RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARDS (RRB) EXAMS QUESTIONS PAPERS QUESTIONS

GENERAL SCIENCEQ.1. Which of the following is not a bone in the human body? Pericardium Q.2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of two Q3. Duodenum is situated at the uppermost part of the small intestine Q.4. The heart is covered by a membrane called Pericardium Q.5. About ..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood. (d) 1% Q.6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This error refers to atrophy of endocrine glands Q.7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by (b) valves Q.8. Identical twins arise when two (a) cells develop independently from the same zygote Q.9. Element that is not found in blood is (c) chromium Q.10. Scratching eases itching because (d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals. Q.11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is? (c) Thymus Q.12. A human sperm may contain ? 1. X-chromosome 2. Y-chromosome 3. XY-chromosome (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)1 and 2 (d) l,2 and 3 Ans. c Q.13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of human body? (a) Radius Q.14. Bleeding from artery is characterized by which of the following? 1. Blood is red. 2. Blood is purple. 3. Bleeding is continuous. 4. Bleeding is intermittent. (a) 1 and3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 Ans. b Q.15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ? (a) Centriole (b) Molar tooth (c) Appendix (d) Diaphragm Ans. d Q.16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint? (a) Humenis and radius (b) Carpals (c) Hip girdle and femur (d) Skull & neck verterbrae Ans. b Q.17. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in (a) blood clotting

(b) production of antibodies (c) growth of body (d) keeping sugar balance in body Ans. d Q.18. S-A node of mammalian heart is known as (a) Autoregulator (b) Pace-maker (c) Time controller (d) Beat regulator Ans. b Q.19. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure: 1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel. 2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases, 3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries. 4. It is usually lower in women than in men. Of these, the correct ones are (a) 1 and 4 (b) l, 2and 3 (c) 2,3 and 4 (d) l,2,3 and 4 Ans. d Q.20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is? (a) ACTH (b) Leutinizing hormone (c) Adrenalin (d) Lactogenic hormone Q.21. What is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack? 1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel 2. Plaque from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol 3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen 4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries (a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 2,4, 1,3 (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 4, 2, 1 3 Ans. b Q.22. Bile juice is secreted by (a) Pancreas (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Gall bladder Ans. b Q.23. Veins differ from arteries in having (a) thinner walls (b) strong walls (c) narrower lumen (d) valves to control direction of flow Ans. d Q.24. What is the main function of insulin in the human body? (a) To maintain blood pressure (b) To help in digestion of food (c) To control the level of sugar in the body (d) To check the level of iodine in the body Ans. c

Q.25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is (a) pepsin (b) tiypsin (c) ptyalin (d) maltose Ans. a Q.26. The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in (a) arteries (b) veins (c) auricles (d) ventricles Ans. a Q.27. The total number of bones in human skull are (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 30 (d) 32 Ans. c Q.28. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans? (a) Paancreas (b) Thyroid (c) Adrenal (d) Pituitary Ans. d Q.29. Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human body by? (a) red blood cells (b) blood platelets (c) white blood cells (d) hormones Ans. a Q.30. Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection? (a) Plasma (b) Blood Platelets (c) Haemoglobin (d) White Blood Corpuscles Ans. d Q.31. The normal temperature of the human body is (a) 90 F (b) 98 F (c) 98.4 F (d) 96.4 F Ans. c Q.32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from (a) myopia (b) hypermetropia (c) astigmatism (d) None of these Ans. d Q.33. The blood pressure values of four persons are given below: 1. Mrs.X-90/60 2. Mr.X-160/120 3. Mr. Y-120/80

4. Mrs.Y-140/l00 Who among the following has normal blood pressure? (a) Mrs. Y (b) Mr. X (c) Mrs. X (d) Mr. Y Ans. d Q.34. In the case of a Test-tube baby? (a) fertilization takes place inside the test tube. (b) development of the baby takes place inside the test tube. (c) fertilization takes place outside the mother body. (d) unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube. Ans. c Q.35. Pituitary gland is present (a) below the brain (b) above the brain (c) inside the brain (d) nowhere near the brain Ans. a Q.36. Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body? (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Spleen (d) Lungs Ans. d Q.37. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body? (a) Eye (b) Ear (c) Nose (d) Heart Ans. a Q.38. What is Funny Bone? (a) A muscle (b) A nerve (c) A bone (d) A blood vessel Ans. b Q.39. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because? (a) their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose. (b) they have a many chambered stomach. (c) they have efficient grinding molars. (d) they produce an enzyme cellulose which can digest cellulose. Ans. a Q.40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children? (a) Glycerol (b) Xylidine (c) Thalidomide (d) None of these Ans. c Q.41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ? (a) 24 (b) 40 (c) 46

(d) 48 Ans. c Q.42. The largest cell in the human body is (a) Nerve cell (b) Muscle cell (c) Liver cell (d) Kidney cell Ans. a Q.43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of (a) moss and fungi (b) bacteria and fungi (c) algae and fungi (d) None of these Ans. c Q.44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into (a) 22 orders (b) 26 orders (c) 29 orders (d) 32 orders Ans. c Q.45. Which of the following statements is true for planktons? (a) They live on the surface of lake water. (b) They live on the bottom of lakes. (c) They live on the plants growing in water. (d) They live in the water column. Ans. b Q.46. Which of the following has the smallest egg? (a) Ostrich (b) Humming bird (c) Pigeon (d) Homo sapiens Ans. c Q.47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth? (a) Reptiles (b) Fishes (c) Birds (d) Beetles Ans. d Q.48. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to (a) stings of rays (b) salivary glands of vertebrates (c) electric organs of fishes (d) sebaccous glands of mammals Ans. b Q.49. The phylum chordata is characterized by the presence of (a) spinal cord (b) notochord (c) nerve chord (d) None of these Ans. d Q.50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants? (a) Growth of lateral buds

(b) Cell division (c) Root initiation (d) Development of fleshy fruits Ans. c Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 5:18 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post Labels: GENERAL KNOWLEDGEWEDNESDAY, OCTOBER 27, 2010

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM PAPERRailway Engineering1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their proper routes are known as: (a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail Ans:- C 2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called: (a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base Ans:- C 3.The good quality wood for sleeper is: (a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c) Teak (d) Sal Ans:- C 4.Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as: (a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years (c) 35 to 50 years (d) 5 to 8 years Ans:- B 5.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as: (a) Flare (b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop Ans:- A 6.The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be: (a) zero cm (b) 30 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 60 cm Ans:- D 7.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the ........ edge of the sleeper. (a) upper (b) middle (c) inner (d) outer

Ans:- C 8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is: (a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 20 (d) 1 in 25 Ans:- C 9.The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as: (a) anchors (b) ballast (c) subgrade (d) chairs Ans:- B 10.Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting: (a) double headed rails (b) flat footed rails (c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct Ans:- B 11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are known as: (a) fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate Ans:- B 12.The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is: (a) 78.6 mm (b) 136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm Ans:- B 13.The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as: (a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits (c) Drop pits (d) Siding pits Ans:- C 14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is: (a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15 Ans:- B 15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track. (a) inner faces (b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail (c) centre lines (d) outer faces

Ans:- A 16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is: (a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance due to oscillations (c) flange resistance (d) air or wind resistance Ans:- A 17. The rails are welded by: (a) Thermit welding (b) Gas welding (c) Arc welding (d) MIG welding Ans:- A 18. Steel sleepers are ..... shaped in section. (a) oval (b) rectangular (c) trough (d) semi-spherical Ans:- C 19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is: (a) 18 (b) 30 (c) 12 (d) 24 Ans:- A 20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are known as: (a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails Ans:- B 21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as: (a) cropping (b) creeping (c) bulging (d) buckling Ans:- D 22. Creep is the ..... movement of rails. (a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical Ans:- A 23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is: (a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above Ans:- C 24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of: (a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of the sleepers

(c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above Ans:- D 25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means: (a) checking of subgrade (b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade (c) compaction and consolidation of earth work (d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees Ans:- D 26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as: (a) Rolling motion (b) Nosing motion (c) Lurching motion (d) Vibration Ans:- B 27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is called: (a) rolling stock (b) railway (c) wagon (d) locomotive Ans:- D 28. Integrated coach factory is located in: (a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai Ans:- A 29. C.T.C. stands for: (a) Critical Track Control (b) Critical Traffic Channeliser (c) Centralised Traffic Control (d) None of these Ans:- C 30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as: (a) Fish plate (b) Chair (c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate Ans:- D

31. Generally the rail sections used in India is: (a) flat footed (b) double headed (c) bull headed (d) all above Ans:- A 32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called: (a) three ladder track (b) turn table (c) three throw switch (d) triangle Ans:- B 33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is: (a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m (c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m Ans:- C 34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is called: (a) Permanent Way Inspector (b) Gangmate (c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector (d) None of these are correct Ans:- C 35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be: (a) 250 to 300 mm (b) 200 to 250 mm (c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm Ans:- B 36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as: (a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way Ans:- D 37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of: (a) 10-15 kg/HP (b) 60-80 kg/HP (c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP Ans:- B 38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:

(a) Loose packing at joints (b) Defect in gauge and alignment (c) Defect in cross level joints (d) Any of the above Ans:- D 39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called: (a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead Ans:- D 40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a certain amount. This is called: (a) Track gradient (b) Track slope (c) Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient Ans:- C 41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as: (a) Tractive force (b) Load capacity (c) Gauge (d) Track modulus Ans:- D 42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called: (a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger (d) A.P.W.I Ans:- C 43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as: (a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail Ans:- B 44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is: (a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m Ans:- D 45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is: (a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm Ans:- D 46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:

(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15% Ans:- B 47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to: (a) Abrasion of rolling wheels (b) Heavy axle load (c) Constant brake application (d) Any or all of the above Ans:- D 48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as: (a) Oscillating motion (b) Lurching motion (c) Shutting motion (d) Vibration Ans:- A 49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such joint is called: (a) Wet joint (b) Water joint (c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint Ans:- C 50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting: (a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system (c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system Ans:- A Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 2:05 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post Labels: TECHNICAL

RRB TECHNICAL EXAM QUESTIONS

Fluid Mechanics1. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at 60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is 0.05m2 and stroke length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of the pump will be (a) 0.015 m3/sec (b) 0.02 m3/sec (c) 0.025 m3/sec (d) 0.03 m3/sec Ans:- B 2.B. In question (A), the co-efficient of discharge would be (a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.5 Ans:- D

3. In question (A), the slip of the pump would be (a) 0.02 m3/sec (b) 0.01 m3/sec (c) 0.005 m3/sec (d) 0.003 m3/sec Ans:- B 4.The possibility of negative slip in reciprocating pump is when (a) delivery pipe is short (b) suction pipe is long (c) pump is running at high speed (d) all of the above Ans:- D 5. The slip in the reciprocating pump will be negative if (a) Qth > Qact (b) Qth < Qact (c) Qth = Qact (d) none of the above Ans:- B 6. The power required to drive a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to (a) w.A.L.N / 4500 (b) w.A.L.N.(hs + hd)4500 (c) A.L.N. (hs + hd)/4500 (d) w.L.N/4500 where w = specific weight of water Ans:- B 7. The rate of flow of water through a double acting reciprocating pump is equal to (a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./260 (d) 3 A.L.N./60 Ans:- B 8. The rate of flow of water through a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to (a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./260 (d) 3 A.L.N./60 Ans:- A 9. The pump, which works on the principle of water hammer, is known as (a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump (c) hydraulic ram (d) none of the above Ans:- C 10. The pump which raises water without any external power for its operation, is known as (a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump (c) hydraulic ram (d) hydraulic intensifier Ans:- C 11. The power at the shaft of a centrifugal pump is 100 KW, and the power available at the impeller is 900 KW. If water horse power is 720 KW, then overall efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be (a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72% Ans:- D 12. In the question (A), the manometric efficiency would be (a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72% Ans:- B

13. In question (A), the mechanical efficiency would be (a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72% Ans:- A 14. The term W.Q.Hm / (75 S.H.P) for a centrifugal pump is known as (a) mechanical efficiency (b) manometric efficiency (c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above Ans:- C 15. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing and the impeller, then casing is known as (a) vortex casing (b) volute casing (c) casing with guide blades (d) none of the above Ans:- A 16. The rotating part of a turbine is known as (a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism (c) Runner (d) None of the above Ans:- A 17. The rotating part of a turbine is known as (a) Impeller (b) Guide mechanism (c) Runner (d) None of the above Ans:- C 18. In case of Kaplan turbine, velocity of flow at inlet is (a) less than that at outlet (b) more than that at outlet (c) equal of that at outlet (d) none of the above Ans:- C 19.Francis turbine is a (a) radially inward flow turbine (b) radially outward flow turbine (c) axial flow turbine (d) none of the above Ans:- A 20. The main advantage of the draft-tube is to convert (a) pressure energy into kinetic energy (b) kinetic energy into pressure energy (c) pressure energy into electrical energy (d) none of the above Ans:- B 21. The pressure at the exist of the runner of a reaction turbine is generally (a) more than atmospheric pressure (b) equal to atmospheric pressure (c) less than atmospheric pressure

(d) none of the above Ans:- C 22.In case of draft tube, are of cross-section of the draft tube (a) increases from inlet to outlet (b) decreases from inlet to outlet (c) remains constant (d) none of the above Ans:- A 23. Draft tube is used in case of (a) Pelton turbine (b) Pelton and Francis turbine (c) Kaplan and Pelton turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan turbine Ans:- D 24.The pressure energy goes on changing into kinetic energy in case of (a) Pelton turbine (b) Francis turbine (c) Kaplan turbine (d) Francis and Kaplan Ans:- D 25. A turbine is having specific speed of 400. Then the turbine would be (a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine (c) Pelton turbine (d) None of the above Ans:- A 26.A turbine is having specific speed as 100. Then the turbine would be (a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine (c) Pelton turbine (d) Steam turbine Ans:- B 27. The axial flow reaction turbine, in which vanes are fixed to the hub and they are not adjustable, is known as (a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine (c) propeller turbine (d) Pelton turbine Ans:- C 28.In case reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of (a) pressure energy and kinetic energy (b) kinetic energy only (c) pressure energy only (d) none of the above Ans:- A 29. In case of reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of (a) pressure energy and kinetic energy (b) kinetic energy only (c) pressure energy only (d) none of the above Ans:- B

30. Kaplan turbine is a (a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine (c) radial flow turbine (d) none of the above Ans:- A 31. Francis turbine is a (a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine (c) axial flow turbine (d) none of the above Ans:- A 32. Pelton turbine is a (a) reaction turbine (b) radial inward flow turbine (c) impulse turbine (d) axial flow turbine Ans:- C 33. The relation between overall efficiency. mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is given by (a) h0 = hmech / hhyd (b) h0 = hmech / hhyd (c) h0 = 1.0 / (hmech hhyd) (d) h0 = hhyd / hmech Ans:- B 34.The ratio of power at the shaft of a turbine to the power supplied by water at inlet of a turbine is known as (a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency (c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above Ans:- C 35. The ratio of power available at the shaft of a turbine to the power developed by the runner of the turbine is known as (a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency (c) overall efficiency (d) volumetric efficiency Ans:- B 36. A jet water of area of cross-section 20 cm2, having a velocity of 20 m/sec strikes a curved plate which is moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec in the direction of the jet. The jet leaves the vane at an angle of 600 to the direction of motion of vane at outlet as shown in Fig. Z3. The relative velocity at inlet will be (a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 16 m/sec Ans:- B 37. The velocity of whirl at inlet in the question (A), will be (a) 20 m/sec (b) 16 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 10 m/sec Ans:- A 38. In the FIG Z3, angle f will be (a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 750 Ans:- C 39. In Fig Z2 shows the velocity triangles triangles at inlet and outlet of a turbine, V1 represents the absolute velocity at inlet and u1 represents vane velocity at inlet. The relative velocity at inlet is represented by (a) length BD (b) Length AD (c) length CD (d) length CB Ans:- D

40. In Fig. Z2 the velocity of whirl at inlet is given by (a) length DB (b) length AD (c) length CD (d) length CB Ans:- B 41. In fig. Z2, angle BAC is known as (a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet (c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above Ans:- B 42. In fig. Z2, angle BCD is known as (a) vane angle at inlet (b) nozzle angle at inlet (c) vane angle at outlet (d) none of the above Ans:- A 43. A jet water of area 40 cm2 moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec strikes normally a fixed vertical plate. The force exerted by the jet on the plate in the direction of jet will be (a) 500 N (b) 400 N (c) 300 N (d) 200 N Ans:- B 44. Pump is a machine which converts (a) hydraulic energy to mechanical energy (b) mechanical energy to hydraulic energy (c) mechanical energy to electrical energy (d) none of the above Ans:- B

Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 1:59 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post Labels: TECHNICAL

RRB Ahmedabad TC Exam Paper1.) Terminal colours of Rainbow? a: Violet&Red 2.) First lady in INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS? a: Indira Gandhi b: Sarogini naidu etc 3.) First Nuclear plant in INDIA is situated in a: Bombay b: Nellore etc 4.) 2 capacitances are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what will be the value of individual capacitance. 5.) Who invented THERMOMETER? ANS: Farenheit 6.) Electrostatic potential is a Scalar Quantity or Vector Quantity? 7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurance of numbers ending with 9 is? a:1/10 b:9/10 c:1 d:0

8.) Si, Ge lie in .. block of periodic table a: III b: V c: IVA(ANS) d: IV B 9.) Some eqn was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency 10.) Which Filter is used for passing ONLY HIGH frequency a: LADDER b. crystal 11.) In Zener breakdown is proportional to Ans -ive coefficient of temperature 12.) If water is heated from 0degree to 10 degree effect on volume a: increase steadily b: remain same c: decrease steadily 13.) If we dig EARTH FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then efffect on its velocity a: increase continously b: First increase and become Zero in center c. It Will Start Oscillate 14.) Dandi march was related to .. a: Salt b: Sugar etc 15.) Radiation pattern of loop antenna a: cardioid b. semicircular c. circle d. none 16.) DENMARK lie in which continent 17.) Cooks island is situated in which continent? 18.) Range of AM Signal? 19.) In an Electrolyte if rod is immersed then mass on rod will be proportional to a: current passed in it 20.) largest unit in energy 21.) spelling check of SATELLITE 22.) plural of DIBIYA IN HINDI 23.) Sarvnam chatiye 24.) RADDISH is a a: modified root b: bulb c; stem 25.) X Rays are .. Rays Ans emw 26.) ass:bray::sheep BLEAT 27.) In Hindi Pehle Janma (AGRAJ, ARGAJA/AAGRAJETC) 28.) Lord Shankar is related to originaetor of . river 29.) is also called JALDHAR

30) fsk is used in a: telegraphy b: telephony c: radio transmission etc Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 1:57 PM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post Labels: TICKET COLLECTORTUESDAY, OCTOBER 26, 2010

VARIOUS RRB EXAMS QUESTIONS1. When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it(a) Remains undeviated (b) Bends towards normal (c) Bends away from normal (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 2.Who is the author of "Anandmath" ? (a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya (c) Sarojini Nayadu (d) Jyotiba Phule Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 3. Thimpu is the capital of (a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Thailand (d) Myanmar Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 4. The time period of a seconds pendulum is (a) 1 second (b) 4 seconds (c) 3 seconds (d) 2 seconds Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 5. The nuclear fuel in the sun is (a) Helium (b) Uranium (c) Hydrogen (d) Oxygen Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 6. The seconds hand of a watch is 2 cm long. The velocity of its tip is (a) 0.21 cm/sec. (b) 2.1 cm/sec. (c) 21 cm/sec. (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 7. In diesel engine, ignition is caused by (a) Spark (b) Automatic starter (c) Compression (d) Friction Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 8. The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by (a) Max Plank (b) Einstein (c) Newton (d) Hertz Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 9. The filament of bulb is made of (a) Tungsten (b) Iron (c) Nichrome (d) Carbon Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 10. Anti-knocking can be lessened by (a) Iso Octane (b) N Heptane (c) TEL (d) Benzene Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 11. In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state. (a) CO (b) N2O (c) NO (d) F2O Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 12. Which of the following is used in photography? (a) Silver Bromide (b) Sodium Bromide (c) Potassium Chloride (d) Sodium Sulphate Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 13. Which of the following is used in accumulator cell? (a) Copper (b) Iron

(c) Lead (d) Zinc Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 14. Choose the wrong statement : (a) Single magnetic poles can exist (b) Magnetic poles are always of equal strength (c) Like poles repel each other (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 15. Laws of electrolysis are given by: (a) Farady (b) Maxwell (c) Lenz (d) Bohr Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 16. Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out: (a) Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current (b) Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field (c) Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 17. The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is : (a) 0 (b) 1.0 (c) 7.0 (d) 1.4 Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 18. The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is : (a) Limestone and clay (b) Alumina, clay and gypsum (c) Gypsum and limestone (d) Gypsum and clay19. CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as :(a) Soda Ash (b) Lime (c) Bleaching Powder (d) Plaster of Paris Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 20. The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is :(a) Pyrex glass (b) Hard glass (c) Soft glass (d) Safety glass Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 21. The iron produced in blast furnace is : (a) Pig iron (b) Wrought iron (c) Stainless steel (d) Steel Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 22. Formation is a 40% solution of : (a) Methanol (b) Methenal (c) Methanoic acid (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 23. Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium : (a) Cryolite (b) Feldspar (c) Bauxite (d) Azurite Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 24. Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are: (a) Isomers (b) Isotopes (c) Allotropes (d) Hydrides of sulphur25. The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and : (a) Glycerol (b) Ethenol (c) Glycol (d) Ethanoic acid Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 26. The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery. It is a : (a) Hormonal response (b) Neural response (c) Optic response (d) Olfactory response Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 27. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in : (a) Parasitic plants (b) Epiphytic plants (c) Leguminous plants (d) Aquatic plants Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 28. Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by: (a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Fungi (d) Protozoans Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 29. Septic sore throat is caused by : (a) Bacteria (b) Virus

(c) Fungi (d) Protozoans Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 30. A person of blood group AB can give blood to : (a) A and B (b) Only AB (c) A, B and O (d) All of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 31. Cell activities are controlled by : (a) Chloroplast (b) Nitochondria (c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 32. Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens : (a) Cornea (b) Conjunctiva (c) Ciliary body (d) Iris Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 33. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as : (a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy (c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 34. Respiration is a : (a) Catabolic process (b) Anabolic process (c) Both of these (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 35. The structural and functional unit of kidneys are : (a) Neurons (b) Nephrons (c) Medula (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 36. Which of the following enzymes is generally nor present in adult human : (a) Renin (b) Pepsin (c) Trypsin (d) Amylopsin Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 37. The part of the plant which is responsible for carrying water and solutes from roots to various parts of plants is : (a) Phloem (b) Xylem (c) Duodenum (d) Sclercids Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 38. Widal test is used for susceptibility of : (a) Malaria (b) Typhoid (c) Cholera (d) Yellow fever Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 39. Exchange of gases in plants takes place through : (a) Stomata (b) Lenticels (c) Cuticle (d) All of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 40. Lieutenant in army is equivalent to following rank in navy : (a) Lieutenant (b) Sub Lieutanant (c) Lieutenant Commander (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 41. Pankaj Advani is associated with : (a) Snooker (b) Golf (c) Shooting (d) Archery Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 42. Which city in the world is known as the forbidden city : (a) Aberdeen (b) Jerusalem (c) Mecca (d) Lhasa Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 43. Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award carries a sum of : (a) Rs. 3 lakns (b) Rs. 5 lakhs (c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Rs. 7 lakhs Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 44. Who is known as Nightingale of India : (a) Asha Bhonsle (b) Begum Akhtar (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers

45. Which one of the following is not included in the UNESCOs list of world heritage site : (a) Kaziranga National Park (b) Qutab Minar (c) Champaner Pavagarh (d) None of these Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant 46. Which of the following is not an electric resistant? (a) Lead (b) Ebonite (c) Charcoal (d) Lac Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 47. Which of the following is a complementary colour? (a) Blue (b) Yellow (c) Magenta (d) Yellow and Magenta Category :Chennai rrb exam Papers 48. The velocity of sound increases in air by for every degree Celsius increase of temperature. (a) 60 m/sec. (b) 0.61 m/sec. (c) 60 ft/sec. (d) 0.61 km/sec. Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 49. Henry is a unit of (a) Capacity (b) Magnetic field (c) Inductance (d) Frequency Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 50. The velocity of rotation of Earth is (a) 28 km/min (b) 30 km/min (c) 25 km/min (d) 39.5 km/min Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 51. What is Hubble? (a) Warship (b) Star (c) Telescope (d) Missile Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 52. Which acid is normally found in lemon and grape fruits? (a) Citric acid (b) Tartaric acid (c) Ascorbic acid (d) Lactic acid Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 53. At which temperature Fahrenheit and Celsius show same reading? (a) -400 (b) 00 (c) -574.250 (d) 2730 Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 54. Limestone is metamorphosed to form (a) Graphite (b) Quartz (c) Granite (d) Marble Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 55. Rift valley is formed by (a) Earthquake (b) Folding (c) Faulting (d) All of these Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 56. If a piece of ice at 00C is mixed with water at 00C, then (a) Whole ice melts (b) Some ice melts (c) No ice melts (d) Temperature decreases Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 57. Mettur Dam is built on the river (a) Krishna (b) Cauvery (c) Narmada (d) Mahanadi Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 58. Mahendra Giri peak is situated in the (a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats (c) Shiwaliks (d) Vindhyachal Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 59. In what time a sum will double itself at 20% per annum rate of interest? (a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 4 years (d) 5 years Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 60. The famous Dilwara Temple is situated in (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra

(c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 61. Pneumonia affects (a) Lungs (b) Tongue (c) Liver (d) Kidney Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 62. The chemical name of Vitamin A is (a) Retinol (b) Jhiamin (c) Biotic (d) Riboflavin Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 63. A 130m long train crosses a bridge in 30 seconds at 45 kmph. The length of the bridge is (a) 200m (b) 225m (c) 245m (d) 250m Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 64. By selling an article at some price a person gains 10%. If the article is sold at twice of the price, the gain percent will be (a) 20% (b) 60% (c) 100% (d) 120% Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 65. Atoms are electrically charged as (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Bi-positive (d) Neutral 66. Ionic bond exists in (a) Kcl (b) H2O (c) NH3 (d) Cl3 Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 67. Which force is required to increase the momentum of an object to 40 kg m/s in 5 seconds? (a) 2N (b) 4N (c) 8N (d) 10N Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 68. The river that does not form delta is (a) Mahanadi (b) Tapti (c) Krishna (d) Cauvery Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 69. The ratio of the redius and height of a cone is 5 : 12, respectively. Its volume is 23147cc. Find its slant height. (a) 13cm (b) 14cm (c) 17cm (d) 26cm Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 70. 27 students took part in a debate of a college. What is the probability that at least 3 of them have their birth days in the same month? (a) 3/27 (b) 3/12 (c) 12 (d) 1 Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 71. Who was the first winner of Dada Saheb Phalke Award? (a) B.N.Sarkar (b) Prithvi Raj Kapoor (c) Devika Rani (d) Kanan Devi Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 72. How many members are nominated by the President in the Rajya Sabha? (a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 20 Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 73. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj? (a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) Aurobindo Ghosh (c) Vivekanand (d) Dyanand Saraswati Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 74. The Parliamentary System in India has been taken from (a) America (b) Britain (c) Australia (d) Ireland Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 75. The electric supply in India was first started in (a) Kolkata (b) Chennai (c) Mumbai (d) Darjeeling Category :Chennai rrb model Papers

76. Bhatnagar Prize is given in the field of (a) Peace (b) Music and dance (c) Science & technology (d) Fine arts Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 77. Who discovered the solar system? (a) Copernicus (b) Kepler (c) Aryabhatta (d) Newton Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 78. The Nobel Prize in Economics was started in (a) 1901 (b) 1936 (c) 1957 (d) 1967 Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 79. In India, the second largest in (a) Bengali (b) Urdu (c) Telugu (d) Marathi Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 80. The first Asian Games were held in (a) Manila (b) Tokyo (c) Jakarta (d) New Delhi Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 81. The Islam was established in (a) 7th A.D. (b) 5th A.D. (c) 3rd B.C. (d) 5th B.C. Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 82. The Olympic Games 2012 will be held in (a) Moscow (b) Paris (c) New York (d) London Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 83. The main factor of air pollution is (a) Lead (b) Copper (c) Zinc (d) Gold Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 84. The bauxite ore is found in (a) Musabani (b) Karnapura (c) Koderma (d) Palamu Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 85. The first fertilizer plant in India was established in (a) Trombay (b) Nangal (c) Alwaye (d) Sindri Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 86. Which of the following had strong navy? (a) Bahmani (b) Chalukya (c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 87. The last king of Maurya Dynastry was (a) Brihdarth (b) Kunal (c) Samprati (d) Salishuk Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 88. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central part of the lens is covered by black paper? (a) Remaining part of the lens will form no image (b) The central position of the image is absent (c) There will be no effect (d) The full image will be formed with lessened brightness Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 89. The force between two parallel wires conducting current is used to define (a) Ampere (b) Coulomb (c) Volt (d) Newton Category :Chennai rrb model Papers 90. A body is thrown vertically upward and it reaches 10m high. Find the velocity with which the body was thrown? (g = 9.8 m/s) (a) 10 m/sec. (b) 18 m/sec. (c) 14 m/sec. (d) 7 m/sec. Category :Chennai rrb model Papers

91. The buoyancy depends on the (a) Depth of the fluid (b) Density of the fluid (c) Volume of the fluid (d) Weight of the fluid Category :Chennai rrb model Papers

ANSWERS1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a & b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (b) Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 12:08 AM 0 comments Email This BlogThis! Share to Twitter Share to Facebook Share to Google Buzz Links to this post Labels: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, MODEL PAPERSMONDAY, OCTOBER 25, 2010

RRB GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS1. The only Indian Governor General was (A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 2. . Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ? (A) Cripps Plan (B) Wavell Plan (C) Mountbatten Plan (D) None of the above 3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ? (A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principle of State Policy (C) The Preamble (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies 4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences (A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (D) Tej Bahadur Sapru 5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against (A) Partition of Bengal (B) Press Act of 1910 (C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (D) Salt Laws 6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with (A) Defection (B) Reservation (C) Election (D) Protection of minorities 7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by (A) The Government of India Act, 1935 (B) The Cripps Mission of 1942 (C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 (D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957 8. The President of India can nominate (A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha (B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha (C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha (D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha

9. UNO has fixed the target for Education for All till the year (A) 2012 (B) 2013 (C) 2014 (D) 2015 10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in (A) The Union List (B) The State List (C) The Concurrent List (D) Residuary List 11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) West Bengal (C) Maharashtra (D) Uttar Pradesh 12. The concept of Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which countrys constitution ? (A) France (B) Britain (C) U.S.A. (D) Russia 13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at (A) 540 (B) 545 (C) 552 (D) 555 14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on (A) August 15, 1947 (B) June 30, 1948 (C) November 26, 1949 (D) January 26, 1950 15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by (A) President of India (B) Prime Minister of India (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ? (A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha (B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament (C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha (D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha 17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Finance Minister (D) Governor of Reserve Bank 18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is (A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 32 years (D) 35 years 19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ? (A) Corporation tax (B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income (C) Tax on railway fares and freights (D) Customs 20. Sikkim became a new state by (A) 30th Amendment (B) 34th Amendment (C) 35th Amendment (D) 36th Amendment 21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?

(A) Chenab (B) Satluj (C) Jhelum (D) Beas 22. Match ListI (category) with ListII (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists ListI (a) Best Feature Film (b) Best Popular Film (c) Best Children Film (d) Best Hindi Film ListII 1. Care of Footpath 2. Khosla ka Ghosla 3. Pullijaman 4. Lage Raho Munnabhai Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 3 2 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 3 2 4 1 (D) 4 2 1 3 23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ? (A) Allahabad (B) Agra (C) Ghaziabad (D) Lucknow 24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in (A) 1947 (B) 1951 (C) 1969 (D) 1992 25. Asias first human DNA Bank has been set up in (A) New Delhi (B) Hyderabad (C) Lucknow (D) Mumbai 26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of (A) Finance Ministry (B) Finance Commission (C) Reserve Bank of India (D) NABARD 27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ? (A) Agra (B) Mirzapur (C) Moradabad (D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar 28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ? (A) Bank of Baroda (B) Punjab National Bank (C) State Bank of India (D) UCO Bank 29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers (A) all children in the age group 310 (B) all children in the age group 48 (C) all children in the age group 515 (D) all children in the age group 614 30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing (A) employment to rural women folk (B) employment to urban women folk (C) employment to disabled persons (D) providing training and skills to women

31. Mixed economy means (A) existence of both small and big industries (B) existence of both private and public sectors (C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors (D) none of the above 32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ? (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ? (A) Japan (B) Denmark (C) U.S.A. (D) Switzerland 34. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists ListI (Place) (a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Muri (c) Gurgaon (d) Panki ListII (Industry) 1. Automobile 2. Shipbuilding 3. Fertiliser 4. Aluminium Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 2 4 1 3 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 2 4 3 1 35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ? (A) ICICI Bank (B) HDFC Bank (C) Indian Overseas Bank (D) UTI Bank 36. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists ListI (Mineral Production) (a) Mineral Oil (b) Gypsum (c) Gold (d) Bauxite ListII (State) 1. Orissa 2. Karnataka 3. Gujarat 4. Rajasthan Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1 37. Consider the following statements Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country. Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India. Select the correct answer from the code given below : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ? (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu 39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ? (A) Dharwar system (B) Gondwana system (C) Cudappa system (D) Vindhyan system 40. Laterite soil is found in (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Punjab (D) Maharashtra 41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Kirghiz Central Asia (B) Masai West Africa (C) Red Indians North America (D) Eskimos Greenland 42. Chilka lake is situated in (A) West Bengal (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Tamil Nadu 43. Damodar is a tributary of river (A) Ganga (B) Hugli (C) Padma (D) Suvarn Rekha 44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with (A) provision for clean drinking water (B) provision for cleaning rivers (C) promoting communal harmony (D) helping the invalids 45. National Dairy Development Board is located in (A) Anand (B) Gandhinagar (C) Vadodara (D) Valsad 46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in (A) Union List (B) State List (C) Concurrent List (D) Special List 47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Kimberley Diamond (B) Havana Meat packing (C) Milan Silk (D) Sheffield Cutlery 48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of (A) Lalitpur (B) Pilibhit (C) Lakhimpur Khiri (D) Sonbhadra 49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is (A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala (B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar (D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala 50. The major coffee producing state in India is

(A) Kerala (B) Karnataka (C) Tamil Nadu (D) West Bengal 51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ? (A) Gujarat (B) West Bengal (C) Maharashtra (D) Kerala 52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are (A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim (B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim (C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland (D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland 53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ? (A) Jamun (B) Karonda (C) Loquat (D) Guava 54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is (A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin D 55. Bauxite is an ore of (A) Aluminium (B) Boron (C) Lead (D) Silver 56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ? (A) Carbon dating (B) Germanium dating (C) Uranium dating (D) All the above 57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ? (A) Carbon monoxide (CO) (B) Carbon dioxide (CO2) (C) Nitrogen (N2) (D) Oxygen (O2) 58. Electronvolt is the unit for (A) energy (B) charge of electron (C) potential difference (D) power 59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of (A) nuclear fission (B) nuclear fusion (C) nuclear spallation (D) none of these 60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of (A) Mars (B) Venus (C) Jupiter (D) Saturn 61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is (A) Copper (B) Lead (C) Cadmium (D) Mercury 62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ? (A) Diphtheria (B) Malaria (C) Cholera

(D) Hepatitis 63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by (A) 50% (B) 100% (C) 125% (D) 225% 64. The term Siamese Twins is used for (A) twins in which there is one male and one female (B) twins in which both are females (C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam (D) twins physically attached to each other 65. Every solar eclipse takes place on (A) full moon only (B) new moon only (C) both (A) and (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B) 66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ? (A) UNO London (B) WTO Geneva (C) ILO New York (D) FAO Chicago 67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of (A) N (B) Zn (C) Cu (D) Mn 68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 50 (D) 80 69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named (A) Sadbhavna Express (B) Shanti Express (C) Maitri Express (D) Aman Express 70. Thailands Ponsana Boonsak won the mens singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated (A) Anand Pawar (B) Arvind Bhat (C) Chetan Anand (D) Zhendong Guo 71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at (A) Ahmedabad (B) Dehradun (C) Shriharikota (D) None of the above 72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was (A) Karnataka (B) West Bengal (C) Services (D) Punjab 73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ? (A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown (B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy (C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen (D) Russian President Vladimir Putin 74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in (A) Vienna (B) London (C) Paris (D) Rome

75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ? 1. Madhuri Dixit 2. Ratan Tata 3. Sachin Tendulkar 4. Viswanathan Anand Select the correct answer from the code given below (A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (C) 3, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4 76. March 24 (2008) was observed as (A) World AIDS Day (B) World Disabled Day (C) World Environment Day (D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day 77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly matched ? (A) Alamgirpur Uttar Pradesh (B) Banawali Haryana (C) Diamabad Maharashtra (D) Rakhigarhi Rajasthan 78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of (A) Bimbisara (B) Chanda Pradyota (C) Prasenajeta (D) Udayana 79. After Presidents signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ? 1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur 2. Assam 3. Nagaland 4. Jharkhand Select the correct answer from the code given below (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was (A) Dinara Safina (B) Ana Ivanovic (C) Jelena Jankovic (D) Svetlana Kuznetsova 81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ? (A) Aryabhatta (B) Brahmagupta (C) Varahamihira (D) None of the above 82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ? (A) 57 years (B) 78 years (C) 135 years (D) 320 years 83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ? 1. Mahapadma Nanda 2. Chandragupta Maurya 3. Ashoka 4. Rudradaman Select the correct answer from the code given below (A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (C) 3, 4

(D) 2, 3, 4 84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of (A) Cyrene (B) Egypt (C) Macedonia (D) Syria 85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ? (A) Maurya (B) Sunga (C) Satavahana (D) Kushana 86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ? (A) Konkani (B) Malayalam (C) Tamil (D) Telugu 87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by (A) MohammadbinTughlaq (B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi (D) Sikandar Lodi 88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by (A) Alauddin Khalji (B) Balban (C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (D) Iltutmish 89. . Who were the Nayanars ? (A) Saivites (B) Saktas (C) Vaishnavites (D) Sun worshippers 90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ? (A) Dasratha (B) Brihadratha (C) Kharavela (D) Huvishka 91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ? (A) Farrukhsiyar (B) Shah AlamI (C) Shah AlamII (D) Shujaud Daula 92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of (A) Lord Minto (B) Lord Hardinge (C) Lord Chelmsford (D) Lord Reading 93. The Durand line demarcated Indias border with (A) Afghanistan (B) Burma (C) Nepal (D) Tibet 94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ? (A) 16 : 1 (B) 32 : 1 (C) 40 : 1 (D) 64 : 1 95. Arrange the following events of Akbars reign in a chronological order : 1. Abolition of Jazia 2. Construction of Ibadatkhana 3. Signing of Mahzar 4. Foundation of DiniIlahi Select the correct answer from the code given below

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1 (C) 1, 3, 2, 4 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2 96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ? (A) Abbas Tyabji (B) Abul Kalam Azad (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Vallabhbhai Patel 97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ? (A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi (B) Mukundi Lal (C) Chandra Shekhar Azad (D) Manmath Nath Gupta 98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to Hindustan Socialist Republic Association ? (A) Ras Behari Bose (B) Batukeshwar Datt (C) Sardar Bhagat Singh (D) Chandra Shekhar Azad 99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ? (A) Ramprasad Bismil (B) Rajendra Lahiri (C) Roshan Singh (D) Ashfaqullah Khan 100.Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first womens university in Bombay ? (A) Dayaram Gidumal (B) D. K. Karve (C) Ramabai (D) Mahadev Govind Ranade

ANSWERS:1. (A) 41. (B) 81. (A) 2. (C) 42. (C) 82. (C) 3. (D) 43. (B) 83. (D) 4. (A) 44. (D) 84. (B) 5. (C) 45. (A) 85. (A) 6. (A) 46. (C) 86. (D) 7. (D) 47. (C) 87. (B) 8. (D) 48. (C) 88. (C) 9. (D) 49. (B) 89. (A) 10. (C) 50. (B) 90. (C) 11. (D) 51. (C) 91. (C) 12. (C) 52. (C) 92. (B) 13. (C) 53. (A) 93. (A) 14. (C) 54. (C) 94. (C) 15. (C) 55. (A) 95. (A) 16. (D) 56. (C) 96. (A) 17. (B) 57. (A) 97. (A) 18. (B) 58. (A) 98. (C) 19. (B) 59. (A) 99. (A) 20. (C) 60. (D) 100.(B) 21. (A) 61. (B) 22. (B) 62. (D) 23. (C) 63. (D) 24. (C) 64. (D) 25. (C) 65. (B) 26. (B) 66. (B) 27. (D) 67. (B) 28. (C) 68. (B) 29. (D) 69. (C)

30. (D) 70. (C) 31. (B) 71. (D) 32. (C) 72. (D) 33. (A) 73. (B) 34. (B) 74. (A) 35. (C) 75. (B) 36. (D) 76. (D) 37. (C) 77. (D) 38. (A) 78. (A) 39. (B) 79. (D) 40. (D) 80. (B) Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 11:57 PM