Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi ......- 1 - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8,...
Transcript of Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi ......- 1 - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8,...
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Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456
Answers & Solutions
for
NTSE (Stage-I) 2020-21
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet.
1. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only. There is no negative marking.
2. Part I : MAT : 1 - 100 questions
Part II : SAT : 101 - 200 questions
3. This test booklet contains 200 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory.
4. Answer each question by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR SHEET with
blue/black ballpoint pen.
Example:
Q. No.
1
Q. No.
1
Alternatives
Alternatives
1 2 1 4
1 2 3 4
Correct way :
Wrong way :
Student must darkening the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR Sheet.
5. Students are not allowed to scratch / alter / change out an answer once marked on OMR Sheet, by using white
fluid / eraser / blade / tearing / wearing or in any other form.
6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.
7. Please handover the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
8. Darken completely the ovals of your answer on OMR Sheet in the time limit allotted for that particular paper.
9. Your OMR Sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and incorrect entries may render
your OMR Sheet invalid.
10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc., is strictly prohibited.
Date: 13/12/2020 CHANDIGARH
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NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
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PART-I : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
Directions (1-10): In the following questions,
four items (numbers/number pairs/letter groups)
are given. Three of them are alike in a certain
way and one is different. Find the odd one out
from the alternatives.
1. (1) DE (2) PQ
(3) TU (4) WY
Answer (4)
Sol. + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2
D E , P Q , T U , W Y
2. (1) CFI (2) DGJ
(3) HKO (4) FIL
Answer (3)
Sol.
C F I , D G J , H K O F I L
+ 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 4 + 3 + 3
3. (1) 11 (2) 15
(3) 17 (4) 19
Answer (2)
Sol. 15 is not prime
4. (1) ZW (2) TQ
(3) SP (4) NL
Answer (4)
Sol.
Z W , T Q , S P , N L
– 3 – 3 – 3 – 2
5. (1) 441 (2) 343
(3) 289 (4) 625
Answer (2)
Sol.
4 4 1 , 3 4 3 , 2 8 9 , 6 2 5
2 12
73
1 72
2 52
6. (1) SWU (2) CGE
(3) STR (4) OSQ
Answer (3)
Sol.
S W U C G E S T R O S Q
+ 4 + 4 + 1 + 4– 2 – 2 – 2 – 2
7. (1) VUWH (2) JKLI
(3) EFGD (4) STUR
Answer (1)
Sol. V U W H J K L I E F G D S T U R
+ 1 + 1 + 1+ 1 + 1 + 1
– 1 – 1 – 1
8. (1) Carrot (2) Mango
(3) Apple (4) Orange
Answer (1)
9. (1) 25 (2) 4
(3) 49 (4) 8
Answer (4)
Sol. 52, 22, 72, 23
10. (1) 22 (2) 4444
(3) 333 (4) 5555
Answer (4)
Sol. 2 + 2 = 22
4 + 4 + 4 + 4 = 42
3 + 3 + 3 = 32
5 + 5 + 5 + 5 = 20
Directions (11-20) In the following questions,
there is a relationship between two figures on
the left of the sign(::). The same relationship
exists between the figures to the right of the
sign(::) of which one is missing. Find the missing
one from the alternatives
11. 23 : 48 :: 33 : ?
(1) 96 (2) 78
(3) 58 (4) 46
Answer (3)
Sol. 48 – 23 = 58 – 33 = 25
12. 27 : 51 :: 83 : ?
(1) 102
(2) 117
(3) 138
(4) 123
Answer (4)
Sol. 52 + 2, 72 + 2, 92 + 2, 112 + 2
13. ADH : CFJ :: LOS : ?
(1) NQU (2) MPS
(3) NQT (4) NPR
Answer (1)
Sol. A D H C F J L O S N Q U
+ 3 + 3 + 3 + 3+ 4 + 4 + 4 + 4
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14. DCB : WXY :: HGF :?
(1) SRQ (2) STU
(3) RPM (4) RST
Answer (2)
15. 11 : 25 :: 17 : ?
(1) 33 (2) 28
(3) 37 (4) 41
Answer (3)
16. 9 : 16 :: 49 : ?
(1) 81 (2) 64
(3) 100 (4) 121
Answer (2)
Sol. 9 : 16 :: 49 : 64
32 42 72 82
17. A : Z :: D : ?
(1) Y (2) S
(3) X (4) W
Answer (4)
18. 2 : 16 :: 5 : ?
(1) 125 (2) 625
(3) 425 (4) 55
Answer (2)
Sol. 2 : 16 :: 5 : 625
24 54
19. DELHI : EDMGJ :: MUMBAI : ?
(1) NTNABH (2) NVNCBJ
(3) LVLCBJ (4) NVLMCDE
Answer (1)
20. BDI : 942 :: GFH : ?
(1) 786 (2) 876
(3) 867 (4) 678
Answer (3)
Sol. BOI : 942 :: GFH : 867
Directions (21-25): Read carefully the
information given below then answer the
questions 21 to 25.
1. A and B teach Hindi and English
2. C and B teach English and Geography
3. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi
4. E and B teach History and Punjabi
21. Out of these teachers who teaches maximum
number of subjects?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
Answer (2)
22. Out of the following, which pair of teachers teach
both Geography and Hindi.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) None of these
Answer (4)
23. Which subject is taught by more than two
teachers?
(1) History (2) Hindi
(3) Punjabi (4) Math
Answer (2)
24. Which are the subjects taught by all three D, B
and A.
(1) Only English (2) Hindi and English
(3) Only Hindi (4) Hindi and Math
Answer (3)
25. Out of the following, which teacher teaches less
than two Subjects.
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) E
Answer (*)
Directions (26-35) : In the following questions,
numbers/ words are written in a certain
sequence. Find the missing number/ word. To
replace the question mark from the given
alternatives.
26. 5,11,23,47, ?, 191
(1) 83 (2) 98
(3) 97 (4) 95
Answer (4)
Sol. 5 , 11 , 2 3 , 4 7 , 9 5 1 9 1
x 2+1 x 2+1 x 2+1 x 2+1 x 2+1
27. 8,19,41,85,?, 349
(1) 173 (2) 168
(3) 178 (4) 171
Answer (1)
Sol. 8 , 1 9 , 4 1 , 8 5 , 3 4 9
x 2 +3 x 2 +3 x 2 +3 x 2 +3 x 2 +3
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28. A. E, I, M, Q, U, ?
(1) V (2) W
(3) Z (4) Y
Answer (4)
Sol. A , E , I, M , Q , U , Y
+ 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 4
29. 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, ?
(1) 96 (2) 112
(3) 128 (4) 132
Answer (3)
Sol. 2, 4, 8, 32, 64, 128
21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27
30. BP, EG, HJ, KM, ?
(1) NQ (2) NP
(3) OP (4) NM
Answer (2)
Sol. B P , E G , H J , K M , N P
+ 3 + 3 + 3 + 3
+ 2 + 2 + 2 + 2
31. 2, 5, 9, ? 20, 27
(1) 14 (2) 16
(3) 18 (4) 24
Answer (1)
Sol. 2 , 5 , 9 , 1 4 , 2 0 , 2 7
+ 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7
32. AN, BO, CP, DQ, ?
(1) EJ (2) ES
(3) EQ (4) ER
Answer (4)
Sol. A N , B O , C P , D Q , E R
+ 1 + 1 + 1 + 1
+ 1 + 1 + 1 + 1
33. 20,19, 17, ?, 10, 5
(1) 12 (2) 13
(3) 14 (4) 15
Answer (3)
Sol.
2 0 , 1 9 , 1 7 , 1 4 , 1 0 , 5
– 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5
34. G, I, L, P, U, ?
(1) A (2) B
(3) Z (4) Y
Answer (1)
Sol. G , I , L , P , U , A
+ 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6
35. 240,120, 40, ?, 2
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 15
Answer (2)
Sol.
2 4 0 , 1 2 0 , 4 0 , 1 0 , 2
¸2 ¸ 3 ¸ 4 ¸ 5
36. Gourav is Sunita’s brother. Sunita is Jyoti’s
daughter. Jyoti is Prem’s wife. What is the
relation of Prem with Gourav?
(1) Father (2) Brother
(3) Grand Father (4) Uncle
Answer (1)
Sol.
J y o ti = P re m
m o th e r
G o u ra v S u n ita
b ro th e r
37. Seema is Sachin’s sister. Sachin and Sourav are
brothers and Sourav is Kamla’s son. What is the
relation of Kamla with Seema?
(1) Sister
(2) Daughter
(3) Sister in law
(4) Mother
Answer (4)
Sol.
K a m a l
S e e m a S a c h in S o u ra v
M o th e r
S is te r B ro th e r
38. In a family, there is one head of the family, his
wife, three sons and their wives. Every son has
two sons and one daughter. How many male
members are there in the family?
(1) 4 (2) 10
(3) 8 (4) 12
Answer (2)
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NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
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39. If the word READING is codes as RNIDAEG,
how can the word HISTORY be coded?
(1) HRSTOIY (2) HROTSIY
(3) HROTISY (4) HRTOSIY
Answer (2)
40. If the word PINK is coded as RGPI, how can the
word BLUE be coded?
(1) DJCW (2) DWJC
(3) DJW (4) DCJW
Answer (DJWC) (option miss printed)
41. If the word MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how
can the word BOMBAY be coded?
(1) CPNCBX (2) CPOCBZ
(3) CQOCB (4) CPNCBZ
Answer (4)
42. If the word SUCCESS is coded as VXFFHVV,
how can the word VICTORY be coded?
(1) YLFWRUB (2) YLFXRUB
(3) YLFWSUB (4) YLFVSUB
Answer (1)
Sol.
S – U – C – C – E – S – S
+ 3 + 3 + 3 + 3
V – X – F – .................– x
....................
43. If the word COBRA is coded as 3152181, how
can the word ZEBRA be coded?
(1) 2652811 (2) 2652181
(3) 265211 (4) 2651182
Answer (2)
44. In a certain code language 851 is a code for,
“Good sweet apple”, 783 for “Good red rose” and
341 for “Rose and apple”. Find the code number
for “sweet”.
(1) 8 (2) 1
(3) 5 (4) 3
Answer (3)
45. If green colour is called yellow, yellow is called
blue, blue is called black, black is called red.
Red is called purple, then what is the colour of
human blood?
(1) Red (2) Purple
(3) Blue (4) Green
Answer (2)
46. If in a certain language FASHION is coded as
FOIHSAN, how is PROBLEM coded in that
language?
(1) ROBLEMP (2) PELBORM
(3) PRBOELM (4) PELBROM
Answer (2)
47. If the code of HINDUSTAN is 110 what will be
the code for AUSTRALIA?
(1) 100 (2) 102
(3) 104 (4) 116
Answer (2)
48. If the code of CONSTABLE is 91 what will be
code for STABLE?
(1) 97 (2) 59
(3) 79 (4) 75
Answer (2)
49. If NIGHT is coded as 58 what will be code for
TOMORROW?
(1) 111 (2) 113
(3) 115 (4) 137
Answer (4)
50. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR as 73456,
FRENCH as 961473 then SEARCH will be
coded as
(1) 246173 (2) 214678
(3) 214763 (4) 214673
Answer (4)
51. If TOM is coded as 48 and DICK is 27 then
HARRY means
(1) 67 (2) 50
(3) 60 (4) 70
Answer (4)
52. If REST is 0987 and BEAST IS 29187 then
BREAST is
(1) 229187 (2) 209187
(3) 219187 (4) 201987
Answer (2)
Sol. R–0, E–9, S–8, T–7, B–2, A–1
53. If SLIGHT is 426875 then GIST is
(1) 6845 (2) 8645
(3) 4568 (4) 4586
Answer (2)
Sol. S–4, L–2, I–6, G–8, H–7, T–5
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NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
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54. Rohan is taller than Aman but shorter than Siya.
Kamal is taller than Pooja but shorter than
Aman. Deepak is taller than Kamal but shorter
than Siya. Who among them is the tallest
(1) Rohan (2) Siya
(3) Aman (4) Deepak
Answer (2)
55. If SKY is called SEA. SEA is called WATER,
WATER is called AIR, AIR is called CLOUD and
CLOUD is called RIVER, then what do we drink
when we are thirsty
(1) SKY (2) AIR
(3) WATER (4) SEA
Answer (2)
The following questions consist of two words
each that have a certain relationship with each
other. Select the pair that has the same
relationship as the original pair of words
56. Sale : Purchase
(1) Give : Receive
(2) Shop : Market
(3) Cash : Credit
(4) Profit : Loss
Answer (1)
57. Graphite : Lubricant
(1) Movement : Friction
(2) Iron : Steel
(3) Carbon : Non Metal
(4) Diamond : Abrasive
Answer (4)
58. War : Death
(1) Chimney : Smoke (2) Coal : Fire
(3) Fire : Smoke (4) Smoke :Pollution
Answer (4)
59. Import : Export
(1) Expenditure : Revenue
(2) Expenditure : Debt
(3) Expenditure : Tax
(4) Deficit: Expenditure
Answer (1)
60. Geologist : Earth
(1) Architect : Building
(2) Aquarium : Fish
(3) Archaeologist : Artifacts
(4) Biology : Science
Answer (1)
61. Green : Colour
(1) Night : Dark
(2) Child : Play
(3) Walk : Health
(4) Snake : Reptile
Answer (4)
62. Brass : Alloy
(1) Car : Road (2) Truck : Load
(3) Pencil : Stationary (4) Police : Thief
Answer (3)
63. Cream : Cosmetics
(1) Mountain : Valley (2) Tiger : Forest
(3) Magazine : Editor (4) Teak : Wood
Answer (4)
64. Family : Members
(1) Nation : States (2) Country : Citizens
(3) Town : Village (4) Minister : M.P.
Answer (2)
65. Sprain : Fracture
(1) Devotion : Blessing
(2) Excitement : Frenzy
(3) Sleep : Dream
(4) Fever : Malaria
Answer (2)
Directions (66-70) In the following questions,
you are given a combination of letters/numbers
followed by four alternatives 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Choose the alternative, which most closely
resembles the mirror image of the given
combination.
66. SCHOOL
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (2)
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NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
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67.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (1)
68. 98724
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
69.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (4)
70. AMBULANCE
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
Directions (71-75): In the following questions,
you are given a combination of letters/numbers
followed by four alternatives 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Choose the alternative, which most closely
resembles the water image of the given
combination.
71. RAJ
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (1)
72. VAYU36
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (2)
73.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
74.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (4)
75. Wrote
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)
Directions (76-80) : In the following questions
left hand side is problem figure in which there is
one ? on the right hand side are answer figures.
Choose the correct option to replace the?
76.A B C D (1 ) (2 ) (4 )(3 )
Answer (4)
Sol. 3 × 4 = 12
4 × 5 = 20
5 × 6 = 30
6 × 7 = 42
77.A B C D (1 ) (2 ) (4 )(3 )
Answer (4)
78. A B C D (1 ) (2 ) (4 )(3 )
Answer (4)
79.A B C D (1 ) (2 ) (3 ) (4 )
Answer (3)
80.A B C D (1 ) (2 ) (3 ) (4 )
Answer (4)
Directions (81–85) In each of the following
questions find out which of the figures (a), (b),
(c), (d) can be formed from the pieces of given
figure X.
81.
(1 ) (2 ) (3 ) (4 )(X )
Answer (1)
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NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
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82.
(X )
(1 ) (2 ) (3 ) (4 )
Answer (1)
83.
(X )
(1 ) (2 ) (3 ) (4 )
Answer (2)
84.
(X )
(1 ) (2 ) (3 ) (4 )
Answer (2)
85.
(X )
(1 ) (2 ) (3 ) (4 )
Answer (2)
Directions (86-90) In the following questions
there is a different rule according to which cells
are filled and one is left empty with a?. From the
given alternative find the correct option that can
replace the?.
86. 11
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 14
Answer (3)
Sol. 8 + 6 = 14
8 + 6 = 14
6 + 4 = 10
87.
11
(1) 75 (2) 26
(3) 25 (4) 20
Answer (2)
Sol. 22 + 42 = 20
32 + 92 = 90
12 + 52 = 26
88. 11
(1) 18 (2) 16
(3) 12 (4) 10
Answer (2)
89. 1
(1) 8C (2) 12B
(3) 16C (4) 18C
Answer (1)
Sol. 4 × 2 = 8
8C
90. 1
(1) 13 (2) 14
(3) 20 (4) 21
Answer (2)
Sol. [15 + 5 = 20, 1 + 19 = 20, 17 + 3 = 20, 16 + 4 =
20, 2 + 18 = 20, 6 + 14 = 20]
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NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
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Directions (91-95) : In the following questions,
in certain code language if ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’
means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘ ¸ ’ and ‘’ means ‘ ¸ ’, then
answer the following questions
91. 16 + 4 ¸ 2 – 21 × 7 ¸ 21
(1) 33 (2) 44
(3) 48 (4) 39
Answer (2)
92. 28 ¸ 36 – 49 × 7 + 2
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 8 (4) 6
Answer (4)
93. 8 ¸6 – 9 × 12 + 4
(1) 5 (2) 7
(3) 9 (4) 13
Answer (1)
94. 225 × 15 – 196 × 14 ¸625 × 25
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 4 (4) 12
Answer (3)
95. 23 + 46 – 80 × 20 ¸ 40
(1) 1122 (2) 1048
(3) 1126 (4) 1022
Answer (4)
Directions (96-100) : In the following questions,
in a certain code language if ‘+’ means ‘–‘, ‘–‘
means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘ ¸ ’, and ‘ ¸ ’ means ‘×’, then
answer the following questions
96. 14 × 2 – 6 + 10 + 4 × 2
(1) 30 (2) 40
(3) 1 (4) 16
Answer (1)
97. 15 ¸ 5 + 15 ¸ 10 × 2
(1) 54 (2) 205
(3) 0 (4) 225
Answer (3)
98. 11 ¸ 15 × 3 + 6 – 5
(1) 55 (2) 35
(3) 165 (4) 25
Answer (4)
99. 13 + 3 – 20 + 25
(1) –314 (2) 313
(3) 318 (4) –312
Answer (4)
100. 196 × 14 ¸ 25 × 5 + 225 × 15
(1) 70 (2) 55
(3) 85 (4) 196
Answer (2)
❑ ❑ ❑
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NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
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PART-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
101. Which of the following indicated the main
objectives of French Constitution in 1791?
1. Constitutional Monarchy
2. Right to vote for all men above 25 years of
age
3. Declaration of Rights of man and citizens
4. Only men of 25 years and paid taxes were
allowed to vote.
(1) All the above (2) 2,3,4
(3) 1,2,3 (4) 1,3,4
Answer (4)
102. The name associated with “APRIL THESES” is
_____
(1) Karl Marx (2) Robert Owen
(3) Lenin (4) Stalin
Answer (3)
103. BUDENOVKA is
(1) Russian Coat (2) Russian Hat
(3) Russian Tie (4) Russian Uniform
Answer (2)
104. Arrange the following in the correct Chronological
order of the events
1. Pearl Harbour Attack
2. German Invasion of Russia
3. German Invasion of Poland
4. Hitler pulling Germany out of League of
Nations
(1) 1 2 3 4 (2) 2 3 1 4
(3) 4 3 1 2 (4) 4 3 2 1
Answer (4)
105. Consider the following statements and choose the
correct ones.
1. British invited German expert, DIETRIECH
BRANDIS for advice in saving forests
2. Brandis was made first Inspector General of
Forests
3. Brandis set up Indian Forest Services in 1864
4. Brandis helped formulate the Indian Forest Act
in 1869
(1) 1 2 3 4 are correct
(2) Only 1 3 4 are correct
(3) 1 2 3 are correct
(4) Only 1 is correct
Answer (3)
106. Dhangars were the pastoral community of
_______
(1) Gujarat (2) Maharashtra
(3) Karnataka (4) Chhattisgarh
Answer (2)
107. Name the French philosopher who explained –
What makes the nation?
(1) JEAN-JACQUES ROUSSEAU
(2) FREDERIC SORRIEU
(3) MONTESQUIE
(4) ERNST RENAN
Answer (4)
108. Arrange the following into correct
Chronological order : -
1. Arrival of Simon Commission in India
2. Lord Irvin announced Dominion status of India
3. Gandhiji sent the letter stating 11 demands
4. Poona Pack
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 4 1 2 3
Answer (1)
109. Which of the following statements are false:
1. Silk route linked ASIA-EUROPE-
NORTH AFRICA
2. Silk route was route both by land and sea
3. Budddhism travelled across silk route
4. Precious metals-Gold & Silver flowed from Asia
to Europe.
(1) 1 and 4 (2) Only 1
(3) Only 3 (4) Only 4
Answer (4)
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NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
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110. Europeans were attracted to Africa, why?
(1) By its Natural Beauty
(2) To expand Industries
(3) By its vast land resources and mineral wealth
(4) All the above
Answer (3)
111. ______ of Korea is among world’s oldest existed
book with moveable metal types printing.
(1) Diamond Sutra (2) Bible
(3) Jikji (4) Ukiyo
Answer (4)
112. Following statement refer to the life of Baba
Ramchandra in Awadh. Choose the false
statement
(1) Peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra in
Awadh
(2) Baba Rama Chandra was a sanyasi
(3) He worked as indentured labourer in Assam
(4) He headed Oudh Kisan Sabha with J.L. Nehru
Answer (3)
113. Choose the right option of peaks in descending
order of their heights.
1. Kanchenjunga
2. Dodabetta
3. Anaimudi
4. Nanda Devi
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 1 4 3 2
Answer (4)
114. River Kaveri makes the second biggest water fall
in India. It is _____
(1) Jog falls
(2) Duduwa falls
(3) Shiva Samundram falls
(4) Dudhsagar Falls
Answer (3)
115. MAHAWAT is the local name of ______ rainfalls in
Indian Plains
(1) Summer (2) Winter
(3) Spring (4) Autumn
Answer (2)
116. Which of the following are the features of National
Population Policy 2000
1. Imparts free and compulsory education upto
14 years of age
2. Reducing infant mortality rate to below 30 per
1000 live births
3. Achieving Universal Immunisation of children
4. Promoting early marriage among girls.
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 1 3 4 Only
(3) 1 2 3 Only
(4) 2 3 4 Only
Answer (3)
117. Laterite soil is very useful in growing ____?.
(1) Rice, Wheat, Mustard
(2) Tea, Coffee and Cashewnuts
(3) Pulses, sugarcanes and resins
(4) Cotton, Maize
Answer (2)
118. Match the following :
Multi purpose Dams Name of Rivers
A. Rana Pratap Sagar
Dam
i. Bhagirathi River
B. Salal Project ii. Chambal River
C. Tehri Dam iii. Krishna River
D. Nagarjuna Sagar
Dam
iv. Chenab River
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
Answer (2)
119. Average climatic conditions for growing sugar cane
are_______
(1) 21oC-27oC (75 cm -100 cm rainfall)
(2) 25oC-30oC (25 cm -50 cm rainfall)
(3) Below 18oC (75 cm -100 cm rainfall)
(4) 21oC-27oC (50 cm -65 cm rainfall)
Answer (1)
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120. The first ever cement plant set up in India was
____
(1) Mumbai 1904 (2) Kolkata 1944
(3) Chennai 1940 (4) Chennai 1904
Answer (4)
121. The river associated with National Water way No.
2 is____
(1) Ganges (2) Sutleg
(3) Kaveri (4) Brahmaputra
Answer (4)
122. Consider the following facts and decide which of
these facts would you call a democracy.
1. Elections are held regularly
2. Voters are bribed by the leaders
3. Govt. arrests the leaders who protest
peacefully against the wrong policies.
4. Govt. works for the welfare of the people.
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4 (2) 1 and 2
(3) Only 1 (4) 1 and 4
Answer (4)
123. Who, among the following leaders was born in
Saudi Arabia and opposed Muslim separatist
politics and later became first Education Minister of
India
(1) Jaipal Singh
(2) Abul kalam Azad
(3) G. Durgabai Deshmukh
(4) Dr. Zakir Hussain
Answer (2)
124. “Nyaya Yuth” (Struggle for Justice) was a
movement launched by Chaudhary Devi Lal
against which ruling party in Haryana?
(1) Janata Dal
(2) Congress
(3) BSP
(4) BJP
Answer (2)
125. The Constitution of Belgium has been amended
four times between the years___
(1) 1970-1992 (2) 1970-1990
(3) 1972-1992 (4) 1970-1993
Answer (4)
126. Which country among the following countries
suffered disintegration due to political fights on the
basis of religious and ethnic identities.
(1) Yugoslavia
(2) India
(3) Belgium
(4) Netherland
Answer (1)
127. Which of the following political parties came to
power in Bolivia in 2006.
(1) The Communist party
(2) The Republican party
(3) The Socialist Party
(4) The Conservative Party
Answer (3)
128. Match the following regional political parties with
their symbols
Political party Symbol
A. Telegu Desam Party i.
B. YSR Congress Party ii.
C. Shromani Akali Dal iii.
D. The Conservative Party iv.
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
Answer (1)
129. Match the followings :
A. Electricity Bill i. Fixed Capital
B. Computers ii. Human Capital
C. Labour iii. Working Capital
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
Answer (2)
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130. A person is considered poor if his or her income
level falls below a given_____.
(1) Maximum level necessary to fulfil needs
(2) Minimum level necessary to fulfil basic needs
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Level Below per capita income of the country
Answer (2)
131. Prime Minister Rozgar yojana was started in____.
(1) 1973 (2) 1983
(3) 1993 (4) 2003
Answer (3)
132. Yellow card is issued to ______
(1) People above Poverty Line
(2) People below Poverty Line
(3) People in government Jobs
(4) People in Private sector
Answer (2)
133. Mr. Dhiman took a loan of Rs. 20 Lakhs from bank
to purchase a house. The annual rate of Interest
on the loan is 12% per annum and loan is to be
repaid in 10 years in instalments. The bank retains
the papers of new house as collateral, which will
be returned to Mr. Dhiman only when he repays
the entire loan amount with interest.
Analyse the loan information given above and
choose the right option for the same.
(1) Mode of Repayment
(2) Interest on Loan
(3) Terms of Credit
(4) Collateral
Answer (1)
134. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). Read the statement carefully and
choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : The goods and services are
produced globally.
Reasson (R) : Production process is divided into
small parts but it is not spread out across the globe
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A
(3) A is true and R is False
(4) A is False and R is True
Answer (1)
135. Which one of the following minerals belong to the
category of ferrous mineral?
(1) Gold (2) Copper
(3) Mangnese (4) Bauxite
Answer (4)
136. Which one of the following groups of cities is
connected by the National Highway No.7.
(1) Delhi-Amritsar
(2) Delhi-Kolkata
(3) Delhi-Mumbai
(4) Varanasi-Kanyakumari
Answer (4)
137. Name the place where the Non-cooperation
Movement turned violent?
(1) Champaran
(2) Kheda
(3) Nagpur
(4) Chauri Chaura
Answer (4)
138. Whose name of the following is associated with
Kesari?
(1) Jyotiba Phule
(2) Dr. Ambedkar
(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(4) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer (3)
139. Who wrote the book ’Hind Swaraj’
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(4) Maulana Azad
Answer (1)
140. In which of the following year was Treaty of Vienna
signed?
(1) 1811 (2) 1810
(3) 1815 (4) 1812
Answer (3)
141. Which of the following compound is responsible for
the tarnishing of silver?
(1) Ag2O (2) Ag2CO
(3) Ag2S (4) AgCN
Answer (3)
Sol. 2 2 2Ag H S Ag S H+ → +
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142. Vinegar on reaction with baking soda produces a
gas which when passed through lime water turns it
milky. The milkiness is due to the formation of :
(1) Calcium Oxalate
(2) Calcium Carbonate
(3) Calcium Hydroxide
(4) Calcium Bicarbonate
Answer (2)
Sol. 3 3 3 2 2CH COOH NaHCO CH COONa CO H O+ ⎯⎯→ + +
2 2 3(milkiness)
Ca(OH) CO CaCO+ ⎯⎯→
143. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer by using the codes given below the list :
List-I List-II
(Name of acid) (Source)
(A) Lactic acid (i) Tamarind
(B) Malic acid (ii) Curd
(C) Acetic acid (iii) Tomato
(D) Tartaric acid (iv) Vinegar
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer (4)
144. When a coper vessel is exposed to moist air for
long time it acquires a dull green coating. This
coating is a mixture of :
(1) Coper Oxide and Coper Carbonate
(2) Copper Hydroxide and Copper carbonate
(3) Copper Oxide and Copper Hydroxide
(4) Copper Peroxide and Copper Carbonate
Answer (2)
Sol. 2 2 2 3 2Cu H O CO O CuCO Cu(OH)+ + + →
145. The Buckminster fullerene has
(1) 60 Carbon atoms (2) 58 carbon atoms
(3) 62 Carbon atoms (4) 56 carbon atoms
Answer (1)
Sol. Buckminster fullerene has C60 structure
146. Plaster of Paris can be prepared by heating _____
to a temperature of 100oC.
(1) CaSO3, 2H2O (2) CaCl2, 2H2O
(3) CaCO3, 2H2O (4) CaSO4,2H2O
Answer (4)
Sol. 100ºC
4 2 4 2 2gypsum
1 3CaSO 2H O CaSO . H O H O
2 2 ⎯⎯⎯→ +
147. The atomic number of four elements, P, Q, R and
S are 6, 8, 14 and 16 respectively. Out of these
element the metalloid is :
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) S
Answer (3)
148. Which of the following metals and nonmetals is
found in the liquid state at room temperature?
(1) Gallium and iodine
(2) Gallium and Bromine
(3) Mercury and Bromine
(4) Mercury and Sulphur
Answer (3)
Sol. Mercury is a metal which is liquid at room
temperature and bromine is a non metal liquid at
room temperature
149. The fluorescence on the walls of discharge tube is
due to :
(1) Cathode rays (2) Anode rays
(3) Canal rays (4) None of the above
Answer (1)
150. Isotopes of an element always have the
(1) Same number of Proton
(2) Same number of Neutron
(3) Same Charge
(4) None of the above
Answer (1)
Sol. Isotopes of an elements have same number of
protons i.e. atomic number.
151. Li is similar in behaviour to
(1) C (2) Si
(3) Mg (4) Be
Answer (3)
Sol. Diagonal relationship between Li and Mg
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152. The velocity of a reaction is defined as the
(1) increase of concentration of reactants per unit
time
(2) decrease of concentration of reactants per unit
time
(3) increase of concentration of products per unit
time
(4) both 2 and 3
Answer (4)
153. Property of self combination of the atom of the
same element to form long chain is known as
(1) Protonation (2) Carbonation
(3) Coronation (4) Catenation
Answer (4)
Sol. Self linking property of carbon atoms to form a
chain is catenation
154. When light passes from one medium to another
medium, which of the following remains
uncharged.
(1) Refractive index (2) Frequency
(3) Wavelength (4) Velocity
Answer (2)
155. Two waves have intensities in the ratio 1:9. If
these waves produce interference, then ratio of
maximum and minimum intensities is
(1) 3:1 (2) 4:1
(3) 9:1 (4) 16:1
Answer (2)
Sol.
22
max 1 2 1 1 1
2
min 2 2 21 2
( ) 1,
3( )
I a a I a a
I I a aa a
+= = =
−
2
max
min
44 :1
2
I
I
=
156. The minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced
by electrons accelerated through a potential
difference of V (Volt) is directly proportional to
(1) V (2) 2V
(3) 1/ V (4) 1/V
Answer (3)
Sol. 2 2
h h h
mv mk meV = =
157. A radioactive element has half life period 1600
years. After 6,400 years, what amount will remain?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/16
(3) 1/8 (4) 1/4
Answer (2)
Sol. 0 04n
N NN N
z z= =
6400
1600n
=
0
0
1
16 16
N NN
N= =
158. For a transistor lc/le = 0.96. The current gain in
common emitter configuration is
(1) 6 (2) 12
(3) 24 (4) 48
Answer (3)
Sol. Ic / Ie = 0.96
Ic = 0.96 Ie
IB = Ie – Ic = Ie – 0.96 Ie
= 0.04 Ie
Gain = 0.96
240.04
C e
B e
I I
I I= =
159. The mean free path of molecules of a gas
(radius r) is inversely proportional to:
(1) 3r (2) 2r
(3) r (4) 1/2r
Answer (2)
Sol. 2
1
d nv =
2
1
d
160. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
fundamental units, then dimensions of mass are:
(1) 1[ ]FVT (2) 2[ ]FVT
(3) 1 1[ ]FV T− (4) 1[ ]FV T−
Answer (4)
Sol. F = Ma
MV
FT
=
FT
MV
=
1[ ]FTV −=
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161. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge
Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the
centre of sphere respectively are
(1) 2
0
Zero and4
Q
R
(2)
0
and zero4
Q
R
(3) 2
0 0
and4 4
Q Q
R R
(4) Both are zero
Answer (2)
Sol. 04
kQ QV
R R= =
E = zero
162. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes
through the galvanometer. If resistance of
galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will
be:
(1) 1
499G (2)
499
500G
(3) 1
500G (4)
500
499G
Answer (3)
Sol.
G
R
I
I1
1 .
RI I
G R=
+
0.2499
R GR
G R= =
+
Req = 500
R G G
R G
=
+
163. If the focal length of objective lens is increased
then magnifying power of:
(1) Microscope will increase but that of telescope
will decrease
(2) Microscope and telescope both will increase
(3) Microscope and telescope both will decrease
(4) Microscope will decrease but that of telescope
will increase
Answer (4)
Sol. Magnifying power of a microscope mm = (foL) (feD)
Where fo is the focal length of objective lens.
1omm f
Thus of fo increases, then mm will decrease.
Magnifying power of telescope mt = fefo
otm f
Thus if fo is increased, then mt will increase.
164. Following figures show the arrangement of bar
magnets in different configurations. Each magnet
has magnetic dipole moment →M.
Which configuration has the highest net magnetic
dipole moment?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (2)
Sol. Pole strength will add
165. For a satellite, escape velocity is 111kms− . If the
satellite is launched at an angle of 60º with
vertical, the escape velocity will be
(1) 111kms− (2) 111 3 kms−
(3) 111/ 3 kms− (4) 133 kms−
Answer (1)
Sol. 2GM
vR
= = 11 km/s–1
166. The force Facting on a particle of mass m is
indicated by force – time graph shown below :
The change in momentum of the particle over the
time interval from zero to 8s is:
(1) 24 Ns (2) 20 Ns
(3) 12 Ns (4) 6 Ns
Answer (3)
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Sol. P = area of F–t curve
1
2 6 2 3 4 32
= + − +
= 12 Ns
167. Read the following statement and select the
correct option
(A) Wind pollinated flowers need to produce more
amount of pollen grains
(B) Seeds from cross pollinated flowers produce
weaker and less healthy plants.
(1) A is false, B is true
(2) A is true, B is false
(3) Both A and B are true
(4) Neither A nor B is true
Answer (2)
168. Which of the following is not controlled by medulla
(1) Blood pressure (2) Salivation
(3) Body posture (4) Vomitting
Answer (3)
Sol. Body posture is controlled by Cerebellum
169. Among the statements given below select the ones
that correctly describe the concept of sustainable
development.
(i) Planned growth with minimum damage to
environment.
(ii) Growth irrespective of the extent of damage to
the environment.
(iii) Stopping all developmental work to conserve
environment.
(iv) Growth that is acceptable to all the
stakeholders.
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) only
Answer (1)
170. Which one of the following is a definition of
ecosystem?
(1) Different communities of plants, animals and
microbes together with their environment.
(2) Different communities of plants and microbes
and their environment.
(3) A community of organisms interacting with one
another
(4) An association of seven plants and animals
Answer (1)
171. The correct pathway of blood circulation is
(1) Auricles → ventricles → Arteries → veins
(2) Ventricles → Auricles → Veins → Arteries
(3) Ventricles → Veins → Arteries → Auricles
(4) Veins → Ventricles → Arteries → Auricles
Answer (1)
Sol. Blood flows from auricles to ventricles, arteries
carry blood from ventricles to body cells.
172. Choose the event that does not occur in
photosynthesis.
(1) Absorption of light of chlorophyll
(2) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(3) Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
(4) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
Answer (3)
173. Which of the following statement is true?
(1) In human, there are two pairs of sex
chromosomes
(2) A child who inherits an X-chromosome from
father, will be a boy.
(3) A child who inherits a Y-chromosome from
father, will be a girl.
(4) A child who inherits an X-chromosome from
father, will be a girl
Answer (4)
Sol. A son always inherit Y chromosome from his father
and a Daughter always inherit X chromosome from
her father.
174. The accumulation of non-biodegradable
substances in a food chain in increasing amount at
each higher trophic level is known as.
(1) Accumulation
(2) Biomagnification
(3) Pollution
(4) Eutrophication
Answer (2)
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175. By adding diluted saliva in starch solution, the
starch solution stops giving iodine test. This
proves-
(1) Starch becomes non reactive in the presence
of saliva
(2) Saliva has enzyme which degrades starch into
sugars
(3) Starch was hydrolysed by water before adding
saliva
(4) None of these
Answer (2)
Sol. Saliva contain salivary amylase which cause
breakdown of starch
176. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which
hormone?
(1) Auxin
(2) Thyroxin
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Insulin
Answer (2)
177. In human males, all the chromosomes are paired
perfectly except one. This unpaired chromosome
is
(1) Large chromosome
(2) Small chromosome
(3) Y-chromosome
(4) X-chromosome
Answer (3)
178. The main cause of abundant coliform bacteria in
the river Ganga is
(1) Disposal of unburnt corpses into water
(2) Discharge of effluents from electroplating
industries
(3) Washing of clothes
(4) Immersion of ashes
Answer (1)
179. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in
the food chain in increasing amount at each higher
trophic level is known as
(1) Eutrophication (2) Pollution
(3) Biomagnification (4) Accumulation
Answer (3)
180. Which of the following is an example of
homologous organs?
(1) Our arm and a dog’s foreleg
(2) Our teeth and an elephant’s tusk
(3) Potato and runners of grass
(4) All of the above
Answer (4)
Sol. Homologous organs have similar structure, similar
embryological origin but performs different
functions
181. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 9 cm is
fully of liquid. The liquid is to be filled into the
cylindrical shaped small bottle each of diameter
3 cm and height 4 cm. How many bottles are
needed to empty the bowl.
(1) 52
(2) 54
(3) 53
(4) 51
Answer (2)
Sol. Let n bottles are needed to empty the bowl.
Volume of hemisphere = n × volume of cylinder
2
22 3(9) n (4)3 2
=
n = 54
182. A ship sails 12 km due north of a port and then
sails 14 km due east. How far is the ship from
port?
(1) 15.4
(2) 16.4
(3) 18.4
(4) 17.4
Answer (3)
Sol.
A
1 4 k m B
2 2AB 12 14 18.4= + = km
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183. The area of shaded portion in the given figure,
(1) 77 sq.units (2) 74 sq.units
(3) 72 sq.units (4) 89.5 sq.units
Answer (4)
Sol. Area of shaded region = area of square – areas of
’s
21 1
12 7 12 5 52 2
= − −
= 144 - 42 - 12.5
= 89.5 sq. units
184. The thp term of an A.P. is q and the thq term is p.
Find the thr term
(1) p + q + r (2) p + q – r
(3) p – q + r (4) p – q – r
Answer (2)
Sol. ap = q a + (p–1) d = q ... (i)
aq = p a + (q–1) d = p ...(ii)
(i)-(ii)
d = –1
Substitude d in equation (i)
a + (p – 1) (–1)= q
a = p + q – 1
ar = a + (r–1)d
= p + q –1+ (r–1) (–1)
ar = p + q –r
185. If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point “h”
meter above a lake is ' ' and the anlge of
depression of its reflection in the lake is ' ' , find
the distance of the cloud from the point of
observation.
(1) 2 sec
tan tan
h
− (2)
2
tan tan
h
−
(3) 2 sec
tan tan
h
+ (4)
2
tan tan
h
+
Answer (1)
Sol.
h
x
y
h
g + h
a
2
tan ,.........(i)tan .....(ii)y h y
x x
+ = =
(i)/(ii) tan
tan 2
y
h y
=
+
tan 2
1tan
h
y
= +
2 tan tan tan 2 tan
1tan tan tan tan
h hy
y
− = − = =
−
siny
a =
2 tan
sin sin (tan tan )
y ha
= =
−
2 sin / cos 2 sec
sin (tan tan ) tan tan
h h = =
− −
186. Shilpa sells apples to her customer at the cost
price itself but uses a weight of 800 g instead of
1 kg weight. Find the profit percentage.
(1) 30% (2) 35%
(3) 25% (4) 20%
Answer (3)
Sol. 200 g she saves
profit % = 200
100 25%800
=
187. If a natural number ' ' is divided by 7, the
remainder is 5. If natural number ' ' is divided by
7, the remainder is 3. The remainder is ‘r’ if + is
divided by 7. Find the value of 3 5
4
r +
(1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 11
Answer (1)
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Sol. 17 5q = +
27 3q = +
1 27( ) 8q q + = + + = 1 2 37( 1) 1 7 1q q q+ + + = +
remainder = 1
Now 3 5 3(1) 5 8
24 4 4
r + += = =
188. Ruhan’s salary in 2019 is Rs. 1,77,100. His salary
from 2016 has risen annually by 10,15 and 40
percent respectively to reach 2019 salary figures.
What was his salary in 2016.
(1) Rs. 1,00,000 (2) Rs. 1,20,000
(3) Rs. 1,15,000 (4) Rs. 95,000
Answer (1)
Sol. Ruhan’s salary in 2019 is Rs. 1,77,100.
Let his salary in 2016 = x
10 15 40
1 1 1 177100100 100 100
x + + + =
x = 100000
189. A railway engine is travelling along a circular
railway track of radius 1500 metres with as speed
of 66 km/hr. Find the angle turned by the engine in
10 seconds.
(1) 5º (2) 6º
(3) 7º (4) 8º
Answer (3)
Sol.
1 5 0 0 m
q
Speed of train = 66 km/h
Time = 10 seconds = 10 1
60 60 360h h=
Distance travelled by train in 1
360h = speed ×
time
1
66 km360
=
1
km60
=
Now let q angle is made by train in 10 S
11
2 km360 60
rq
= = 11
1000m60
22 1
2 1500 1000360 7 60
q =
q = 7º
190. If x men can do a work in 8 days and (x + 4) can
do the work in 6 days then x is equal to
(1) 10
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 24
Answer (3)
Sol. x men do a work in 8 days
(x + 4) men do the work in 6 days.
x × 8 = (x + 4) × 6
8x = 6x + 24
2x = 24
x = 12
191. If 2 2 2 2x y z r+ + = where x = r cos cos ,
y = cos sinr , then z has one of the following
values
(1) cosr (2) tan cosr
(3) tan tanr (4) sinr
Answer (4)
Sol. 2 2 2 2x y z r+ + =
cos cosz r= 2 2 2 2cos cosx r=
cos siny r= 2 2 2 2cos siny r=
cos siny r= 2 2 2 2cos siny r=
2 2 2 2 2 2cos (sin cos )x y r+ = +
= 2 2cosr
2 2 2 2x y z r+ + =
2 2 2 2cosr z r + =
2 2 2cosz r r= = −
2 2(1 cos )r= −
2 2 2sinz r=
sinz r=
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192. Find the value of ‘x’ from the given figure in which
O is the centre of circle.
(1) 40º (2) 50º
(3) 80º (4) 90º
Answer (2)
Sol. 40BAC =
80BOC =
In BOC
180OBC OCB BOC + + =
2x + 80 = 180
2x = 100
x = 50º
193. Radha’s grandfather was 8 times older to her 16
years ago. He would be 3 times of her age 8 years
from now. Eight years ago, what was the ratio
Radha’s age to that of her grandfather?
(1) 1:2 (2) 3:8
(3) 11:53 (4) 1:5
Answer (3)
Sol. Let Radha’s age = x
And Radha’s grandfather’s age = y
Radha’s grandfather was 8 times older to her 16
years ago
(y – 16) = 8 (x-16)
8x – y – 112 = 0 ...(i)
He would be 3 times of her age 8 years from now
(y + 8) = 3 (x + 8)
3x – y + 16 = 0 ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
128 464
,5 5
x y= =
88 424
8 , 85 5
x y− = − =
Now 8 11
8 53
x
y
−=
−
194. One liters of water weighs 1 kg. How many cubic
millimetres of water weights 0.1 gms?
(1) 100 (2) 1
(3) 10 (4) 0.1
Answer (1)
Sol. 1 litres of water weights 1 kg
103 m3 of water weights 103 gram
106 mm3 of water weights 103 gram
100 mm3 of water weights 0.1 gram
195. The probability that card drawn from a pack of 52
cards will be diamond or a queen is
(1) 2
13 (2)
4
13
(3) 1
13 (4)
1
52
Answer (2)
Sol. Total diamond or a queen cards = 16
P(E) = 16 4
52 13=
196. If , ,a b cx y y z z x= = = then find the value of abc.
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
Answer (2)
Sol. x = ya, y = zb, z = xc
( )c by x=
bcy x=
( )bc ax x=
abcx x=
abc = 1
197. If but 2 25 3, 5 3 = − = − then equation
whose roots are
&
is
(1) 23 19 3 0x x− + = (2)
23 19 3 0x x+ + =
(3) 23 18 3 0x x− + = (4)
23 18 3 0x x+ + =
Answer (1)
Sol. 2 5 3 = − 2 5 3 = −
and and roots of 2 5 3 0x x− + =
5 + = 3 =
-
NTSE (S-I) 20 -20 21
- 22 -
Now equation whose roots are
and
2 0x x
− + + =
2 2
2 1 0x x +
− + =
2
2 ( ) 2 1 0x x + −
− + =
219
1 03
x x− + =
23 19 3 0x x− + =
198. If , ,x b c y c a z a b= + = + = + then find the value
of 2 2 2
2 2 2
x y z yz zx xy
a b c bc ca ab
+ + − − −
+ + − − −
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) –1
Answer (2)
Sol. 2 2 2
2 2 2
x y z yz zx xy
a b c bz ca ab
+ + − − −=
+ + − − −
2 2 2
2 2 2
1( ) ( ) ( )
21
( ) ( ) ( )2
x y y z z x
a b b c c a
− + − + −
− + − + −
2 2 2
2 2 2
( ) ( ) ( )
( ) ( ) ( )
b a c b a c
a b b c c a
− + − + −=
− + − + −= 1
199. If tan sin aq+ q = and tan sin bq− q = , what is the
value 2 2( )a b ab− ¸
(1) -3 (2) -4
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (4)
Sol. tan sin ,tan sina bq+ q = − q =
2tan , 2sina b a b+ = q − = q
( )( ) 4 tan sina b a b+ − = q
2 2 4tan sina b− = q q ...(i)
2 2tan sina b = q − q
2 2sin (sin 1)a b = q q −
= q q2 2sin tanab
= q qsin tanab ...(ii)
(i)/(ii) 4tan sin
4sin tan
q q=
q q
200. The line segment joining the points (3,4) and (1,2)
is trisected at the points A&B. If the co-ordinates of
A&B are (a, –2) & 5
,3
b
respectively. Find the
value of a and b.
(1) 7
0,3
a b= =
(2) 7
, 03
a b= =
(3) a = 7, b = 3
(4) a = 3, b = 7
Answer (Answer not matched*)
Sol.
A B
1 : 2
2 : 1
(3 , 4 ) (1 , 2 )
Co-ordinate of 1 1 2 3 1 2 2 4
,1 2 1 2
A + +
+ +
7 10
,3 3
Co-ordinate of B 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 4
,1 2 1 2
+ +
+ +
5 8
,3 3
❑ ❑ ❑
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