Repco Model Papers

8/10/2019 Repco Model Papers

1/30

Model PaperModel Paper

REASONING

1. In a certain code 'TODAY' is written as 'OADTY'. How will 'EARLY' be written

in that code?

1) ALERY 2) ALYRE 3) EARLY

4) YLRAE 5) None

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'PASCAL' each of which has

as many letters between them in the word as there between them in the English

alphabet?

1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) Four

3. Four of the following five are a like in a certain way and so form a group. Which

is the one that does not belong to that group?

1) AORD 2) DRAO 3) ARDO

4) DRBO 5) ODAR

4. Pointing to a man in the photograph Gourav said, "His daughter's mother is the

sister of my wife's son". How is man related to Gourav?

1) Son 2) Cousin 3) Father

4) Son - in - law 5) None

5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, third, seventh and

eleventh letters of the word PRODUCTIONS, which of the following will be the

third letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give 'x' as the

answer and if no such word can be formed, give 'y' as the answer.

1) O 2) S 3) X 4) Y 5) None

6. If AB means A is father of B, A@B means A is mother of B, A+B means A issister of B then how is P related to Q in P@R+SQ?

1) Aunt 2) Cousin 3) Grandmother

4) Sister 5) None

Clerk Model Paper


2/30

7. If the letters of the word CABINET are rearranged as they appear in the English

alphabet. The position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the

rearrangement?

1) One 2) Two 3) Four

4) Three 5) None

8. If the position of the first and the fifth digits in the number 24573168 are

interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth are interchanged

and so on. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after

the rearrangement?

1) 1 2) 5 3) 4 4) 2 5) None

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Whichis the one that does not belong to that group?

1) 49 2) 169 3) 153 4) 361 5) 625

10. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TSFI using

each letter only once in each word?

1) Zero 2) Two 3) Three

4) Five 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 11-

15): In the following questions the symbols , $, %,

@, and are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

P @ Q means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.

P $ Q means 'P is not smaller than Q'.

P Q means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.

P Q means 'P is not greater than Q'.

P % Q means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.

Now in each of the following question assuming the given statements to be true.

Find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true?

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II true.Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.


3/30

11. Statements: M $ T, T @ Q, Q % N

Conclusions: I) M % Q II) T @ N

12. Statements: W T, D @ T, D@ R

Conclusions: I) D @ W II) R % W13. Statements: B E, E S, S % Y

Conclusions: I) S % B II) S B

14. Statements: V D, D % Y, Y $ W

Conclusions: I) D % W II) V Y

15. Statements: P Q, Q @ W, W T

Conclusions: I) W % P II) T % Q

Directions (Q. 16-

20): Answer the questions given below referring to

the following arrangement.

R @ Q W P L 2 I N 7 O C @ 5 K D = M $ B 6 < Q A4Y % B 9 M W

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regards their position in

the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong

to that group?

1) W L Q 2) 5 D C 3) I 7 4) 6 Q $ 5) 4 % Q17. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based

on the above arrangement?

QWP 2IN O@5 (?)

1) 5 D = 2) K D = 3) K M =

4) DM$ 5) K = M

18. In the above series all the symbols are droped. Which will be the fourth to the left

of sixth from the left end?

1) @ 2) Q 3) 4) P 5) M

19. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a symbol?

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four

20. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?

1) None 2) Five 3) Three 4) Two 5) One


4/30

Directions (Q. 21 - 25): In each of the question below are given three

statements followed by two conclusions numbered I & II. You have to

consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at

variance from commonly known facts. Read both conclusions and

decide which of the conclusions follows from the statements

disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and II follow.21. Statements: All buildings are wires.

No wire is black.

No black is red.

Conclusions: I) No black is building.

II) Some red are wire.

22. Statements: Some bananas are apples.Some apples are mangoes.

Some mangoes are oranges.

Conclusions: I) Some bananas are oranges.

II) No orange is banana.

23. Statements: All flowers are birds.

Some birds are gold.

No gold is cost.

Conclusions: I) Some flowers are gold.

II) Some cost are not birds.

24. Statements: Some computers are machines.

All machines are papers.

All papers are books.

Conclusions: I) Some books are computers.

II) Some books are machines.


5/30

25. Statement: All questions are answers.

Some answers are solutions.

Some solutions are equations.

Conclusions: I) Some equations are questions.II) Some solutions are questions.

Directions (Q. 26 - 30): Study the following data carefully and answer

the given questions. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting

around a circle facing the centre. A is not the neighbour of E, C is third

right of B, H is second left of E who is next right of C, F is not the

neighbour of E or B and is to the immediate left of G.

26. Who is immediate left of F?

1) G 2) C 3) H 4) A 5) None

27. Which of the following pair of persons represent F's neighbours?

1) C & E 2) G & B 3) D & G

4) E & G 5) None

28. Which of the following group has the first person sitting between the other two

persons?

1) GBA 2) AHC 3) HEC

4) CDE 5) None

29. Who is to the immediate right of B?

1) G 2) A 3) F 4) H 5) None

30. Which of the following is the correct position of C?

1) To the immediate right of E 2) To the immediate right of H

3) To the immediate left of A 4) To the immediate left of H

5) None

Directions (Q .31 -35): Study the following information carefully and

answer the questions given below.

Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a square table in such a

way that two persons sit on each of the four sides of the table facing centre. Persons

sitting on opposite sides are exactly opposite to each other.


6/30

N and K are exactly opposite to each other. O is immediate right of K. J and Q are

sitting on the same side. Q is exactly opposite to L who is the immediate left of M. J

is towards right of O.

31. Who is sitting opposite to J?

1) N 2) M 3) L 4) K 5) None

32. Who is next to M in anticlockwise direction?

1) L 2) N 3) O 4) K 5) None

33. Which of the following persons are sitting on the same side?

1) K & J 2) M & N 3) O & P 4) J & Q 5) None

34. Who is sitting opposite to P?

1) O 2) K 3) J 4) M 5) None

35. How many persons are sitting between K and Q in clockwise direction?

1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1 5) None

Directions (Q. 36 -40): Each question given below has a problem and

two statements numbered I and II giving certain information. You have

to decide if the information given in the statement is sufficient for

answering. The problem indicate your answer as

1) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but II alone

is not sufficient.

2) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, but I alone

is not sufficient.

3) If the data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4) If the data given in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the

question.

5) If the data in both the statements together are needed.

36. How many persons are there between C and D?

I) D got 15th rank from the bottom in a class of 25 students.

II) C is exactly in the middle of that 25 students.

37. Is A is brother of B?

I) B is sister of A who is mother of D.II) D is father of A who is brother of C.


7/30

38. How is 'long' written in a code language?

I) "future is long" written as "ka pa ra".

II) "my future good" written as "ra la ma".

39. How many daughter's does D have?I) B and F are brothers of H.

II) D is father of H.

40. How is C related to D?

I) A is father of B, and son of C.

II) C is mother of B who is father of D.

ENGLISH LANGUAGEENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q. 41 -52): Read the following passage carefully and answer

the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases are printed in bold

to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The King of Kanchi set off to conquer Karnat. He was victorious in battle. The

elephants were laden with sandalwood, ivory, gold and precious stones taken from the

conquered kingdom of Karnat. They would be a part of the victory parade for his

subjects. On his way back home he stopped at a temple, finished his prayers to thegoddess and turned to leave. Around his neck was a garland of scarlet hibiscus and as

was the custom for all, his forehead was anointed with red sandal paste. His Minister

and the court jester were his only companions. At one spot, in a mango grove by the

wayside, they spied some children play. The King said, "Let me go and see what they

are playing."

The children had lined up two rows of clay dolls and were playing warriors and

battles; The King asked, "Who is fighting whom?" They said, "Karnat is at battle with

Kanchi." The King asked, "Who is winning and who is the loser?" The children puffed

their chests up and said, "Karnat will win and Kanchi will lose." The Minister froze

in disbelief, the King was furious and the jester burst into laughter.

The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were still immersed in

their game. The King commanded, "Cane them hard." The children's parents came

running from the nearby village and said, "They are naive, it was just a game, please

grant them pardon." The King called his commander and ordered, "Teach these

children and the village a lesson so that they never forget the King of Kanchi.


8/30

" He went back to his camp. That evening the Commander stood before the King.

He bowed low in shame and said, "Your Majesty, with the exception of hyenas and

vultures, all lie silent in the village," The Minister said, "His Majesty's honour has

been saved." The priest said, "The goddess has blessed our King." The jester said,

"Your Highness, please grant me leave to go now." The King asked, "But why?"

The jester said, "I cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at God's gift of life."

Trembling in the face of the King's anger he bravely continued, "If I stay in your

Majesty's court, I shall become like you and I shall forget how to laugh."

41. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables?

1) This was what the King had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers

as a reward.

2) This was the King's offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him vic-

torious.

3) It was what the King had plundered from Karnat to display to the people of his

kingdom as a sign of victory.

4) So that the people of the Kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new

ruler.5) None

42. Why did the King anoint his head with red sandal paste?

1) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious.

2) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple.

3) To show other devotees that he was King.

4) The priest requested him to do so.5) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple.

43. What excuse was given for the children's behaviour?

1) They were disobedient to their parent's wishes.

2) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle.

3) They were upset that their army had lost.

4) They were in the habit of lying.

5) None


9/30

44. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

1) The King stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered.

2) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great

respect for the King.

3) The Commander was ashamed at having obeyed the King's orders to cane the

children.

4) The jester was unhappy that the King had defeated the army of Karnat.

5) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the

temple.

45. Why did the jester resign from his post?

1) He felt that the King was too influenced by the Minister.

2) To show that he disapproved of the King's action of punishing the children.

3) He did not want to accompany the King on his war campaign.

4) He was no longer able to make the King laugh.

5) None

46. Which of the following describes the Minister?

(i) He was jealous of the jester.(ii) He was the King's most valuable advisor.

(iii) He did not have a good sense of humour.

1) Only i 2) Only iii 3) Both i and iii

4) Both i and ii 5) None

47. Why was the King angry with the children?

1) Because the game they were playing was dangerous.

2) They had lied to him.

3) They did not recognize him asking.

4) They had unknowingly insulted him.

5) They were rude to him.

Directions (Q. 48 - 50): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME

in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. FROZE

1) cold 2) numb 3) shivered 4) stood still 5) chill


10/30

49. LEAVE

1) holiday 2) transfer 3) exit 4) permission 5) farewell

50. SPIED

1) noticed 2) keep watch 3) followed4) spot 5) caught

Directions (Q. 51 -52): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in

meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. IMMERSED IN

1) safe from 2) distracted from

3) boring 4) drowning in 5) entertained by

52. PARDON

1) punishment 2) excuse 3) convict

4) intolerance 5) imprison

Directions (Q. 53 - 57): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given

below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence

to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? If the

sentence is correct as it is and 'No correction is required', mark 5) asthe answer.

53. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.

1) is dependable 2) depends on

3) being dependent 4) going to depend

5) No correction required

54. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.

1) was fearful of 2) was feared to

3) was afraid to 4) had been afraid to


55. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all

participants.

1) any of the place convenient 2) at places convenient

3) from a place of convenience 4) to a place convenient



11/30

56. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates.

1) sharper rise of 2) as sharp a rise 3) sharp rises in

4) sharply rising 5) No correction required

57. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.1) were required to submit 2) required for submission

3) are required to submit 4) requirement of submitting


Directions (Q. 58 - 62): Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C,

D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph;

then answer the questions given below them.

A. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the ques-

tions till I came to the last one. What is the name of the lady who cleans your

floor?

B. 'Yes', he replied. "In your career you will meet many people all of whom are

significant even if all you do is to greet them."

C. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her

name?

D. During my internship we were given a quiz' to see how much we had learnt.

E. I have never forgotten this lesson.

F. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if

it would count for assessment.

58. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

59. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

1) B 2) C 3) D 4) F 5) E

60. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

61. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

62. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E


12/30

Directions (Q.63 - 67): In each sentence below four words have been

printed in bold which are lettered 1), 2), 3) and 4). One of these words

may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.

Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that

word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are

appropriate the answer is 5), i.e. 'All correct'.

63. My gole (1)/ is to acquire (2)/ a position (3)/ of authority and respect within the

organization. (4)/ All correct.(5)

64. The refusal (1)/ of the Ministry to clear pending (2)/ dues is a course (3)/ for

concern. (4)/ All correct. (5)

65. He was convinced (1)/ that discipline (2)/ and hard work would result (3)/ individents in the long run. (4)/ All correct.(5)

66. This is a company which believes (1)/ in transparency (2)/ and appointment is

done strictly (3)/ on merit. (4)/ All correct. (5)

67. There will be a decline (1)/ in the probability (2)/ of oil companies because of the

hike (3)/ in oil prices. (4)/ All correct.(5)

Directions (Q.68 - 73): Read each sentence to find out whether there is

any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of thesentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the

answer is 5) i.e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

68. The revised government's (1)/ guidelines have reduced (2)/ the number of

mergers (3)/ taking place among banks. (4)/ No error. (5)

69. I do not know (1)/ who of the (2)/ new trainees should (3)/ be confirmed. (4)/

No error. (5)

70. To promote India as (1)/ a tourist destination (2)/ the government has organized

(3)/ many cultural programmes. (4)/ No error. (5)

71. Banks in India (1)/ cannot open ATMs (2)/ except obtaining (3)/ approval from

RBI. (4)/ No error. (5)

72. Today the success of (1)/ companies depends on the (2)/ quality of their products

and (3)/ efficient managing staff. (4)/ No error. (5)

73. Ashok has managed to (1)/ achieve his sales targets (2)/ for the quarter very

easily (3)/ than we expected. (4)/ No error. (5)


13/30

Directions (Q. 74 - 80): In the following passage there are blanks, each

of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the

passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits

the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all

rolled into one. As a leader, he ....(74).... the company's growth plan in a dedicated

manner and he never ....(75).... focus. The cement industry in those days was doing

badly. ...(76)....to everyone's expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in

....(77).... time. He was ....(78).... that since the cement industry was cyclic in nature,

by the time the plant was ....(79).... the market would have improved. It did happen

and the decision brought rich ....(80).... when the plant was commissioned.

74. 1) achieved 2) implemented 3) visualised

4) persevered 5) aimed

75. 1) moved 2) shifts 3) missed 4) changes 5) lost

76. 1) Contrary 2) Opposite 3) Yet

4) Obedient 5) Different

77. 1) any 2) mean 3) short 4) no 5) less

78. 1) known 2) calculating 3) certain

4) dreamt 5) surely

79. 1) operational 2) install 3) use

4) produced 5) new

80. 1) supply 2) diversity 3) rewards

4) pay 5) knowledge

NUMERICAL ABILITY

Directions (Q. 81 -90): What should come in place of question mark (?)

in the following questions?

81. 986.23 + 7.952 + 8176.158 = ?

1) 9170.340 2) 9169.230 3) 9241.908

4) 9170.762 5) None


14/30

82. 916.28 72.4 = 728.2 + ?

1) 115.86 2) 125.68 3) 215.68

4) 216.04 5) None

1 3 9 583. ( ) = ?2 4 2 85 15 5 12

1) 2) 3) 4) 5) None96 8 108 5

3 8 + 484. = ?

9 15 9

16 2 4 3

1)

2)

3)

4)

5) None9 3 9 2

4 2 + 685. = ?

5 16 2

16 1 161) 5 2) 3) 4) 5) None

35 5 39

86. ? of (18% of 250 + 25% of 144) = 54

2 3 4 11) 2) 3) 4) 5) None3 2 9 3

87.

? 63 = 92

1) 12 2) 144 3) 324 4) 128 5) None

1 2 488. of of of 3750 = ?

2 3 8

1) 625 2) 312.5 3) 125

4) 250 5) None

89. (331 + 19) (15 11) (37 + 13) = ?

1) 70000 2) 4131 3) 30250

4) 20350 5) None

25090. 11.88 = ?

18

1) 16.50 2) 155 3) 192.7 4) 165 5) None


15/30

Directions (Q. 91 -95): What approximate value should come in place

of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not

expected to calculate the exact value).

91.

? = 37.0005

1) 1480 2) 1370 3) 1220 4) 1150 5) 1570

92. 1088.88 + 1800.08 + 1880.80 = ?

1) 5040 2) 6810 3) 3950 4) 4770 5) 4620

93. 8399.999 375.002 14.996 = ?

1) 335 2) 625 3) 455 4) 225 5) 565

94. 14.998% of 619.399 = ?

1) 105 2) 115 3) 75 4) 80 5) 9595. 11.003 19.998 9.010 = ?

1) 1680 2) 1750 3) 1980 4) 1710 5) 1800

Directions (Q. 96 - 100): What should come in place of the question

mark (?) in the following number series?

96. 3, 128, 6, 64, 9, .. ?... , 12, 16, 15, 8

1) 32 2) 12 3) 108 4) 72 5) None

97. 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, ...?..., 123, 199

1) 75 2) 70 3) 84 4) 102 5) None

98. 2, 6, 12, 20, ...?..., 42, 56, 72, 90

1) 20 2) 21 3) 30 4) 12 5) None

99. 17, 7, 24, 19, 9, 28, ...?..., 8, 31, 27, 10, 37

1) 20 2) 21 3) 18 4) 23 5) None

100. 6, 126, ...?..., 9, 108, 12, 7, 133, 19, 12, 72, 6

1) 21 2) 23 3) 30 4) 35 5) None

101. Find the least number which when divided by 9, 12, 16 and 30 leaves in each

case a remainder 3.

1) 723 2) 717 3) 720 4) 727 5) None

102. A car travels a certain distance from town A to town B at the speed of 42 km/ h

and from town B to town A at the speed of 48 km/ h. What is the average speed

of the car?

1) 45 km/ h 2) 46 km/ h 3) 44 km/ h

4) Cannot be determined 5) None


16/30

103. A DVD player was purchased for Rs.4860. At what price should it be sold so that

25% profit is earned?

1) Rs.6225 2) Rs.6275 3) Rs.6075

4) Rs.6025 5) None

104. 5 students are to be seated in 5 seats. In how many different ways can they be

seated?

1) 120 2) 20 3) 60 4) 72 5) None

105. The total number of students in a school is 2025. If the number of girls in the

school is 1175, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to

the total number of girls in the school?

1) 47 : 34 2) 19 : 23 3) 23 : 17

4) 34 : 47 5) None

106. Two cyclists start from a point towards the winning post at their respective

speeds at 18 km/h and 20 km/h. If one of them takes 8 min longer than the other,

how far is the winning post from the starting point?

1) 58 km 2) 24 km 3) 36 km 4) 12 km 5) 72 km

107. A sum of Rs.820 is to be paid back in two equal annual installment. If the rate

of interest is 5% per annum, then installment is of

1) Rs.410 2) Rs.420 3) Rs.416.80 4) Rs.441 5) None

108. If 2x 3y = 1 and 3x + y = 18, then what is the value of x y?

1) 2 2) 2 3) 3 4) 3 5) None

109. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 40% and the breadth is reduced by

20%, what will be the effect on its area?

1) Increase by 8% 2) Increase by 20%

3) Increase by 12% 4) Increase by 16% 5) None

110. The average weight of 10 men is increased by 1.5 kg when one of the men who

weights 68 kg is replaced by a new man. Find the weight of the new man.

1) 73 kg 2) 83 kg 3) 79 kg 4) 82 kg 5) None

111. The difference between 75% of a number and 20% of the same number is 378.4.

What is 40% of that number?

1) 275.2 2) 274 3) 267.2 4) 266 5) None


17/30

112. A cloth merchant professes to sell cloth at the purchase price, but uses a meter

having a length 95 cm only and charges for a meter. His gain percent is

5 51) 5% 2) 5% 3) 5%

19 13

24) 6% 5) None

3

113. The average of four positive integers is 73.5. The highest integer is 108 and the

lowest integer is 29. The difference between the remaining two integers is 15.

Which of the following is the smaller of the remaining two integers?

1) 80 2) 86 3) 73 4) Cannot be determined 5) None

114. Mr. Deepak invested an amount of Rs.21,250 for 6 years, at what rate of simpleinterest will he obtain the total amount of Rs.26,350 at the end of 6 years?

1) 6% per annum 2) 5% per annum

3) 8% per annum 4) 12% per annum 5) None

115. Akash sold a walkman for Rs.795. If he made a 6% profit on the cost price, what

was the original cost price of the walkman?

1) Rs.750 2) Rs.705 3) Rs.735

4) Rs.805 5) None

116. A is 25 percent of B. How much percent is B of A?

1) 100% 2) 50% 3) 25% 4) 400% 5) None

117. A 225 m long train crosses a 45 m platform in 18 sec. What is the speed of the

train in km/h?

1) 45 2) 54 3) 63 4) 59 5) None

118. Present ages of father and the son are in the ratio of 5 : 1 respectively. Afterseven years this ratio becomes 3:1. What is son's present age in years?

1) 8 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7 5) None

119. What should come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following

equation?

32 ? = ? 648

1) 72 2) 144 3) 288 4) 188 5) None


18/30

120. A sheet is in the from of a rhombus whose diagonals are 10 m and 8 m. The cost

of painting both of its surfaces at the rate of Rs.70 per m2 is

1) Rs.5600 2) Rs.4000 3) Rs.2800

4) Rs.2000 5) None

GENERAL AWARENESS

121. What is the interest rate difference maintained by RBI presently over the repo

rate, for the marginal standing facility availed by banks?

1) Other than those given as options

2) 150 bps. 3) 100 bps.

4) 125 bps. 5) 75 bps.122. Aiming to have 24 percent market share in two-wheeler, especially scooter seg-

ment in future, 'TVS Motor Company' recently launched its new vehicle ...

1) Jupiter 2) Scorpion 3) Taurus

4) Mars 5) Venus

123. Which one of the following Actress is won Oscar Award-2013 for Best Actress?

1) Other than those given as options

2) Emmanuelle Riva 3) Naomi Watts

4) Jessica Chastain 5) Jennifer Lawrence

124. Who is the present Chief of Naval Staff of our Country?

1) Admiral Arun Prakash 2) Admiral D.K. Joshi

3) Other than those given as options 4) Admiral Suresh Mehta

5) Admiral N.K. Verma

125. The Head Quarter of International Labour Organization is situated at .....

1) Rome 2) Geneva 3) Paris

4) Other than those given as options 5) London

126. Which of the following is the currency of Australia ?

1) Pound 2) Cedi 3) Cruzerio

4) Dollar 5) Dinar

127. What is the full form of AWACS?1) Aircraft Weapons and Control Systems


19/30

2) Airborne Weapons and Command Systems

3) Airborne Warning and Control System

4) Anti Weapons Air Command Systems

5) All Weather Arms Command Systems128. What is minimum amount of remittance under NEFT?

1) Rs.10,000 2) Rs.50,000 3) Rs.1 lac

4) No minimum limit 5) None

129. Banks are required to provide loans to the priority sector up to a specified limit.

What is the limit for Public Sector banks ?

1) 40% 2) 32% 3) 45% 4) 35% 5) 37%

130. Loans and advances granted against movable properties are known as

1) Assignment 2) Mortgage

3) Other than those given as options 4) Hypothecation

5) Subrogation

131. Telecom major Nokia Corporation has recently entered into a deal to sell its

devices and services business to a US Software Company for an amount of

1) US $ 8.5 milion 2) US $ 7.2 bilion 3) US $ 7.2 milion

4) US $ 8.5 bilion 5) US $ 5.7 bilion

132. RBI made an announcement on 14th August 2013 to cut down the amount of

foreign exchange an Indian may use to invest or spend abroad from the current

annual limit of $ 2,00,000 to......

1) $ 1,00,000 2) $ 55,000 3) $ 45,000

4) $ 1,75,000 5) $ 75,000

133. FEDAI means

1) Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India.

2) It is a self regulating body of all authorized dealers in foreign exchange.

3) It frames ground rules called "FEDAI Rules" for smooth conduct of all forex

transactions among member banks.

4) It promotes the interest of authorized dealers and regulates their dealings with

Public / Brokers / RBI and all other bodies.

5) All of the above.


20/30

134. Under the liberalised scheme of interest subsidy, Govt. of India provides

interest subsidy on housing loan at the rate of

1) 0.05% 2) 1% 3) 2%

4) 2% + 1% for prompt repayment 5) None135. The RBI is authorised to make to the central and state Govts ways and means

advances. These are repayable within which of the following periods?

1) 3 months from the date of making advances




5) None

136. Which of the following is/are features of the 'Indira Awaas Yojana'?

A. It is a Government of India's social welfare programme to provide housing for

the rural poor in India.

B. It is one of the major flagship programme of the rural development ministry.

C. Financial assistance worth Rs.70,000 in plains areas and Rs.75,000 in difficult

high land areas is provided for construction.

D. The houses are allotted in the name of women or jointly between husband and

wife.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

1) Only D 2) A, C and D 3) B and D

4) B and C 5) All of these

137. On the occasion of the International Senior Citizens Day October 1, 2013 the

President of India Pranab Mukherjee presented the first National Awards for

senior citizens - 'Vayoshreshta Samman 2013'. The state that has won the

national award for protecting interests of senior citizens and ensuring their

welfare is ...

1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Rajasthan

3) Kerala 4) Haryana5) Maharashtra


21/30

138. What is the govt. subsidy for self- employment by setting up micro-enterprises

under SJSRY?

1) 10% of project cost maximum Rs.5,000

2) There is no Govt. subsidy



5) 25% of the project cost maximum Rs.15,000

139. The University of British Columbia's Faculty of Law recently presented the

inaugural 2013 Allard Prize for International Integrity to ...

1) Soli Sorabjee 2) Arvind Kejriwal 3) Kiran Bedi

4) General V K Singh 5) Anna Hazare

140. In case of an Individual resident who is of the age of 80 years or more at any

time during the previous year i.e born before 1st April 1933, no income tax is

payable where the total income does not exceed ..... for the year 2013-14

1) Rs. 3 lakh 2) Rs. 5 lakh 3) Rs. 2 lakh

4) Other than those given as options 5) Rs. 2.5 lakh

141. Which of the following is not a part of key element for Banks while framing its

KYC policy ?

1) Customer Acceptance Policy 2) Risk Management

3) Customer Financial Position 4) Monitoring of Transactions

5) Customer Identification Procedures

142. RBI in its Mid-Quarter Monetary Policy on 20th September 2013 reduced the

minimum daily CRR balance that banks have to maintain from 99% to ... of the

requirement.

1) 75% 2) 95% 3) 80% 4) 85% 5) 90%

143. Finance Ministry of Government of India has in September 2013 permitted

unlisted companies incorporated in India to list in overseas markets without prior

listing or simultaneous listing in Indian markets. Such unlisted companies are

allowed to list abroad only on exchanges in IOSCO/ FATF complain jurisdictions

or countries with which SEBI has signed bilateral agreements. What is the

expansion for the term IOSCO?

1) Internal Organization of Securities Commissions


22/30

2) Informative Organization of Securities Commissions

3) International Organization of Securities Commissions

4) Integrated Organization of Securities Commissions

5) Indian Organization of Securities Commissions144. Bharat Chettri is related to which sports ?

1) Weight Lifting 2) Hockey 3) Cricket

4) Swimming 5) Football

145. Who is the French no.1 professional tennis player who won the 2013

Wimbledon Championship singles title in July 2013 and announced her

immediate retirement from professional tennis on August 14, 2013?

1) Sabine Lisicki 2) Marion Bartoli 3) Serena Williams

4) Justine Henin 5) Lindsay Davenport

146. Which of the following Indian wrestler recently won a silver medal in 55 Kg.

Free Style class at the 2013 Senior World Wrestling Championship?

1) Sushil Kumar 2) Amit Kumar

3) Sushant Kumar 4) Bajrang Kumar

5) Satyavrat Kadayan147. Which of the following statements about National Youth Awards is/ are correct?

A. President Pranab Mukherjee conferred the National Youth Award 2011-12 on

27 individuals and one organisation on July 4, 2013.

B. It is for the first time the National Youth Award have been given by the

President of India.

C. Bhavishya Educational and Charitable Society, Paschim Banga won the

National youth Aard 2011-12.

1) A and B 2) B and C 3) A and C

4) All of these 5) None

148. At which of the following places ISRO Navigation Centre (INC) was

established?

1) Byalalu 2) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

3) Chennai 4) Sriharikota5) Chandipur


23/30

149. What is the expansion for the Government of India's welfare scheme 'NREGA'?

1) National Employment Augmentation Scheme

2) Prime Minister's Employment Generation Program

3) Hindustan Employment Growth Scheme4) Youth Unemployment Reduction Program

5) Pradhan Mantri Employment Creation Scheme

150. Regional Rural banks are empowered to transact the business of banking as

defined under

1) Banking Regulation Act, 1949

2) Negotiable Instruments Act, 18813) Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976

4) The Banking Companies Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings Act, 1970

5) Second Schedule to RBI Act, 1934

151. The term 'mutual fund' refers to

1) contribution by the employees of a business enterprise in the provident fund

scheme.

2) fund created by commercial banks and other eligible financial institutions for

floating new shares in the market to earn a higher profit.

3) the business of acquisition, holding management, trading or disposal of

securities participation certificates or any other instruments, income or

growth participation business and Unit Trust schemes.


5) None of the above.

152. The note-issue system in India is based on

1) Gold Deposit System 2) Minimum Reserve System

3) Proportional Reserve System 4) Simple Deposit System

5) None of the above

153. Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Network (LAN) system?

1) Modem 2) Keyboard 3) Printer

4) Data cable 5) None


24/30

154. What do you mean by home banking?

1) How banking is an extended version of Tele banking.

2) In home banking the customer is able to access his bank account from his

home for availing a variety of services which is made available.3) Home banking is availed through the customer's personal computer attached

to a telephone line and modem.


5) None of the above.

155. Who is the author of the book "The Socialist : A biography of Mulayam Singh

Yadav"?

1) Frank Huzur 2) Andrew Knight

3) Charles Ford 4) Ray Williams 5) None

156. All the Money Bills related to Budget should be passed in full within how many

days of presentation of the Budget?

1) 60 days 2) 30 days 3) 75 days

4) 120 days 5) 90 days

157. Which Bangladesh cricketer became the first player to score a century and take

a hattrick in the same Test match in October 2013?

1) Tamim Iqbal 2) Shakib Al Hasan 3) Sohag Gazi

4) Abdur Razzak 5) None of these

158. Which of the following dams is built across Narmada River?

1) Tehri Dam 2) Bhakra Dam 3) Hirakud Dam

4) Mullaperiyar Dam 5) Sardar Sarovar Dam

159. World population day was observed on....

1) July 11 2) July 5 3) June 5

4) July 15 5) None

160. The "Courage and Conviction" is the autobiography of ....

1) Narendra Modi 2) Yaswanth Sinha

3) V.K. Singh 4) Shashi Tharoor 5) None


25/30

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

161. Customers, facilities, knowledge workers, business information, communication

infrastructure and computer equipment are all considerations in a good ..........

plan.

1) hacker 2) disaster recovery 3) security

4) risk management 5) None

162. Which of the- following correctly defines the term 'E-Banking'?

A. It is the short form of Efficient Banking which means providing all banking

related services to the customers in minimum required time during their visit

to the branch.

B. E-Banking is providing banking facilities to all the customers through ATMs

only which restricts their visits to a bank branch to a bare minimum.

C. E-Banking implies provisions of banking products and services through elec-

tronic delivery channels like ATMs, phone, internet, mobile phones, etc.

1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C

4) A and B 5) A and C

163. SMTP, FTP and DNS are applications of the .......... layer.

1) data link 2) network 3) transport

4) application 5) None

164. In a data base, information should be organized and accessed according to which

of the following ?

1) Physical position 2) Logical structure

3) Data dictionary 4) Physical structure 5) None of the above

165. Traffic in a VPN is not

1) invisible from public networks

2) logically separated from other traffic

3) accessible from unauthorized public networks

4) restricted to a single protocol in IP Sec 5) None of the above

166. As compare to CRT, the flat panel display requires

1) less power 2) low operating voltage 3) less clarity4) Both (1) and (2) 5) None of the above


26/30

167. CRT stands for

1) Copper Rod Tube 2) Cathode Ray Tube

3) Completely Ready Tube 4) All of these

5) None168. Graphical devices which are widely used to represent the graphics on screen are

1) CRT 2) flat panel 3) touch screen

4) Both (1) and (2) 5) None

169. WORM stands for

1) Write Once Read Memory 2) Wanted Once Read Memory

3) Wanted Original Read Memory 4) Write Original Read Memory


170. Which of the following is a temporary primary memory ?

1) PROM 2) RAM 3) ROM

4) EPROM 5) None

171. What is the name of the software that allows us to browse through web pages?

1) Mail client 2) Browser 3) FTP client

4) Messenger 5) None

172. This is responsible for starting up of operating system.

1) ROM BIOS 2) Bootstrap program

3) Boot sector 4) All of these 5) None

173. The first UNIX operating system was written in the

1) Assembly language 2) C language

3) Java 4) B language 5) None

174. The unit KIPS is used to measure the speed of

1) processor 2) disk drive 3) printer

4) tape drive 5) None

175. IC are classified on the basis of

1) manufacturing companies 2) types of computers

3) number of transistors 4) All of these5) None


27/30

176. Which one of the following is a valid DOS command ?

1) RENAME A : SAMPLE.TXT 2) LIST???.???

3) RECOVER A: 4) List 5) None

177. Which one of the following is an invalid statement?1) MSAV - an anti-virus directions and virus removal program

2) DEFRAG - may improve disk read-write speed

3) RECOVER - recovers readable information from bad/defective disk

4) DISKCOMP - compress files in a diskette


178. Which one of the following is an invalid command ?

1) DIR >> LIST > TCT 2) DIR >> LIST > TXT

3) DIR >> LPTI 4) All of these 5) None

179. Which one of the following is not an internal DOS command ?

1) PATH 2) COPY 3) XCOPY

4) VER 5) None

180. Which one of the following is not an internal DOS command ?

1) MORE 2) REN 3) DATE

4) CLS 5) None

181. Paragraph marks shows

1) starting of a paragraph

2) data saved till the marked paragraph

3) that "Enter" key is pressed at that point to mark the end of the paragraph

4) current cursor position in the paragraph


182. Selection of text can be from

1) single word or line 2) a paragraph

3) complete document 4) All of these 5) None

183. New Window command from the Window menu will

1) opens a windows for creating a new document2) opens a new document and close the earlier opened one


28/30

3) opens a new window that displays the same document (one which is already

opened)

4) Any of the above 5) None of the above

184. New created entries for Auto Text and Auto Correct entries, they are stored in

template document named as

1) Normal 2) AutoDoc 3) TempDoc

4) StoreDoc 5) None

185. Context-sensitive drag-and-drop editing can be activated

1) with the smart-cut-and-paste feature

2) without the smart-cut-and-paste feature

3) there is not any context-sensitive drag-and-drop feature

4) from the tools menu


186. Which command is used to close the workbook of Excel?

1) Alt + F4 2) Ctrl + W

3) Ctrl + R 4) Ctrl + X 5) None

187. Which one is the shortcut key of Save?

1) F1 2) F6 3) F12

4) Ctrl + S 5) None

188. Which is the shortcut to Go to Option in Excel?

1) F5 2) F7 3) F8 4) F2 5) None

189. Which is the shortcut key to cut an object?

1) Ctrl

+ C 2) Ctrl

+ V3) Ctrl + X 4) Ctrl + D 5) None

190. Which shortcut command is used to reach the next worksheet ?

1) Page down 2) Ctrl + Page down

3) Ctrl + > 4) Tab 5) None

191. The chart must be created as part of

1) table 2) forms 3) reports

4) Both (2) and (3) 5) None


29/30

192. We cannot validate the cell value by macros.

1) True 2) False 3) Sometimes

4) Can't say 5) None

193. Which menu keeps the compact database command?

1) Tools 2) View 3) Edit

4) Insert 5) None

194. Which command we will give if we want to show the database objects with its

description?

1) Details 2) Show 3) List

4) Any of these 5) None

195. We can open two databases at a time.1) True 2) False 3) Sometimes

4) Can't say 5) None

196. Which type of voucher is used to make the entry of transactions related to

suspense payments?

1) Purchase voucher 2) Payment voucher

3) Memo voucher 4) Journal voucher 5) None

197. Which type of voucher you pass to enter the actual items in the godown?

1) Journal voucher 2) Purchase voucher

3) Stock voucher 4) Physical Stock voucher 5) None

198. How to display vouchers entered?

1) Gateway of Tally > Accounts Info > Voucher Type

2) Gateway of Tally > Voucher Entry > Sales

3) Gateway of Tally > Display > Daybook4) Any of the above 5) None of the above

199. Voucher you pass for entering the purchaser of fixed assets by making a cheque

payment.

1) Purchase voucher 2) Journal voucher

3) Payment voucher 4) Receipt voucher 5) None

200. Which report will show the financial position of the company?

1) Ledger accounts 2) Balance sheet

3) Sales accounts 4) Bank statement 5) None


30/30

KEY

1-5; 2-2; 3-4; 4-4; 5-3; 6-3; 7-1; 8-3; 9-3; 10-2; 11-4; 12-1; 13-3; 14-1;

15-5; 16-3; 17-4; 18-2; 19-3; 20-5; 21-1; 22-3; 23-4; 24-5; 25-4; 26-5;

27-3; 28-5; 29-2; 30-2; 31-2; 32-4; 33-4; 34-1; 35-3; 36-5; 37-1; 38-4;39-4; 40-2; 41-3; 42-2; 43-2; 44-3; 45-2; 46-5; 47-4; 48-2; 49-4; 50-1;

51-2; 52-1; 53-2; 54-3; 55-4; 56-5; 57-1; 58-1; 59-5; 60-2; 61-4; 62-3; 63-1;

64-3; 65-4; 66-5; 67-2; 68-1; 69-2; 70-5; 71-3; 72-4; 73-3; 74-2; 75-5;

76-1; 77-4; 78-3; 79-1; 80-3; 81-1; 82-5; 83-5; 84-5; 85-5; 86-1; 87-5;

88-1 89-1; 90-4; 91-2; 92-4; 93-1; 94-5; 95-3; 96-1; 97-5; 98-3; 99-4; 100-1;

101-1; 102-5; 103-3; 104-1; 105-4; 106-2; 107-4; 108-2; 109-3; 110-2; 111-1;

112-1; 113-5; 114-5; 115-1; 116-4; 117-2; 118-4; 119-2; 120-1; 121-2; 122-1;123-5; 124-2; 125-2; 126-4; 127-3; 128-4; 129-1; 130-4; 131-2; 132-5;

133-5; 134-1; 135-1; 136-5; 137-1; 138-4; 139-5; 140-2; 141-3; 142-2;

143-1; 144-2; 145-2; 146-2; 147-4; 148-1; 149-2; 150-3; 151-3; 152-2;

153-1; 154-4; 155-1; 156-3; 157-3; 158-5; 159-1; 160-3; 161-4; 162-3;

163-4; 164-2; 165-2; 166-4; 167-2; 168-4; 169-1; 170-2; 171-2; 172-1;

173-1; 174-1; 175-3; 176-3; 177-4; 178-3; 179-3; 180-1; 181-3; 182-4; 183-

3; 184-1; 185-1; 186-2; 187-4; 188-1; 189-3; 190-2; 191-4; 192-2; 193-1;194-1; 195-2; 196-2; 197-4; 198-3; 199-3; 200-2.

Repco Model Papers

Documents

Transcript of Repco Model Papers