Sample Multiple Choice Questions for Selection of Asstt. Works Manager (Group ‘B’)

Sr. no

Question Ans

1 Which type of chuck is used for self alignment? (a) Magnetic chuck(b)Three jaw chuck (c)Four jaw chuck(d) All of these

b

2 Lathe bed is made of (a) Cast iron (b)High carbon steel (c)Mild steel(d) High speed steel

a

3 Which of the following is un-conventional machining process? (a) Grinding(b) Milling (c) CNC turning(d) Electro chemical machining

d

4 Which of the following is most important for improving surface finish during turning. (a) Nose radius(b) Lip angle (c) Clearance angle(d) Side cutting edge angle

b

5 Thermit welding is a form of. (a) Resistance welding(b) Gas Welding (c) Fusion welding(d) ARC welding.

c

6 Which of the following is not a resistance welding? (a) Spot welding(b) Flash butt welding (c) MIGwelding(d) Percussion welding

c

7 Which of the following types of fuel gas is commonly used in gas welding? (a) Acetylene (b) Coal Gas(c) Bio Gas(d) Methane

a

8 Rails in the field are welded by using (a) Thermit welding(b) Gas welding (c) Electric arc welding(d) Spot welding

a

9 Fuel used in Cupola Furnace consists of (a) Steam coal(b)Furnace Oil(c)Electricity(d) Hard Coke

d

10 Cyaniding' and 'Nitriding' are methods of: (a) Hardening(b)Case Hardening(c)Tempering(d) Normalizing

b

11 Which of the following is second hardest substance known? (a) Silicon carbidesb) Cermets(c) Cubic Boron Nitride (CBN)(d) Diamond

c

12 Hot hardness and Wear Resistance of cutting tool should be (a) Large (b) Small (c) Very small(d) None of the mentioned

a

13 Synthetic Rubber paints are prepared from (a) Resin(b) Rubber(c) Synthetic fibres(d) Polyvinyl Chloride

a

14 A machine is said to have CNC control if (A) The dimensions of the work piece are measured by sensors while cutting is

going on. (B) The tool motion is guided by drum cams and disc cams. (C) The loading and unloading of the work piece ON and OFF the machine

respectively is made automatic. (D) Control is achieved by employment of alphanumeric data.

d

15 CNC machine lathes have built-in coordinate measuring system. The zero position on the co-ordinate system is called; (A) Reference point(B) Machine zero point (C) Work zero point(D) Program zero point

b

16 What is the purpose of using re-circulating ball screw nut mechanism in CNC machine; (A) To reduce the set up time(B) For higher surface finish (C) To remove jerks in machine(D) To remove backlash

d

17 Which type of motor is not suitable for rotary axis of spindle drives of CNC machine tools; (A) Induction motor(B) DC Servo motor (C) Stepper motor(D) Linear motor

d

18 Which of the following statements are correct for CNC machine tool; 1. CNC control unit does not allow compensation for any changes in the

dimensions of cutting tool. 2. CNC machineshave lower capital cost compared to conventional machines. 3. It is possible to obtain information on machine utilization which is useful to management in CNC machine tool. 4. CNC machine tool has greater flexibility. 5. CNC machine can diagnose program and can detect the machine defects even

before the part is produced. (A) 1,2&3 (B) 2,4&5 (C) 3,4&5 (D) 2,3,4&5

c

19 Using Anti friction linear guideways in CNC machine tools, all of following benefits except; (A) Less heat generation(B) Traverse speed (C) Moredamping capacity(D) Reduced stick slip

c

20 An ATC plays a significant role in reducing; (A) Tool change time(B) Idle time (C) Machining time (D) Control time

a

21 In a CNC machine, which kind of switches examine or detect the presence of an item or object without making contact with them; (A) Proximity Switches(B)Limit Switches (C) Photo-electric Switches(D) Mechanical Switches

a

22 What does an Encoder do; (A) Senses mechanical motion. (B) Provides information concerning position, velocity and direction. (C) Converts analog into digital information. (D)All of the above

d

23 The purpose of a feedback device in a CNC machine tool is to provide information of; (A) Which component is being produced, to the operator (B) What percentage of Part Program has beencompleted? (C) Type of operation, currently running to the operator (D) Tool position or speed to Machine Control

d

24 Incremental encoder is capable of sensing (A) Direction of movement of the table. (B) Speed of movement of the table. (C) Speed of rotation of spindle motor. (D) Speed of rotation of lead screw.

a

25 In Part Programming, interpolation is used for obtaining _______ trajectory;

(A)Curved(B) Zig-zag(C) Straight line(D)Rectangular

a

26 Which one of the following is the command for feed motion in straight line;

(A) G00(B) G01(C) G10(D) G100

b

27 Code G91 describes; (A) Absolute positioning(B) Incremental positioning (C) Circular interpolation clockwise(D) Circular interpolation counter clockwise

b

28 Miscellaneous Code M03 describes; (A) Spindle ON clockwise(B) Spindle ON counter clockwise (C) Coolant ON(D) Coolant OFF

a

29 Which software module is used for material planning and procurement by Indian Railways

a) IRePS b) iMMS c) MMSR d) iPASS

b

30 What is the meaning of AAC. a) Average annual consumption b) Annual anticipated consumption. c) Average anticipated consumption d ) None of the above

b

31 Inspection of material by consignee by third party inspection agency is prescribed for PO values; a) Below 5 lakhs . b) Above 5 Lakhs c) Above 1.5 Lakhs . d) Above 50 Lakhs

a

32 The bill of material does not consist of a) Part number b) Specifications of part c) Name of the part d) Price of the part

d

33 which of the following is not an overhead in costing of a DMW products; a) Township Overheads b) Transportation overhead. c) Factory Overhead. d) Stores Overhead

a

34 Which of the following is not a surface finishing operation (A) Lapping (B) Honing (C) Milling (D) Polishing

c

35 Which of the statements is correct? (A) Gauges are used to check the size (B) Templates are used to check the size (C) Gauges are used to Measure the size (D) Gauges are used to check the shapes of the components

a

36 A feeler gauge is used for (A) To judge the surface finish

(B) Checking the gap between mating parts

(C) Checking radius of jobs

(D) Checking accuracy of hole

b

37 Taper plug gauge is used for checking

(A) Internal taper of cylinder jobs

(B) External taper of cylindrical jobs

(C) Internal taken of threaded holes

(D) Diameter of straight holes

a

38 Thread ring gauges are used for checking (A) External threads

(B) Internal threads

(C) All types of threads

(D) Outer diameter of pipes

a

39 At what Standard temperature gauges should be kept in section? (A) At room temperature

(B) 20 degree Centigrade

(C) 25 degree Centigrade

(D) 20 degree Fahrenheit

b

40 Clearance between mating parts is measured by (A) Dial gauge

(B) Go gauge

(C) Feeler gauge

(D) Caliper gauge

c

41 Hardness of slip gauges should be (A) More than 63 HRC

(B) Less than 50HRC

(C) Less than the job to be checked

(D) Less than 40 HRC

a

42 Which of the following is used to guide the tool and hold the job in mass production?

(A) Gauge

(B) Jig

(C) Fixture

(D) Housing

b

43 Which among the following is the purpose for providing bushing in drill jig? (A) Removal of metal chips

(B) For determining the size of the hole to be drilled

(C) For locating accurately and guiding the drill for precise drilling operation

(D) To stop the drill travel to a pre-fixed depth

c

44 Which one of the following thread forms on nuts and bolts is meant for general fastening purposes? (A) ‘V’ threads

(B) Square Threads

(C) Acme threads

(D) Knuckle threads

a

45 Threads are cut on a lathe with single point tool by (A) Setting the correct speed

(B) Setting one cut for full depth of the thread

(C) Making a series of cuts in the same cut

(D) Moving the carriage by means of rack

c

46 A small headless screw having a slot for screw driver is called (A) Set screw

(B) Stud

(C) Thumb screw

(D) Grub screw

d

47 A key that fits in a semicircle keyway cut in a shaft is called (A) Gib head key

(B) Feather key

(C) Woodruff key

(D) Saddle key

c

48 One micron is equal to approximately (A) 10 micro-inch

(B) 20 micro-inch

(C) 40 micro-inch

(D) 25 micro-inch

c

49 A product is said to have the quality when (A) Its shape and dimensions are within the limits

(B) It appears to be very good

(C) It is fit for use

(D) The choice of the material is right

c

50 which one is a temporary joint (A) Welded joint

(B) Riveted joint

(C) Soldered joint

(D) Press-fit joint

d

51 What is the minimum dimension of the given shaft up to which it can be machined?

(A)35.79(B)35.49(C)35.99(D)35.29

b

52 What is the type of the tolerance provided here and dimension of the given object in the figure below?

(A) Equal bilateral and maximum size of 50.05 (B) Equal bilateral and minimum size of 50.05 (C) Equal bilateral and minimum size of 49.95, maximum size of 50.05 (D) Equal unilateral and minimum size of 49.95, maximum size of 50.05

c

53 A dimension is stated as 25 H7 in a drawing. The lower limit is (A) 24.75 mm (B) 24.85 mm (C) 25.00 mm (D) 25.021 mm

c

54 A dimension is stated as 25 +/-0.02 mm in a drawing. What is the tolerance? A. 25.00 mm B. +0.02 mm C. -0.02 mm D. 0.04 mm

d

55 Which one among the following is correct statement? A. A clearance fit always provides interference. B. An interference fit always provides clearance. C. An interference fit may sometimes provide clearance and sometimes

interference. D. A transition fit may sometimes provide clearance and sometimes

interference.

d

56 Why tolerances are given to the parts? (A) Because it’s impossible to make perfect sizes (B) To reduce weight of the component (C) To reduce cost of the assembly (D) To reduce amount of material used

a

57 What does ‘50’ represents in 50H8/g7?

(A) Basic size (B) Actual size (C) Maximum limit of size (D) Minimum limit of size

a

58 In 3rd angle projection, the positions of front view and top views are? (A) Top view lies above the front view (B) Front view lies above the top view (C) Front view lie left side to top view (D) Top view lie left side to front view

a

59 The symbol for fillet welding is __________

(A) (B) (C) (D)

a

60 Metric thread of 10mm diameter is represented by (A)10M(B)M10(C)M^10(D)None of the above

b

61 Ground Connection equipment is used for ______ welding (A) Gas welding (B) Arc Welding (C ) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of above

b

62 Choose the color of oxygen cylinder

(A) Maroon (B) Yellow (C) Black (D) Red

c

63 When two plates are to be joined by keeping their surface at about 90º to one-another, it s called

(A) Lap joint(B) Butt Joint(C) Tee Joint(D) Corner Joint

c

64 Machines which are designed to perform only some specified operations so as to produce identical items is known as:

A) Multipurpose Machine B) High Capacity Machine C) CNC Machine D) Special purpose machine

d

65 Which of the following is a machining operation?

A) Forging B) Drilling C) Rolling D) Stamping

b

66 In a drawing, which symbol is used to designate a machined surface?

A) Triangle B) Circle C) Square D) Rectangle

a

67 The following type of nut is used with “Allen” bolt

A) Allen nut B) Hexagonal nut C) Slotted nut D) Any one of the above

d

68 The designation M 32 × 2 of a bolt means A) Metric threads of 32 nos. in 2 cm B) Metric threads with cross section of 32 sq. mm C) Metric threads of 32 mm diameter and 2 mm pitch D) Bolt of 32 mm nominal diameter having 2 threads per cm

c

69 What is the name of the nut which is a hexagonal nut with a washer?

(A) Dome nut (B) Wing nut (C) Flanged nut (D) Cap nut

c

70 Which among the following is a standard form of pipe thread

(A) B.S.P. (B) B.S.W. (C) B.S.F. (D) B.A.

a

71 Izod Test is conducted to measure (a) Tensile Strength (b) Impact Toughness

(c) Fatigue Strength (d) Ductility

b

72 How much carbon is present in cast iron? (a) Less than 0.05 % (b) Up to 1.0 %

(c) 1.0 % to 1.5 % (d) More than 2.0 %

d

73 Which of the following is most elastic material? (a) Rubber (b) Steel (c) Nylon (d) Copper

b

74 Which of the following tests is used for determining the toughness of material? (a) Rockwell Hardness Test (b) Charpy Test (c) Vicker’s Test (d) Brinell Test

b

75 Permanent deformities of material with respect to time due to constant load and variable temperature is called; (a) Elasticity (b) Plasticity (c) Creep (d) Resistance

c

76 At which point the stress is maximum, while testing of Steel for mechanical properties; (a) At yield point (b) Just before yield point (c) At ultimate point (d) At Breaking point

b

77 Ohm’s law is not applicable to (a) Semi-conductors (b) D. C. Circuits (c) Small resistors(d) High Current circuit

(a)

78 Two resistors of same capacity are connected in parallel total resistance of circuit is

(a) Double (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4

(c)

79 According to Kirchhoff’s voltage law the algebraic sum of all voltages around any closed loopof a network is always

(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Determined by battery emf’s (d) Zero

(d)

80 Which of the following is not a non-linear element? (a) Gas diode (b) Heater coil (c) Tunnel diode (d) Electric arc

(b)

81 The force between two charges is 120N. if the distance between the charges is double, the force will be-

(a) 60N (b) 30N (c) 40N (d)15N

(b)

82 Flemings' Left hand rule is used to find a) Direction of magnetic field due to current carrying conductors b) Direction of flux in a solenoid c) Direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field d) Polarity of a magnetic pole.

(c )

83 The reference permeability at a vacuum is

(a) Zero (b) Infinity (c) 1 (d) None of above

(c)

84 Point out wrong statement Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it

(a) Lowers their power efficiency (b) Increase the cost of manufacture (c) Leads to their increased weight (d) Produces fringing

(a)

85 Conductivity is analogous to (a) Retentivity (b) Resistivity (c) Permeability (d) Inductance

(c)

86 The transformer cores operating at microwave frequency range, are usually made of

(a) Carbon (b) Copper (c) Silicon steel (d) Ferrites.

(d)

87 The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except (a) When the length is increased without increasing the number of turns. (b) When the number of turns of the coil increases (c) When more area for each turn is provided (d) When permeability of the core increases

(a)

88 When the lead acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes …………………. appearance

(a) Dull (b) Reddish (c) Bright (d) Milky

( d)

89 Class-’C’ insulating materials have properties (a) High temperature stability and high insulation resistance (b) Low temperature stability and high insulation resistance (c) High rigidity and low weight (d) None of above

(a)

90 Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells because (a) Carbon is not a conductor (b) Carbon can resist the attack of battery acid. (c) Carbon is better conductor than metals. (d) Carbon is easily available

(b)

91 Superconducting metal in superconducting state has relative permeability of (a) Zero (b) One (c) More than one (d) Negative

(a)

92 Over-travelling of E.O.T. Crane in L.T. Motion is prevented by:

a) Lever Type Safety Limit Switch

(b) Rotary Type Safety Limit Switch (c) Gravity Type Safety Limit Switch (d) None of above

a

93 Over-travelling of E.O.T. Crane in Hoist Motion is prevented by:

a) Lever Type Safety Limit Switch

(b) Rotary Type Safety Limit Switch

(c) Gravity Type Safety Limit Switch (d) None of above

b

94 What is the ultimate safety to prevent Over-travelling of upward hoist motion of E.O.T. Crane:

a) Lever Type Safety Limit Switch (b) Rotary Type Safety Limit Switch (c) Gravity Type Safety Limit Switch(d) None of above

c

95 Actuation of Gravity Type Safety Limit Switch of E.O.T. Crane facilitates: (a) Normal operation of the crane (b) Switching ‘OFF’ electrical supply of a particular motion (c) Switching ‘OFF’ electrical supply to whole Crane (d) None of above.

c

96 End stoppers on both ends of overhead gantry rails are provided for: a) Stopping over-travel of C.T. of E.O.T. Crane in relevant direction b) (b) Stopping over-travel of L.T. of E.O.T. Crane in relevant direction

(c) Stopping over-travel of hoist of E.O.T. Crane in relevant direction (d) None of above.

b

97 What is the full form of abbreviation SWL, pertaining to slings?

(a) Scheduled Work Load (b) Safe Work Limit (c) Standard Work Load (d) Safe Working Load

d

98 Reject the wire rope sling if its diameter is reduced by:

(a) 5% (b) 3% (c) more than 10% (d) 2%

c

99 Reject the wire rope sling if its diameter is reduced to: (a) 95% (b) 98% (c) Less than 90% of original diameter (d) 97% of original diameter

c

100 Reject Chain Sling, when mean diameter of chain link at more than one point on the same cross-section, has reduced to % of mean diameter?

a) 95% (b) 97% (c) less than 90% (d) 98%

c

101 During Load Testing of a Crane, the test load should be:

a) Equal to Safe Working Load (b) 125 percent of Safe Working Load

(c) 150 percent of Safe Working Load (d) 200 percent of Safe Working Load

b

102 What is Cap of incentive percentage in DMW Patiala? (a) 50% (b) 70% (c) 80% (d) 100%

b

103 Work study is related to (a) Planning of a new work (b) Method Study and Work Measurement (c) Amount of work done by a machine (d) Calculation of Incentive

d

104 ‘Ergonomics’ is a field related to (a) Human interface with working environment (b) Agricultural economics (c) Aesthetics of industrial products

(d) Engineering Economics

a

105 Time study is done with the help of (a) Time chart (b) Pert handling (c) Stop watch (d) Wall clock

c

106 What is Leave reserve factor for DMW for incentive calculation? (a) 16% (b) 12.5% (c) 18% (d) 16.5%

b

107 Systematic study of the human motions used to perform an operation is called (a) Ergonomics (b) Job design (c) Work Measurement (d) Motion study

d

108 WPI in DMW is calculation for? (a) Incentive percentage of production shops (b) Incentive calculation of support department (c) Incentive calculation of support shops (d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

d

109 Work study is most useful (a) where production activities are involved (b) in judging the rating of machines (c) in improving industrial relations (d) in judging the capacity of a worker

a

110 GPI stands for (a) Group Production Index (b) Group Productivity Index

(c) Gross productivity Index (d) Group Productivity Incentive

b

111 What is the value of WPI? (a) Average of GPI of all groups (b) Average of incentive percentage (c) Average of SUs of all groups (d) Average of Incentive earning of all employees

a

112 What is fuel tank capacity of WDG3A?

A) 7000L B) 6500L C) 6000L, D) 5500L

c

113 Select the correct HP of WDG4.

A) 3700HP, B) 3726HP, C) 3752HP, D) 3200HP

b

114 Advantage of turbo charger in diesel locomotive is A) To create turbulence in fuel for better efficiency.

B) To create turbulence in air for better efficiency.

C) To create turbulence in air and fuel for better efficiency.

D) To use exhaust gas energy for better efficiency.

d

115 In diesel locomotives which type of compressor is used and with how many stages.

A) Centrifugal compressor with two stages.

B) Centrifugal compressor with single stage.

C) Reciprocating compressor with two stages.

D) Reciprocating compressor with single stage.

c

116 What is the purpose of traction motor blower in locomotive. A) To blow the air from traction motors for cooling purpose.

B) To blow the air in traction motors for cooling purpose.

C) To blow the air in traction motors for cleaning purpose.

D) To blow the air in traction motors for cooling and cleaning purpose.

b

117 SFC of a diesel loco is measured in which term. A) litres/GTKm B ) litres/100GTKm C) litres/10GTKm D) litres/1000GTKm

d

118 Engine Configuration of Diesel Engines in 8-Wheeler DETC/US, being manufactured at DMW is ;

i. 1 x 640 HP ii. 2x 340 HP

iii. 2 x 500 HP iv. 1 x 1200 HP

ii

119 Power to run the 8-Wheeled DETC/USis taken from: i. From 3 Phase 25 KV AC OHE through Pantograph

ii. Underslung diesel engines of 340 HP capacity each iii. On-Board diesel engines of 340 HP capacity each iv. From Single Phase 25 KV DC OHEthrough Pantograph

ii

120 Idle RPM of 8W-DETC/US engine is kept at; i. 700 rpm

ii. 2100 rpm iii. Zero rpm iv. Infinity

i

121 RPM of 8W-DETC/US engine at 8th Notch is; i. 2400 rpm

ii. 1200 rpm iii. 1800 rpm iv. 1180 RPM

iii

122 Auxiliary Alternator in 8-Wheeled DETC is used to : i. Provide power to Traction Motors of DETC

ii. Provide extra power during high speed operation iii. Convert braking energy into useful power for reverse feeding into OHE iv. Charge 110 Volt batteries and run Blower Motor of Rectifier unit.

iv

123 Maximum Permissible Speed of 8-Wheeler DETC/US, being manufactured in DMW on Rajdhani Routes is;:

i. 140 kmph ii. 110 kmph

iii. 200 kmph iv. 23 kmph

ii

124 8W-DETC/US being manufactured in DMW is ; i. Used as Accident Relief Train during Railway Accidents

ii. Used for repair of railway bridges iii. Used for Inspection and repair of OHE Cables iv. Used for maintenance of tracks

iii

125 Fog Light and Search Light of 8-Wheeler DETC/US, being manufactured in DMW/PTA, are operated with:

i. 110 V Battery ii. 24 V Battery

iii. 220 V AC iv. 72 V Battery

ii

126 Platform movement and operation in 8-Wheeled DETC, being manufactured in DMW/PTA, is powered by:

i. 110 V Battery ii. Power taken from Underslung Traction Engines

iii. 10 KVA Gen Set iv. Single Phase AC power taken through Pantograph

iii

127 8-Wheeler DETC/US, being manufactured in DMW/PTA has; a. Co-Co Bogies with Air Suspension b. Bo-Bo Bogies with Air Suspension c. Co-Co Bogies with flexi-coil springs d. Bo-Bo Bogies with flexi-coil springs

b

128 How many positions are available in automatic brake valve. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6

c

129 Where air dryer is generally fitted in diesel locomotives. A) In between compressor and MR1 B) In between MR1 and MR2 C) In between MR2 and Compressor D) Can be fitted anywhere.

b

130 Which of the following functions is/are possible with a distributor valve . A) To apply brake B) To release brake C) To hold at the current level of application. D) All of the above

d

131 Pressure available at port no. 30 of SA9 valve. A) BP B) BC C) MR D) none of the above

c

132 How many positions are available in SA9 valve. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

b

133 BP, FP, and BC pressure of diesel locomotive is A) BP- 5KG/CM2, FP- 6 KG/CM2, BC- 2.5 KG/CM2. B) BP- 5KG/CM2, FP- 6 KG/CM2, BC- 3.5 KG/CM2. C) BP- 5KG/CM2, FP- 7 KG/CM2, BC- 2.5 KG/CM2. D) BP- 6KG/CM2, FP- 7 KG/CM2, BC- 3.5 KG/CM2.

b

134 Manually Brake release is possible only by which valve/valves if not possible by A9 valve.

A) C2 Relay valve

B) SA9 valve

C) Distributor valve

D) all of the above

c

135 Brake pipe pressure can be adjusted by which valve in diesel locomotives. A) SA9 valve

B) A9 valve

C) Distributor valve

D) C2 Relay valve.

b

136 Brakes are fully release at which BP pressure in diesel locomotives. A) 2.5KG/CM2

B) 3.5 KG/CM2

C) 4.8 KG/CM2

D) 5 KG/CM2

d

137 What is the correct application time and release time of bogie mounted air brake cylinder in diesel locomotive.

A) 3-5 sec and 15-20 sec B) 5-10 sec and 10-15 sec C) 3-8 sec and 15-25 sec D) 5 sec and 20 sec

a

138 VPI of stator of three phase 6FRA6068 traction motors done using, a) Silicone Varnish b) Polyester Varnish

c) Polyesterimide Varnish d) Epoxy Varnish

a

139 A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor current will be

a) 50 Hz b) 25 Hz c) 5 Hz d) 2 Hz

d

140 The low starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is overcome in locomotive

a) using high frequency power supply to the traction motor b) using high voltage power supply to the traction motor

c) using low frequency power supply to the traction motor

d) using high current power supply to the traction motor

c

141 The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux density in the air gap is

a) Infinity b) Large

c) Zero

d) Small

d

142 At no-load, the Iron loss of a 3-phase induction motor is a) Practically Zero b) Large

c) Infinity

d) None of the above

a

143 If Ns and N are the speeds of rotating field and rotor respectively, then ratio rotor input/rotor output is equal to.

a) Ns/N b) N/Ns

c) Ns – N

d) N − Ns

b

144 Temperature rating of Class C insulation is a) 180 Deg.C b) 200 Deg.C

c) 220 Deg.C

d) 155 Deg.C

c

145 Locked rotor test is done a) upto rated current of the three phase traction motor b) at rated voltage of the traction motor. c) at rated power of the traction motor

d) to determine RPM of the traction motor

a

146 Which of the following parameter is not monitored during No Load Test of the traction motor.

a) noise level in the motor b) core, friction,windage and copper losses

c) vibration level in the motor

d) temperature rise in the traction motor

d

147 Herringbone gear can be used in a) Intersecting shafts only b) Parallel shafts only c) Shafts at an angle which is more than zero. d) Shafts at right angle

b

148 By which of the following methods gears are produced by generating process.......

a) Hobbing the teeth profile with hob b) Casting the teeth profile c)Punching the teeth profile d)Broaching the teeth profile

a

149 The circular pitch of a gear is given by a) ¶d/T b) ¶d/2T c) 2¶d/T d) 2¶d/3T

a

150 Which of the following pressure angles (in degrees) is most commonly used for gears?

a) 15b) 20 c) 25 d) 35

b

151 The size of a gear is usually specified by a) Pressure angle b) Pitch circle diameter

c) No. of teeth in the gear d) Gear Ratio

b

152 A spur gear with pitch circle diameter D has number of teeth T. The module m is defined as a) m = d / Tb) m = T / Dc) m = π D / Td) m = D.T

a

153 The backlash for spur gears depends upon a) moduleb) pitch line velocityc) tooth profiled) both (a) and (b)

d

154 The contact ratio for gears is a) zerob) less than onec) greater than oned) none of the mentioned

c

155 Which Heat Treatment Sequence is adopted to harden Bull Gears of WAP7 and WAG9

a) Tempering, Quenching case carburizing, b) Annealing, case carburizing, tempering c) Stress relieving, case carburizing, quenching, tempering d) Annealing, Quenching, Tempering.

c

156 Run out of a bull gear is measured at….. a) at Outer Diab) at Root Diac) at Pitch circle Diad) at Bore dia

c

157 Composite error in a gear comprise of a) Run out b) Tooth to Tooth error and backlash c) Both Run out and Tooth to Tooth error d) Run out and backlash

c

158 What type Bearing is used in WAP7 Loco Axle Box. (a) Ball Bearing (b) Tapered Bearing (c) Roller Bearing (d) Needle Bearing

c

159 Which types of Bogies are used in WAP7Loco? (a)Flexicoil Co Co (b)Fabricated Bo-Bo (c) Tri mount Co Co (d) Cast Bo-Bo

a

160 WAP7 Loco is fitted whichtype of Traction motors. (a) 6FRA6068 (b) TAO 659 (c) TM 15250A (d) TM 4907

a

161 WAP7 Loco have no. of Brake Blocks. (a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 48 (d) 64

b

162 What is the traction motor pinion gear and Bull Gear ratio of WAP7 Loco. (a) 18:65 (b) 21:107 (c) 20:72 (d) 19:65

c

163 What is the specified vertical clearance between Axle Box and Bogie Frame of WAP7 Loco.

(a) 28-36 mm (b) 25 -38 mm (c) 30-35 mm (d) 30-38 mm

c

164 What is the new wheel dia of WAP7 Loco. (a)1090 mm (b)1094 mm (c) 1096 mm (d) 1092 mm

d

165 What is the axle load of WAG9 Loco (a) 20 T (b) 18.5 T (c) 22.5 T (d) 21.6 T

c

166 What is the traction motor pinion and Bull Gear ratio of WAG9 Loco. (a) 18:65 (b)21:107 (c) 20:72 (d) 19:65

b

167 What is the damping force value of Vertical Hyd damper in WAP7 Loco. (a) 9000 N (b) 10000 N (c) 8000 N (d) 11000 N

d

168 How many total Hyd. dampers are used in WAP7 Loco. (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 24

b

169 Which of the following is in correct order? a) Purchase proposalTender float Material Schedule Recoupment Sheet b) Material Schedule Recoupment Sheet Purchase proposal Tender float c) Purchase proposal Material Schedule Recoupment Sheet Tender float d) Material Schedule Recoupment Sheet Tender float Purchase proposal

b

170 Who will be the accepting authority for acceptable offer of 14 lacs in Store? a) DyCMMb) AMMc) SMM d) Any of the above

a

171 For allotment of PL to a new Item, final authorization is given by competent authority of

a) Railway unit in which item is required b) Parent Railway unit of final product c) Any PU of Indian Railways d) None of the above.

b

172 Pl. No. of item is of ……..digits a) 6

b) 8

c) 10

d) 4

b

173 Sub group of item is represented by ………… digits of Pl. No. a) First two b) Third & fourth c) Last two d) None of above

b

174 Which activity is not done in iMMS a) Material schedule run b) Demand generation c) Requisition generation d) Floating tender

d

175 Stock status of item can be seen by seeing a) Item position b) Pl no. report c) Stock position d) None of above

a

176 Which module of iMMS is used for generating requisition a) Material planning module

b) Indentor module

c) Depot module

d) None of above

b

177 Full form of IREPS:- a) Indian Railway E – Procurement System b) Indian Railway E – Personal System c) Indian Railway Employee Pass System d)None of above

d

178 Which type of tender cannot be done on IREPS

a) Open tender b) Limited tender c) Single tender d) None of above

d

179 What is validity of Rly. Board Sanctions under M&P Programme: (A)3 Year (B)2 Year (C) 5 Years (D) 4 Year

c

180 For which of the following dispensation from COFMOW is not required for procurement of M&P Assets: (A)Procurement of Cranes

(B) Procurement of MIG Welding sets

(C) Procurement of machines costing Rs. 50 Lakhs

(D) Procurement of Fork Lift Truck costing 10 Lakhs

a

181 Plan Head for M&P Assets is:

(A)2100 (B) 4200 (C) 5100 (D) 4100 d

182 GM's Powers to sanction M&P Assets, under Lump Sum Grant are:

(A) up to 30 Lakhs (B) up to Rs. 40 Lakhs

(C)up to Rs. 50 Lakhs (D) up to Rs. 40 Lakhs

c

183 GM's Powers to sanction Electronic Weighing Machine is:

(A) upto 30 Lakhs(B) up to Rs. 40 Lakhs

(C) up to Rs. 50 Lakhs (D) up to Rs. 40 Lakhs

a

184 What is minimum cost of M&P, sanctioned under M&P Programme, which is mentioned under Itemized Category in Pink Book, issued by Rly. Board:

(A) Less than Rs.2.5 Crore (B)Rs. 2.5 Crore & above

(C)up to 50 lakhs (D) up to1 Crore.

b

185 Items costing _____ are Included in the LAW Book: (A) Below Rs.2.5 Cr.(B)Rs. 2.5 Cr. &above

(C)up to 50 lakhs (D) up to1 Crore

a

186 What is the full form of LAW, pertaining to Works Programme:

(A) List of Approved Works (B)Local area works

(C) List of annual work (D)Legally approved work

a

187 Rolling Stock Programme is prepared under plan head: (A) 4100 (B)4200 (C) 2100(D) 5100

c

188 Works Programme is prepared under plan head A) 4100 B)4200 C) 2100 D) 5100

b

189 What is full form of ROR, pertaining to financial justification for procurement of M&P Assets: (A) Rate of Realization(B)Rate of return (C)Rate of repair (D)Return on Receipts

b

190 COFMOW does not deals with (A) Turnkey Projects (B) Rehabilitation of Rolling Stock (C) Modernization of Workshops (D) Procurement of M&P Assets for Railways.

b

191 Which of the following is a correct format of Email address? A.name@website@info B.name@website.info C.www.nameofebsite.com D.name.website.com

b

192 The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet to your computer

is called

A. Uploading B. Forwarding C. FTP D. Downloading

d

193 What is the full form of www in web address?

A. World Wide Web B. World Wide Word

C. World Wide Wood D. None of these

a

194 A computer on internet is identified by :

A.e-mail address B. street address C.IP address D. None of the above

c

195 A platform for software to run on computer is called ______________ A. Operating System B. System Software C. Application Software D. All E. None

a

196 Example of open source operating system is A. Android B. LINUX C. WINDOWS D. BOTH A & B

d

197 One megabyte memory storage in the form of bytes is equal to A. 1024 bytes B. 1024 kilo bytes C. 1056 bytes D. 1058 kilo bytes

b

198 We can insert a page number in MS-Word at A.Header B.Footer C.Both A and B D.None of above

c

199 The Spelling And Grammar Tool in MS word program A. Indicates Grammatical Errors B. Corrects Spelling Errors As You Type C. Identifies Words With Capitalization Problems D. All Of Above

d

200 Which is not a mathematical Function in MS Excel Program?

A. SUM B. DATE C. MAX D. MIN

b

201 _____function in MS Excel program tells how many numeric entries are there. A. COUNT B. NUM C. SUM D. CHKNUM

a

202 How reply of a letter can be given in letter form in e-Office. A. Dispatch B. Attach receipt C. Attach file D. None of above

a

203 When a file is not to be used for a long time, it can be A. Closed B. Parked C. Link D. None of the above

b

204 What is the full form of HRMS A. Human Railway Manpower System B. Human Resource Management System C. Human Resource Manpower System D. None of above

b

205 In HRMS following information can be accessed by Railway Employee. A. My profile B. e-SR C. e-Pass D. All of above.

d

206 ISO 9001 is related to which management System? (a) Quality (b) Environment (c) Health & Safety (d) Energy

a

207 ISO 14001 is related to which management System? (a) Quality (b) Environment (c) Health & Safety (d) Energy

b

208 OHSMS Stands for (a) Office Health Safety Management System (b) Occupational Health & Safety Mechanical System (c) Occupational Health & Safety Management System (d) None of the above

c

209 Which of following is latest standard for EnMS? (a) IS 50001:2015 (b) IS 50001:2018 (c)IS 50001:2011 (d) IS 50001:2019

b

210 What is IRIS? (a) Indian Railway Industry Standard (b) International Railway Industry Standard (c) Indian Railway Industry System (d) International Railway Industry System

b

211 DMW has IMS (Integrated Management System) which covers? (a) ISO 9001, ISO 50001, ISO 18001 (b) ISO 18001, ISO50001, ISO 14001 (c) ISO 9001, ISO 14001, ISO 50001 (d) ISO 18001, ISO 9001, ISO 14001

d

212 ISO Stands for (a) Indian Standards Organization (b) Indian Standardization Organization (c) International Standards Organization (d) International Organization for Standardization

d

213 International H.Q. of ISO is in (a) New Delhi (b) New York (c) London (d) Geneva

d

214 Latest EnMS Certification of DMW has been done by (a) M/s RDSO (b) M/s BIS (c) M/s INTERCERT (d) M/s BEE

c

215 MTOE in ISO: 50001 Stands for (a) Metric Ton of Energy (b) Metric Ton of Oil Energy (c) Metric Ton of Oil Equivalent(d) None of the above

c

216 Standard ISO 3834-2 : 2005 refers to

(a) Quality requirements for fusion welding (b) Quality requirements of Machining Processes (c)Limits of Industrial effluents (d) Reliability of Laboratory Testing

a

217 ISO 17025:2017 is applicable to following (a) Manufacturing Units (b) Hospitality and Tourism Industry (c) Testing & Calibration laboratories (d) Service Industry

c

218 ISO/IEC 17025 : 2017 is a (a) Product Standard (b) Management System Standard (c) Competency based Standard (d) None of the above

c

219 Head quarter of NABL is located at (a) Delhi (b) Gurugram (c) Lucknow (d) Chandigarh

b

220 What does QA & QC stand for? (a) Quality Assurance & Quality Competency (b) Quality Access& Quality Competency (c) Quality Assurance & Quality Control (d) Quality Assessment& Quality Control

c

221 A Person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory as per factory act is called as

(a) Factory Occupier (b) Factory manager (c) Chairman

(d) Managing Director

a

222 If there are more than ……………..number of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen (a) 250 (b) 510 (c) 500 (d) 100

a

223 As per factory act, who will be called as an adult (a) A person who has completed twenty one years of age. (b) A Person who is less than nineteen years of age. (c) A Person who has completed twenty four years of age.

A person who has completed eighteen years of age.

d

224 Where is National Institute of Disaster management located in India. a) New Delhi b) Pune c) Chennai

D) Nagpur

a

225 The Chairman of the National Disaster Management authority is a) Prime Minister b) Home Minister c) Environment Minister

D) Civil Aviation Minister

a

226 Amongst others, Staff Council consists of. a) Elected Members b) Nominated Members c) Only (a) above d) Both (a) & (b) above.

d

227 What is the role of Trade Union Act in the formation and functioning of Staff Councils?

a) Elections of Staff Council members are governed by the Trade Union Act. b) After elected, the Joint Secretary of the Staff Council is required to register

himself/herself under the Trade Union Act. c) Staff Council can only be dissolved under the Trade Union Act. d) None of above.

d

228 When general principle is not involved, which cases of non gazetted employees can be discussed Staff Council at the meetings.

a) Disciplinary cases of non-gazetted employee. b) Transfer cases of non-gazetted employees. c) Both (a) & (b) above. d) Neither (a) nor (b) above.

d

229 Who is Secretary of the Staff Council in DMW, Patiala.

a) PCAO b) PCME c) PCPO d) None of above.

b

230 Which one is true in matter of meetings of Staff Councils. (a) It shall not be held more than once every one month. (b) It shall not be held more than once every two months.

(c) It shall not be held more than once every three months. (d) It shall not be held more than once every four months.

b

231 Which is the full form of WMS under Plan head_7200 WMS?

a) Workshop manufacturing surplus b) Workshop module of Shops c) Workshop manufacturing suspense d) Workshop manufacturing shortfall.

c

232 Which stage of Budget has now been discontinued from Indian Railways Budget cycle for submission to Railway Board?

a) Revised Estimates for the current year & Budget Estimates for the next year b) August Review Estimates c) Final Modification Estimates d) None

b

233 What do you mean by RSP? a) Railways surplus provision b) Rolling stock Programme c) Railways shortfall in production d) Rolling stock-related Production.

b

234 Under which demand Numberis WMS budget formulated and sent to Railway Board?

a) Demand no.03 b) Demand no.04 c)Demand no.08 d) Demand no.16

d

235 Which type of funds requirement is covered in RSP?

a) Machinery &Plant related b) Bridge Works related, c) Locomotives, Coaches and Wagons etc d) Staff Quarters related.

c

236 In which month, the Final Modification Estimates are sent to Railway Board?

a) In February b) In October c) In May d) In November.

a

237 Under which Plan head is Stores Suspense Budget formulated for submission to Railway board?

a) Plan head_4100 b) Plan head_7200 c) Plan head_7100 d) Plan head_4200.

c

238 Under which Plan head is Machinery and Plant related funds requirement projected for demanding M& P budget from Railway board?

a) Plan head_4100b) Plan head_7200 c) Plan head_7100d) Plan head_4200.

a

239 In which month is the Revised Estimates for the current year and Budget Estimates for the next year submitted to Railway board?

a) In February b) In September c) In December d) In November.

b

240 Which is the description/title for Demand no.16, under which various plan heads viz. Plan head-1700, 4100,4200,5100,5200,6400,7100,7200 and 7300 etcfalls?

a)Assests_Acquisition, Construction and Replacement b)Repair and Maintenance of Motive Power c )Repair and Maintenance of Carriages and Wagons d) Provident Fund, Pension and other Retirement Benefits .

a

241 Under which Plan head,Workshop Manufacturing Suspense budget is sanctioned in the Pink Book by Railway Board every year for PUs ?

a) Plan head 7100 b) Plan head 7200 c) Plan head 4100 d) Plan head 4200

b

242 Under which allocation, Expenditure on Stock items drawn/taken from depot is booked under Workshop Manufacturing Suspense?

a) 20721101 b) 20721102 c) 20721105 d) 20721104

c

243 Transfer of allotted fund for a specific purpose to an another specific purpose is called;

a) Re-appropriation b) Appropriation c) Excess over Allotted Original Budget d) None

a

244 From which Financial year, Railway Budget has been merged with General Budget of Govt of India?

a) 2015-16 b) 2016-17 c) 2017-18d) 2018-19

c

245 Who is competent authority to sanction the voted part of Budget? a) President b)Finance Minister c) Parliament d)Prime Minister

c

246 Who is competent authority to sanction the Budget for charged expenditure? a)President b)Finance Minister c) Parliament d)Prime Minister

a

247 To which Parliamentary committee, Appropriation account is reported? a) Public Accounts Committee b)Estimate Committee c) Convention Committee d)Standing Committee

a

248 Appropriation account is prepared? a) Monthly b)Half yearly c) Yearly d) None

a

249 Green sand mould indicates that (a) Polymeric mould has been cured (b) Mould has been totally dried (c)Mould is green in colour (d) Mould contains moisture

d

250 The patterns which are made in two or more pieces are called as (a) Solid Patterns (b) Split Patterns (c)Loose Piece Patterns(d) None of the above

b

251 Permeability can be defined as the property of moulding sand (a)to hold sand grains together (b)to allow gases to escape easily from the mould (c)to withstand the heat of melt without showing any sign of softening (d) None of the above

b

252 Shrinkage allowance is made by (a) Adding to external and internal dimensions (b)Subtracting from external and internal dimensions (c)Subtracting from external dimensions and adding to internal dimensions (d) Adding to external dimensions and subtracting from internal dimensions

d

253 Which of the following is not an advantage of Cold working (a) Better dimensional accuracy(b)Better Surface finish (c)Higher Strength(d) Lesser forces required for change of form.

d

254 Which characteristic of material is used in forging process? (a) Elasticity of material(b)Ductility of material (c)Plasticity of material(d) None of the above

c

255 In forging, the compressive forces can be exerted by (a) Hammer (b)Roller (c)An Upsetting Machine(d) All of these

d

256 In regenerative braking (a) Electrical energy produced is converted to heat energy,

(b) Electrical energy produced is fed to traction motor, (c) Electrical energy produced is fed back to OHE

(d) None of above.

c

257 Supply in control circuit of 3ph Electric loco is : (a) 380 Volt single phase AC (b) 380 Volt three phase AC

(c) 110 Volt DC

(d) 110 Volt AC

c

258 The input supply to three phase traction motor in Electric loco is: (a) Fixed frequency variable voltage (b) Variable voltage variable frequency

(c) Fixed voltage variable frequency

(d) None of them

b

259 IGBTs are used to convert Power supply in Electric Locomotive from (a) Single phase to three phase (b) Three phase to single phase (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

c

260 Ni-Cd batteries are used in Electric locomotives because (a) these have very low internal resistance (b) these have very low self discharge rate

(c) these have good memory effect which helps in its efficient charging

(d) these have low cost as compared to Lead-acid batteries

a

261 Faults in level-I category of locomotive pertain to (a) Wheel slip, oil temperature reaching maximum limit, DC link over voltage (b) Earth fault of DC link, opening of tuned filter, failure of traction motor,

converter

(c) Malfunctioning of main circuit breaker, transformer, mechanical breakdown

(d) All auxiliary converters not working

a

262 Which of the following is not the part of DC Link? (a) capacitor (b) series tuned filter

(c) over voltage protection circuit (d) 4-Q converter

d

263 A 4-quadrant pulse width modulated converter is used for converting the AC to DC in Electric Loco because

(a) It is capable of obtaining unity power factor on line current (b) harmonic content in the line current becomes insignificant (c) it eliminates the need for separate power factor correction equipment (d) All of the above

d

264 Which is NOT TRUE for Primary voltage transformer? (a) It monitors the overhead catenary voltage. (b) It helps in tripping off the VCB in case of catenary voltage going out of

limits. (c) It is a specially built high impedance transformer. (d) It Steps down voltage from 25 KV to 200 V

c

265 In Electric Loco (a) VCU 1 is the master while VCU 2 is the slave. (b) VCU 2 is the master while VCU 1 is the slave. (c) VCU 1 and VCU 2 work independently. (d) All of the above.

a

266 If one Line Converter Control Module fails, power available for traction will be, (a) 1/2 of total power (b) 1/3 of total power (c) 1/4 of total power (d) 1/6 of total power

c

267 Pre-charge contactor in traction converter is used to (a) make the current to charge the DC Link capacitors during initial start up

condition (b) break the current (c) make and break the current (d) None of the above

a

268 When DC Link capacitors gets charged to ---------of peak transformer secondary voltage, main contactor is closed and pre-charge contactor is opened

(a) 70%

(b) 90%

(c) 50%

(d) 60%

b

269 Which of the following is true in WAP-7 locomotive? (a) Simulated multi-Loco operation is possible via UIC Train Bus. (b) A Loco or Cab change is not possible during simulated multiple operation. (c) To activate simulation, the key switch should be in vertical position and

battery should be switched off. (d) All of the above.

a

270 The purpose of CE Reset modification in WAP7/WAG9 loco is (a) to prevent closing of VCB during transient faults in loco (b) to prevent dropping of BP when CE is reset. (c) to prevent loss of punctuality of the train (d) Both (b) and (c)

d

271 Which of the following is false in relation to Push Pull operation? (a) Modification in VCU software to negotiate neutral sections (b) Modification in software logic due to absence of BC equalizing connection

between the two locomotives (c) Two crossed 18 core jumper cables

(d) One straight and one crossed jumper cables

c

272 If transformer oil temperature reaches to 80-84o C, (a) VCB will open (b) TE/BE shall be reduced foom 100 to 0%

(c) Ventilation level III will become active

(d) Warning message shall appear on DDU

b

273 Transformer Oil BDV in Electric Locomotive should be (a) > 45KV (b) >50KV (c) > 60KV (d) > 70 KV

c

274 Minimum Voltage Relay should be adjusted approx. to ----------. (a) 50%

(b) 60%

(c) 68%

(d) 86%

c

275 During testing of Harmonic Filter, when small value of TE/BE is applied,

(a) FB Contactor 8.41 must open (b) FB Contactor 8.2 must close (c) FB Contactor 8.1 must close (d) All of the above

d

276 राजभाषा अधिनियम किस वषष बिा ?

(ि) 15 जिवरी, 1963

(ख) 10 अप्रलै, 1965

(ग) 10 मई, 1963

(घ )13 जूि, 1964

ग

277 सवंविाि िी अष्टम अिसुचूी में कितिी भाषाएं शाममल हैं ?

(ि) 19

(ख) 20

(ग) 21

(घ) 22

घ

278 राजभाषा अधिनियम, 1963 िी िुल कितिी िाराएं हैं ?

(ि) 08

(ख) 09

(ग) 10

(घ) 11

ख

279 िेन्द्रीय हहदंी सममनत िे अध्यक्ष िौि होत ेहैं ?

(ि) ववत्त मतं्री (ख) गहृ मतं्री (ग) प्रिािमतं्री (घ) रेल मतं्री

ग

280 राजभाषा हहदंी िे प्रयोग िी दृष्ष्ट से भारत सघं िो कितिे वगों में रखा गया है ?

(ि) 2

(ख) 3

(ग) 4

(घ) 5

ख

281 अिुशासनिि िायषवाही संबंिी प्रलेख िमषचारी िो किस भाषा में हदए जािे िा प्राविाि है ?

(ि) क्षेत्रीय भाषा (ख) हहदंी (ग) अगें्रजी (घ) हहदंी सा अगें्रजी)िमषचारी ष्जसमें चाहता हो(

घ

282 रेल िमषचाररयों िी साहहष्त्यि प्रनतभा िो प्रोत्साहहत िरिे िे मलए िाव्य संग्रह िे मलए िौि-सी योजिा चलाई जा रही है ?

(ि) मैधिलीशरण गुप्त पुरस्िार योजिा (ख) महादेवी वमाष पुरस्िार योजिा (ग) रामिारी मसहं हदििर पुरस्िार योजिा (घ) हररवंश राय बच्चि पुरस्िार योजिा

ि

283 रेल िमषचाररयों िी साहहष्त्यि प्रनतभा िो प्रोत्साहहत िरिे िे मलए िहािी संग्रह उपन्द्यास िे मलए िौि-सी योजिा चलाई जा रही है ?

(ि) भारतेन्द्द ुपुरस्िार योजिा (ख) आचायष महावीर प्रसाद द्वववेदी पुरस्िार योजिा (ग) प्रेमचदं पुरस्िार योजिा (घ) सुममत्रािंदि पंत पुरस्िार योजिा

ग

284 हहदंीतर भाषी राज्यों में िाम बोर्ष, पदिाम बोर्ष एंव सूचिा बोर्ष िो नियमािुसार किस क्रम में प्रदमशषत किया जािा उपेक्षक्षत है ?

(ि) हहदंी भाषा, अगें्रजी भाषा, क्षेत्रीय भाषा (ख) क्षेत्रीय भाषा, हहदंी भाषा, अगें्रजी भाषा (ग) क्षेत्रीय भाषा, अगें्रजी भाषा, हहदंी भाषा (घ) अगें्रजी भाषा, क्षेत्रीय भाषा, हहदंी भाषा

ख

285 राजभाषा नियमों िे अिुपालि िा उत्तरदानयत्व राजभाषा नियम, 1976 िे किस नियम में उष्ललखखत है ?

(ि) नियम – 9

(ख) नियम – 10

(ग) नियम – 11

(घ) नियम – 12

घ

286 हहदंी पत्रों िे उत्तर अनिवायष रूप से हहदंी में देिे िे मलए राजभाषा नियम, 1976 िे किस उप-नियम में निदेश हदए गए है ?

(ि) नियम – 05 में (ख) नियम – 06 में

(ग) नियम – 07 में

(घ) नियम 08 में

ि

287 राजभाषा अधिनियम िी िारा 3(3 ) िे अिुपालि िी ष्जम्मेदारी किसिी है ?

(ि) मुख्य िायाषलय अिीक्षि

(ख) मुख्य टंिि

(ग) संबंधित र्ीलर

(घ) इस आशय िे दस्तावेज पर हस्ताक्षर िरिे वाले अधििारी

घ

288 िें रीय सरिार िे िायाषलयों िे मध्य किि भाषाओं िा प्रयोग अपेक्षक्षत है ?

(ि) मराठी और हहदंी (ख) मरीठी और अगें्रजी (ग) िेवल हहदंी (घ) हहदंी और अगें्रजी

घ

289 किस प्रदेश िी राजभाषा अगें्रजी है ?

(ि) िागालैंर्

(ख) असम

(ग) त्रत्रपुरा (घ) हहमाचल प्रदेश

ि

290 राजभाषा नियम िे अिुसार अडं़माि-नििोबार द्वीप समूह किस क्षेत्र में ष्स्ित है ?

(ि) ि क्षेत्र में (ख) ख क्षेत्र में (ग) ग क्षेत्र में (घ) घ क्षेत्र में

ि

291 भारत संघ िी राजभाषा क्या है ?

(ि) ब्राह्मी मलवप में हहदंी (ख) मसिंी मलवप में हहदंी (ग) देविागरी मलवप में हहदंी (घ) िागरी मलवप में हहदंी

ग

292 प्रत्येि वषष ‘ हहदंी हदवस ’ किस नतधि िो मिाया जाता है ?

(ि) 02 अक्टूबर

(ख) 22 मई

(ग) 14 मसतम्बर

(घ) 30 जिवरी

ग

293 पजंाब किस राजभाषा क्षेत्र में आता है (ि) ि क्षेत्र में (ख) ख क्षेत्र में (ग) ग क्षेत्र में (घ) घ क्षेत्र में

ख

294 What is the percentage monthly contribution of PF? a) 8.33 % b) 8% c) 9% d) 9.33%

a

295 What is the current rate of Children Education Allowance(CEA) per month. a) 1800 b) 2250

c) 2400 d) 3000

b

296 What is the validity of year ending privileges passes issued to railway servant? a) 31th March b) 30th April c) 31th May d) 30th May

d

297 What is the stipulated period to reply RTI application? a) 10 days b) 20 days c) 45 days d) 30 days

d

298 How many days LHAP a railway servant can accumulate in his account? a) 300 days b) 500 days c) No Limit d) 240 days

c

299 Maximum percentage of pension can be commuted by a railway servant. a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40%

d

300 For how many days paternity leave is admissible to Railway Servant? a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) 180 days

a

301 For how much period study leave can be granted at a stretch? a) 24 months b) 36 months c) 12 month d) 30 month

a

302 What is the maximum limit of continuous leave that can be granted in exceptional circumstances to a railway servant.

a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 4 years d) 5 years

d

303 Provision to remove/dismiss an employee without conducting inquiry is granted by which section of the Railway Service (D&A) Rules 1968.

a) 13 (a)n b) 11 (c)n c) 14(ii) d) 15 (i)

c

304 ___________form is used for placing a Railway employee under suspension a) SF 1 b) SF11 c) SF8 d) SF2

a

305 ___________form is used for appointment of Inquiry Officer a) SF7 b) SF10 c) SF6 d) SF8

a

306 Railway Service(conduct) Rules came into force in_______ a) 1966 b) 1975 c) 1947 d) 1968

a

307 Gazetted staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of ___per year.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6

c

308 When no leave is admissible under any other rule, the leave granted is known as a) LAP b) LHAP c) SPL d) Extra ordinary leave

d

309 The Railway servants (Discipline & Appeal) rules came into force in______ a) 1968 b) 1966 c) 1948 d) 1978

a