QUESTIONSAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS CLASS 11 Strictly Based on Latest Syllabus Issued by CBSE for 2016...

OSWAAL BOOKS“Oswaal House” 1/11, Sahitya Kunj, M.G. Road, AGRA-282002Ph.: 0562-2857671, 2527781, Fax : 0562-2854582, 2527784

email : [email protected], website : www.oswaalbooks.com

Published by :

*Solutions for SQP 6-10 can be downloaded from www.oswaalbooks.com

SAMPLEQUESTION

PAPERS

CLASS

11

Strictly Based on Latest Syllabus Issued by CBSEfor 2016 Examination

(Includes Examination Paper November, 2014)

CBSE-PSAProblem Solving Assessment

For 2015 – 2016 Examination

Our Distributors

Typeset by : R. N. Graphics

Printed by : Ravi Offset & Printers

© PublisherEdition : June 2015

16

.06

ANDAMAN & NICOBAR

PORT BLAIR Mitali Enterprises, P. (03192) 230749 Kumar General Store, P. 9932082455

ANDHRA PRADESH

GUNTOOR Y. Renuka Devi, P. (0863) 2252308

HYDERABAD Himalaya Book World, P. (040) 24732057, 66822350Unique Book World, P. (040) 40061423

VIJAYWADA Sri Kanka Durga Book Stall, P. 09849144007

VISHAKHAPATNAM JBD Educational, P. (0891) 6666062, 6666068Sri Rajeshwari Book Link, P. (891) 6661718

ASSAM

GUWAHATI Book Emporium, P. 9864057226 UBS Publisher, P. 9401154448

BIHAR

BHAGALPUR Sanjay Book Store, P. (0641) 3202714

PATNA Gyan Ganga, P. (0612) 2268394, 2263011Nova Publisher & Distributors, P. (0612) 2666404UBS Publisher, P. 9835210136Shri Durga Pustak Mandir, P. (0612) 2301704Vikas Book Depot, P. (0612) 2304753Sharda Pustak Bhandar P. 09334259293

MUNGER New Aman Book & Stationers, P. (06344) 220757

MUZAFFARPUR Pustak Bhandar, P. 9097046555

CHATTISGARH

BILASPUR Raj Agencies, P. 9412150750

DURG Bhagwati Bhawani Book Depot, P. (0788) 2327620

DELHI

DELHI Mittal Books, P. (011) 23288887UBS Publisher, P. (011) 23273601R.D.Chawla & Sons, P. (011) 23282360, 23282361

GOA

GOA Golden Heart Emporium, P. (0832) 2725208, 3257383

GUJRAT

AHMEDABAD Tushar Book, P. (079)26578741, 26587103 Agrasen Book & Stationery, P. (079) 27486239Uppal Brothers, P. (079) 30421199

Ballabh Vidya Nagar Ajay Book Store, P. (02692) 238237

Navsari College Store, P. (02637) 258642

VAPI Vinay General Store, P. 9925817463

SURAT Shopping Point, P. (0261) 2230097

HARYANA

GURGAON Adlakha Stationery, P. 9899830750

JHARKHAND

RANCHI Gyan Ganga Ltd., P. (0651) 2563570

KARNATAKA

BANGALORE Avenue Book Centre, P. (080) 22244753Balaji Book Centre (Mahaveer Jain) P. (080) 23331259Sri Sai Ram Book House, P. (080) 22111243Vasanta Book House, P. (080)22216342Maruti Book Centre, P. (080) 40124558Sri Balaji Books & Stationers, P. (080) 22117659

BELLARY Pragati Book Stall, P. (08392) 272727 Chaitanya Agency and Books, P. 8277477778

DAVANGERE Laxmi Agencies, P. (08192) 231271

MANGALORE School Book Co., P. (0824) 2496938, 4281777

KERALA

CALICUT Aman Book Stall, P. (0495) 3048187

ERNAKULAM H & C Store, P. (0484) 2377235 Orient Book House, P. (0484) 2370431 Academic Book House, P. (0484) 2376613 Surya Book House, P. (0484) 2363721

KOTTAYAM H &C Store, P. (0481) 2304351 BOOK Centre, P. (0481) 2566992

KOZHIKODE T.B.S. Publishers, P. (0495) 2721025

THRISSUR Giftalia Book Bhawan, P. (0487) 2442290

TRIVANDRUM Acedemic Book House, P. (0471) 2333349

MADHYA PRADESH

GWALIOR Krishna Sons, P. (0751) 2320431

INDORE Arun Prakashan, P. (0731) 2454372, 2459448, 3244544Akruti Publishing House, P. (0731) 2456024Student Book Depot. P. (0731) 2535892

JABALPUR Vinay Pustak Sadan, P. (0761) 2411194Sangam General Store, P. (0761) 2313592, 6538467

KATNI Agrasen Stationers, P. (07622) 403377

REWA Siddharth Enterprises, P. (07662) 404019

UJJAIN Sri Nath Book Depot, P. (0734) 2556903, 2556902

MAHARASHTRA

AHMEDNAGAR Heera Stationers, P. (0241) 2418774

AKOLA Book Emporium, P. (022) 2436460Rathi Paper Traders, P. (0724) 2452679

AURANGABAD Maya Book Centre, P. (0240) 2360150

BHUSAWAL Anil Book Depot, P. (02582) 225412

CHANDRAPUR Novelty Book Depot, P. (07172) 277418

JALGAON Sharma Book Depot, P. (0257) 6958794 Vidyadhan Book House, P. (0257) 2225548

KOLHAPUR Jai Book Co., P. (0231) 2651008

MUMBAI Shivam Book & Stationer, P. (022) 28381014, 28236000

NAVI MUMBAI Krishna Book Store, P. (022) 27744962, 32980838

NAGPUR Novelty Book Depot, P. (0712) 2534884 Vijay Book Depot, P. (0712) 2534217, 2520496 Shree Balaji Agency, P. (07122) 452361UBS Publisher & Dist., P. (0712) 6437909

NANDED India Book Agencies, P. 9890489460

PUNE Sai Shubham, P. (020) 69498635, 9975687687

SOLAPUR Mahavir General Store, P. (0217) 2723405

WARDHA Unique Traders, P. (07152) 243617, 9960644752

YAVATMAL Dilip Book Agencies, P. (07232) 245450

ORISSA

BHUBANESWAR Sagar Book Store, P. (0674) 2516040, 2506040 Pragnya Book Store, P. (0674) 2405757UBS Publishers & Dist., P. (0674) 2314446

PUNJAB

BARNALA Bhaian Di Hatti, P. (01679) 2321717

BHATINDA Janta Book Depot, P. (0164) 2253993Krishna Book Depot, P. (0614) 2237611

LUDHIANA Chhabra Book Depot, P. (0161) 2405427Amit Book Depot, P. (0161) 2727038Bhatia Book Centre, P. (0161) 2747713

RAJASTHAN

BHARATPUR Sunil Book Centre, P. (05644) 233777, 220650

JAIPUR Goyal Book Distributors, P. (0141) 2571673

SIKKIM

GANGTOK Kwality Store, P. (03592) 202992

TAMIL NADU

COIMBATORE UBS Publisher & Dist., P. (0422) 2499914

CHENNAI Indian Book House, P. (044) 24327784 Ruby Books, P. (044) 26425958

TRICHY Rasi Publication, P. (0431) 2703692 TRIPURA

AGARTALA Book Corner, P. (0381) 2301945

UTTAR PRADESH

AGRA Ajay Book Depot, P. (0562) 2254621, 2250262 Om Pustak Mandir, P. (0562) 2464014, 3059218Manav Book Depot, P. (0562) 6545883

ALIGARH Shaligram & Sons, P. (0571) 2421887

ALLAHABAD Mehrotra Book Depot, P. (0532) 2400129, 2266128

AZAMGARH Sasta Sahitya Sadan, P. (05462) 224421

BALIA Saraswati Shishu, P. (05498) 221042Vidya Kendra, P. 9415281234

LUCKNOW Azad Book Distributor, P. (0522)2350981, 2619939

MEERUT Mahi Book Palace, P. (0121) 2641791, 2649644

WEST BENGAL

KOLKATA Oriental Publishers, P. (033) 22191591, 22198367Saha Book House, P. (033) 22193671 Eureka Book Emporium, P. (033) 25934001Katha–O–Kahani Pvt. Ltd., P. 22419071, 22196313

SILIGURI Agarwal Book House, P. (0353) 2535274

For more Book-shops visit www.OswaalBooks.com

CONTENTS

Solved Paper, November – 2014 5 - 16

Solved Paper, January – 2014 vi - xvi

Sample Question Papers

SOLVED Sample Question Paper - 1 17 - 24

Sample Question Paper - 2 25 - 32




SELF ASSESSMENTSample Question Paper - 6 59 - 66





Solutions Sample Question Paper - 1 99 - 102





SOLUTIONS for Sample Question Paper 6 to 10can be downloaded from www.OswaalBooks.com

(CBSE – PSA) Problem Solving Assessment

1. There is no specific syllabus for ‘Problem Solving Assessment’ . It will assess the Life Skills relatingto following areas :• Quantitative Reasoning • Qualitative Reasoning • Language Conventions

2. The Life Skills shall be assessed within the following domains :• Quantitative : which includes the reasoning seen in the Humanities,

Arts and Social Sciences• Qualitative : which includes the kinds of reasoning found in

Mathematics and Science• Language Conventions : which includes different aspects of written communication

(e.g. grammar, vocabulary etc.)3. There will be 60 items of Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) and carry 90 marks. Distribution of 60

items shall be as follows :

Test Context Domain/ Item Type No. of Items Sub-Total

Qualitative Reasoning :• Stand alone MCQs 6

• Passage based MCQ Set - 1 6 18• Passage based MCQ Set - 2 6

Quantitative Reasoning :• Stand alone MCQs 10

• Passage based MCQs Set - 1 4 18• Passage based MCQs Set - 2 4

Language Conventions :• Grammar & Usage MCQs 8

• Vocabulary in Context based MCQs 8 24• Passage completion based MCQs 8

4. The items will incorporate aspects of 21st Century Skills (Creative Thinking, Decision Making,Critical Thinking, Problem Solving, and Communication) that lead to success at SecondaryStage. They would be assessing student’s ability to process, interpret and use information ratherthan assessing student’s prior subject matter knowledge.

5. The items in ‘Problem Solving Assessment’ will be designed in such a way so as to improve thegeneric and higher order thinking skills. This will also result in improving scores within the coreschool subjects.

6. For Class XI :

• The students will get a certificate on the ‘Problem Solving Assessment’ by July, 2013.

7. There will be no separate time tables or periods for teaching or practice of PSA in schools.8. The Question Paper containing OMR Answer Sheet shall be supplied by the Board.

SOLVEDPAPER

C.B.S.E. November 2014

Class-XI

ProblemSolving

Assessment

Section-A(Language Conventions : Questions 1 to 24)

Note : This section of the question paper contains 24 questions in the English Language. The candidates who have opted for English Language are required to attempt all the 24 questions.

Directions : (Questions 1 to 8). Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable option from each list according to the corresponding number in the passage.

1. There is hardly anything that shows the short-sightedness or caprisiousness of the imagination more than travelling does.

2. With change of place we change our ideas; also, our opinions and feelings.

3. We can by an effort indeed transport ourselves to old and long-forgotten scenes, and then the picture of the mind revives again; but we forget those that we have just left.

4. It seems that we can think but of one place at a time.

5. The canvas of the fancy is but of a certain extent, and if we paint one set of objects upon it, they immediately efface every other.

6. We cannot enlarge our conceptions, we can only shift our point of view; the landscape bares its bosom to the enraptured eye, we take our fill of it and seem as if we could form no other image of beauty and greatness.

7. We pass on and think no more of it; the horizon that shuts it from our sight, also dulls it from our memory like a dream.

8. In travelling through a wild, barren country, I can form no idea of a fertile and pleasant one.

1. Which of the following words shows the correct spelling of the underlined, misspelt word in sentence 1 ?

(1) Capriciousness (2) Caprisiousness

(3) Capriousness (4) Capriciousnes

2. From sentence 2, one can infer that travelling makes one’s thinking .................. .

(1) broadened (2) narrowed

(3) closed (4) conservative

3. In sentence 3, the word ‘transport’ could best be replaced with

(1) take (2) forget

(3) repeat (4) begin

4. In sentence 4, ‘It seems that we can think but of one place at a time’ means :

(1) One can think of many places at a time.

(2) One can think of only one place at a time.

(3) One can’t think of one place at a time.

(4) One can think of two or more places at a time.

5. In sentence 5, which of the following words cannot replace the word ‘efface’ ?

(1) construct (2) wear away

(3) destroy (4) smooth away

6. In sentence 6, the word ‘greatness’ could best be replaced with ............... .

(1) grandeur (2) amateur

(3) status (4) good

7. In sentence 7, the word ‘dulls’ could best be replaced with .............

(1) bolts (2) builds

(3) becomes (4) blots

8. In sentence 8, the phrase ‘a fertile and pleasant one’ could best be replaced with

(1) a deserted and diseased one

(2) flora and fauna

(3) a spooky and scary one

(4) a woody and cultivated one

Directions : (Questions 9 to 12). Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word I phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap.

6 | OSWAAL CBSE-PSA (Problem Solving Assessment) Class-XI

One of the 9 features of the human condition is that the natural exploratory behaviour of human infants has to be curtailed, especially in conditions of civilization, where the hazards of traffic, electricity, gas, stairs, and many other complex dangers have been added to those which are found in primitive, rural circumstances. We are forced to 10 our children psychologically, because we live in an art fi al en ronment where small h ldren are ill-equipped 11 themselves when surrounded by the dangerous 12 of civilization. We tend to guard them too carefully in situations where this is not necessary.

9. h h of these fits ap

(1) remarkable (2) unfortunate

(3) unwritten (4) unsaid


(1) overprotect (2) rear

(3) desert (4) redeem


(1) to corporate (2) to read

(3) to look after (4) to quarrel

12. h h of these fits ap 2

(1) attractions (2) highlights

(3) looks (4) circumstances

Directions : (Questions 13 to 16). Read the passqge and select the correct form of the missing word/phrase to complete it.

Malnutrition most commonly 13 between the age of six months and two years. This, happens despite the child’s food requirements being less than that of 14 child. Malnutrition is often attributed to poverty but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 percent of h ldren under fi e 15 consume enough

food. The child’s dependence on someone else to feed 16 is primarily responsible for malnutrition.


(1) noticed (2) occurs

(3) comes (4) is often


(1) an older (2) a smarter

(3) a rich (4) a poor


(1) do not (2) dare not

(3) does not (4) need not


(1) him (2) her

(3) them (4) him/her

Directions : (Questions 17 to 20). Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word / phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap

The poem, 'Ode to the West Wind' directly 17 to Shelley’s poetic creed. Poetry, Shelley writes in 'A Defence of Poetry', “awakens and enlarges the mind by 18 it the receptable of a thousand unapprehended combinations of thought. Poetry lifts its veil from the h dden beauty of the world n the ery first 19 of the poem, the West Wind appears with an accumulated force — a “breath of Autumn’s being” — to blow away the dead leaves. Shelley compares the West Wind 20 a magician.


(1) opposes (2) conforms

(3) gives (4) assembles


(1) rendering (2) deceiving

(3) ignoring (4) devastating


(1) slogan (2) extract

(3) passage (4) stanza


(1) to (2) from

(3) by (4) similar

Directions : (Questions 21 to 24). Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrase from each list to fill the corresponding gap in estions to and select the correct option for Question 24.

Setting goals for what we do in life gives us 21 . We need motivation to 22 our future and be excited about all the opportunities available to us. We are likely to think clearly and positively, if we have goals to strive 23 .A sense of achievement and accomplishment gives us a feeling of satisfaction. If we are able to set achievable goals, we would be more likely to achieve them.


(1) increment (2) direction

(3) aspiration (4) involvement

22. Which phrase would be suitable for gap 22 ?

(1) look in (2) look at

(3) look for (4) look into

CBSE Solved Paper November - 2014 | 7

23. h h word w ll fill ap 2 (1) in (2) for (3) well (4) with

24. Based on your reading of the passage, say which of the following statements is not true.

(1) To achieve something in life one needs to set goals.

(2) One can think positively if one has a goal to achieve.

(3) Motivation acts as a tool for achieving the goals.

(4) One needs to set very high unachievable goals.

Section-B(Qualitative Reasoning : Questions 25 to 42)

25. Rohan has to choose an institution for his higher studies. Which one of the following factors is least important in making a decision about this matter ?

(1) The distance of the institution from his residence

(2) The reputation of the institution

(3) The number of teachers and students in the institution

(4) The expertise of the teachers in the institution

26. If you practice walking as an exercise, you do not need to visit any gym. Your surroundings can be your gym. It also saves your money from buying costly equipments for the workout. You only need to buy a comfortable pair of shoes.

Which of the following statements is best conveyed in the above paragraph ?

(1) Walking is a better form of exercise than cycling.

(2) It is not wise to spend for joining a gym.

(3) Outdoor exercises are better than indoor workouts.

(4) Walking is a convenient and economical form of exercise.

27. Statements in Column I and Column II given below indicate the factors and their possible consequences respectively. Match the statements in the two columns and choose the correct matching from the options which follow :

Column I Column II

A. Increase in the cost I. Increase in food

of agricultural raw grains production

materials

B. Good rainfall in II. Rise in food

most parts of India materials prices C. Increase in food- III. Increase in the

grains consumption nutrition level

(1) A-I, B-III and C-II

(2) A-I, B-II and C-III

(3) A-II, B-1 and C-III

(4) A-III, B-II and C-I

28. There are seven children P, Q, R, S, T, U and V play n n a playfield hey are wear n lothes of different colours - black, blue, white, green, pink, yellow and brown. Out of these seven, three are girls.

Read the following information and answer the question that follows :

(a) No girl is wearing black, yellow or brown.

(b) S is wearing brown and his sister U is wearing pink.

(c) P is wearing blue while his sister Q is not wearing green.

(d) T is wearing yellow and his best friend V is a boy.

Which one of the following groups of children is girls ?

(1) Q, R, T (2) P, Q, R

(3) R, Q, S (4) Q, R, U

29. While taking a decision on an issue, it is essential to· see it from ‘multiple’ perspectives. Read the following statements A, B and C and answer the question that follows :

A. New economic policies led to increase in the proportion of poor in developing countries. Income inequality also increased in most of these countries.


B. During the last 60 years, India’s health policies led to increase in the life expectancy from 34 to 69 years. This is not an ordinary achievement.

C. India’s new industrial policies failed to improve industrial output. Yet, a large section of industrial workers began getting social security.

Which of the above statement(s) provide(s) scope for multiple perspectives ?

(1) Only A (2) Both A and B

(3) Only C (4) Both B and C

30. Read the following statements A, B and C and choose the correct option from the alternatives which follow :

A. Less than 10 percent of the Indian workforce has formal skill training.

B. Nearly 95 percent of India’s workforce is in the unorganised sector.

C. Most unorganised sector workers have no formal skill training.

(1) Only statement A is true and statement B is not true

(2) Only statement B is true and statement A is not true

(3) Statements A and B are true but C is not true

(4) All the three statements A, B and C are true

Directions : (Questions 31 to 36). Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

The World Health Organisation, in a recent report, put road traffi n ur es as the e hth leading cause of deaths in the world, with an impact similar to that caused by malaria. Over 10 lakh people die every year on the world’s roads. Road accidents are the top cause of death among young (15 to 29 years) people. According to year 2011 records, one person dies in a road accident in India every four minutes. There is an accident almost every minute. This trend is a part of a world-wide increase in accidents over the years due to increase in motorisation, rapid development of road networks, rise in population and lax safety norms for cars.

“In developed countries there is more demand for spacious cars with bucket seats. This gives enough room for rear seat occupants to wear seat-belts. In India, the vehicle manufacturers compromise on safety to provide room for three at the rear” a scientist from Central Road Research Institute, Delhi says.

nother study of fi e most popular ars made in India reports that the safety levels were 2 years beh nd the fi e star standards now

common in Europe and North America”. Many cars made for India would not be allowed on the streets of a European country. Compared to developing nations, many developed nations like Australia, United Kingdom, Canada, Netherlands and France have brought down the r a dent rates s n fi antly n re ent years

31. The main idea of the passage is that

(1) more people die of malaria than of road accidents

(2) we need to take precautions while travelling on roads

(3) people need not worry about malaria

(4) only elderly persons die in road accidents

32. Car manufacturers in India

(1) give importance to quality of materials used in making cars

(2) give less regard for safety standards

(3) are more worried about value for money

(4) are mainly interested in advertisements

33. The study report referred to in the above Passage is :

(1) helpful in understanding the status of road accidents in India

(2) not going to change the road accidents situation in India

(3) trying to bring bad reputation for Indian vehicle manufacturers

(4) prepared by private organisations and hence not reliable

34. Why cars made for India would not be allowed to run on European roads ?

(1) Indian Government does not allow cars to be exported to European countries

(2) Cars made for India do not have the safety norms required to run on European roads

(3) Europeans may not like Indian cars because they were made for a developing country

(4) Fuel required for European cars is different from fuel used in Indian cars

35. In the back seats of developed country cars,

(1) three persons can sit comfortably without wearing seat belts


(2) three persons can sit comfortably with seat belts

(3) two persons can sit comfortably with seat belts

(4) two persons can sit comfortably without seat belts

36. After reading the above passage, which one of the following suggestions would you provide to the Government of India to reduce road accidents in India ?

(1) Permit cars imported only from Europe for use on Indian roads

(2) Permit cars imported only from America for use on Indian roads

(3) Raise the safety norms in car manufacturing

(4) Encourage people to travel only by cycles or motorbikes

Directions : (Questions 37 to 42). Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) has been celebrating World Tourism Day on 27th September every year to promote the awareness of role of tourism within the international community. It claims that tourism is currently the world’s largest industry with annual revenues of over $3 trillion. Number of factors have contributed to. this international growth in tourism. Some of these include more leisure time, faster and cheaper modes of travel and higher disposable incomes. According to a UNWTO report, the international tourism receipts grew by about 3·8% in a single year 2010-11. The year 2011 marked the phase of recovery for international tourism demands from the strong slowdown and losses due to the recession during 2008-09.

Tourism has become the most growing global activity today. Industrialization with newer advanced means of communication and travel has increased our mobility and brought the world closer. Tourism is recognized as “an activity essential to the life of nations because of its direct effects on the social, cultural, educational and economic sectors of national societies and on their international relations”. Tourism brings in large amounts of income in payment for goods and services available, accounting for 30% of the world’s exports of services, and 6% of overall exports of goods and services. It also creates opportunities for employment in

the service sector of the economy, associated with tourism. These service industries include transportation services, such as airlines, cruise ships and taxi-cabs; hospitality services, such as accommodation, including hotels and resorts; and entertainment venues, such as amusement parks, shopping malls, music venues and theatres.

Tourism in India is the largest service industry, which contributes 6·23% to the national GDP and 9·24% of the total employment in India. According to an estimate, tourism revenues are expected to grow by 42% from 2007 to 2017. The majority of foreign tourists come from USA and UK. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Uttar

radesh and a asthan are the top fi e states to receive inbound tourists. Domestic tourism in the year 2010 was 740 million. Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra received the major share of these visitors. The “Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Report 2007” ranked tourism in India sixth in terms of price competitiveness and 39th in terms of safety and security. Ministry of Tourism is active in its efforts in order to promote new forms of tourism such as rural, cruise, medical and eco-tourism.

37. The main idea of the passage is to (1) promote investment in tourism industry

because it is a great revenue earner (2) create awareness about earning from

tourism and its use for development (3) highlight the growth of the tourism industry

and its socio-economic impacts (4) discard the older forms of tourism and look

for its newer forms 38. What has made tourism the most vibrant global

activity today ? (1) Possibility to travel to distant regions across

the world (2) Government policy of subsidy on tourism

activities (3) Higher earning, technological developments

and cheaper means of travel (4) Desire to gain knowledge through travel 39. The service industries mentioned in the passage

refer to (1) the industries that serve the interests of the

buyers (2) the industries that provide services meeting

the interests of the consumers but do not manufacture goods


(3) the industries processing raw materials and manufacturing goods in factories

(4) the industries belonging to the Government sector

40. The inbound tourists referred to in the passage are (1) the Indian tourists going from one region

of the country to another (2) the European tourists visiting Indian

destinations (3) all the foreign tourists visiting India (4) all tourists going from one country to

another

41. International tourism witnessed its recovery in the year 2011 from

(1) political instability (2) economic decline (3) global terrorism (4) environmental degradation 42. Tourism generates large amount of income

through payments made for (1) services and employment (2) employment and entertainment (3) goods and employment (4) goods and services

Section-C(Quantitative Reasoning : Questions 43 to 60)

43. A number of students are standing in a circle and are evenly spaced. They are numbered 1, 2, , n a lo kw se manner f the fifth student

is standing directly diametrically opposite to the twenty fifth student, how many students are standing in the complete circle ? (1) 30 (2) 36 (3) 38 (4) 40

44. Which one of the following digits occurs most frequently when we write numbers from 1 to 100 in digits ? (1) 0 (2) 1(3) 5 (4) 9

45. The following graph shows the number of medals won by India in Commonwealth Games from 1994 - 2014.

Nu

mb

er

of

med

als

wo

n

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

1994 1998 2002 2006 2010 2014

Year

6

12

7 7

108

30

22

17

22

17

11

38

27

36

15

30

19

Gold Silver Bronze

By what approximate percentage was the number of silver medals in 2014 more than the number of gold medals won in 2006 ?

(1) 27% (2) 30%

(3) 33% (4) 36%

46. A postman can travel from village A to village B by four different roads, from village B to village C by two different roads and from village C to village D by three different roads.

A

B

CD

If the postman goes from village A to village D and comes back by a different route, in how many ways can he do this ?

(1) 24 (2) 36

(3) 72 (4) 144

47. The Indian Premier League (IPL) started in 2008. The competition started with a double


round robin group stage, in which each of the teams played two matches against every other team — a home match and an away match.

hese mat hes were followed by two sem finals between the top four teams and a final f n total 59 matches are played, how many teams participated in the league ?

(1) 6 (2) 7

(3) 8 (4) 9

48. You have one ` 1 coin in your piggy bank. Your father decides to give you daily as many ` 1 coins as you have in the piggy bank. That is, on day one he gives you one ` 1 coin, on day two he gives you two ` 1 coins, on day three he gives you four ` 1 coins, and so on. If your piggy bank becomes full in sixteen days, in how many days would it be 1/8th full ?

(1) 8 (2) 13

(3) 14 (4) 15

49. Supriya has two employees in her boutique who are paid according to the chart below :

Employee Hourly pay Daily Bonus

Employee I ` 40 per hour ` 60

Employee II ` 30 per hour ` 100

Supriya wishes both employees should end each day working for the same number of hours and also to get the same amount of money. What is the minimum number of hours that they shall work ea h day to fulfil upr ya s w sh

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 6 (4) 10

50. n her first day of work at a on en en e store, Jaya charged the wrong tax all day. She thought the sales tax rate was 5%, when it was actually 4%. The total amount of money Jaya collected was ` 25,200. The estimated difference between the actual amount of money that should have been collected and the wrongly collected money collected by Jaya is

(1) less than ` 100

(2) between ` 100 and ` 200

(3) between ` 200 and ` 300

(4) more than ` 300

51. Nine coins are placed as shown below. If the centre of each coin is joined by the centre of each adjacent coin by line segments, then the number of equilateral triangles formed will be

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

5

#i;s

RUPEES

2014

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

52. Smridhi wanted to make a cylinder by rolling a rectangular sheet of 20” x 30”. She can do so by folding it along the length or the width as shown (Fig. 1 & 2). Which of the following statements is true ?

20 units

20 units

30 units

30 units

Fig. 1 (cylinder A) Fig. 2 (cylinder B)

(1) Cylinder A will have more volume

(2) Cylinder B will have more volume

(3) Both cylinders will have the same volume (4) Volume of cylinder A will be the one-third

of the volume of cylinder B.

Directions : (Questions 53 to 56). Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

Binary number system is an integral part of the working of any computer system. With combinations of two digits 0 and 1 (called bits or binary digits), a computer reads, adds, subtracts, multiplies and does all its tasks. These binary digits refer to the two voltages corresponding to ON and OFF states of millions of digital electronic circuits used in designing computers.

There exist standard binary encoded numbers for the decimal numbers from 0 to 9.

To transfer a message in a secured way, one needs to encode it. BCD (Binary Coded Decimal) code is one way of encoding decimal numbers by an equivalent 4-bit binary number. 8421 is


a standard BCD code. Using 8421 BCD code, each equivalent 4-bit encoded binary number of a decimal number can be obtained as shown in the table below :

Decimal

NumberBinary Coded

Decimal (BCD) Code

Equivalent

4-bit encoded

binary number

0 0×8+0×4+0×2+0×1 = 0 0000

1 0×8+0×4+0×2+1×1 = 1 0001

2 0×8+0×4+1×2+0×1 = 2 0010

3 0×8+0×4+1×2+1×1 = 3 0011

4 0×8+1×4+0×2+0×1 = 4 0100

5 0×8+1×4+0×2+1×1 = 5 0101

6 0×8+1×4+1×2+0×1 = 6 0110

7 0×8+1×4+1×2+1×1 = 7 0111

8 1×8+0×4+0×2+0×1 = 8 1000

9 1×8+0×4+0×2+1×1 = 9 1001

Note that each number of BCD code is multiplied by binary digit either 0 or 1 and these are then added to obtain the decimal number.

An alternative method of obtaining the equivalent 4-bit encoded binary number of any decimal number using 8421 BCD code is shown below :

5 = 8 + 4 + 2 + 1

= ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓Decimal 5 = 0 1 0 1 (equivalent 4-bit binary

number number)

Further, as BCD is an encoding system, one can use different BCD codes (other. than standard 8421 BCD) for encoding and decoding decimal numbers. For example, if one uses 7 4 2 1 BCD code then decimal number 9 will be encoded as 1010.

One can even use negative numbers to devise a BCD code. For example, if one uses 8 4 – 2 – 1 BCD code, here minus 2 and minus 1 are negative numbers, then as per 8 4 – 2 – 1 BCD code the decimal number 3 will be encoded as 0101.

For encoding decimal numbers more than 9, sets of equivalent 4-bit binary numbers are used. For example, the encoded binary equivalent of decimal number 56 using 8421 BCD code will be 0101 0110, where 0101 is the code for 5 and 0110 is the code for 6.

53. Which of the following is the equivalent 4-bit binary number for decimal number 9 in terms of 8 4 – 2 – 1 BCD code ?

(1) 0111 (2) 1011

(3) 1111 (4) 1001

54. Which one of the following statements is correct about BCD codes ?

(1) One can devise a BCD code with all negative numbers.

(2) As per 8 4 – 2 – 1 BCD code the decimal equivalent of 12 is 1100.

(3) For 1248 BCD and 8421 BCD, 4-bit binary equivalent will be same for all decimal numbers.

(4) As per 8 – 4 – 2 – 1 BCD code there will be no decimal equivalent of 9.

55. Match the following information given in two columns I and II and select the one correct matching from the given options which follow:

Column I Column II

BCD Code Binary equivalent for

decimal number 6

(i) 4812 (p) 0111

(ii) 2147 (q) 1100

(iii 8 – 2 – 1 4 (r) 1001

(iv) 7321 (s) 1010

(1) (i)-r (ii)-s (iii)-p (iv)-q

(2) (i)-r (ii)-s (iii)-q (iv)-p

(3) (i)-s (ii)-r (iii)-q (iv)-p

(4) (i)-s (ii)-r (iii)-p (iv)-q

56. For 2514 BCD code, which of the following can be 4-bit binary equivalent codes for decimal number 7 ?

(1) 1100 and 1011 (2) 1100 and 0111

(3) 1010 and 1101 (4) 0101 and 1011

Directions : (Questions 57 to 60). Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : India is world’s largest democratic country.

Here, the government is directly elected by the people n e ery fi e years le t on omm ss on of India (ECI) is the constitutional authority that conducts elections in India.

In 2014 general elections, votes were polled for 543 Lok Sabha seats. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and its allies formed the National Democratic Alliance (NDA). Indian National Congress (INC) and its allies formed the United Progressive Alliance (UPA). These were two major political


groups to contest the last general elections. Rest of the parties who contested the general elections are referred to as “Others”.

In the present scenario, media plays an important role in the elections by updating voters about their general issues and problems and daily affairs of political parties. Various news channels also conduct exit poll to predict outcome of general elections. In an exit poll, the voters immediately coming out of the polling booth are asked whom they have voted for. The exit poll predictions of four of the leading TV channels with reference to 2014 general elections in India are shown below :

NDA UPA Others

272

115

156

AAJ TAK

NDA UPA Others

281

97

165

ABP NEWS

NDA UPA Others

289

101

153

INDIA TV

NDA UPA Others

340

70

133

NEWS 24

Total Lok Sabha seats : 543

India Election results

Others

Congress Party Allies (UPA)

BJP

INC allies

INC

BJP

Allies

Others

147

1544

55

282

BJP Allies (NDA)

BJP

Congress Party

Total

543

To form a government, a party or an alliance needs to win at least 50% of the total Lok Sabha seats for which voting took place. This is called a government with simple majority in Lok Sabha. A party or an alliance wining 2/3 of the total seats is said to have an absolute majority and can pass any bill in the Lok Sabha.

57. What is the percentage of seats won by BJP and its allies in the Lok Sabha elections in 2014 ?

(1) 60% (2) 62%

(3) 65% (4) 66%

58. With reference to actual results and exit poll predictions, match the information given in the two columns I and II and select the one correct matching from the given options :

Column I Column II

(i) AAJ TAK (p) Closest prediction of

"NDA” seats

(ii) INDIA TV (q) Most erroneous

prediction of “Others”

seats

(iii) NEWS 24 (r) Closest prediction of

“Others” seats

(iv) ABP NEWS (s) Most erroneous

prediction of ‘’UPA”

seats

(1) (i)-r (ii)-s (iii)-p (iv)-q

(2) (i)-r (ii)-s (iii)-q (iv)-p

(3) (i)-s (ii)-r (iii)-p (iv)-q

(4) (i)-s (ii)-r (iii)-q (iv)-p

59. In 2014 Lok Sabha, NDA is short of absolute majority by how many seats ?

(1) 20 (2) 23

(3) 25 (4) 28

60. Which news channel’s exit poll prediction was closest to the overall results of general elections in India in 2014 ?

(1) AAJ TAK (2) INDIA TV

(3) ABP NEWS (4) NEWS 24


SOLUTIONS

Section-A(Language Conventions : Questions 1 to 24)

1. (1) Capriciousness.

2. (1) broadened.

3. (1) take.

4. (2) one can think of only one place at a time.

5. (1) construct.

6. (1) grandeur.

7. (4) blots.

8. (4) a woody and cultivated one.

9. (1) remarkable.

10. (1) over-protect.

11. (3) to look after.

12. (4) circumstances.

13. (2) occurs.

14. (1) an older.

15. (1) do not.

16. (1) him.

17. (2) conforms.

18. (1) rendering.

19. (4) stanza.

20. (1) to.

21. (2) direction.

22. (1) look in.

23. (2) for.

24. (4) One needs to set very high achievable goals.

Section-BQualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42)

25. (1) The distance of the institution from his residence.26. (4) Walking is a convenient and economical form of exercise. 27. (3) A-II, B-I and C-III

Column I Column – II

A. Increase in the cost of agricultural raw materials

II. Rise in food materials prices

B. Good rainfall in most parts of India I. Increase in food grains production

C. Increase in food grains consumption III. Increase in the nutrition level28. (4) Q, R, U

P Q R S T U V

Boy Girl Girl Boy Boy Girl Boy

Blue Q is P’s sister and not wear-ing green

Q and U are girls so obvi-ously one more girl that is R

S is wearing brown (girls are not wear-ing brown)

T is wear-ing yellow

U is S’s sister wearing pink

V is a boy

29. (2) Both A and B.30. (4) All the three statements A, B and C are true.31. (2) We need to take precautions while travelling on roads.32. (2) give less regard for safety standards.33. (1) helpful in understanding the status of road accidents in India.34. (2) Cars made for India do not have the safety norms required to run on European roads.35. (3) two persons can sit comfortably with seat belts.36. (3) Raise the safety norms in car manufacturing.37. (3) highlight the growth of the tourism industry and its socio-economic impacts.


38. (3) Higher earning, technological developments and cheaper means of travel.39. (4) the industries belonging to the Government sector.40. (4) all tourists going from one country to another.41. (2) economic decline.42. (1) services and employment.

Section-CQuantitative Reasoning (Questions 43 to 60)

43. (4) 40(In a circle 5 sits directly to 25 So there are 19 students in between them. Therefore total number of students = 2(19) + 2 = 40)

44. (2) 1

Number OCCURANCE

0 10,20,30,40,50,50,70,80,90,100 11 times

1 1,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,21,31,41,51,61,71,81,91,100 21 times

5 5,15,25,35,45,50,51,52,53,54,55,56,57,58,59,65,75,85,95 20 times

9 9,19,29,39,49,59,69,79,89,90,91,92,93,94,95,96,97,98,99 20 times

45. (4) 36%(The number of silver medals in 2014 = 30The number of Gold medals in 2006 = 22The difference = 8

Percentage = 822

× 100% = 36·36 %

46. (4) 144Number of ways to go A to D = 4 × 2 × 3 = 24Number of ways to reach D to A = 3 × 1 × 2 = 6Since he should come in different path

Total number of ways = 24 × 6 = 14447. (3) 8

(Let the number of teams be x2 (nC2) 2 sem finals final mat hes

2 n n( )−

12

+ 3 = 59

n (n – 1) = 56n2 – n – 56 = 0(n – 8)(n + 7) = 0Therefore number of teams = 8

48. (2) 13umber of days to fill p y bank

Total amount = 216

1/8th of piggy bank = 18

× 216 = 213

49. (1) 4(Let employee I & II work for x hours40x + 60 = 30x + 10010x = 40x = 4


50. (3) between ` 200 and ` 300Total amount collected for 5% tax = ` 25200

Basic Amount = 25200100 5( )+

× 100 =

25200105

× 100 = ` 24000

Amount should have to be collected for 4% Tax = 24000 × 4/100 = ` 960Difference amount = (25200 – 24000) – 960 = 1200 – 960 = ` 240

51. (4) 652. (1) Cylinder A will have more volume

(Volume of cylinder which folding along its Width (20cm) = π π π×( ) × =15 20 45002

Volume of cylinder which folding along its Length (30cm) =

π π π×( ) × =10 30 30002

vv

1

2

23=

53. (4) 1111(1 × 8 + 1 × 4 + 1 × – 2 + 1 × – 1 = 8 + 4 – 2 – 1 = 9)

54. (2) As per 8 4 – 2 – 1 BCD code the decimal equivalent of 12 is 1100.55. (2) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(p).

Column I Column II

(i) 4812 (1 × 4 + 0 × 8 + 0 × 1 + 1 × 2) (r) 1001

(ii) 2147 (1 × 2 + 0 × 1 + 1 × 4 + 0 × 7) (s) 1010

(iii) 8 – 2 – 1 4 (1 × 8 + 1 × – 2 + 0 × – 1 + 0 × 4) (q) 1100

(iv) 7321 (0 × 7 + 1 × 3 + 1 × 2 + 1 × 1) (p) 011156. (1) 1100 and 1011

1 × 2 + 1 × 5 + 0 × 1 + 0 × 4 = 2 + 5 + 0 + 0 = 71 × 2 + 0 × 5 + 1 × 1 + 1 × 4 = 2 + 0 + 1 + 4 = 7

57. (2) 62%(Total number of seats NDA won = 282 + 55 = 337

Percentage of seats won = 337543

× 100% = 62·06%)

58. (1) (i)-(r), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q).

Column I Column II

(i) AAJ TAK (r) Closest prediction of ‘Others’ seats

(ii) INDIA TV (s) Most erroneous prediction of “UPA” seats

(iii) NEWS 24 (p) closest prediction of “NDA” seats

(iv) ABP NEWS (q) Most erroneous prediction of “others” seats59. (3) 25

Absolute majority = 23

× 543 = 362

NDA won = 337Shortage = 362 – 337 = 25

60. (4) NEWS 24.

CBSE SOLVED PAPER - 2014 [ v

Test Booklet Code Series : SHC (P) Test Booklet No.

A3 Problem Solving AssessmentClass - XI

Code No. 113 P

Time Allowed : Two hours Maximum Marks : 60

Do not open Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :

(i) The Answer Shet is indisde this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take outthe Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side : 1 and Side : 2 carefully with blue/back ball pointpen only.

(ii) The Test Booklet Code for this Test Booklet is A3. The candidate should check carefully that the TestBooklet Code printed on Side - 2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on Test Booklet. In casediscrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement ofboth the Test Booklet and the Answer sheet.

(iii) The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three Sections A, B and C.A. candidate is requiredto attempt all the three Sections. There are 24 questions in Section A, 18 questions in Section B and 18questions in Section C.Section A : Language Conventions (Questions 1 to 24) To be attempted either from English Languageor from Hindi LanguageSection B : Qualitative Reasoning (Questions 25 to 42), Section C : Quantitative Resoning (Questions43 to 60)

(iv) All the three Sections contain Multiples Choice Questions (MCQs). Some of these questions are passagebased MCQs whereas others are stand alone MCQs. Each of these questions has four options out ofwhich only ONE option is correct. A candidate has to select the correct option and fill the correspondingnumber in the Answer Sheet against the question.

(v) Each Question carries one mark. For each correct response, the candidate will get one mark. There isno negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted question earns no mark.

(vi) On completion of the test, the candidates MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THEINVIGILATOR in the room/hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

(vii) The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet tothe Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet. Cases where a candidate has not signed theAttendance Sheet or the Answer Sheet has not been handed over to the Invigilator shall be dealt as anUnfair means case.

(viii) Use blue/black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page and writing or markingresponss on Answer Shet.

(ix) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded or demaged. Do not make any straymarks on the Answer Sheet.

(x) The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct inthe Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of theBoard.

Registration No. : ————————————————

Candidate’s Name : ————————————————_____________________________

Candidate’s Signature : ———————————————— Invigilator’s Signature :

vi ] OSWAAL CBSE-PSA (Problem Solving Assessment) Class-XI

PART – A (Language Conventions : Questions 1 to 24)Note : This section of the question paper contains 24 questions in the English Language. A student isrequired to attempt all the 24 questions.(Questions 1 to 8) : Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable

option from each list according to the corresponding number in the passage. 1. Many teens are accused of being lazy by their parents, as 2. they often sleep late into the morning and find it hard to 3. function upon first waking. These same teens are often also 4. reprimanded for staying up late on school nights. 5. However scientific research has shown that addlessents 6. have a very different sleeping pattern to adults. 7. The chemical Melatonin, which is in charge of 8. inducing sleep, is released later in the day by teenage bodies 9. than it is for adults. This means it can be quite hard for10. teens to go to sleep early. It also may mean that teens now11. have a scientific excuse to sleep in late ! 1. In line 8, the word ‘inducing’ could best be replaced with

(1) encouraging (2) forcing (3) persuading (4) transmitting 2. Which of the following words shows the correct spelling of the underlined, mis-spelt word in line 5 ?

(1) adulescents (2) addlescents (3) adolescents (4) adolessents 3. Which of the following words is the opposite in meaning to the word ‘released’ as used in line

8 ?(1) constrained (2) withheld (3) liberated (4) constricted

4. In line 11, the word ‘excuse’ could best be replaced with(1) apology (2) alibi (3) reason (4) pardon

5. In line 1, the words ‘accused’ of could best be replaced with(1) nagged about (2) blamed for (3) criticised as (4) described as

6. In line 4, the words ‘reprimanded for’ could best be replaced with(1) cautioned about (2) punished for (3) disciplined for (4) spoken to about

7. In line 7, the words ‘in charge of ’ could best be replaced with(1) responsible for (2) guilty of (3) created by (4) incapable of

8. In line 3, the word ‘function’ could best be replaced with(1) operate (2) work (3) serve (4) behave(Questions 9 - 12) : Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrasefrom each list to fill the corresponding gap.I peered at the river through a gap in the roots of the strangler fig. The thick branches of the tree 9me without really protecting me. I noticed the gentlest of ripples in the water and then something10 began to emerge from its depths. An enormous head upon a slender neck rose above the surface.I looked into the beast’s cold, reptilian eyes. I could sense no mind or soul behind them. I had torefrain from letting out a frightened 11 ! The time for retreating into the depths of the forest hadarrived and I knew that it was 12 .

C.B.S.E. 2014Class – XI

SOLVEDPAPER

ProblemSolving

Assessment

CBSE SOLVED PAPER - 2014 [ vii7

9. Which of these fits gap 12 ?(1) either sooner rather than later (2) either now or never(3) neither now nor never (4) neither sooner nor later

10. Which of these fits gap 9 ?(1) were hiding (2) hiding (3) hidden (4) was hiding

11. Which of these fits gap 10 ?(1) magnificent yet terrifying (2) frightening yet scary(3) wonderful yet grand (4) amazing yet astonishing

12. Which of these fits gap 11 ?(1) “Phew !” (2) “Aah !” (3) “Aha !” (4) “Ouch !”(Questions 13 - 16) : Read the passage and select the correct form of the missing word/phrase to complete it.It 13 that a person’s body is intuitively aware of when it has returned to its country of origin and14 as I stood on the land of my birth, I could certainly vouch for this being true.The sense of calm that 15 my body surprised me given that the bad news I had recently received16 enough to suppress any feelings of being at peace with the world.

13. Which of these fits gap 13 ?(1) has often been said (2) is been said (3) has often said (4) is often been said

14. Which of these fits gap 14 ?(1) on the other hand (2) after all (3) in addition (4) at that moment

15. Which of these fits gap 16 ?(1) should have been (2) will be (3) shall be (4) might have been

16. Which of these fits gap 15 ?(1) would overcome (2) overcome (3) had overcome (4) will overcome(Questions 17-20) : Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrasefrom each list to fill the corresponding gap.Experienced climber Aron Ralston set out a 17 hiking adventure, which proved to be a 18 event.Despite it being a common sefety practice amongst climbers to inform others when undertakingunaccompanied hiking trips, had not 19 anyone of his plans. During his climbing adventure Aron’sright arm became pinned against the canyon wall by a 360 kg boulder. Aron was unable to freehimself, and after six days of being 20 he made the decision to break the bones in his forearm andthen amputate his arm below the elbow. Once free he made his way down a cliff and walked 8 km toseek assistance. Aron survived.

17. Which of these fits gap 17 ?(1) supervised (2) solo (3) team (4) shared

18. Which of these fits gap 20 ?(1) suppressed (2) captive (3) trapped (4) entangled

19. Which of these fits gap 19 ?(1) authorised (2) alerted (3) signalled (4) cautioned

20. Which of these fits gap 18 ?(1) breath-taking (2) fail-safe (3) stimulating (4) life-changing(Questions 21-24) : Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word/phrasefrom each list to fill the corresponding gap.At 7.17 am on June 30, 1908, an explosion erupted in the forests of Siberia, Russia. The massiveexplosion 21 Shockwaves on barometers as far away as England. A 22 number of trees - eightymillion to be precise - were flattened and lay in a radial pattern. The trees that remained standing23 telegraph poles as they had been stripped of their limbs and bark. This explosion is 24 as the“Tunguska event”, and it is generally accepted that this was the result of a cosmic body, such as ameteorite, impacting with the Earth.UHH

Oswaal CBSE Sample Question PapersFor Class 11 PSA (Problem Solving

Assessment) March 2016

Publisher : Oswaal Books ISBN : 9789351275596 Author : Panel of Experts

Type the URL : http://www.kopykitab.com/product/5420

Get this eBook

50%OFF

http://www.kopykitab.com/Oswaal-CBSE-Sample-Question-Papers-For-Class-11-PSA-Problem-Solving-Assessment-March-2016-by-Panel-of-Experts

QUESTIONSAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS CLASS 11 Strictly Based on Latest Syllabus Issued by CBSE for 2016...

Documents

Transcript of QUESTIONSAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS CLASS 11 Strictly Based on Latest Syllabus Issued by CBSE for 2016...