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Q.No. Question Option A Option B Option C Option D1 FDDI stands for Fast Data Distribution Interface Fiber Distributed Data Interface Fiber Data Distribution Interface Fast Distributed Data Interface2 A is an optical disk device that can automatically load and unload optical disks and provide as much as 500 gigabytes of near-line information. Harddisk CD-drive Jukebox WORM3 A digital pen is an output device processing device a storage device an input device 4 Which one of these is not a multimedia input device Plotter Electronic Pen Smart Pen Digital camera5 In a gray scale image, _______ stands for gray colour. 0 255 127 2566 One of the lossy compression technique used for Audio object is ________. Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) Motion Pictures Experts Group (MPEG) Adaptive Differential Pulse Code Modulation (ADPCM) CCITT H.2617 In a 16 bpp (bits per pixel) , number of colours are ______. 1024 256 65536 648 For encoding of bi-level image data, one of the compression standard algorithm used is________ CCITT Group 3 1-D JPEG MPEG RLE9 MIDI stands for Master Instrumental Digital Interface Musical Instrumental Digitised Interface Major Instrumental Digital Interface Musical Instrument Digital Interface10 Whistling wind is an example of --------sound Periodic Breaking Non periodic Regular11 Quantization is the number of bits used in measuring the height of the______ .Waveform Frequency Phase Period12 For music, we need to compress the digitized signals at 1.41 I-MHz 1.42 I-MHz 1.45 I-MHz 1.48 I-MHz13 In streaming stored audio/video, the files are compressed and stored on a IP Server Domain Internet14 PAL is Digital video standard Analog video standard Audio file standard Image file standard15 MP3 falls in which of the following MPEG standards? MPEG-4 MPEG-3 MPEG-2 MPEG-1

16If frames are displayed on screen fast enough, we get an impression of Signals

Motion Packets Bits

17 How many types of video compressions are possible? 1 2 3 418 SIF in digital video stands for Standard Interchange Format Significant Influence Format Source Input Format Standard Input Format19 Multimedia elements can be grouped in a project using Multimedia tool Video Tool Audio tool Authoring tool20 GUI in multimedia is an abbreviation for General User Interface Graphical User Interface General User Information Graphic User Information21 For Advanced Chatbox application what are the options required in GUI Text Field, Send Button Text Field, Send button, Audio Mic Text Field, Send button, Video Button22 Which one is not an image steganography file? AVI BMP TIFF PNG23 Which bits are used for simple steganography purposes so that quality of image is affected minimal? MSB bits Higher nibble bits Any bits LSB bits24 Which one is a steganographic method? Distortion method Pure method Secret key method Public key method25 A method in which the secret data is spread over a wide frequency bandwidth Spread spectrum Ecliptic curve Masking Filtering

University of MumbaiExamination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

Course : Multimedia Sytems Time : 1 hour Max. Marks: 50

Text Field, Send button, Audio Button, Video Button

Program: Computer EngineeringCurriculum Scheme : Revised 2016

Examination: Third Year Sem V

Note : All questions are compulsory and each carry equal marks.

Q.No. Question Option A Option B Option D1 The resource management in OS can be done via Time Multiplexing Space

MultiplexingTime and Space

Multiplexing2 A classic example of Layered approach of OS MULTICS System Hydra VM 3703

Which table identifies all open files for a process? File Table Inode TableUser File

descriptor table

4 Which block describes the state of a file system? Boot Block Super Block Inode Block5 Which Method used by the kernel to minimize the frequency of disk access to increase the response time

and throughput? Pooling Spooling Buffer cache

6 Which option of ls command can be used to view file inode number? l o a7 Which one is not the field of buffer header? Size Block Number Device Number Status8

Which mechanism is used to maintain the free list of buffers? Using link list Maintaining free list of array

Doubly Link List with least recently used

mechanismDoubly Link List

9 Which of the following is used to search buffer of disk block in buffer pool? Device number and block number

Block number and inode number

Device number and status

Device number and inode number

10 Which context includes the process text, data, user stack, and shared memory that occupy the virtual address space of the process? User-level context Register context System-level context Region

11 Which register specifies the address of the next instruction the CPU will execute? Stack pointer The processor status Register

Program counter Register

General Purpose Register

12 Which one is not component of register context? The processor status Register

Program counter Register

General Purpose Register

Base pointer Register

13 Which context of a process consists of static part and dynamic part? User-level context Register context System-level context Region14 How many static parts are needed for each process in system-level context throughout its lifetime? One Two Three Five15 Algorithm for Handling Interrupts iput bread inthand ifree16 Distributed systems are intended for : High Computing

TasksSmall Tasks

Aperiodic Tasks17 Degree of Transparency is high in NOS DOS Advaced OS18 Which of the following is not provided by Scheduler Activation to the user level threads? Execution context Space in the Kernel Notifications about

kernel level events19 Which of the following ststements is false for Test and Set operation- Atomic Operation Needs more than

one memory cycleIs a Scheduling mechanism

20 Which of the following statements is false for SWAP instruction Used for process synchronization

Exchange the content of two

21 Fetch and Add Add a constant to memory location

Used for process synchronization

Its not a atomic operation

22 If a process is waitng to enter critical section it has to acquire spinlock kernel permission Processor 23 A system that needs an application to meet the average deadlines is called- Real time system Embedded Distributed system Homogeneous 24 Which of the following is not a characteristic of real time system- Fast response Low overhead Deadlines are strict Openenss25 Failure to meet the timing requirement can have catastrophic consequences. Hard Real Time Soft real time Embedded system Real time system

Periodic tasks

Used for process synchronization

OS permission

Swapping


Multiprocessor OS

Increase the traffic on Interconnect networkEliinates Overhead on memory

Process Scheduling mechanisms

Process Scheduling mechanisms

Process Management

IBM 370

Data Block

i

Stack Table


Course : AOS Time : 1hour Max. Marks: 50

Option C


Examination: TE Year Sem V

Module Q.No. Question Option A Option B Option C Option D1 If the recurrence relation is T(n) = T(n/2) + n, then the solution is T(n) = O(logn) T(N) = O(n) T(n) = O(n^2) T(n) = O(nlogn)2 If the recurrence relation is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + n^3, then the solution is O(n^3) O(n^2) O(n log^2 n) O(n logn)3 Which of the following is the complexity of the algorithm having equation T(n) = T(n-1) + 1? O(n^3) O(n) O(n^2) None of the above4 In which of the following, there is hardly any need to carry out the amortized analysis? Red-black trees Splay trees A 1-dimensional array None of the above5 In the hiring assistant problem, if candidates come in strictly increasing order of the quality

then total hiring cost will be _____________ where total n no of candidates interviewed?(Ci

and Ch costs related to interview and hiring candidate).

A. O(Ch) B. O(Ci) C. O(nCh) D. O(1)

6 For Randomized algorithm Monte Carlo which is the correct statement? A. No incorrect result produced

B. Does not terminate in constant time

C. Chances of producing incorrect results

D. Not used for random search

7 Randomized algorithms improve the ____________________ time complexity of some algorithms such as Quick sort.

A. Best case B. Average Case C. Worst Case D. Normal Case

8 Deterministic algorithm: for _____________it always gives the ________and has the same running-time

A. different inputs, same output

B. a fixed input, same output C. one input, many output D. random input,random output

9 The children of red color node are Red White Black No color10 A Binomial tree Bi has nodes i n 2^i n*n11 In Amortised Analysis,each type of operation may have different

amortised cost is considered inAggregate Analysis Accounting Analysis Pothential Analysis Dynamic analysis

12 In Red black tree,detetion of this node is easy Black Red Root Leaf13 Height of a binomial tree Bi is i*i n 0 i14 In the flow network the vertex with no leaving edges is called as sink vertex source vertex vertex with maximum vertex with minimum weight15 in push relable algorithm vertex hight determine the flow is pushed from higher vertex to lower lower to higher sideways only with equal hight16 in the flow network if flow in edge u,v is f(u,v) is less than capacity c(u,v) then there is forward

edge with residual capacity of c(u,v)-f(u,v) c(u,v)+f(u,v) c(u,v)/f(u,v) c(u,v)

17 The Ford-Fulkerson method when we shall declare that we found maximum flow ? if and only if residual network contains no augmenting path.

if more than one augmented path present

if exactly one augmented path present

it does not matter how many augneted paths are present

18 If there exist a path from source to sink in residual graph then ,____ there is possiblity to add more flow

no more flow can be added only negative flow is possible from source to

source vertex can be removed

19 Approximation algorithm generates Exact solution Fixed solution Approximate solution Feasible solution20 Vertex cover problem is NP P NP hard NP Complete21 Which of the problems is not NP complete Partition Halting problem Hamiltonian circuit Bin packing22 Closest pair problems arises in Graph Coloring problems String Matching Computational theory Numerical problem23 Another name used for Approximation algorithm Heuristic algorithm Johnson's algorithm Parallel Algorithm Warshall algorithm24 For finding closest pair of points which algorithm is used Jarvis's March Algorithm Divide and conquer algorithm Graham Scan algorithm Prim's algorithm25 A closed polyline is called a Closed chain Polyclosed Polygon Polychain5



Examination: Third Year Sem V Course : CSDLO5013: Advance Algorithm Time : 1hour Max. Marks: 50


University of Mumbai Examination 2020 under cluster 3 (FCRIT)

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Program: BE Electronics Engineering

Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016

Examination: Third Year Semester V

Course Code: ELXDLO5014 and Course Name: Biomedical Instrumentation

Time: 1hour Max. Marks: 50

==============================================================================

Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. ERG stands for Option A: Electroretinogram Option B: Electroencephalography Option C: Electromyography Option D: Electrtokinetcography Q2. Resting Potential is Option A: The membrane potential measured when a equilibrium is reached Option B: The membrane potential measured when a equilibrium is not reached Option C: Electric potential Option D: other Q3. The principal ion that is not involved with the phenomena of generation of bio-

potentials is Option A: sodium Option B: potassium Option C: chlorine Option D: hydrogen Q4. The procedure of applying electric shock to resynchronize heart is known as Option A: Emergency shock Option B: Mechanical shock Option C: Flash procedure Option D: Countershock Q5. A Coulter Counter is able to Option A: Count Complete Blood Count Option B: Only RBC Option C: Only WBC Option D: Only platelets Q6. COVID-19 is related to


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Option A: Respiratory illness Option B: Brain illness Option C: Heart illness Option D: Liver illness Q7. The Beer-Lambert law Option A: is a non-linear relationship between the absorbance and the concentration,

molar absorption coefficient and optical coefficient of a solution Option B: is a linear relationship between the absorbance and the concentration, molar

absorption coefficient and optical coefficient of a solution Option C: is a logarithmic relationship between the absorbance and the concentration,

molar absorption coefficient and optical coefficient of a solution Option D: Has no relationship between the absorbance and the concentration, molar

absorption coefficient and optical coefficient of a solution Q8. Sensitivity of Electrocardiograph is Option A: 20 mm/mV Option B: 10 mm/mV Option C: 50 mm/mV Option D: 100 mm/mV Q9. Electrodes to measure EEG are placed on Option A: Forehead Option B: Scalp Option C: cheek Option D: ears Q10. Which type of leads will have higher potential Option A: Augmented leads Option B: precordial leads Option C: Bipolar leads Option D: Simple leads Q11. A plethysmograph is an instrument for measuring Option A: changes in volume within an organ or whole body (usually resulting from

fluctuations in the amount of blood or air it contains). Option B: changes in blood flow within an organ or whole body (usually resulting from

fluctuations in the amount of blood or air it contains). Option C: CBC Option D: Attenuation coefficient Q12. Types of Defibrillators Option A: AC Option B: DC Option C: AC and DC


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Option D: Not available Q13. Frequency range of QRS complex is Option A: 0-10 Hz Option B: 0-20 Hz Option C: 10-20 Hz Option D: 15-20 Hz Q14. The ability of the preamplifier to reject common voltages on its two input leads

is known as Option A: common mode rejection rate Option B: coupled mode rejection rate Option C: common mode rejection ratio Option D: coupled mode rejection ratio Q15. Lead I is the potential difference between Option A: right arm (RA) electrode and left arm (LA) electrode: Option B: left arm (LA) electrode and right leg(RL) electrode: Option C: right leg (RL) electrode and right arm (RA) electrode: Option D: RA+RL+LA Q16. According to the international 10/20 system to measure EEG, even number

denotes which side of the brain? Option A: Left Option B: Top Option C: Bottom Option D: right Q17. Which type of filter is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by the

power supply in the ECG circuit? Option A: band pass filters Option B: high pass filters Option C: notch filters Option D: low pass filters Q18. What is the frequency range of ECG? Option A: 0.05-150 kHZ Option B: 50-500 Hz Option C: 5-50 kHz Option D: 0.05-120 Hz Q19. Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by blood against __________ Option A: Kidneys Option B: Arterial walls Option C: brain


4 | P a g e

Option D: stomach Q20. Are CT and CAT scan the same? Option A: same Option B: Not same Option C: Cannot say Option D: Have some relation Q21. Which of the following instrument is most commonly used for measurement of

blood flow? Option A: NMR Blood Flowmeter Option B: Ultrasonic Blood Flowmeter Option C: Electromagnetic Blood Flowmeter Option D: Laser Doppler Blood Flowmeter Q22. The principal modes of ultrasound used in echocardiography are Option A: 2-D, M-mode, Colour flow doppler imaging, Pulse wave Doppler, Continuous

wave Doppler, Tissue doppler Option B: Continuous wave Doppler, Tissue doppler Option C: Colour flow doppler imaging, Pulse wave Doppler Option D: 2-D, M-mode Q23. Hemodialysis utilizes Option A: counter current flow, where the dialysate is flowing in the downward direction

to blood flow in the extracorporeal circuit. Option B: counter current flow, where the dialysate is flowing in the same direction to

blood flow in the extracorporeal circuit. Option C: counter current flow, where the dialysate is flowing in the upward direction to

blood flow in the extracorporeal circuit. Option D: counter current flow, where the dialysate is flowing in the opposite direction to

blood flow in the extracorporeal circuit. Q24. The volume that flows across a heart valve in any moment (dV) is equal to Option A: the duration of the moment (dt) multiplied by velocity of blood (v) and the cross

sectional area of the valve (A). Option B: Blood pumped Option C: Total blood in RA chamber Option D: Blood flow volume Q25. Pacemakers are electric activity generating devices which are used for the

treatment of patients Option A: with fast heart rate, or symptomatic heart blocks and in patients with heart

failure Option B: Suffering with heart attack Option C: with slow heart rate, or symptomatic heart blocks and in patients with heart


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failure Option D: With asthama




Course Code: ELXDLO5012 and Course Name: Digital Control Systems

Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50

========================================================================

Note to the students: - All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. The spectrum of the sampled signal may be obtained without overlapping only if (fs is sampling frequency, fm is maximum frequency in the signal)

Option A: fs > 2fm Option B: fs < 2fm Option C: fs > fm Option D: fs < fm Q2. Transfer function of Zero Order Hold is Option A:

Option B:

Option C:

Option D:

Q3. H (z) is discrete rational transfer function. To ensure that both H(z) and its

inverse are stable: Option A: Poles must be inside the unit circle and zeros must be outside the unit circle Option B: Poles and zeroes must be outside the unit circle Option C: Poles and zeroes must be inside the unit circle Option D: Poles must be outside the unit circle and zeros must be inside the unit circle. Q4. Identify the block A & B in given block diagram of Digital control system

Option A: A: Filter circuit, B: Hold Circuit Option B: A: S/H circuit and ADC, B: Filter circuit Option C: A: S/H circuit and ADC, B: Sensor Option D: A: Integrator, B: Hold Circuit Q5. What is the correct equation of the pulse signal shown below?

Option A: u(t)-u(t-2) Option B: u(t)-u(2) Option C: u(t)+u(t-2) Option D: u(t)-u(t+2) Q6.

What is the equation of the impulse train shown in the figure above?

Option A:

Option B:

Option C:

Option D: 1 Q7. Which of the following describes bilinear discretization method. Option A: Take the backward difference of the signal derivative Option B: Sample the impulse response of continuous time system Option C: Sample the step response of continuous time system Option D: Use the bilinear transformation Q8. Which of the following relationship is true for the pulse transfer function Option A: G(z)H(z) = GH(z) Option B: G(z)H(z) ≠ GH(z) Option C: G(z)H(z) >= GH(z) Option D: G(z)H(z) <= GH(z) Q9. For the system shown below

Find the velocity error constant (Kv)

Option A: Option B: Option C: Option D: Q10. What is the number of the root locus segments which do not terminate on

zeroes? Option A: The number of poles Option B: The number of zeroes Option C: The sum of the number of poles and the number of the zeroes Option D: The difference between the number of poles and zeroes Q11. Which of the following can be a state transition matrix for digital system? Option A: At Option B: eAt Option C: Ak Option D: e-At Q12. In a digital control system, when the number of poles is equal to the number of

zeroes, how many branches of root locus tend towards infinity? Option A: 0 Option B: 1

Option C: 2 Option D: 3 Q13. Which of the following methods is not used for realization of pulse transfer

function of digital controllers Option A: Direct programming Option B: Standard programming Option C: Series programming Option D: Finite programming Q14. The characteristic equation: P(z) = z3 − 1.3z2 − 0.08z + 0.24 = 0

Where a0 = 1, a1 = −1.3, a2 = −0.08, a3 = 0.24. According to Jury’s stability condition, find which of the following statement is true?

Option A: Stable because all 4 conditions are satisfied Option B: Unstable Option C: Stable as 3 out of 4 conditions are satisfied Option D: Stability cannot be found Q15. Consider . What is the value of A matrix in controllable canonical form of this

system Option A: Option B: Option C: Option D: Q16. Which of the following is not a type of state-space representation of discrete-

time system? Option A: Controllable canonical form Option B: Diagonal canonical form Option C: Ladder canonical form Option D: Jordan canonical form Q17. . What is the value of C matrix in state-space representation of this transfer

function in controllable canonical form? Option A: [1 0] Option B: [0 1] Option C: [-1 -1] Option D: [1 1] Q18. Z- transform of is Option A: Option B: Option C: Option D: Q19. Transfer function analysis is applicable when the initial conditions are

Option A: Zero Option B: Non zero Option C: Equal Option D: Positive Q20. Which of the following is not a method to compute solution of discrete-time

control system? Option A: Caley-Hamilton theorem Option B: Z-transform method Option C: Diagonalization Option D: La’Hospital’s rule Q21. The state variable equations of a system are

Is the system reachable?

Option A: System is not reachable Option B: System is reachable Option C: Data insufficient for finding reachability Option D: Cannot be found as matrix A and B are not given Q22. If it is possible compute the states of the system from measured output then

the system is said to be Option A: Observable Option B: Controllable Option C: Cannot be determined Option D: Both Controllable and observable Q23. Which of the following is true for digital PID controller? Option A: Increasing the proportional gain increases the overshoot Option B: Increasing the integral gain increases the stability Option C: Increasing the derivative gain reduces the settling time Option D: Proportional gain has not effect on stability Q24. Partial fraction of is Option A: Option B: Option C: Option D: Q25. In the Bilinear Transformation mapping, which of the following are correct? Option A: All points in the LHP of s are mapped outside the unit circle in the z-plane Option B: All points in the RHP of s are mapped inside the unit circle in the z-plane Option C: All points in the LHP & RHP of s are mapped inside & outside the unit circle in

the z-plane Option D: All points in the LHP & RHP of s are mapped outside & inside the unit circle in

the z-plane


1 | P a g e



Examination: Third Year Semester V Course Code: ELX DLO5011 Course Name: Database Management System.

Time:1hour Max. Marks:50

======================================================================

Note to the students:- All Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. In the Architecture of database system external level is Option A: Physical level

Option B: Logical level

Option C: Conceptual level

Option D: View level

Q2. Which of the following in not a function of DBA?

Option A: Network Maintenance

Option B: Schema Definition

Option C: Authorization for data access

Option D: Routine Maintenance

Q3. Which of the following is not a Storage Manager Component?

Option A: Transaction Manager

Option B: Logical Manager

Option C: File Manager

Option D: Buffer Manager

Q4. The descriptive property possessed by each entity set is _________


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Option A: Entity

Option B: Attribute

Option C: Relation

Option D: Model

Q5. In an Entity Relationship Diagram Double Rectangles represents

Option A: Weak Entity

Option B: Strong Entity

Option C: Multivalued Entity

Option D: Attributes

Q6. The attribute that can be divided into other attributes is called

Option A: Composite Attribute

Option B: Derived Attribute

Option C: Simple Attribute

Option D: Multi-valued Attribute

Q7. Which relationship is used to represent a specialization entity? Option A: AIS

Option B: ISA

Option C: ONIS

Option D: WHOIS

Q8. What action does ⋈ operator perform in relational algebra

Option A: Output specified attributes from all rows of the input relation and remove

duplicate tuples from the output

Option B: Outputs pairs of rows from the two input relations that have the same value on all attributes that have the same name


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Option C: Output all pairs of rows from the two input relations (regardless of whether or not they have the same values on common attributes)

Option D: Return rows of the input relation that satisfy the predicate

Q9. Choose the option that correctly explains in words, the function of the following

relational algebra expression σyear≥2017 (Employee)

Option A: Selects all tuples from the Employee

Option B: Selects all the tuples from Employee wherever the year is lesser than 2017

Option C: Selects all the tuples from the Employee wherever the year is greater than or equal to 2017

Option D: Selects all tuples from the Employee wherever the year is greater than or equal to 2009

Q10. Which of the following is not an Aggregate function?

Option A: Select

Option B: Avg

Option C: Min

Option D: Max

Q11. Which of the following is not Unary operation?

Option A: Rename

Option B: Select

Option C: Project

Option D: Union

Q12. Which of the following SQL clauses is used to DELETE tuples from a database

table?

Option A: DELETE

Option B: REMOVE


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Option C: DROP

Option D: CLEAR

Q13. With SQL, how do you select all the columns from a table named "Persons"?

Option A: SELECT *.Persons

Option B: SELECT Persons

Option C: SELECT [all] FROM Persons

Option D: SELECT * FROM Persons

Q14. Which of the following is not Constraint in SQL? Option A: Primary Key

Option B: Not Null

Option C: Check

Option D: Union

Q15. Which of the following is the correct order of occurrence in a typical SQL

statement? Option A: select, where, group by, having

Option B: select, group by, where, having

Option C: select, where, having, group by ,select, having, where, group by

Option D: select, having, where, group by

Q16. Which one of the following is also known as INNER JOIN? Option A: In Join

Option B: Equi Join

Option C: Out Join

Option D: Full Join

Q17. A function that has no partial functional dependencies is in _______ form:


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Option A: 2NF

Option B: 3NF

Option C: BCNF

Option D: INF

Q18. One solution to the multivalued dependency constraint problem is to: Option A: change the theme.

Option B: add a composite key

Option C: split the relation into two relations, each with a single theme.

Option D: create a new theme.

Q19. If every non-key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key, the

relation will be in

Option A: Fourth Formal Form

Option B: Third Normal Form

Option C: First Normal Form

Option D: Second Normal Form

Q20. Suppose relation R(A,B,C,D,E) has the following functional dependencies:

Which of the following is not a key? A -> B B -> C BC -> A A -> D E -> A D -> E

Option A: A

Option B: E

Option C: B,C

Option D: D

Q21. If a schedule S can be transformed into a schedule S’ by a series of swaps of non-


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conflicting instructions, then S and S’ are

Option A: Non conflict equivalent

Option B: Equal

Option C: Conflict equivalent

Option D: Isolation equivalent

Q22. A transaction can proceed only after the concurrency control manager ________

the lock to the transaction Option A: Grants

Option B: Requests

Option C: Allocates

Option D: Access

Q23. What is ACID properties of Transactions?

Option A: Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Database

Option B: Automatically, Concurrency, Isolation, Durability

Option C: Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability

Option D: Atomicity, Consistency, Inconsistent, Durability

Q24. A lock that allows concurrent transactions to access different rows of the same

table is known as a Option A: Row-level lock

Option B: Database-level lock

Option C: Field-level lock

Option D: Table-level lock

Q25. Locks placed by command are called ________ . Option A: implicit locks

Option B: explicit locks


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Option C: exclusive locks

Option D: shared locks


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Program: BE Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering


Examination: Third Year Semester - V

Course Code and Course Name: ECCDLO5012 – TV and Video Engineering


===============================================================================


Q1. Image orthicon is based on Option A: Photoemission principle Option B: Photoconduction principle Option C: Photopassesion Principle Option D: Photo sensation principle Q2. Line blanking period is Option A: Equal to the horizontal retrace Option B: Slightly greater than the horizontal retrace Option C: Slightly less than the horizontal retrace Option D: Equal to the Vertical retrace Q3. The color characteristic interpreted by chrominance to luminance ratio is Option A: Its hue Option B: Its saturation level Option C: Its brightness level Option D: Its tint level Q4. Which of the following displays has minimum power consumption Option A: LCD Option B: LED Option C: Fluorescent Option D: Nixie tubes Q5. Y-signals are also called------signals Option A: Chrominance Option B: Luminance Option C: Multiplexed Option D: Color-difference Q6. A color burst consists of at least Option A: 8 cycles of 4..5 MHz voltage


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Option B: 60 cycles of 45.75 MHz voltage Option C: 8 cycles of 3.579545 MHz voltage Option D: 60 cycles of 15,750 Hz voltage Q7. In an image-orthicon camera-tube, when the light intensity from a particular spot

in the scene is high, the number of electrons in the return beam from the point where that particular intensity beam strikes the target is

Option A: High too Option B: Low Option C: Immaterial Option D: None of these Q8. Insufficient horizontal gain in a TV receiver may result in a raster with Option A: Reduced width Option B: A vertical line Option C: Reduced height Option D: Poor brightness Q9. Smallest element of digital picture is called Option A: Pixel Option B: Sample Option C: Quantum Option D: Particle Q10. Modulation is used for Option A: Transmitting intelligence over long distances Option B: Increasing the bandwidth of transmission Option C: Allowing the use of cheaper tubes Option D: To create a noise signal Q11. The purpose of blanking pulses is to Option A: Ensure a uniform scanning rate Option B: Avoid flickering effect Option C: Make the retraces invisible Option D: Make the retrace visible Q12. Which of the following is not compression techniques Option A: MPEG2 Option B: DCT Option C: H.264 Option D: NTSC Q13. A complete television signal consists of Option A: Sync pulses and a sound signal Option B: Camera signal


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Option C: A video signal and sync pulses Option D: A composite video signal and sound signal Q14. Modulation method used in DVB system for digital video transmission is Option A: AM Option B: FM Option C: OFDM Option D: TDM Q15. A vidicon is a camera-tube Option A: Based on photoconductive principles and orthogonally scanned Option B: Based on photoconductive principles and using selenium or antimony target

material Option C: Based on photo emissive principle Option D: That is no longer used Q16. MPEG-2 standard of compression cannot support Option A: SDTV Option B: HDTV Option C: Multimedia surround sound system Option D: DTH Q17. The minimum size of screen in widescreen TV system is __________ cm Option A: 80 Option B: 100 Option C: 120 Option D: 140 Q18. Three main factors used to distinguish one color from another are Option A: Wavelength, luminance and chrominance Option B: Hue, saturation and luminance Option C: Wavelength, hue and saturation Option D: Brightness, contrast and wavelength Q19. Aspect ratio for HDWDTV is ________ for European MAC system. Option A: 4:3 Option B: 5:3 Option C: 16:9 Option D: 2:1 Q20. In India the width of one channel is Option A: 1 MHz Option B: 2 MHz Option C: 5 MHz Option D: 7 MHz


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Q21. MAC and DVB system of HDTV broadcast were developed in Option A: USA Option B: Europe Option C: India Option D: Japan Q22. Interlacing is used in television to Option A: Produce the illusion of motion Option B: Ensure that all the lines on the screen are scanned, not merely the alternate ones Option C: Simplify the vertical sync pulse train Option D: Avoid flicker Q23. Three main factors used to distinguish one color from another are Option A: Wavelength, luminance and chrominance Option B: Hue, saturation and luminance Option C: Wavelength, hue and saturation Option D: Brightness, contrast and wavelength Q24. Full form of LCD is Option A: Liquid Crystalline Display Option B: Logical Crystalline Display Option C: Logical Crystal Display Option D: Liquid Crystal Display Q25. Compatible operation means that Option A: Television sound can be reproduced on an FM receiver Option B: Television sound can be reproduced on an AM receiver Option C: TV color broadcasts can be accepted by a black and white receiver and black and

white TV broad casts can be accepted by a color receiver Option D: TV color broadcasts can bereproduced in color by a black and white receiver


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Program: BE Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering



Course Code: ECCDLO5014 and Course Name: Data Compression & Encryption


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Q1. Which of the following is lossless technique? Option A: JPEG Option B: MPEG Option C: Run-length Option D: MP3 Q2. Huffman coding is inefficient if the probability model is _______. Option A: Unbiased Option B: 0.5 Option C: Biased Option D: 0 Q3. Compression Ratio is defined as _______ (Bo = data before compression, B1 =

data after compression ). Option A: Bo / B1 Option B: B1 / B0 Option C: Bo /(B1+ Bo) Option D: (B1 + Bo)/ B1 Q4. What is compression? Option A: To convert one file to another Option B: To reduce the size of data to save the space Option C: To minimize the time taken for a file to be downloaded Option D: Increase size of data for better resolution Q5. The basic idea behind Huffman coding is to __________. Option A: Compress data by using more bits to encode more frequently occurring

characters Option B: Expand data by using fewer bits to encode more frequently occurring characters Option C: Compress data by using fewer bits to encode fewer frequently occurring

characters Option D: Compress data by using fewer bits to encode more frequently occurring


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characters. Q6. The compression ratio of LZ-78 is_______ than LZ-77. Option A: Higher if the file size is large enough Option B: Always high Option C: Higher if the file size is very less Option D: Always less Q7. Down sampling is to make a digital image file smaller by ____. Option A: Adding pixels Option B: Adding noise Option C: Removing noise Option D: Removing pixels Q8. In a typical picture, most pixels will be _______ Option A: Very different to their neighbors Option B: Bright Option C: Equal Option D: Very similar to their neighbors Q9. The values of high frequency components are usually _______ so that we can

neglect them without much distortion getting introduced in the image Option A: small Option B: so small Option C: high Option D: not present Q10. Aspect ratio is _________. Option A: Ratio of the screen width to screen height Option B: Ratio of the screen height to screen width Option C: Always 1 Option D: Always 0 Q11. H.261 generally have following two compression modes ________. Option A: Video mode and Intra mode Option B: Intra mode and Inter mode Option C: Video mode and Inter mode Option D: Video mode and Audio mode Q12. Which is not the main element in H.261? Option A: Prediction Option B: Block transformation Option C: Quantization and Entropy encoding Option D: Fourier Transform coding


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Q13. In μ-law, which value of μ corresponds to linear amplification? Option A: μ=0 Option B: μ=1 Option C: μ>0 Option D: μ<0 Q14. What is data called that is to be encrypted by inputting into an encryption

algorithm? Option A: Opentext Option B: Ciphertext Option C: Plaintext Option D: Cleartext Q15. DES follows _____. Option A: Hash Algorithm Option B: Caesars Cipher Option C: SP Networks Option D: Feistel Cipher Structure Q16. How many rounds does the AES-192 perform? Option A: 12 Option B: 10 Option C: 14 Option D: 16 Q17. 3^201 mod 11 = ______. Option A: 5 Option B: 6 Option C: 3 Option D: 10 Q18. In the RSA algorithm, we select 2 random large values ‘p’ and ‘q’. Which of the

following is the property of ‘p’ and ‘q’? Option A: p and q should be divisible by Ф(n) Option B: p and q should be co-prime Option C: p and q should be prime Option D: p/q should give no remainder Q19. Perform encryption on the following PT using RSA and find the CT.

p = 3; q = 11; M = 5 Option A: 12 Option B: 18 Option C: 28 Option D: 26


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Q20. SHA-1 produces a hash value of _____. Option A: 160 Option B: 256 Option C: 180 Option D: 128 Q21. When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash

function value is referred to as _________. Option A: Message Field Option B: Message Digest Option C: Message Score Option D: Message Leap Q22. Which is the first sub-protocol of SSL? Option A: Identification Option B: Handshake Option C: Authentication Option D: Access control Q23. In more uncertainty about the message, information carried is _____. Option A: Less Option B: More Option C: Very less Option D: No information at all Q24. Kerberos is ____ . Option A: Authorization protocol Option B: Data modification protocol Option C: Authentication protocol Option D: Both authorization and authentication protocol Q25. Generally, Digital Certificates are based on __________. Option A: Symmetric key cryptography Option B: Public-key cryptography Option C: SET based cryptography Option D: Single- key cryptography


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Program: BE Information Technology



Course Code: _ITDLO5011_and Course Name: Advanced Data Structures and Analysis of Algorithms


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Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. Identify the Asymptotic bound represented by following relation “0 <= f (n) <= Cg(n) For all n >= n0 , n0 >=1, C > 0 “.

Option A: Asymptotic upper bound Option B: Asymptotic lower bound Option C: Asymptotic equal bound Option D: Asymptotic tight bound Q2. Find the time complexity of T(n) = 4 T(n/2) + log n Option A: T(n) = O(n) Option B: T(n) = O(n2) Option C: T(n) = O(n log n ) Option D: T(n) = O(n2 log n) Q3. Randomized algorithms are generally used for Option A: Best Case Analysis Option B: Average Case Analysis Option C: Worst Case Analysis Option D: Intermediate Case Analysis Q4. State which of the following options does NOT hold TRUE for Randomized

algorithms. Option A: Making a random choice is fast. Option B: Randomized algorithms have no worst case inputs. Option C: In general, randomized algorithms are often simpler and faster than their

deterministic counterparts. Option D: The expected running time of a Randomized algorithm depends only on input

distribution. Q5. What is Time Complexity? Option A: Running time T(n) of the program as a function of the program size Option B: Running time T(n) of the program as a function of the input size


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Option C: Running time T(n) of the program as a function of the output size Option D: Running time T(n) of the program as a function of the instruction size Q6. AVL tree is a self-balancing Binary Search Tree (BST) where the difference

between heights of left and right sub trees : Option A: Cannot be more than one for all nodes. Option B: Has to be only one for all nodes. Option C: Can be more than one for all nodes. Option D: Cannot be one for all nodes. Q7. Maximum number of keys in any node of a B Tree with degree t are : Option A: t-1 Option B: 2t-1 Option C: 2(t-1) Option D: 2t+1 Q8. 2-3 tree is a specific form of a : Option A: B Tree Option B: B+ Tree Option C: AVL Tree Option D: Red-Black Tree Q9. Which of the following restrictions is NOT TRUE for a Red Black tree? Option A: Root is always black Option B: Every leaf is black Option C: Children of red node are red Option D: Children of red node are black Q10. When using Huffman algorithm, which of the following statements is

TRUE? i. Characters occurring less frequently in the text are assigned the larger codes. ii. Characters occurring more frequently in the text are assigned the smaller codes.

Option A: Only i Option B: Only ii Option C: Both i and ii Option D: Neither I nor ii Q11. Which of the following algorithms is NOT a divide & conquer algorithm by

nature? Option A: Quick Sort Option B: Heap Sort Option C: Merge Sort Option D: Min-MAX Q12. Time complexity to perform binary search operation using Divide and Conquer is


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: Option A: O(n) Option B: O(log n) Option C: O(log log n) Option D: O(n^2) Q13. What is the average case time complexity of merge sort? Option A: (n) Option B: Θ (n2) Option C: Θ (n log n) Option D: Θ (n log n2) Q14. Strassen’s matrix multiplication algorithm follows ___________ technique. Option A: Greedy technique Option B: Dynamic Programming Option C: Divide and Conquer Option D: Backtracking Q15. The best case time complexity of a quick sort algorithm is : Option A: O(log N) Option B: O(N ) Option C: O(N2) Option D: O(N log N) Q16. Choose correct option to fill in the blanks. Greedy technique makes a

_______-optimal choice in the hope that this choice will lead to a _______-optimal solution.

Option A: Locally , globally Option B: Globally, locally Option C: Globally globally Option D: locally locally Q17. Apply Greedy technique to put the items given below in a fractional

knapsack of capacity W = 45 . Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{50,5},{140,20},{60,10},{60,12}} , What is the maximum total value in the knapsack?

Option A: 100 Option B: 200 Option C: 300 Option D: 400 Q18. Apply Greedy technique to put the items given below in a fractional

knapsack of capacity W = 45 . Given items as {value,weight} pairs {{50,5},{140,20},{60,10},{60,12}} , What is the maximum total value in the knapsack?

Option A: 100


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Option B: 200 Option C: 300 Option D: 400 Q19. The Time complexity of optimal storage on tape algorithm using greedy

technique is : Option A: O(n logn) Option B: O(n) Option C: O(log n) Option D: O(n ^3) Q20. Optimization Problems may be solved using which of the following

strategies : 1. Greedy technique 2. Dynamic Programming

Option A: Only i Option B: Only ii Option C: Both i and ii Option D: Neither I nor ii Q21. The key attributes that divide and conquer problem must have in order for

dynamic programming to be applicable are : i. Optimal substructure ii. Overlapping sub-problems

Option A: Only i Option B: Only ii Option C: Both i and ii Option D: Neither I nor ii Q22. Which of the following statements is TRUE? i. Divide and Conquer uses bottom-

up approach of problem solving. Ii. Dynamic Programming uses Top –down approach of problem solving

Option A: Only i Option B: Only ii Option C: Both i and ii Option D: Neither I nor ii Q23. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE for TSP. Option A: In TSP, we know that Hamiltonian Tour exists Option B: In TSP, many Hamiltonian tours exist Option C: In TSP, we find a minimum weight Hamiltonian Cycle. Option D: In TSP, we find a maximum weight Hamiltonian Cycle. Q24. What is the worst case time complexity of KMP algorithm for pattern

searching (m = length of text, n = length of pattern)? Option A: O(n) Option B: O(log n)


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Option C: O(n*m) Option D: O(m) Q25. Which of the following algorithms use hash values for string matching ? Option A: Rabin Karp Algorithm Option B: KMP Algorithm Option C: Naïve String Matching Algorithm Option D: LCS


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Program: BE Information Technology


Examination: Third Year Semester: V

Course Code: ITDLO5012and Course Name: Image Processing


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Note to the students: - All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.

Q1. For pixels p(x, y), q(s, t), the city-block distance between p and q is defined as: Option A: D(p, q) = max (|x – s| + |y – t|) Option B: D(p, q) = |x – s| + |y – t| Option C: D(p, q) = [(x – s)2 + (y – t)2]1/2 Option D: D(p, q) = min (|x – s| + |y – t|) Q2. A typical size comparable in quality to monochromatic TV image is of size. Option A: 256x256 Option B: 512x512 Option C: 1920x1080 Option D: 1080x1080 Q3. If the images are displayed using 8-bits per pixel, then, what is the range of pixel

values Option A: 0 to 127 Option B: 0 to 255 Option C: 0 to 511 Option D: -255 to 0 Q4. Using gray-level transformation, the basic function Logarithmic deals with which

of the following transformation? Option A: Negative and identity transformations Option B: nth and nth root transformations Option C: Log and inverse-log transformations Option D: Thresholding Q5. In thresholding, if threshold value is 100 , then the pixel having value 67, will

become____ Option A: 255

Option B: 167 Option C: 150 Option D: 0


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Q6. An alternate approach to median filtering is ______________ Option A: Gaussian filter Option B: Use a mask Option C: Sharpening Option D: Laplacian filter Q7. What is the tool used in Zooming? Option A: Sampling Option B: Interpolation Option C: Filters Option D: Correlation Q8. If f(x,y) is an image function of two variables, then the first order derivative of a

one dimensional function, f(x) is: Option A: s = L + 1 – r Option B: s = L * 1 – r Option C: s = L – 1 + r Option D: s = L – 1 – r Q9. To set the average value of an image zero, which of the following term would be set 0 in

the frequency domain and the inverse transformation is done, where F(u, v) is Fourier transformed function of f(x, y)?

Option A: F(0, 0) Option B: F(0, 1) Option C: F(1, 0) Option D: F(1, 1) Q10. For an N-point FFT algorithm with N = 2m which one of the following statements is

TRUE? Option A: It is not possible to construct is signal flow graph with both input and output in

normal order Option B: The number of butterflies in the mth state is N/m Option C: In-place computation requires storage of only 2N data Option D: Computation of a butterfly requires only one complex multiplication Q11. The Walsh and Hadamard transforms are ___________in nature Option A: Sinusoidal Option B: Non-sinusoidal Option C: Cosine Option D: Cosine and sine Q12. SE in morphology process is called as Option A: Software engineering Option B: Structuring element Option C: Structure eliminate Option D: Software Engineer


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Q13. The difference between the original image and the eroded creates__________ Option A: Higher Level Gray Levels Option B: Low Lever Gray Level Option C: Boundary Option D: Unfilled Regions Q14. While implementing logic operation on gray-scale images, the pixel values

should be___ Option A: Integer Option B: Float Option C: Binary Option D: Complex Q15. A Huffman code: A = 1, B = 000, C = 001, D = 01 P(A) = 0.4, P(B) = 0.1, P(C) = 0.2, P(D) =

0.3. The average number of bits per letter is Option A: 1.9 bit Option B: 2.0 bit Option C: 2.1 bit Option D: 8.0 bit Q16. For finding the vertical line the mask value used is Option A: [-1 -1 -1,2 2 2, -1 -1 -1] Option B: [2 -1 -1, -1 2 -1,-1 -1 2] Option C: [-1 2 -1, -1 2 -1,-1 2 -1] Option D: [-1 -1 2, -1 2 -1, 2 -1 -1] Q17. Logic operations work on two or more images, but which of the given will work

on single image? Option A: AND Option B: OR Option C: NOT Option D: XNOR Q18. Hough transform is used to fit points as _________________ Option A: Region of interest Option B: Curve Option C: Line Option D: Edge Q19. For pixels p(x, y), q(s, t), the Euclidean distance between p and q is defined as: Option A: D(p, q) = |x – s| + |y – t| Option B: D(p, q) = max (|x – s| + |y – t|) Option C: D(p, q) = [(x – s)2 + (y – t)2]1/2 Option D: None of these


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Q20. Second derivative approximation says that values along the ramp must be Option A: Nonzero Option B: Zero Option C: Positive Option D: Negative Q21. Edge based segmentation algorithm is using Option A: Discontinuity Option B: Threshold value Option C: Similarity Option D: Edge linking and boundary Q22. What is the equation used to obtain S component of each RGB pixel in RGB color

format? Option A: S=1+3/(R+G+B) [min(R,G,B)] Option B: S=1+3/(R+G+B) [max(R,G,B)] Option C: S=1-3/(R+G+B) [max(R,G,B)] Option D: S=1-3/(R+G+B) [min(R,G,B)] Q23. Transformation set is also called Option A: Color Space Option B: Color Mapping Functions Option C: Chromaticity Option D: Cartesian Coordinate System Q24. What is the quantity that is used to measure the total amount of energy flowing

from the light source? Option A: Brightness Option B: Intensity Option C: Luminance Option D: Radiance Q25. Which of the following color models are used for color printing? Option A: RGB Option B: CMY Option C: CMYK Option D: CMY and CMYK

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