

A

D

BC

26 cm

24 cm

8 cm

(1) 6 cm (2) 7 cm

(3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm

56. 2 3 can be expressed as

(1)1

23

(2)1

32

(3)1 3

2

(4)

3 1

2

57. If the side x of a cube becomes 11 times of itself,

then its volume increases by

(1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x3

(3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x3

58. If 5 is a root of the equation 2x2 – 6x – 5a = 0, then

the value of a2 – 2a is

(1) 24 (2) 12

(3) 14 (4) 8

54. ;fn nks çkÑr la[;kvks a ds egÙke lekiorZd vkSjy?kqÙke lekioR;Z dk xq.kuÝQy 378000 gS] rks fuEu esa lsdkSu mudk egÙke lekiorZd gks ldrk gS?

(1) 66 (2) 130

(3) 34 (4) 20

55. fn, x, fp=k esa] AD dh yEckbZ gS

A

D

BC

26 lseh-

24 lseh-

8 lseh-

(1) 6 lseh- (2) 7 lseh-

(3) 4 lseh- (4) 5 lseh-

56. 2 3 dks fuEu esa ls fdlds }kjk O;Dr fd;k tk

ldrk gS?

(1)1

23

(2)1

32

(3)1 3

2

(4)

3 1

2

57. ;fn fdlh ?ku dh Hkqtk x] Lo;a dh 11 xquh gks tk, rksmldk vk;ru c<+ dj fdruk gks tk,xk?

(1) 1330x3 (2) 1331x3

(3) 1321x3 (4) 1320x3

58. ;fn lehdj.k 2x2 – 6x – 5a = 0 dk ,d ewy 5 gS rksa2 – 2a dk eku gksxk

(1) 24 (2) 12

(3) 14 (4) 8



14

59. In the given figure, AB = AC. If P, Q, T and H are

the midpoints of AB, AC, BR and CR respectively,

then TH can be equal to

A

P

BT

R

H

Q

C

60°

(1)4

AB(2)

3

AC

(3) AP (4) PC

60. If p(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is a polynomial and

a + b + c + d = 0, then which of the following must

be a factor of p(x)?

(1) x + 1 (2) x – 1

(3) x2 – 1 (4) x

61. If PQRS is a rhombus, P Q and O is the point

of intersection of its diagonals, then which of the

following is always false?

(1) PR QS (2) PO = RO

(3) PSO = RSO (4) QO = 2

PR

62. In the given figure, QP || BC and PR || CD. If

AQ = 3 cm, QB = 2 cm and RD = 5 cm, then the

length of AR is

A

R

D

C

PB

Q

(1) 7 cm (2) 7.5 cm

(3) 6 cm (4) 6.5 cm

59. fn, x, fp=k esa] AB = AC- ;fn P, Q, T vkSj H Øe'k%AB, AC, BR vkSj CR ds eè;fcanq gksa] rks TH dk ekufdlds cjkcj gks ldrk gS?

A

P

BT

R

H

Q

C

60°

(1)4

AB(2)

3

AC

(3) AP (4) PC

60. ;fn p(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d ,d cgqin gks vkSja + b + c + d = 0 gks] rks fuEu esa ls dkSu p(x) dkxq.ku[kaM gksxk?(1) x + 1 (2) x – 1

(3) x2 – 1 (4) x

61. ;fn PQRS ,d leprqHkZqt gS] P Q gS vkSj O

mlds fod.kksZa dk çfrPNsnu fcanq gS rks fuEukafdr esa ls dkSulnSo vlR; gksxk?(1) PR QS (2) PO = RO

(3) PSO = RSO (4) QO = 2

PR

62. fn, x, fp=k es a] QP || BC vkSj PR || CD- ;fnAQ = 3 lseh-] QB = 2 lseh-] vkSj RD = 5 lseh-] rks AR

dh yEckbZ gSA

R

D

C

PB

Q

(1) 7 lseh- (2) 7.5 lseh-(3) 6 lseh- (4) 6.5 lseh-



15

63. For the given system of equations 3x – 4y = 5 and

5x + by = c to be inconsistent, one pair of values of

b and c can be

(1)20

3b and

25

3c

(2) b = – 6.4 and c = – 20

(3) b = 6.4 and c = 19

(4)20

3b and c = –19

64. If three numbers are consecutive positive integers

and five times the square of the largest number is

greater than two times the sum of the squares of

the other two numbers by 75, then the sum of the

smallest and the largest of these numbers is

(1) 12 (2) 9

(3) 8 (4) 10

65. If 3

1p q

and 1

8

p q , then 2p is equal to

(1)13

7(2) 11

(3) 10 (4) 7

66. Which of the following numbers will completely divide

261 + 262 + 263 + 264?

(1) 100 (2) 10

(3) 27 (4) 17

67. The sum of all the zeroes of the polynomial

(y + 2)(y – 3)(y2 – 1) is

(1) 0 (2) –1

(3) 1 (4) 6

63. fn, x, lehdj.k fudk; 3x – 4y = 5 ,oa 5x $ by =

c ds vlaxr gksus ds fy, b vkSj c ds ekuksa dk ,d ;qXegks ldrk gS

(1)20

3b vkSj

25

3c

(2) b = – 6.4 vkSj c = – 20

(3) b = 6.4 vkSj c = 19

(4)20

3b vkSj c = –19

64. ;fn rhu la[;k,¡ Øekxr èkukRed iw.kkZad gSa vkSj lcls cM+hla[;k ds oxZ dk ik¡p xquk] vU; nks la[;kvksa ds oxksZa ds;ksx ds nks xqus ls 75 vfèkd gS rks muesa ls lcls NksVhvkSj lcls cM+h la[;k dk ;ksx gksxk

(1) 12 (2) 9

(3) 8 (4) 10

65. ;fn3

1p q

vkSj 1

8

p q , rks 2p dk eku gksxk

(1)13

7(2) 11

(3) 10 (4) 7

66. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lh la[;k 261 + 262 + 263 + 264 dksiw.kZr% foHkkftr djsxh?

(1) 100 (2) 10

(3) 27 (4) 17

67. cgqin (y + 2)(y – 3)(y2 – 1) ds lHkh 'kwU;dksa dk ;ksx gksxk

(1) 0 (2) –1

(3) 1 (4) 6



16

68. A rectangular tank, 50 cm long and 30 cm wide,

contains water upto a height of 9 cm. A box of

dimensions 25 cm × 25 cm × 20 cm is now placed

in the tank so that its square face rests on the

bottom of the tank. The quantity of water (in L) that

must be poured into the tank in order to just cover

the box is

(1) 0.4 (2) 16.5

(3) 12.5 (4) 4

69. In the given figure, ABCD is a square of area

16 cm2. If O is the centre of the circle, then the

length of OP is

D C

BA

O

P

(1) 4 cm (2)8

11 cm

(3) 2 cm (4) 3 cm

70. In the given figure, if � � �

PQ QR RP and O is the

centre of the circle, then the value of x is

P

Q

O x

R

(1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 45° (4) 15°

68. 50 lseh- yach vkSj 30 lseh- pkSM+h ,d vk;rkdkj Vadh esa9 lseh- dh ÅapkbZ rd ikuh Hkjk gSA 25 lseh- × 25 lseh-× 20 lseh- foek okyk ,d cDlk Vadh esa bl çdkj j[kktkrk gS fd mldk oxkZdkj i"B Vadh ds ry ij fLFkj gkstkrk gSA cDls dks iwjh rjg ek=k Mqcksus ds fy, Vadh esaikuh dh fdruh ek=kk (yhVj esa) mM+syh tkuh pkfg,?

(1) 0.4 (2) 16.5

(3) 12.5 (4) 4

69. fn, x, fp=k esa, ABCD ,d oxZ gS ftldk {ks=kÝQy16 lseh-2 gSA ;fn O oÙk dk dsaæ gks rks OP dh yEckbZgksxh

D C

BA

O

P

(1) 4 lseh- (2)8

11 lseh-

(3) 2 lseh- (4) 3 lseh-

70. fn, x, fp=k esa] ;fn � � �

PQ QR RP vkSj O oÙk dkdsaæ gS] rks x dk eku gksxk

P

Q

O x

R

(1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 45° (4) 15°



17

SECTION - C : MENTAL ABILITY

71. Choose the option from given alternatives that best

fits the empty space.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

72. In a party, there are 15 members. Each shakes hand

with one another. Total numbers of the handshakes

is

(1) 120 (2) 105

(3) 90 (4) 15

73. If x3 – y3 = (x – y) (x2 + y2 – xy) and x3 + y3 = (x +

y)(x2 + y2 + xy), then (23 + 33) (33 – 23)

(1)95

7(2)

35

19

(3)19

35(4) 125

74. Find the odd one out.

(1) (16, 30, 34) (2) (11, 40, 41)

(3) (20, 21, 29) (4) (11, 60, 61)

HkkxHkkxHkkxHkkxHkkx - C % % % % % ekufld ;ksX;rkekufld ;ksX;rkekufld ;ksX;rkekufld ;ksX;rkekufld ;ksX;rk

71. fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls og fodYi pqusa tks fjDr LFkku dsfy, lokZfèkd mi;qDr gSA

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

72. ,d ikVhZ esa 15 O;fDr gSaA çR;sd O;fDr 'ks"k O;fDr;ksa lsgkFk feykrk gSA dqy fdruh ckj gkFk feyk, tk,axs?

(1) 120 (2) 105

(3) 90 (4) 15

73. ;fn x3 – y3 = (x – y) (x2 + y2 – xy) vkSj x3 + y3 = (x

+ y)(x2 + y2 + xy), rks (23 + 33) (33 – 23)

(1)95

7(2)

35

19

(3)19

35(4) 125

74. fo"ke fodYi pqusaA

(1) (16, 30, 34) (2) (11, 40, 41)

(3) (20, 21, 29) (4) (11, 60, 61)



18

75. 42 : 16 :: 32 : 9 :: 25 : ?

(1) 42 (2) 32

(3) 52 (4) 25

76. If rank of a student from last is 17th and 15th from

beginning, then how many students are there?

(1) 31 (2) 32

(3) 33 (4) 17

77. Which digit will be the next in the given sequence?

3 1 4 5 9 5 5 ?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 1 (4) 9

Directions (Q.78) : In a certain language, ‘45’ is coded

as 3, ‘35’ is coded as 5, ‘6’ is coded as 2.

78. ‘34’ will be coded as

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 7 (4) 2

79. Choose the alternative which is different from the

others.

(1) Einstein (2) Niels Bohr

(3) CV Raman (4) Wright Brothers

Directions (Q.80) : Any number from 0-9 can be

displayed digitally using seven-segments on an LED

display as shown below.

p

q

r

s

t

uv

80. Due to poor power supply, any two segments are not

working. Which of the following numbers can be

displayed properly?

(1) 8 (2) 9

(3) 6 (4) 4

75. 42 : 16 :: 32 : 9 :: 25 : ?

(1) 42 (2) 32

(3) 52 (4) 25

76. ;fn fdlh fo|kFkhZ dk LFkku var ls 17oka vkSj vkjaHk ls 15oka

gS] rks fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh dqy la[;k fdruh gS?(1) 31 (2) 32

(3) 33 (4) 17

77. fn;s x;s vuqØe esa vxyk vad D;k gksxk?

3 1 4 5 9 5 5 ?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 1 (4) 9

funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç- 78))))) : fdlh Hkk"kk esa] '45' dks dwV:i esa 3, '35' dksdwV:i esa 5, ^6* dks dwV:i (dksM) esa 2 fy[kk tkrk gSA

78. '34' dks dwV:i esa D;k fy[kk tk,xk?

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 7 (4) 2

79. og fodYi pqusa tks nwljs fodYiksa ls vyx gksA

(1) vkbaLVhu (2) uhYl cksj

(3) lh-oh- jeu (4) jkbV cznlZfunZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-80) %) %) %) %) % uhps n'kkZ, fp=k ds vuqlkj] ,d LED çn'kZds lkr [kaMksa dk mi;ksx djrs gq,] 0 ls 9 rd fdlh Hkh vaddks fMftVy :i esa n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gSA

p

q

r

s

t

uv

80. [kjkc fo|qrkiwfrZ ds dkj.k] dksbZ nks [kaM dk;Z ugha dj jgsgSaA buesa ls dkSu&lk vad lgh <ax ls n'kkZ;k tk ldrkgS?

(1) 8 (2) 9

(3) 6 (4) 4



19

81. Choose the odd one out.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Directions (Q.82) : The first and the second pair of

figures bear a certain relationship among them. Find the

missing one.

82.

+

#

+

# : :

–

?

(1)–

(2)–

(3)

–

(4)

–

83. If ‘cellphones’ and ‘TV’ are represented by two small

circles and ‘coloured’ is represented by a big circle,

then which figure best represents the logical

relationship between the three entities?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

81. fo"ke fodYi dk p;u dhft,A

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç- 82) %) %) %) %) % fp=kksa ds igys vkSj nwljs ;qXe ds chp ,dlacaèk gSA fuEu fodYiksa esa ls dkSu&lk fodYi fjDr LFkku dsfy, mi;qDr gS\

82.

+

#

+

# : :

–

?

(1)–

(2)–

(3)

–

(4)

–

83. ;fn ^eksckbZy ÝQksu* vkSj ^Vhoh* dks nks NksVs oÙkksa ls fu:firfd;k tk, vkSj ^jaxhu* dks cM+s o`Ùk ls fu:fir fd;k tk,rks dkSu&lk fp=k bu rhu oLrqvksa ds chp ds rkfdZd lacaèkdks loZJs"B <ax ls fu:fir djrk gS?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



20

Directions (Q.84 & Q.85) : Read the following information

carefully and answer the questions.

Five members of a family are sitting on a dining table. L

is the mother of M. M is the sister of N, who is the son

of O. P is the only daughter-in-law of L.

84. How is P related to M?

(1) Sister

(2) Daughter

(3) Sister-in-law

(4) Daughter-in-law

85. O is M's _______ ?

(1) Brother (2) Sister

(3) Father (4) Uncle

86. Find the figure from the alternatives that completes

the given series.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

87. How many minimum number of line segments are

required to make the figure given below?

(1) 13 (2) 12

(3) 11 (4) 10

funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç- 84 vkSj ç- vkSj ç- vkSj ç- vkSj ç- vkSj ç- 85))))) %%%%% fuEukafdr tkudkjh è;kuiwoZd i<+savkSj ç'uksa ds mÙkj nsaA

,d ifjokj ds ik¡p lnL; Hkkstu dh est ij cSBs gSaA L, M dhek¡ gSA M, N dh cgu gS; N, O dk iq=k gSA P, L dh ,dek=kiq=koèkw gSA

84. P dk M ls D;k lacaèk gS?

(1) cgu

(2) iq=kh

(3) HkkHkh

(4) iq=koèkw

85. O, M dk@dh _______ gS?

(1) HkkbZ (2) cgu

(3) firk (4) pkpk

86. fodYiksa esa ls og fp=k [kkstsa tks nh xbZ Üka[kyk dks iw.kZdjrk gSA

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

87. uhps fn;k x;k fp=k cukus ds fy, U;wure fdrus js[kk&[kaMksadh vko';drk gS?

(1) 13 (2) 12

(3) 11 (4) 10



21

88. From the letters given below, which one, when turned

upside down and then reflected in a mirror, will

represent the same letter?

(1) L (2) B

(3) C (4) N

Directions (Q.89 & Q.90) : Study the following pie-chart

to answer the questions.

English(111)

Hindi(260)

Spanish(449)

Scienc

e

(70)

Maths(210)

Number of students specializing in a specific subject

89. By what percentage, the number of students

specialising in Maths is more than that in Science?

(1) 200% (2) 300%

(3) 400% (4) 350%

90. The difference of the students specializing in Hindi

and Maths is

(1)1

7 of Spanish

(2)2

3 of English

(3)5

7 of Science

(4) Less than that of Spanish but more than that of

English

88. uhps fn, x, v{kjksa esa ls] fdls myVk djds niZ.k esaçfrfcafcr djus ij] ogh v{kj fn[ksxk?

(1) L (2) B

(3) C (4) N

funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-funZs'k (ç-89 vkSj ç- vkSj ç- vkSj ç- vkSj ç- vkSj ç-90))))) %%%%% ç'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, fuEukafdrikbZ&pkVZ dk vè;;u djsaA

vaxzsth(111)

fgUnh (260)

LiSfu'k(449)

foKku(70

)xf.kr(210)

fo"k; fof'k"V esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k

89. xf.kr esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k] foKkuesa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k ls fdrus çfr'krvfèkd gS?

(1) 200% (2) 300%

(3) 400% (4) 350%

90. fgUnh vkSj xf.kr esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dk varjgS

(1) LiSfu'k dk 1

7

(2) vaxzsth dk 2

3

(3) foKku dk 57

(4) LiSfu'k esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa ls de ysfduvaxzsth esa fo'ks"kKrk j[kus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa ls vfèkd

� � �

Note : Answer key of Sample Paper is available at

www.aakash.ac.in & www.anthe.in

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