Railways Practice Set 1 2016

8/19/2019 Railways Practice Set 1 2016

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/railways-practice-set-1-2016 1/6

www.bankersadda.com | www.sscadda.com| www.careerpower.in | www.careeradda.co.in

RAILWAYS CBT PRACTICE SET 2016

Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. This Booklet contains 100 questions in all comprising thefollowing three parts:

1. bliqfLrdkes adqy100 iz'ugS a] ftuesfuEufyf[kr Hkkx 'kkfeyg S a

Part – A : General Awareness (50 Questions) Hkkx&d % lkekU; tkudkjh ¼50 iz'u½Part – B General Intelligence &

Reasoning(25 Questions) Hkkx&[k % lkekU; cqf)eÙkk ,oa rdZ'kfDr ¼25 iz'u½

Part – C :Quantitative Aptitude (25 Questions) Hkkx&x % ifjek.kkRedvfHk#fp ¼25 iz'u½ 2. In questions set bilingually in English and Hindi, in case of

discrepancy, the English version will prevail.

2. vaxz sth vkS j fgUnh Hkk"kk esa rS;kj fd, x, f}Hkk"kh iz'uks a es a dksbZ folaxfr gksus

dh fLFkfr es a vaxz sth fooj.k ekU; gksxkA3. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 3. lHkh iz'u vfuok;Z gS a rFkk lcds cjkcj vad gS aA4. The paper carries negative marking 0.25 marks will be

deducted for each wrong answer.

4. iz'u i= es a udkjkRed va du gksxkA gj xyr mÙkj ds fy, 0-25 va d dkVktk,xkA

5. You will be supplied the Answer-Sheet separately by theInvigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll

Number, Test ID and name of the examination on theAnswer-Sheet carefully. You must also put your signature onthe Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place before you actuallystart answering the questions. These instructions must be fully

complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not beevaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.

5. fujh{kd }kjk vkidks mÙkj&if=dk vyx ls nh tk,xhA mÙkj&if=dk es a fu;ekoyh ds vuq lkj /;kuiw oZd viuk uke] jksy uEcj] Vs LV vkbZ Mh vkSjijh{kk dk uke vo’; fy[ksaA iz'uks a ds mÙkj okLro es a 'kq: djus ls igys mÙkj&if=dk ij fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij vki viuk gLrk{kj Hkh vo'; djs a aA mi;q ZDr vuqns’kks a dk iw jh rjg vuqikyu fd;k tk,] vU;Fkk vkidh mÙkj&if=dk dks tkapk ugha tk,xk vkS j *'kw U;* vad fn;k tk,xkA

6. Answer must be shown by completely blackening thecorresponding ovals on the Answer-Sheet against the relevant

question number by Black/Blue Ball Point Pen only.

Answers which are not shown by Black/Blue Ball-point Penwill not be awarded any mark.

6. mÙkj&if=dk es a lHkh mÙkj iz'u la[;k ds lkeus fn;s x;s lEcfU/krv.Mkdkj [kkuksa dks ds oy dkys@uhys ckWy isu ls iw jh rjg dkyk djds fn[kk,aA tks v.Mkdkj [kkus dkys@uhys ckWy&ikWbaV isu ls ugha Hkjs tk,axs]

muds fy, dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA

7. A machine will read the coded information in the OMRAnswer-Sheet. In case the information is incomplete or

different from the information given in the application form,such candidate will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.

7. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&if=dk es a Hkjh xbZ dw V lw puk dks ,d e'khu i<+sxhA ;fn lw puk viw .kZ gS vFkok vkosnu izi= es a nh xbZ lw puk ls fHkUu gS] rks ,sls vH;FkhZ dks *'kw U;* vad fn;k tk,xkA

8. The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination-Hall.

8. ijh{kk&Hkou NksM+us ls igys ijh{kkFkhZ dks mÙkj&iqfLrdk fujh{kd ds gokys dj nsuh pkfg,A

9. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will

render a candidate liable to such action/ penalty as may be

deemed fit.

9.

10. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can.Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do notspend too much time on any question.

10. iz'uks a ds mÙkj ftruh tYnh gks lds rFkk /;kuiw oZd n s aA dqN iz'u vklku rFkk dqN dfBu gS aA fdlh ,d iz'u ij cgq r vf/kd le; u yxk,aA

11. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. 11.

12. “Mobile phones and wireless communication devices arecompletely banned in the examination halls/rooms.

Candidates are advised not to keep mobile phones/any

other wireless communication devices with them even

switching it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply

with this provision will be considered as using unfair

means in the examination and action will be taken against

them including cancellation of their candidature.”

12.




Part- I (General Awareness)

1.

What happens to a liquid, when the vapour pressure

equals the atmospheric pressure?

(a) The liquid cools (b) the liquid boils

(c) No change (d) The liquid evaporates

2.

The jet plane engine works on the principle of(a) Pascal’s law (b) angular momentum

(c) linear momentum

(d) Newton’s Laws of Motion

3. A sailor in a submarine can see objects on the surface

of the sea with the help of a

(a) gyroscope (b) telescope

(c) stereoscope (d) periscope

4. Detergents are

(a) sodium salts of fatty acids

(b) sodium salts of sulphonic acids

(c) sodium salt of benzoic acid

(d) None of the above

5.

The noble gas used in radiotherapy is(a) neon (b) argon

(c) radon (d) xenon

6. Maximum photosynthetic activity occurs in

(a) blue and red region of light

(b) green and yellow region of light

(c) blue and orange region of light

(d) violet and orange region of light

7. Cooling in a refrigerator is produced by the

(a) ice deposits on the freezer

(b) sudden expansion of a compressed gas

(c) evaporation of a volatile liquid

(d) (a) and (b)

8.

The computer language that is the most used forbusiness and scientific purposes is

(a) LOGO (b) COBOL

(c) BASIC (d) FORTRAN

9. Electron microscope was invented by

(a) Knoll and Ruska (b) Rober Koch

(c) Leeuwenhock (d) CP Swanson

10. Water exists both as solid and liquid at

(a) 100°C (b) 50°C

(c) 2.5°C (d) 0°C

11. A transformer works on the principle of

(a) self induction (b) mutual induction

(c) generator (d) inverter

12.

Mycoplasma is associated with a disease that affectsthe organs of

(a) respiration (b) excretion

(c) reproduction (d) digestion

13. Which one of the following is not a vaccine?

(a) BCG (b) Anti-rabies

(c) Polio vaccine (d) Progesterone

14. The hydraulic brakes used in automobiles is a direct

application of

(a) Archimedes’ principle (b) Toricellian law

(c) Bernoulli’s theorem (d) Pascal’s law

15.

Heart attack occurs due to

(a) bacterial attack on the heart

(b) stopping of heart beat

(c) lack of blood supply to the heart itself

(d) impairment of heart’s working due to unknownreasons

16. The pH of human blood is between

(a) 6.5-7 (b) 7.5-8

(c) 8-9 (d) 4.5-5

17. The surface temperature of the Sun is nearly

(a) 2000 K (b) 4000 K

(c) 6000 K (d) 8000 K

18. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin and

lead. This alloy should have

(a) high specific resistance and low melting point

(b) low specific resistance and high melting point

(c) low specific resistance and low melting point

(d) high specific resistance and high melting point19. Light travels in optical fibre irrespective of its shape

because it is a device by which signals can be

transferred from one location to another. It is based on

the phenomenon of

(a) diffraction of light (b) refraction light

(c) polarization of light

(d) total internal reflection of light

20. Glass is actually

(a) a crystalline solid (b) an ionic solid

(c) an elastic solid (d) a vitrified liquid

21. An individual whose blood type is B may in an

emergency donate blood to a person whose blood type

is(a) B or A (b) AB or A

(c) A or O (d) AB or B

22. Which one of the following is not an insect borne

disease?

(a) Beriberi (b) Kala azar

(c) Malaria (d) Plague

23. What is the pH value of pure water?

(a) 1 (b) 6

(c) 7 (d) 10

24. Which of the following nutrients is not a structura

component of the plant?

(a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium

(c) Phosphorus (d) Potassium25. Biological catalysts in living organisms are known as

(a) hormones (b) vitamins

(c) steroids (d) enzymes

26. Which part of the equatorial region has well

developed rubber plantations?

A. Amazon basin B. Indonesian islands

C. Malaysia D. Zaire basin

27. Which atomic power station in India is built

completely indigenously?




A. Kalpakkam B. Narora

C. RawatBhata D. Tarapore

28. Which of the following non-member of Parliament has

the right to address it?

A. Attorney General of India

B. Solicitor General of India

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Chief Election Commissioner

29. In order to be recognized as an official Opposition

Group in the parliament, how many seats should ithave?

A. 1/3rd of the total strength

B. ¼ of the total strength

C. 1/6th of the total strength

D. 1/10th of the total strength

30. Which one of the following is the highest gravity dam

in the world?

A. Beas Dam B. Bhakra Dam

C. Hirakud D. Nangal Dam

31.

Which one of the following is the world’s longest

dam?

A. Beas Dam B. Bhakra Dam

C. Hirakud D. Nagarjunasagar Dam

32.

Which of the following processes brings the land

surface to a common level?

A. Aggradation B. Erosion

C. Gradation D. Weathering

33. In which type of rocks are coal and petroleum found?

A. Granite B. Igneous

C. Metamorphic D. Sedimentary

34. Who was the founder of Saka Era?

A. Kanishka

B. Chandragupta Maurya

C. Samudragupta

D. Chandragupta Vikramaditya

35. During the early Vedic period, the society was based

on

A. Birth B. Wealth

C. Religion D. Occupation

36. Which, among the following, is the oldest dynasty?

A.Maurya B. Gupta

C.Vardhana D.Kushan

37. Which of the following regions of the world is most

thickly populated?

A. East Asia B. South Asia

C. North-West Europe

D. North and South America

38. The mapping of which of the following is most

difficult?

A. Mountains B. Plateaus and Plains

C.Interior of the Earth D. Oceans and their depth

39. The deepest mine in the world (about 4 km deep) is in

the Continent of

A. Africa B. Asia

C. North America D. South America

40. Who was the founder of the Gupta Dynasty?

A. Chandragupta B.Samudragupta

C.Kumaragupta D. Maharaja Sri Gupta

41. The Girnar Hills are situated in which of the following

States?

A. Gujarat B. Karnataka

C. Madhya Pradesh D. Maharashtra

42. Large number of fish are found on the western coast o

the deserts in the tropical region this is because

A. The hot-dry climate is more suitable for fish

B. Up-welling of cold waters from the bottom of the

sea provide abundant food for fish

C. Fish in large numbers come up from the sea bottomD. Clear sunshine attracts fish in large numbers

43. What is the principal reason for the dense population

in North-West Europe and North-East America?

A. Growth of manufacturing industries.

B. Advancement of agriculture

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. none of these

44. The number of Vedas is

A. Eight B. Four

C. Ten D. Two

45. Indus Valley Civilisation became known from

excavations at

A. Mohanjodaro B. Ropar

C. Harappa D. None of these

46. Swetambara and Digambara are the sects of which

religion

A. Hinduism B. Buddhism

C. Jainism D. Zorastrians

47. Monuments containing relics of Buddha are called

A.Viharas B.Chaityas

C.Stupas D.Sanghas

48. Charak was the court physician of

A. Chandragupta B. Kanishka

C.Harsha D. Ashoka

49. Who among the following can participate in the

proceedings of both the houses of parliament?

A. Vice-President B. Solicitor General

C. Chief Justice D. Attorney General

50. What can be the maximum interval between two

sessions of parliament?

A. 3 months B. 4 months

C. 6 months D. 9 months




Part – II (General Intelligence & Reasoning)

51. A was born 5 yr before B, B is 4 yr older than C and 3

yr younger to D. If A is now 17 yr old, how old is D?

(a) 19 yr (b) 15 yr

(c) 12 yr (d) 8 yr

52. If RUSH is coded as 66, then how is GIRL coded as?

(a) 75 (b) 64

(c) 47 (d)46

53.

If TORTISE is coded as VQTVKUG, ELEPHANT iscoded as

(a) GRJPVNOR (b) RNRQGCOV

(c) GNGRJCPV (d) AGRJCPVGN

54. If day before yesterday was Friday, what will be the

third day after the day after tomorrow?

(a) Thursday (b) Friday

(c) Saturday (d) Sunday

55. From the given alternatives select the word which

cannot be formed using the letters of the given words

ORGANISATION

(a)STRONG (b) ORANGE

(c) NOTION (d) GROAN

56.

In a certain code the following numbers are coded ina certain way by assigning signs

Which number can be decoded from the following?

(a) 79328 (b) 79382

(c) 79832 (d) 79882

57. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as

82589662, how can CALICUT be coded?

(a) 5279431 (b) 5978213

(c) 8251896 (d) 8543691

58.

From the given alternatives, select the word whichcannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

ROTARYBLUES

(a) STARY (b) LOTUS

(c) TABLET (d) BUTLER

59. In a certain code, if AUDITORIUM is written as

MUIROTIDUA, how will MISFORTUNE be written in

that code?

(a) ENUTROFSIM (b) ENUTROMISF

(c) TUNEROFSIM (d) TUNEMISFOR

Directions (60-63): In each of the following questions,

select the related letters/word/numbers from the given

alternatives.

60.

Portfolio : Securities(a) Lecture : Consignment (b)Star : Class

(c) Trustee : Company (d) Pannel : Jurors

61. 5 : 36 :: 6 : ?

(a) 48 (b) 49

(c) 50 (d) 56

62. 16 : 56 :: 32 : ?

(a) 96 (b) 112

(c) 118 (d)128

63. LJHF : USQO :: QOMK : ?

(a)QPSR (b)PNMK

(c)ZXVT (d)YXWU

Directions (64-67): In each of the following questions

find the odd word/letter/numbers/figure from the given

responses.

64. (a)AKEW (b)PNTO

(c)LCUF (d)HJMX65. (a)Inch (b)Foot

(c)Yard (d)Quart

66. (a)45, 27 (b)30, 18

(c)20, 10 (d)15, 12

67.

(a)DEFY (b)HINT

(c)MOST (d)SUVY

Directions (68-71): In each of the following questions

various terms of an alphabetic or numeric series are given

with one term missing as shown by (?). Choose the missing

term out of the given alternatives.

68. 28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39

(a)32 (b)34

(c)38 (d)4069. 125, 80, 45, 20, ?

(a) 5 (b) 8

(c)10 (d)12

70. DHL, PTX, BFJ, ?

(a)CGK (b)KOS

(c)NRV (d)RVZ

71. Z, U, Q, ?, L

(a) I (b) K

(c) M (d) N

Directions (72): Which one of the given responses would

be a meaningful order of the following words?

72.

1. Study 2. Job 3. Examination

4. Earn 5. Appointment(a) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(c)1, 3, 2, 5, 4 (d)1, 3, 5, 4, 2

73. C is wife of B, E is the son of C, A is the brother of B

and father of D. what is the relationship of E to D?

(a) Mother (b) Sister

(c) Brother (d) Cousin

74. Six girl are standing in a circle facing to the centre

Bindu is to the left of Viji. Rekha is in between Bindu

and Mumtaz. Jessa is in between Vijji and Nirmala

Who is to the left of Mumtaz?

(a)Rekha (b)Nirmala

(c)Vijji (d)Bindu

75.

Somu travelled from a point A straight to B, adistance of 12 km. He turned right and travelled 8 km

and reached point C. From that point took right turn

and travelled 6 km, and reached point D. What is the

minimum distance between final point and initia

point.

(a)10 km (b)12 km

(c)13 km (d)14 km




Part – III (Arithmetic)

76. Annual income of Amit and Rani are in the ration of

3:2, while the ration of their expenditures are 5:3. If

at the end of the year each saves Rs. 1000, what is the

annual income of Amit?

(a)Rs. 9000 (b)Rs.8000

(c)Rs. 7000 (d)Rs. 6000

77. What is the smallest number that must be subtracted

from 2361 in order to get a perfect square?

(a)57 (b)45

(c)27 (d)58

78. What is the value of the expression? √ √

√ (a)√ (b)√

(c)2 (d)3

79. Find the value of√ √ √

√

(a)-2 (b)1

(c)3 (d)2

80. Find the area of a triangle, two sides of which are 8

cm and 11 cm and perimeter is 32 cm.

(a)√ (b)√

(c)√ (d)√

81. If a square and a rhombus stand on the same base,

then the ratio of the areas of the square and the

rhombus is(a) Equal to ¼ (b)equal to ½

(c)equal to 1 (d)greater than 1

82. A park is square shape with side 20 m. Find the area

of the pavement 2 m wide to be laid all round it.

(a)176 m2 (b)170 m2

(c)122 m2 (d)154 m2

83. The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased

by 10% and 5% respectively. Find the percentage

increase in its area.

(a)23

(b)28

(c)15 (d)25

84.

A wire is bent in the form of a circle of 56 cm radius.It is opened and bent to form a square. The side of the

square will be:-

(a)16 cm (b)44 cm

(c)88 cm (d)56 cm

85. A sphere is melted to form a cylinder whose height is

4 ½ times its radius. What is the ratio of the radius of

sphere to cylinder?

(a)1:4 (b)4:1

(c)2:3 (d)3:2

86. If tan A = cot B, then A + B is equal to :-

(a)600 (b)450

(c)900 (d)550

87. The difference between compound interest and

simple interest on Rs. 2500 for 2 yr at 4% per annum

is:-

(a)Rs. 15 (b)Rs. 8

(c)Rs. 6 (d)Rs. 4

88. Find the value of

( ) :-

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

89.

Two numbers are less than the third number by 50%and 54% respectively. By how much per cent is the

second number less than the first number?

(a)10 (b)8

(c)13 (d)14

90. The difference between a number and 2/5th of the

number is 30. The number is :-

(a)30 (b)40

(c)50 (d)60

91. In a class there are 30 boys. The average weight is

decreased by 200 g. when boy whose weight was 25

kg leaves the class and new one is admitted. Find the

weight of the new comer (in kg.).(a)19 (b)15

(c)20 (d)24

92. Sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the

digit of the number are inter changed, then the new

number is 36 less than the original number. What is

the original number?

(a)95 (b)72

(c)82 (d)84

93. Some guavas are distributed among 16 boys, 40 boys

and 70 boys. What should be the minimum number o

guavas required to distribute, so that no guava is left?

(a)280 (b)140

(c)560 (d)1120

94.

Mohan spends 1/5th part of his money as pocket

money and 4/5th of the remainder in other affairs. If

he is left with Rs. 48 per month, what his monthly

income?

(a)Rs. 360 (b)Rs. 400

(c)Rs. 500 (d)Rs. 300

95. How many 3 digit number, in all are divisible by 6?

(a)140 (b)150

(c)160 (d)170

96. If a man works for 30 days of the whole month, he

gets Rs. 42 per day. If he is absent on a work. He is




fined Rs. 2 per day. If he gets Rs. 952 in all the whole

month, how many days did he not work?

(a)15 (b)9

(c)7 (d)12

97. Ravi and Ajay start simultaneously from a place A

towards B, 60 km apart. Ravi’s speed is 4 km/h less

than that of Ajay. Ajay, after reaching B, turns back

and meets Ravi at a place 12 km away from B. Ravi’s

speed is (imkmph):-

(a)12 (b)10(c)8 (d)6

98. Ram and Shyam together can do a work in 8 days.

Both of them began to work. After 3 days Ram fell ill,

Shyam completed the remaining work in 15 days. In

how many days can Ram complete the whole work?

(a)12 (b)15

(c)17 (d)16

99. Rashmi covers a certain distance by train at 25 km/h

and the same distance of foot at 4 km/h. if the time

taken by him for the whole journey be 5h 48 min,

how much total distance did she cover?

(a)45km (b)32 km

(c)35 km (d)40 km

100.

A boat can row a distance 6 km upstream in 3 h,

when the speed of stream is 0.5 km/h. what is the

speed of the boat in still watr?

(a)1.5 km/h (b)2 km/h

(c)2.5 km/h (d)3 km/h

Railways Practice Set 1 2016

Documents

Transcript of Railways Practice Set 1 2016