S INSTRUCTIONS& 18 City Topper Ranks. 33 FIITJEE …Main... · 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with...

24
FULL TEST – II Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test. INSTRUCTIONS A. General Instructions 1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets. 2. This question paper contains Three Parts. 3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics. 4. Each part has only one section: Section-A. 5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed. B. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet. 2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places. 3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers. C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts. (i) Section-A (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer. Name of the Candidate Enrolment No. ALL INDIA TEST SERIES FIITJEE JEE (Main)-2016 FIITJEE Students From Classroom / Integrated School Programs have secured to 2 Zonal, 6 State & 18 City Topper Ranks. 33 in Top 100, 78 in Top 200 and 205 in Top 500 All India Ranks bagged by FIITJEE Students from All Programs have qualified in JEE (Advanced), 2015.

Transcript of S INSTRUCTIONS& 18 City Topper Ranks. 33 FIITJEE …Main... · 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with...

Page 1: S INSTRUCTIONS& 18 City Topper Ranks. 33 FIITJEE …Main... · 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet. 2. On the

FULL TEST – II

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360 Please r ead the inst ruct ions carefu l l y. You are a l lot ted 5 m inutes

speci f i ca l l y for th is purpose. You are not a l lowed to leave the Exam inat ion Hal l before the end of

the test .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions 1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.

2. This question paper contains Three Parts.

3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

4. Each part has only one section: Section-A.

5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be

provided for rough work.

6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic

devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet 1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers

on OMR sheet.

2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your

Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.

3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 to 30) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.

Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1 = 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1 = 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1 Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023 Planck’s constant h = 6.625 1034 Js = 6.625 10–27 ergs 1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb 1 calorie = 4.2 joule 1 amu = 1.66 10–27 kg 1 eV = 1.6 10–19 J Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,

N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16, Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33, Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56, Pb=82, U=92.

Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108, Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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PPhhyyssiiccss PART – I

SECTION – A

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A bent wire AB carrying a current I is placed in a region of uniform

magnetic field B

. The force on the wire AB is

(A) BIL (B) 32

BIL

(C) Zero (D) 2

BIL

A

B

2LB

L

2. A conductor AB carries a current i in a magnetic field B

. If AB r

and the force on the conductor

is F

. Then: (A) F r B i

(B) F i B r

(C) F i r B

(D) F

is the resultant effect of the electric forces on the electrons in the conductor. 3. A copper rod of length L and mass m is sliding down a smooth inclined

plane of inclination with a constant speed . A current I is flowing in perpendicular to the plane of diagram inwards. A vertically upward magnetic field B

exists in this region. The magnitude of the required

magnetic field B

is

B P

Q

(A) sinmg

IL (B) cosmg

IL

(C) tanmgIL

(D) sinmg

IL

Space for Rough work

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4. An equilateral triangular loop ADC of side l carries a current i in the direction shown in figure. The loop is kept in a uniform horizontal magnetic field B

as shown in figure. Net force on the loop is

(A) Zero

(B) 23

ilB , parallel to the plane of the loop

(C) 23

ilB , perpendicular to the plane of loop, inwards

(D) 3 ilB , perpendicular to the plane of loop

i

A

CD

B

i i

5. An iron wire of length l is magnetized have a magnetic moment m . If it is bent into a semicircle of

radius r , its magnetic moment is.

(A) m (B) 2m

(C) m

(D) 1mr

6. A magnet is suspended horizontally in the earth’s magnetic field. When slightly displaced, it

oscillates in the horizontal plane with a period T . If a piece of wood having the same moment of inertia as the magnet is attached to the magnet, the new period of oscillation is

(A) 2

T (B) 2T

(C) 2 T (D) 2T 7. An air core solenoid has1000 turns and is one metre long. Its cross- sectional area is 210 cm . its

self- inductance is (A) 2.56 mH (B) 1.92 mH (C) 1.26 mH (D) 2.78 mH

Space for Rough work

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8. A capacitor of10 F and an inductor of1H are joined in series. An ac of 50 Hz is applied to this combination. The impedance of the combination is

(A) 5.67 (B) 4.16 (C) 7.02 (D) 3.21 9. A light ray is incident an angle 45 with the normal to a 2 cm thick transparent plate 2n . The

lateral shift of the light as it emerges out from the plate is

[Given: Lateral shift, sin

cosL

t i rS

r

]

(A) 7 1

7cm

(B) 7 1 cm

(C)

7 1

7 1cm

(D) 2 1

2cm

10. A fish is rising up vertically inside a pond with a velocity 14 cm s , notices a bird, which is diving

downwards. The velocity of the bird appears to be 116 cm s to the fish. The actual velocity of the

diving bird is(refractive index of water is 43

)

(A) 12 /cm s (B) 9 /cm s (C) 8 /cm s (D) 7.5 /cm s 11. Two surfaces AB and CD of a thick lens have radii of

curvature 2R and R respectively. Thickness at the centre is3R . Refractive index of the material of the lens is1.5 . The image of a point object placed on the axis of the lens at a distance 4R from the surface of smaller radius of curvature and to its left is formed at

O

A C

B D

3R4R

(A) 43R fromCD to its right (B) 4

3R from CD to its left

(C) 83R from CD to its right (D) 8

3R from CD to its left

Space for Rough work

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12. Two convergent lenses A and B (erect) of focal lengths30 50cm and cm are separated by d cm apart co- axially. An erect object of height 2 cm is kept in front of I lens

at 40 cm from it. The real image is formed at 1003

cm to the right

of II lens (see figure). The value of d is

d40cm

1003

cm

A B

IO

(A) 20 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 25 cm 13. Radius of gyration of a body about an axis at a distance 6 cm from its centre of mass is10 cm . its

radius of gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass is (A) 6 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 12 cm

14. Moment of inertia of uniform rod of mass m and length l is 21712

ml about a line perpendicular to the

rod. The distance of this line from the middle point of the rod is

(A) l (B) 2 3

l

(C) 2l (D) 2

3l

15. Two particles of masses 2m and m moving in opposite directions collide elastically with

velocities 2and respectively. The velocity of 2 m after collision is: (A) (B) 1.5 (C) Zero (D) 1.1

Space for Rough work

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16. Two blocks of masses 3 6kg and kg are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They are connected by a light spring of force constant, 1200k Nm .Initially the spring is unstretched. The indicated velocities are imparted to the blocks. The maximum extension of the spring is

(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 30 cm

3kg 6kg

11ms12 ms

Smooth

17. A block is released from rest at the top of an inclined plane which later

curves into a circular track of radius r as shown in figure. Find the minimum height h form where it should be released so that it is able to complete the circle.

(A) 2.5 r (B) 3 r (C) 2 r (D) 3.5 r

18. A body of mass m , having momentum p , is moving on a rough horizontal surface. If it is stopped

in a distance x , the coefficient of friction between the body and the surface is given by:

(A) 2

22p

gm x (B)

2

2pgmx

(C) 2

pgmx

(D) 22

pgm x

19. Two equal masses are attached to the two ends of a spring of spring constant k . The masses are

pulled apart symmetrically to stretch the spring by a length x over its natural length. The work done by the spring on each mass is:

(A) 212

kx (B) 212

kx

(C) 214

kx (D) 214

kx

Space for Rough work

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20. A net force of 200 N gives a body of mass 1m an acceleration of 280 ms and a body of mass 2m , an acceleration of 2240 ms . The acceleration that this force caused when the masses combine together is

(A) 250 ms (B) 260 ms (C) 2120 ms (D) 2100 ms 21. The force- time graph for the motion of a body is shown in the following figure. The change in momentum of the body between 0 20and s is

(A) 120 kg ms (B) 125 kg ms (C) 130 kg ms (D) 135 kg ms 2

10

F N

10

20 t s

22. A vessel contains oil (density= 30.8 g cm ) over mercury (density= 313.6 g cm ). A homogeneous

sphere floats with half its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the material of the sphere in 3g cm is:

(A) 3.3 (B) 6.4 (C) 7.2 (D) 12.8 23. A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of its volume immersed in the liquid. When the

whole system accelerates upwards with a net acceleration of / 3g , the fraction of its volume immersed in the liquid is

(A) 1/ 2 (B) 3 / 8 (C) 2 / 3 (D) 3 / 4

Space for Rough work

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24. The time period of a simple pendulum isT . The pendulum is oscillated with its bob immersed in a liquid of density . If the density of the bob is p and viscous effect is neglected, the time period of the pendulum will be

(A) 1/ 2

pT

p

(B) 1/ 2

Tp

(C) 1/ 2p T

(D) 1/ 2

Tp

25. For hydrogen gas p vC C x and for oxygen gas p vC C y where p vC and C are molar specific

heats. Then the relation between x and y is (A) 16x y (B) 16y x (C) 4x y (D) x y 26. Two moles of helium gas are taken over the cycle12341 , as shown in

the p T diagram. Assuming the gas to be ideal the work done on the gas in taking it from1 2to is

(A) 200 R (B) 300 R (C) 400 R (D) 500 R 500300

3

2

P Pa

52 10

510

T k

27. A small spherical monoatomic ideal gas bubble 53

is trapped

inside a liquid of density Lp Assume that the bubble does not exchange any heat with the liquid. The bubble contains n moles of gas. The temperature of the gas when the bubble is at bottom is 0T . The height of the liquid is H and the atmospheric pressure is 0P . Neglect surface tension. As the bubble moves upwards, besides the buoyancy force the forces acting on it are besides the buoyancy force the forces acting on it are

Liquid

H

y

0P

(A) Only the force of gravity (B) The force due to gravity and force due to pressure of the liquid (C) The force due to gravity, the force due to pressure of the liquid and force due to viscosity of

the liquid (D) The force due to gravity and the force due to viscosity of the liquid

Space for Rough work

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28. A knife edge of mass M is dropped from a height h on a wooden floor with its tip pointing of downward. If the blade penetrates a distance S into the wood the average resistance offered by the wood to the blade is

(A) Mg (B) 1 hMgs

(C) 1 hMgs

(D) 2

1 hMgs

29. A uniform rope of mass M and length L is pulled along a frictionless inclined plane of angle(by

appling a force F Mg )parallel to incline. Tension in the chain at a distance x from the end at which force is applied is

(A) sinx xF MgL L

(B) 1 xFL

(C) 1 sinx xF MgL L

(D) None of these

30. Two Conducting spherical shells having radii a and b charged

to 1 2&q q respectively. Find the potential difference between 1& 2

(A) 1

0

1 14

qa b

(B) 2

0

1 14

qa b

(C) 1 2

0

1 14q q

a b

(D) 1

04q

a

2q

21

1qa

b

Space for Rough work

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CChheemmiissttrryy PART – II

SECTION – A

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. 112 mL of 2NO at NTP was liquefied, the density of the liquid being 11.15 g mL . The volume of

the liquid is: (A) 0.1 mL (B) 0.2 mL (C) 128.8 mL (D) 1.15 mL 2. A mixture of HCOOH and 2 2 4H C O is heated with conc. 2 4H SO . The gaseous mixture thus

produced is collected and passed through NaOH solution. The volume of the gaseous mixture

decreases by 16

th

. The molar ratio of HCOOH and 2 2 4H C O in the mixture of acids is:

(A) 14

(B) 6

(C) 4 (D) 16

3. Equal volumes of ethanoic acid and KOH are mixed, the heat evolved is: (A) equal to heat of formation of water from H and OH (B) less than the heat of formation of water from H and OH (C) equal to heat of formation of water from 2H and 2O in gaseous state (D) equal to enthalpy of neutralization of KOH and HCl 4. Consider the following reaction, 2A g B g

The rate constant for this reaction is 2 12.303 10 min . The time in which the molar ratio of A to B becomes 3 : 2 is equal to:

(A) 12.5 min (B) 2.303 min (C) 5.12 min (D) 80 min

Space for Rough work

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5. Consider the following gaseous phase equilibrium, 2A g B g . The degree of dissociation

of A is 13

and 23

at 1P and 2P pressures respectively. The ratio of 1P and 2P is:

(A) 74

(B) 732

(C) 832

(D) 325

6. The pH of a 2 4H SO solution is 2. The pH of this solution, if equal volume of 0.2 M NaCl

solution is added to it, will be: (A) 1.7 (B) 2.3 (C) 3.2 (D) 2 7. In a crystal structure of an element, atoms are present in ccp arrangement and tetrahedral voids,

which of the following relation between the atomic radius and edge length is correct for the unit cell which is formed in this arrangement? (a is the edge length and R is the radius of atom):

(A) 2 4a R (B) 3 8a R (C) 3 4a R (D) 2a R 8. 1000 g of 1 molal aqueous solution of sucrose is cooled and maintained at 3.534 C . What is

the amount of ice separated out 2 1.86fK for H O is : (A) 353 g (B) 220 g (C) 150 g (D) 510 g 9. Acidified water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The total volume of gases collected at

cathode and anode is V mL at STP . The amount of charge passed in the electrolytic cell is equal to:

(A) 35.74 10 V C (B) 96500C

(C) 31.72 10 V C (D) 31.72 10 C

Space for Rough work

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10. The charge on 2 3As S may be due to the adsorption of: (A) H (B) OH (C) 2O (D) 2S 11. The magnetic moment of xCr is 15 BM . The ratio of number of paired e and unpaired e in

xCr is equal to: (A) seven (B) six (C) five (D) four 12. Find H in terms of KJ for the following reaction from the given data 22 2M g X g M g X g

11 705IE of M g KJ mol

12 1151IE of M g KJ mol

11 328IA of X g KJ mol

(A) 120 KJ (B) 512 KJ (C) 1200 KJ (D) 110 KJ 13. Which of the following is not three dimensional network structures? (A) 2SiO (B) 2CO (C) diamond (D) graphite 14. A 1g sample of 2 2H O solution containing %x 2 2H O by weight required x mL of 4KMnO for

complete oxidation in acidic medium. The normality of 4KMnO solution is approximately: (A) 0.1 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.6 (D) 1.2

Space for Rough work

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15. Consider the following statements about the structure of borax: (i) number of B O B bonds is x (ii) number of B B bonds is y (iii) number of 2sp hybridized B atoms is z The value of x y z is equal to (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7 16. Which of the following has maximum dipole moment? (A) O

(B) O

(C) O

(D) All have equal value

17.

X

Y

Z 2 /H O H A

KCN

/Mg Ether

R Cl

What is ' '?A (A)

R C NH2

O

(B) R CHO

(C)

R C O

R

(D) C

R

RN

OH

Space for Rough work

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18. Which of the following will not convert R C N to R CHO ? (A) 2 /i SnCl HCl (B) 2 /i RMgX ii H O H

(C) 4 2 /i LiAlH ii H O (D) 22 /i AlH i Bu ii H O 19. O

COOC2H5 3 ..........i H O ii

The major product is:

(A) O

(B) O

O

(C) O

(D) O C

CH2

O

20.

3

2

// ; the compound ' ' :O KOH

Zn H O X Y Y is

(A) CHO

(B) CHO

x

(C) CHO

(D)

CHO

OH

Space for Rough work

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21.

OH

CH3

O

/Zn Hg HCl Product

(A)

Cl

CH3

(B)

Cl

CCH3

O

(C)

OH

CH3

(D)

Cl

CH2

22.

CHO 3 ......EtO Al

The major product is:

(A)

CH2OH

(B)

CH2

CH3 (C)

C

O CH2

O

(D) No reaction

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23. Strongest base is: (A)

NH2 CNH2

NH

(B)

C

H2N

H2NNH2

(C)

C

H2N

H2NO

(D)

C

H2N

H2NOH

24.

NH22. , is :aq NaNO

HCl P P

(A) Cl

(B) CH

+Cl

(C)

OH

(D) None of these

25.

N

O

O

H 2

2 3

1. , 1. ,2. 2.KNH DMF KOH

PhCH Br H OA B

The end product B of the above reaction is:

(A) Ph NH2 (B)

PhPh N H

(C)

NPh

O

H

Ph

(D) N

PhPh

H

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26. Marshall’s acid is: (A) 2 2 5H S O (B) 2 2 8H S O (C) 2 4H SO (D) 2 2 7H S O 27. The correct order of S O bond in 2

2 3 4, ,I SO II SO III SO is: (A) I II III (B) III I II (C) II III I (D) I III II 28. The following acids have been arranged in the order of increasing acid strength. Identify the

correct order: I ClOH II BrOH

III IOH (A) I II III (B) III II I (C) II I III (D) III I II 29. The correct order of oxidizing power is: (A) 2 3HOCl HOClO HOClO HOClO (B) 3 2HOClO HOClO HOClO HOCl (C) 2 3HOClO HOClO HOCl HOClO (D) 2 3HOCl HOClO HOClO HOClO 30. Shape of 4XeOF is: (A) Trigonal bipyramid with lp at axial position (B) Square pyramid with lp at axial position (C) Distorted square pyramid with lp at axial position (D) Square pyramid with lp at square plane.

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MMaatthheemmaattiiccss PART – III

SECTION – A

Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. The number of ordered pairs ,x y of real numbers satisfying 2 24 4 2 sinx x y and 2 2 3x y

is equal to (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8 2. sin 47 sin 25 sin 61 sin11 (A) cos 7 (B) sin 7 (C) 2 cos 7 (D) 2 sin 7 3. The tangent to the hyperbola 2xy c at the point P intersects the x-axis at T and the y-axis at T’.

The normal to the hyperbola at P intersects the x-axis at N and the y-axis at N’. The areas of the

triangles PNT and PN’T’ are and ’ respectively , then 1 1'

is

(A) equal to 1 (B) depends on t (C) depends on c (D) equal to 2 4. The normal at P to a hyperbola of eccentricity e, intersects its transverse and conjugate axes at L

and M respectively. If locus of the mid-point of LM is hyperbola, then eccentricity of the hyperbola is:

(A) 11

ee

(B)

2 1

e

e

(C) e (D) None of these

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5. Area of the triangle formed by the lines 0, 0x y x y and any tangent to the hyperbola 2 2 2x y a is:

(A) a (B) 12

a

(C) 2a (D) 212

a

6. A rectangular hyperbola whose centre is C is cut by any circle of radius r in four points , ,P Q R

and S . Then 2 2 2 2CP CQ CR CS is equal to: (A) 2r (B) 22r (C) 23r (D) 24r 7. The point, at shortest distance from the line 7x y and lying on an ellipse 2 22 6x y , has co-

ordinates: (A) 2, 2 (B) 0, 3

(C) 2,1 (D) 15,2

8. Locus of the foot of perpendicular drawn from origin to any tangent to the ellipse 2

2 12x y is:

(A) 22 2 2 22x y x y (B) 22 2 2 22x y x y

(C) 22 2 2 22x y x y (D) None of these

9. The line 5 3 8 2x y is a normal to the ellipse22

125 9

yx . If be the eccentric angle of the

foot of this normal, then ' ' is equal to:

(A) 6 (B)

3

(C) 4 (D) None of these

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10. For parabola 2 2 2 6 2 3 0x y xy x y , then focus is: (A) 1, 1 (B) 1,1

(C) 3,1 (D) None of these 11. The triangle formed by the tangent to the parabola 2y x at the point whose abscissa

is 0 0 1, 2x x , the y-axis and the straight line 20y x has the greatest area if 0x is equal to:

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 12. The condition that the parabola 2 24 4y c x d and y ax have a common normal other than

x- axis 0, 0a c is: (A) 2 2a c d (B) 2 2c a d (C) 2 2d a c (D) 2 2d c a 13. The point 1 ,P P , (where . denotes the greatest integer function) lying inside the region

bounded by the circle 2 2 2 22 15 0 2 7 0x y x and x y x then: (A) 1, 0 0,1 1, 2p (B) 1, 2 0,1p

(C) 1, 2p (D) None of the above 14. If the distance from the origin of the centres of three, circles 2 2 22 0, 1, 2, 3ix y x c i are in

GP. then the lengths of the tangents drawn to them from any point on the circle 2 2 2x y c are in: (A) A. P (B) G. P (C) H.P (D) None of these

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15. The values of k for which the circle 2 2 2 21 4 8 0x y and x y x have two common tangents is:

(A) 9 9,4 4

(B) 9 9, ,4 4

(C) 9,4

9 ,4

(D) None of these

16. The equation of image of pair of lines 1y x in y- axis is:

(A) 2 2 2 1 0x y x (B) 2 2 2 1 0x y x (C) 2 2 2 1 0x y x (D) None of these 17. If 2 2, 0 4 4 1 0and and ax xy y p x y represent a pair of straight lines, then: (A) p (B) p (C) p (D) p or p

18. If 2 2 4 2 ,1!9! 3!7! 5!5! !

m

n then orthocentre of the triangle having

sides 1 0, 3 0 2 5 2 0x y x y and x y is: (A) 2 2 ,m n m n (B) 2 2 ,m n n m

(C) 2 ,m n m n (D) 2 ,m n m n

19. In ABC , if tan cot tan cot2 2 2 2

B C B C C A C Ap q and tan cot

2 2A B A Br

then

p :

(A) 1 (B) pq (C) pqr (D) None of these

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20. In the triangle ABC the medians from B and C are perpendicular. The value of cot cotB C cannot be:

(A) 13

(B) 23

(C) 43

(D) 53

21. If ABCD be a cyclic quadrilateral inscribed in a circle of radius 2 unit such that 2 3BD ; 1AB

then AD :

(A) 1 3 52

(B) 3 5 12

(C) 5 12 (D) None of these

22. If I be the incentre of ABC and ,P Q are feet of perpendicular from A to ,BI CI respectively.

Then :AQ CI :AP BI :

(A) cot2

A B

(B) cot2

B C

(C) cot2

C A

(D) tan2

B C

23. Number of roots of the equation 2 3 1 3cos sin 1 02 4

x x

which lie in the interval ,

is: (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8 24. The number of solutions of tan 5 cos cot 5 sin for 0, 2 is: (A) 28 (B) 14 (C) 4 (D) 2

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25. Number of solutions of the equation 2 2 2 24sin tan cot cos 6x x x ec x in 0, is: (A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 4 26. The equation 2 2 1 1 cosx n x has (where n is a positive integer): (A) infinity many real roots (B) exactly one real root (C) exactly 2 2n real roots (D) exactly 2 3n real roots 27. A vertical tower standing at O has marks P, Q, R, S at heights of 1m, 2m, 3m, and 4m from the

foot O and A is a point on the horizontal plane through O. If PQ and RS subtend angles and respectively at A where OA = 2 m then cos :

(A) 5 / 26 (B) 24 / 650 (C) 23 / 650 (D) 1/ 26 28. , ,A B C are three points on a horizontal line through the base O of a pillar OP, such that OA, OB,

OC are in A. P. If , , the angles of elevation of the top of the pillar at , ,A B C respectively are also in A. P. then sin , sin , sin are in:

(A) A. P. (B) G. P. (C) H. P. (D) None of these 29. If ,n N then 2 3 3 17 2 .3n n n is always divisible by: (A) 25 (B) 35 (C) 45 (D) None of these 30. Let P n denotes the statement that 2n n is odd. It is seen that 1 . nP n P n P is true for

all: (A) 1n (B) n N (C) 2n (D) None of these

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