Research Subject Quiz

Chapter 07 - Measurement

Chapter 07 Measurement Answer Key

Importance and Use of Measures; Key Concepts

True / False Questions

1. Measures are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects that are of concern to us. TRUE

2. When developing measures, it is a good idea to give each rater some license to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation. FALSE

3. To achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same for all applicants. TRUE

4. Scoring keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been administered. FALSE

5. Most staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio scale. FALSE

6. A rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the job is an example of an ordinal scale. TRUE

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7. Research shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective means, there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two types of measures. TRUE

8. The standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a scale. FALSE

9. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the median. FALSE

10. Standard scores are also useful for determining how a person performed, in a relative sense, on two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing across several tests. TRUE

11. If an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance test, this indicates this person's score is twice as high as the average test score. FALSE

12. A correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to +1. FALSE

13. A correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the other. TRUE

14. A standard level for statistical significance is p<.50. FALSE

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15. With very large samples, it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be statistically significant. TRUE

16. Measurement standardization applies to measurement content, not the administration of measurements. FALSE

17. When numbers are assigned by category, this reflects an ordinal scale of measurement. FALSE

18. If scores are classified as "low", "medium", and high", the scale of measurement is nominal. FALSE

19. Human body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of measure. TRUE

20. Numerical employment interview ratings represent objective measures. FALSE

21. Performance appraisal ratings are subjective measures. TRUE

22. The research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and objective measures of performance. FALSE

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23. A correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally low association or relationship between the two sets. FALSE

24. If the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90, this means that the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety percent. FALSE

25. A correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there is a perfect linear relationship between these two variables. TRUE

26. The correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another variable. TRUE

27. While correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between variables, it is generally not used as a tool for prediction. FALSE

Multiple Choice Questions

28. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concernB. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicantsC. using the measure to gauge the attributeD. constructing a measure of the attribute

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29. The process of ensuring that all test takers receive the same tests in the same context, as a way to eliminate extraneous influences on test performance is called ____________________. A. standardizationB. optimizationC. rationalizationD. inflation

30. Which of the following statements about measurement is not correct? A. It assigns numbers to objects.B. It is based on rules determined in advance.C. It measures the object not the attribute.D. It measures constructs.

31. A nominal scale of measurement has ________. A. rank orderB. an absolute true zero pointC. classification by categoriesD. equal differences between points on a scale of measurement

32. A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess. A. nominalB. ordinalC. intervalD. ratio

33. A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess, with equal space between objects. A. nominalB. ordinalC. intervalD. ratio

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34. A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories. A. nominalB. ordinalC. intervalD. ratio

35. Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) _______. A. ratio scaleB. ordinal scaleC. interval scaleD. none of the above

36. Length in inches is an example of a(n) _________. A. ratio scaleB. nominal scaleC. ordinal scaleD. interval scale

37. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______. A. meanB. medianC. standard deviationD. mode

38. The variability of a measure is best captured by the _____________. A. mean and standard deviationB. range and standard deviationC. range and medianD. mode and mean

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39. The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ____________. A. practical significanceB. likelihood ratioC. functional statisticD. statistical significance

40. Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood? A. r = .30B. p < .05C. r > .10D. all of the above

41. A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______. A. achieved a score 3 points higher than the average scoreB. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean scoreC. had a score 3 percent higher than the average scoreD. had a score plus or minus 3 points relative to the mean score

42. The correlation coefficient expresses _________. A. causalityB. varianceC. strength of the relationship between two variablesD. the range between two variables

43. A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of _________. A. .50B. 1.00C. -1.00D. zero

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44. The larger the correlation coefficient, _________. A. the greater the practical significanceB. the smaller its practical significanceC. the larger its rangeD. the smaller its statistical significance

45. The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the __________. A. z scoreB. standard deviationC. squared correlation coefficientD. the t test

46. Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such relationship? A. .10B. .50C. .01D. .05

Quality of Measures


47. In staffing the scores of individuals are treated as if they were the attribute itself, rather than merely indicators of the attribute. TRUE

48. The consistency of measurement of an attribute refers to its validity. FALSE

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49. Perfect reliability is virtually impossible to achieve because of the presence of measurement error. TRUE

50. Calculation of the test-retest reliability of scores between time periods is done for objective measures, not subjective measures. TRUE

51. Comparing scores of objective measures within the same time period is a measure of internal consistency. TRUE

52. If all the members of a panel interview reach the same conclusion regarding a person who is being interviewed, it could be said that the interview ratings are reliable. TRUE

53. Even when measurement error is present, true scores can be measured with perfect precision. FALSE

54. Error caused by failing to measure a key aspect of the attribute of interest (i.e., the attribute we wish to measure), is known as contamination error. FALSE

55. Asking different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings between these same job applicants is an example of contamination error. TRUE

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56. If an attribute of job performance is "planning and setting work priorities," and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during their performance appraisal, then the performance measure is contaminated. FALSE

57. A measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having adequate reliability. FALSE

58. The standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given measure. TRUE

59. Reliability sets the lower limit on validity. FALSE

60. The extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant's knowledge is a measure of the test's validity. TRUE

61. Measuring the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of current employees involves a predictive validity design. FALSE

62. Criterion measures are not used in the calculation of content validity. TRUE

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63. Even if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related validation studies are not controlled for statistically, it is still probable that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to another. FALSE

64. Organizations that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that govern their use. TRUE

65. The process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of criterion measures. FALSE

66. The assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than the assessment of predictive validity. TRUE

67. One guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be routinely subjected to content validation. TRUE


68. Reliability of measurement is defined as __________. A. frequency of measurementB. magnitude of measurementC. accuracy of measurementD. consistency of measurement

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69. Which of the following is a true statement? A. true score divided by error equals actual scoreB. actual score equals true score plus errorC. actual score plus error equals true scoreD. true score equals variance plus error

70. Coefficient alpha assesses ____________. A. reliability within a single time periodB. reliability between time periodsC. reliability between samplesD. test-retest reliabilityE. A and B are correct

71. Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____ reliability. A. maximal asymptoticB. internal consistencyC. test-retestD. interrater

72. Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability. A. intraraterB. fixed-pointC. test-retestD. interrater

73. Reliability of a measure places ________. A. no limit on the validity of a measureB. a lower limit on the validity of a measureC. an average limit on the validity of a measureD. an upper limit on the validity of a measure

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74. Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to _________. A. measure some portion of the attribute of interestB. adequately define the attribute of interestC. construct a proper measure of the totality of the attributeD. calculate the standard deviation

75. Contamination error _________. A. is easy to minimize and controlB. is the same as deficiency errorC. represents unwanted sources of influence on a measureD. shows a lack of an acceptable coefficient alpha

76. Which of the following is an example of contamination error? A. irrelevant material on the testB. guessing by the test takerC. different time limits for the same testD. all of the above

77. The standard error of measurement allows ________. A. calculation of confidence intervals for true scoresB. estimates of content validityC. calculation of confidence intervals for actual scoresD. calculation of confidence intervals for error

78. Validity of a measure is best defined as ________. A. the upper limit of reliabilityB. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measureC. the lower limit of reliabilityD. the consistency of measurement

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79. Which of the following is a type of validity? A. test-retestB. coefficient alphaC. criterionD. parallel forms

80. When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if __________. A. the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significanceB. the correlation coefficient has statistical significance aloneC. the correlation coefficient is insignificantD. the correlation coefficient has practical significance alone

81. Content validation is most appropriate when ____________. A. reliability is too highB. sample size is largeC. criterion measures are readily availableD. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation

82. The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ___. A. correlation coefficients are negativeB. the standard error of measurement is largeC. differences in method and statistical differences are controlledD. reliability is low

83. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concernB. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicantsC. using the measure to gauge the attributeD. constructing a measure of the attribute

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Legal Issues


84. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly different from each other. TRUE

85. According to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP), comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70% rule. FALSE

86. When assessing adverse impact, the law prohibits taking sample size into account. FALSE

87. Investigation of applicant stock statistics is also known as "utilization analysis." TRUE

88. Adverse impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true adverse impact occurring in an organization. FALSE

89. The use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact occurring. FALSE

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90. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a selection procedure shows adverse impact, the organization must either eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity evidence. TRUE


91. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________. A. every disability category currently assessedB. each job categoryC. the population at largeD. all of the above

92. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________. A. selection rates for the groups under analysisB. interview rates for the groups under analysisC. rejection rates for the groups under analysisD. range scores for the groups under analysis

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93. Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for _________. A. unemployed workersB. measures of content validityC. availability in the populationD. the reliability of a measure

Chapter 08 External Selection I Answer Key

Preliminary Issues


1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants. TRUE

2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods. FALSE

3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles. TRUE

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4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants. TRUE

5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job. FALSE

6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job. TRUE

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7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study. FALSE

8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits. FALSE

9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment. FALSE

10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test. TRUE


11. Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that: A. indicators of an applicant's future performance are predictive of likely job performanceB. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job successC. predictors of job performance are correlated with KSAOsD. indicators of job outcomes can be used to predict job performance

12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees? A. the organization has adopted a thorough competency modeling approachB. qualifications carry over from one job to anotherC. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiencesD. anonymous periodic reviews of applicant files to ensure accuracy

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13. If the correctness of a response is essential for a job, then a(n) ________ test should be used. A. essayB. speedC. powerD. objective

14. Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills. A. oral communicationB. written communicationC. interpersonalD. none of the above

15. The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ______________. A. a selection plan determines the means for attracting qualified job applicantsB. a selection plan matches applicants to outcome criteriaC. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the jobD. a selection plan consists of interview rating criteria

16. The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________. A. reliabilityB. validityC. utilityD. instrumentality

17. Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity. A. moderate to lowB. high to very highC. moderately high to highD. moderate

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18. Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false? A. The list of KSAOs used in the selection plan are derived from the job requirements matrixB. The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quicklyC. One reason KSAOs may be deemed unimportant for selection is because they will be learned on the jobD. Possible methods for assessing every identified job-relevant KSAO need to be developed

Initial Assessment Methods


19. A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying. TRUE

20. Although employers can outsource résumé collection to résumé-tracking services, in practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost. FALSE

21. Résumé scanning software tends to look for nouns more than action verbs. TRUE

22. Video résumés have become a major component of selection in most large organizations. FALSE

23. To protect an employer from charges of unfair discrimination, it is best to only include information related to KSAOs demonstrated as important to the job on an application blank. TRUE

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24. Research has found that level of education is moderately related to job performance. FALSE

25. College grades are more valid predictors of job performance than high school grades. FALSE

26. Research suggests that the quality of the school a person graduates from makes a difference in the labor market. TRUE

27. Occupational certifications are nearly all regulated by the Department of Labor to ensure that they accurately reflect job knowledge. FALSE

28. Occupational certification helps guard against the misuse of job titles in human resource selection. TRUE

29. Scored evaluations of unweighted application blanks are good predictors of job performance. FALSE

30. The validity evidence for weighted application blanks is better than that for unweighted application blanks. TRUE

31. Most organizations use only weighted application blanks for initial screening decisions. FALSE

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32. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata in selection processes is the axiom, "the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior." TRUE

33. Biodata refers to medical or physiological tests of applicants prior to hiring. FALSE

34. Biodata is like a background check in many ways, but background checks tend to focus on external references rather than applicant surveys. TRUE

35. Biodata items are generally the same, regardless of the job being staffed. FALSE

36. Research suggests that biodata does not provide incremental validity over personality and cognitive ability. FALSE

37. Research on the reliability and validity of biodata has been quite positive. TRUE

38. Biographical information tends to have low reliability. FALSE

39. Research shows that applicants have a favorable attitude toward biodata inventories. FALSE

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40. Letters of recommendation are an excellent way to help organizations separate highly qualified from moderately qualified applicants. FALSE

41. One study that showed there was a stronger correlation between two letters written by one person for two different applicants than between two different people writing letters for the same person. TRUE

42. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's former colleagues who worked in the same position. FALSE

43. Many organizations are reluctant to give out detailed reference information regarding their former employees because they are afraid of being sued. TRUE

44. Surveys suggest that only 3 out of 10 organizations conduct reference checks. FALSE

45. The proportion of organizations that conduct pre-hire background checks to determine if employees have criminal records or inaccurate reporting on résumés, has risen dramatically in recent years. TRUE

46. Genetic screening is becoming a valuable component of many organizations' selection systems. FALSE

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47. The purpose of the initial interview is to screen out the most obvious cases of person/job mismatches. TRUE

48. The initial interview is the least expensive method of initial assessment. FALSE

49. Initial interviews can be made more useful by asking the same questions of all job applicants. TRUE

50. Most initial assessment methods have moderate to low validity. TRUE

51. The most frequently used methods of initial assessment are education level, training and experience, reference checks, and initial interview. TRUE

52. Level of education requirements have little adverse impact against minority applicants. TRUE


53. Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods? A. Résumés and cover lettersB. Application blanksC. Biographical informationD. All of the above

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54. Which of the following are common sources of résumé fraud? A. inflated titlesB. inflated education or "purchased" degreesC. inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemploymentD. all of the above

55. Which of the following statements regarding résumés is true? A. Even background checks cannot reduce the problem of résumé fraudB. Most surveys suggest that around half of all résumés have substantial inaccuracies or distortionsC. Video résumés are highly respected by most employersD. Extensive evidence suggests that résumés are highly accurate predictors of employee job performance

56. In using educational level as an initial selection criterion, which of the following statements is false? A. The degree received from an institution is not sufficient as a sole indicator of an applicant's level of education.B. A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance.C. Educational level is a predictor of job performance.D. High-level degrees from non-accredited schools may be indicators of lesser accomplishment than lower-level degrees from accredited schools.

57. Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true? A. GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.B. GPAs in one's major tend to be highly similar to one's GPAs in other classes.C. Grades do not vary widely by field.D. GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.

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58. When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor, one should _________. A. use extracurricular activities whenever possibleB. de-emphasize the use of extracurricular activitiesC. use extracurricular activities mainly for selection of managerial personnelD. use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job

59. Asking applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their most significant accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known as the _______. A. behavioral consistency methodB. experiential summary methodC. biodata approachD. none of the above

60. The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are _________. A. 1.00B. .80C. .20D. .60E. .40

61. Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted include _________. A. previous employersB. reasons for leaving previous jobsC. previous positions heldD. all of the above are true

62. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom, ________. A. The best predictor of future behavior is motivation levelB. The best predictor of future behavior is KSAOsC. The best predictor of future behavior is education levelD. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior

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63. Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests? A. Background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references.B. They are two different names for the same thing.C. Only background tests look into an applicant's past.D. Biodata is used primarily when screening applicants for positions in which integrity and emotional adjustment are necessary.

64. Biographical information is like application blanks, except _______. A. biographical information is based on history, but application blanks are based on current eventsB. application blanks are more likely to be used for substantive selection decisionsC. biographical data is more likely to be accepted by applicantsD. biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions

65. Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified? A. historical vs. nonverifiableB. invasive vs. firsthandC. objective vs. subjectiveD. equal access vs. easy access

66. The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these, and the format is unstandardized. A. certificationsB. biodata formsC. letters of recommendationD. MBAs

67. The information collected for an accomplishments record includes ______. A. a written statement of the accomplishmentB. when the accomplishment took placeC. any recognition for the accomplishmentD. all of the above

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68. Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance? A. Initial interviewsB. Handwriting analysisC. BiodataD. Unweighted application blanks

69. Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata inventories. A. very positiveB. negativeC. positiveD. neutral

70. One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they _________. A. are too lengthy to be usefulB. are not structured or standardizedC. are too ambiguous to interpretD. all of the above are correct

71. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's __________. A. former coworkersB. HR department at his/her former employerC. former supervisorD. friends

72. Background testing is concerned with the __________ of an applicant. A. integrityB. reliabilityC. personal adjustmentsD. all of the above

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73. One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is ______. A. expensiveB. not related to job performanceC. easy to fakeD. inefficient

74. Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening? A. It helps to screen out people who will perform poorly on the job.B. It is used widely by companies in the U.S.C. It helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases.D. A recent court decision has ruled that it is allowable under the Americans with Disabilities Act.

75. One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to ____. A. ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOsB. make them long and rigorousC. ask each applicant different questionsD. A and B are correct

76. The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called ______. A. validityB. reliabilityC. variabilityD. central tendency

77. An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is ________. A. biographical informationB. initial interviewsC. application blanksD. resumes

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78. _________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be rejected using this predictor. A. Low reliabilityB. Adverse impactC. UtilityD. Habeas corpus

Legal Issues


79. Disclaimers are used as a means of protecting employer rights. TRUE

80. Employers are advised to let applicants know in advance that they reserve the right to not hire, terminate, or discipline prospective employee for providing false information during the selection process. TRUE

81. Failure to conduct a reference check opens an organization to the possibility of a negligent hiring suit. TRUE

82. The laws in most states provide employers with little protection if they provide any information in a reference check that might damage an applicant's chances of getting a job. FALSE

83. Although arrest information may be gathered in the process of doing a background check, it cannot be used in staffing decisions. TRUE

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84. It is illegal to use pre-employment inquiry information that has a disparate impact on the basis of a protected characteristic, unless such disparate impact can be shown to be job-related and consistent with business necessity. TRUE

85. Bona fide occupational qualifications are not of relevance to the initial assessment phase. FALSE

86. Bona fide occupational qualification claims made on the basis of customer preferences are typically upheld by the courts. FALSE

87. Adverse impact refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protect class members may be rejected using a given predictor. TRUE

88. The Americans with Disabilities Act states that employers may not ask disability-related questions and may not conduct medical examinations until after it makes a conditional job offer to a person. TRUE

89. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act explicitly permits discrimination on the basis of sex, religion, or national origin if it can be shown to be a bona fide occupational qualification. TRUE

90. The burden of proof is on employers to defend BFOQ claims. TRUE

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91. A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a ____. A. providential statementB. disclaimerC. waiverD. requisition

92. Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women and/or minorities include ______. A. education levelB. quality of schoolC. training and experienceD. all of the above are correct

93. Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of _______. A. labor contractsB. employment clausesC. disclaimersD. discharge policies

94. Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)? A. They have little potential for being used for discriminatory purposes in the assessment process.B. Organizations rarely make inappropriate and illegal PIs.C. It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs.D. The emphasis in PIs is on the illegal collection of information.

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95. Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes? A. Americans with Disadvantaged Access ActB. Fair Credit Reporting ActC. Personnel Reporting Statue of 1977D. National Labor Rights Act

96. According to ADA, it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the pre-offer stage of assessment process? A. Ask if the applicant has any disabilities.B. Ask the applicant if he/she can perform the job, with or without reasonable accommodation.C. Ask the applicant to demonstrate how they could perform the job.D. None of the above are permissible.

97. Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use? A. One sex has an inability to perform the work.B. Personal contact with others requires same sex.C. Customers have a preference for dealing with one sex.D. All of the above are potential justifications.

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Research Subject Quiz

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