Question Paper Code: A2510 (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV ...€¦ · Advantages and disadvantages of...

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Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2510 (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2017 (Regulations: VCE-R14) COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE AND ORGANIZATION (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Electronics and Communication Engineering) Date: 28 April, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75 Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks Unit I 1. a) Explain the different registers that are available in the processor of a digital computer and the connection between the processor and the memory. 7M b) With the diagram explain use of a multiplexer to transfer information from two sources into a single destination. 8M 2. a) Explain Arithmetic, logic and shift micro operations with example. 7M b) Provide the basic performance equation. Describe any two possible ways by which performance can be improved. 8M Unit II 3. a) Explain basic instruction types. Give an example for each type. 7M b) Explain role of different computer registers with respect to instruction Fetch cycle and execution. Give an example. 8M 4. a) Explain the following addressing mode with suitable example: i. Immediate Mode ii. Indirect Mode iii. Index Mode iv. Auto decrement Mode v. Register Mode 7M b) Write a program that can evaluate the expression A x B + C x D, in a single accumulator processor. Assume that the processor has Load, Store, Multiply, and Add instructions and that all values fit in the accumulator. 8M Unit III 5. a) Perform booth multiplication on the following numbers -13(multiplicand), +11 (multiplier). 7M b) Illustrate with an example format of micro instructions. 8M 6. a) Give an algorithm for restoring division method. Illustrate the working of the algorithm for 8/3. 7M b) With the diagram explain the basic organization of micro programmed control unit. 8M Unit IV 7. a) Explain in detail the different mappings used for cache memory. Compare them. 7M b) An address space is specified by 24 bits and the corresponding memory space by 16 bits. i. How many words are there in the address space? ii. How many words are there in the memory space? iii. If a page consists of 2K words, how many pages and blocks are there in the system? 8M 8. a) Explain the internal organization of 2Mx8 dynamic memory chips. 7M b) With the neat diagram explain the concepts of direct memory access. 8M Cont…2

Transcript of Question Paper Code: A2510 (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV ...€¦ · Advantages and disadvantages of...

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2510

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE AND ORGANIZATION (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Electronics and Communication Engineering)

    Date: 28 April, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Explain the different registers that are available in the processor of a digital computer and the connection between the processor and the memory.

    7M

    b) With the diagram explain use of a multiplexer to transfer information from two sources into a single destination.

    8M

    2. a) Explain Arithmetic, logic and shift micro operations with example. 7M b) Provide the basic performance equation. Describe any two possible ways by which

    performance can be improved.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Explain basic instruction types. Give an example for each type. 7M

    b) Explain role of different computer registers with respect to instruction Fetch cycle and

    execution. Give an example.

    8M

    4. a) Explain the following addressing mode with suitable example:

    i. Immediate Mode

    ii. Indirect Mode

    iii. Index Mode

    iv. Auto decrement Mode

    v. Register Mode

    7M

    b) Write a program that can evaluate the expression A x B + C x D, in a single accumulator

    processor. Assume that the processor has Load, Store, Multiply, and Add instructions

    and that all values fit in the accumulator.

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Perform booth multiplication on the following numbers -13(multiplicand), +11

    (multiplier).

    7M

    b) Illustrate with an example format of micro instructions. 8M

    6. a) Give an algorithm for restoring division method. Illustrate the working of the algorithm

    for 8/3.

    7M

    b) With the diagram explain the basic organization of micro programmed control unit.

    8M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain in detail the different mappings used for cache memory. Compare them. 7M

    b) An address space is specified by 24 bits and the corresponding memory space by 16 bits.

    i. How many words are there in the address space?

    ii. How many words are there in the memory space?

    iii. If a page consists of 2K words, how many pages and blocks are there in the system?

    8M

    8. a) Explain the internal organization of 2Mx8 dynamic memory chips. 7M

    b) With the neat diagram explain the concepts of direct memory access. 8M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – V

    9. a) Explain the following Dynamic arbitration algorithms: i. LRU ii. Time slice iii. Polling iv. Rotating daisy chain

    8M

    b) How the cache coherence problem is resolved by a snoopy cache controller? 7M 10. a) Differentiate between Synchronous and asynchronous bus. 5M b) Explain the following interconnection networks in detail:

    i. Multiport Memory ii. Crossbar switch

    10M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2112

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    SURVEYING-II (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 10 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Draw the sketch of a leveled trapezoidal section in cutting and embankment and derive expression for the area.

    7M

    b) The following perpendicular offsets were taken from a chain line to an irregular boundary, compute the area between chain line, the boundary and end offsets.

    Chainage.(mts.) 0 8 20 35 47 60

    offsets.(mts.) 14.5 24.5 30.8 27.4 28.4 18.4

    8M

    2. a) Briefly explain the procedure to determine the capacity of a reservoir from contour plan. 7M b) Compute the area between the base line, the curved line and the end offsets using

    Simpson’s rule and by trapezoidal rule, given the readings at 10mts interval, offset readings are 0.00, 2.68, 3.64, 3.70, 4.60, 3.62, 4.84, and 5.74 from base line to curved boundary.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Describe in brief the temporary adjustments of a theodolite 6M b) A Theodolite was set up in between two towers A and B. The distance between

    theodolite station and the tower A is 60 m and from B, 120m. Observations made to top of the towers A and B with the theodolite are +33:26’20” and +30:50’40” respectively. Given the RL of the Trunion axis as 139.675m, determine the difference in elevation between the towers A and B.

    9M

    4. a) How would you measure a horizontal angle by method of Reiteration method, explain with a sketch

    9M

    b) Discuss about electronic digital theodolite 6M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Answer the following: i. Advantages and disadvantages of Anallactic lens ii. Advantages of Tachometric surveying

    6M

    b) Derive an equation for the horizontal distance D and elevation V when the staff is held Vertical in tachometric survey

    9M

    6. a) Derive an equation for calculating Distance and elevation of staff station by tangential method, when both angles are in Depression

    7M

    b) Determine the distance between the instrument station P and staff station Q , and RL of station Q from the following data: K=100, C=0.00, staff readings = 0.645, 0.995,1.350, Height of the instrument = 1.490m, RL of the PC =200.410, Vertical angle = (4:30’)

    8M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain the basic features of total station. 8M b) Define Geographic Information system (GIS). Mention the basic objectives of GIS. 7M 8. a) Compare the features of a Total station with conventional survey instruments. 7M b) Explain the principle of Global Positioning System.

    8M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – V

    9. a) What are the elements of simple circular curve, explain with the formulas. 8M b) Derive the equations to determine the length of tangents in case of compound curve,

    assume suitably the required data. 7M

    10. Two tangents intersect at chainage of 1190m, deflection angle being 360, calculate all the data necessary to set out a simple curve with radius of 300m, by Rankine’s method, peg interval being 30m.

    15M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2407

    (AUTONOMOUS)

    B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2017 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    SIGNALS AND SYSTEMS (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 28 April, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit

    All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Explain about the following operations on Discrete time signals with examples (i) Time scaling (ii) Addition of signals

    8M

    b) Draw z(t)= x(2t).y(2t+1), two continuous time signal are as shown in the Fig.1:

    Fig.1

    7M

    2. a) Find the compact trigonometric Fourier series for the square periodic signal f(t) and sketch the amplitude and phase:

    Fig.2

    8M

    b) Check whether the following are energy or power signals? Also find the corresponding values:

    i. 1 cos 4 4,

    0 otherwise

    x n n for n

    ii. 2 cos 0,

    0 otherwise

    x n n for n

    7M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Find the Fourier Transform of unit step response. 7M b) State and prove the convolution theorem of Fourier Transform.

    8M

    4. a) Obtain the Fourier transform representation for periodic signal x(t)=sinω0t and draw the spectrum.

    7M

    b) State and prove the Hilbert transform properties.

    8M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 :

    Unit – III

    5. a) State and prove the following properties of continuous Fourier transform: i. Time reversal property ii. Time shifting property

    8M

    b) Determine whether the system 2k

    y t x n n K

    is:

    i. Linear ii. Time invariant iii. Causal iv. Stable

    7M

    6. a) Given x1(t)=cosπt*u(t+1)-u(t-3)] and x2(t)=u(t). Compute y(t)= x1(t)* x2(t). 8M b) Analyze and sketch the DT convolution sum of the signal: x(n)=[1 3 2 2 ]; h(n)=[1 3 2 ]

    by graphical method.

    7M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Determine the Laplace Transforms of the following signals and plot their ROC’s: i. e-atu(t) ii. u(-t) iii. sinω0tu(t)

    9M

    b) Determine the Inverse Laplace Transform of X(s) given by:

    2 21

    6 11 6X s

    s s s

    Use partial fraction expansion method.

    6M

    8. a) Using Convolution theorem of Laplace Transforms, find the output of the system excited by input x(t) = e-2tu(t) and having impulse response h(t)=u(t-3).

    5M

    b) State the avantages of Laplace transforms over Fourier transforms. State and prove the following properties of Laplace transforms: i. Multiplication in time domain ii. Transform of derivatives

    10M

    Unit – V

    9. a) State and prove sampling theorem. 7M b) A causal system has input x(n) and output y(n). Find the impulse response of system if:

    1 1 3

    1 2 and y 14 8 4

    x n n n n n n n

    8M

    10.

    a) Find the Z transform of 1

    102

    x n u n u n and find its ROC.

    7M

    b) Find the inverse Z transform by using partial fraction method:

    1 2

    2

    4 3 3ROC 3

    2 3

    z zX z Z

    z x

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2415

    (AUTONOMOUS)

    B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    ELECTRONIC CIRCUITS (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 05 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit

    All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit - I 1. a) Draw the hybrid model and simplified hybrid model for CE configuration. Derive its h-

    parameters. 8M

    b) Obtain the expression for output impedance and input impedance of BJT using h-parameters.

    7M

    2. a) Draw the low-frequency small signal equivalent model of the common-source FET Amplifier and derive the expression for voltage gain.

    7M

    b) A transistor connected as a CB amplifier is driving a load of 10 k. it is supplied by a source of 1 k internal resistance. The hybrid parameters of the transistors used are hib=22Ω, hfb=-0.98, hrb=2.6x10

    -4, hob=1/2MΩ.Find current gain, voltage gain, input impedance and out impedance.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Compare different amplifier classes with its applications. 9M b) A complementary class B push pull amplifier is operating at Vcc=10V and RL=5ohms

    calculate the maximum output power, D.C. input power and efficiency. 6M

    4. a) Describe the working of transformer coupled audio amplifier. 8M b) Discuss the need of heat sinks in transistors.

    7M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Summarize the effects of negative feedback on amplifier characteristics 8M b) An amplifier has midband voltage gain of Avmid=1000 with fL=50Hz and fH=50khz if 5% of

    feedback is applied then calculate the gain, fL and fH with feedback

    7M

    6. a) Classify the oscillators and compare RC phase shift and wein bridge oscillator 8M b) Draw the circuit diagram for the Hartley oscillator and determine the frequency of

    oscillation for the Hartley oscillator with L1=0.5mH, L2=1mH and C=0.2uF

    7M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) A symmetrical square wave of peak to peak amplitude V and frequency f is applied to a

    high pass circuit. Show that the percentage tilt is given by P = 1/2

    1/2

    1200%

    1

    fRC

    fRC

    ex

    e

    . If the tilt

    is small, show that it reduces to P = %1002

    xRC

    T.

    8M

    b) Draw the circuit of two level clipper circuit which is used to convert a sinusoidal signal into an approximate square wave. Draw its transfer characteristics, input and output waveforms and explain its operation.

    7M

    Cont…2

    :: 2 ::

  • 8. a) Explain RC high-pass circuit and sketch its output waveform for a pulsed waveform input

    considering different values of RC. 8M

    b) Draw the waveform of the output voltage V0 of the clamping circuit shown in Fig.1. assuming very large time constant RC and ideal diode. The input is a symmetrical square wave of 20 volts total excursion.

    Fig.1

    7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) With the help of a neat circuit diagram and waveforms, explain an astable emitter coupled multivibrator.

    7M

    b) Find V1 and V2 for the circuit shown in Fig.2. Assume hFE=30 and the silicon NPN transistors.

    Fig.2

    8M

    10. a) Draw the circuit and waveforms of a collector coupled mono stable multivibrator. 8M b) Calculate the stable state currents and voltages for the fixed bias transistor binary shown

    in Fig.3. Assume that the transistors have a minimum hFE value of 20.

    7M

    Fig.3

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2514

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS

    (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

    Date: 10 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Write various applications of database system. 6M b) Explain the component modules of a DBMS and their interactions with the architecture.

    9M

    2. a) Discuss extended ER features with an example. 7M b) Draw an ER diagram corresponding to customers and loans. 8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) i. Explain any three aggregate operations in SQL. ii. Compare the execution of nested queries with correlated nested queries with

    example.

    7M

    b) WORKS (Pname, Cname, Salary) LIVES(Pname, Street, City) LOCATED_IN(Cname, City) Where Pname=Person name, Cname=Company name and Mgrname=Manager name. Write the Relational Algebra Expressions for the following:

    i. Find the people who work for the company ‘Infosys’ with a salary more than Rs.50000/-

    ii. List the names of the people along with the street and city addresses iii. Find the names of the persons who live and work in the same city iv. Display the average salary and number of the employees company wise

    8M

    4. a) Compare the different joins in relational algebra. 7M b) Write appropriate SQL DDL statements to create the following relations of a database

    that keeps track of business trips of salespersons in a sales office: SALESPERSON(Ssn, Name, Start_year, Dept_no) TRIP(Ssn, From_city, To_city, Departure_date, Return_date, Trip_id) EXPENSE(Trip_id, AccountNo, Amount) Account(AccountNo, Name, Bank, Branch) Specify the keys and referential actions.

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Illustrate redundancy and the problems that it can cause. Give examples of insert, delete, and update anomalies. Explain how the problems caused by redundancy can be resolved.

    8M

    b) Explain the necessity of Third Normal Form with an example.

    7M

    6. a) Define functional dependency. Explain Boyce-Codd Normal Form. 7M b) What is the significance of decomposition? Discuss the two properties of

    decomposition. 8M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    Unit – IV

    7. a) List and Explain the important properties of transactions that DBMS must ensure to maintain data concurrency and system failures.

    7M

    b) Explain Strict Two-Phase Locking mechanism.

    8M

    8. a) Create precedence graph for the following schedule. Determine whether it is (conflict) serializable schedule or not. W1(A), R2(A), W1(B), W3(C), R2(C), R4(B), W2(D), W4(E), R5(D), W5(E)

    8M

    b) Explain deadlock with an example. Discuss how deadlock prevention and detection can be achieved.

    7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Define RAID. Discuss Data Stripping and Redundancy with example. 8M b) Explain how clustered and unclustered indexes effect the efficiency of searching?

    7M

    10. a) Explain B+ tree. Give the main characteristics of B+ tree. 8M b) Explain the operations that are considered for appropriate file organization. 7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2012

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    MANAGERIAL ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL ANALYSIS

    (Common to Electronics and Communication Engineering & Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 10 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Depict the critical importance of cross elasticity of demand. 5M b) Elaborate in detail, the functional nature and determinants of market demand.

    10M

    2. a) Evaluate in detail the statistical methods of demand forecasting with examples. 10M b) Develop 3-day moving average from the following daily sales data:

    Date and month Daily sales

    (Lakhs of tones)

    Jan 1 40

    2 44

    3 48

    4 45

    5 53

    5M

    Unit – II

    3. a) What is production function? How does a long run production differ from a short run production function?

    6M

    b) Explain law of returns to scale using isoquant.

    9M

    4. a) Bring out the significance of managerial uses of Break-even analysis. 8M b) A firm has a fixed cost of Rs.10,000; selling price per unit is Rs. 5 and variable cost per

    unit is Rs. 3. Determine break-even point in terms of volume and units. 7M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Depict with examples the features of perfect competition. 6M b) Analyze suitably the price output determination Under Monopoly Competition. Explain

    Short and long run equilibrium with profit and loss. Illustrate the same with graphs.

    9M

    6. a) Over the past couple of months, the price of gold has been fluctuating. Some gold investors have started liquidating their holdings in gold. Do you expect a fall in price? Give reasons.

    5M

    b) Write a note on different pricing strategies adopted by modern companies. 10M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) What is Working Capital? Explain Gross and Net working Capital. 3M b) What are the different sources of raising Capital? 12M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    8. You are a financial analyst for XYZ Co. Ltd. The director of Capital Budgeting has asked you to

    analyze two proposed capital investments, Project P and Q. Each project has a investment of Rs.10,00,000 and the cost of capital for each project is 12%. The projects expected net cash in flows are given in the following table. You are required to: i. Calculate each project’s Pay Back Period ii. Calculate each project’s NPV iii. Calculate each project’s ARR

    Expected Net Cash In Flows

    Year Project P (in Rs.) Project Q (in Rs.)

    1 6,50,000 3,50,000

    2 3,00,000 3,50,000

    3 3,00,000 3,50,000

    4 1,00,000 3,50,000

    15M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Write any five differences between a Trail Balance and a Balance Sheet. 5M b) Explain the concepts of Accounting.

    10M

    10. From the following particulars, prepare Balance Sheet as on the 31st of October, 2016 of Sri. Mohan Ram and Sons: Current Ratio - 2 Working Capital - Rs. 4,00,000 Capital Block to Current Assets - 3:2 Fixed Assets to turnover - 1:3 Cash sales to Credit Sales - 1:2 Loan to Share Capital - 1:2 Stock Velocity - 2 months Creditors Velocity - 2 months Debtors Velocity – 3 months Gross Profit Ratio – 25% Net Profit – 10% of turnover Reserve – 2.5% of turnover

    15M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2110

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    HYDRAULICS AND HYDRAULIC MACHINES (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 01 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) What are the different types of flows in open channels? Explain in detail. 8M b) A trapezoidal channel has side slopes of 1 horizontal to 2 vertical and the slope of the bed

    is 1 in 2000. The area of the section is 42m2. Find the dimensions of the section if it is most economical. Determine the discharge of the most economical dimensions if C=60.

    7M

    2. a) Derive an expression for the variation of depth along the length of the bed of the channel for gradually varied flow in an open channel. State clearly all the assumptions made.

    8M

    b) The discharge of water through a rectangular channel of width 8m, is 15m3/s when depth of flow is 1.2m. Calculate: i. Specific energy of the flowing water ii. Critical depth and critical velocity iii. Value of minimum specific energy

    7M

    Unit – II

    3. a) State and explain the Buckingham’s -theorem. 7M b) The resisting force R of a supersonic plane during flight can be considered as dependent

    upon the length of the aircraft 1, velocity V, air viscosity , air density and bulk

    modulus of air K. Express the functional relationship between these variables and the resisting force.

    8M

    4. a) Explain the three hydraulic similarities that must exist between a prototype and its model.

    8M

    b) Define the following non-dimensional numbers. What are their significances for fluid flow problems? i. Reynold’s number ii. Froude’s number iii. Mach’s number

    7M

    Unit – III

    5. a) A jet of water of diameter 20 mm strikes a 200 mm x 200 mm square plate of uniform thickness with a velocity of 10 m/s at the centre of the plate which is suspended vertically by a hinge on its top horizontal edge. The weight of the plate is 98 N. The jet strikes normal to the plate. i. Estimate the force to be applied at the lower edge of the plate so that the plate is

    kept vertical ii. If the plate is allowed to deflect freely, estimate the inclination of the plate with

    vertical due to the force exerted by the jet of water

    7M

    b) Water is flowing through a pipe at the end of which a nozzle is fitted. The diameter of the nozzle is 100 mm and the head of water at the centre of the nozzle is 100 m. Find the force exerted by the jet of water on a fixed vertical plate. The coefficient of velocity is given as 0.95.

    8M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    6. a) Derive an expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on moving inclined plate in the direction of jet.

    7M

    b) A jet of water moving at 12m/s impinges on a concave shaped vane to deflect the jet through 120o when stationary. The vane is moving at 5m/s. Estimate: i. The angle of the jet so that there is no shock at inlet ii. The absolute velocity of the jet at exit both in magnitude and direction iii. The work done per second per N of water. Assume the vane is smooth

    8M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain with neat sketches the working of a Francis turbine. Also explain the purpose of draft tube.

    8M

    b) A Pelton wheel turbine has a mean bucket speed of 12m/s with a jet of water flowing at the rate of 900 lps under a head of 40m. The buckets deflect the jet at an angle of 165o. Calculate the power given by water to the runner and the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine. Assume the coefficient of velocity as 0.96.

    7M

    8. a) Explain what is meant by unit quantities in turbines. Derive expressions for unit speed, unit discharge and unit power of a turbine.

    8M

    b) The quantity of water available for a hydroelectric station is 275m3/s, under a head of 18m. Assuming the speed of the turbine to be 150rpm, and their efficiency 82%, determine the number of turbines required if: i. A Francis turbine whose specific speed must not exceed 395rpm ii. Kaplan turbine whose specific speed must not exceed 690 are chosen

    7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Define a centrifugal pump. Explain the working of a single-stage centrifugal pump with sketches.

    8M

    b) Define specific speed of a centrifugal pump. Derive an expression for the same.

    7M

    10. a) Obtain an expression for the work done by impeller of a centrifugal pump on water per second per unit weight of water.

    8M

    b) The internal and external diameters of the impeller of a centrifugal pump are 200mm respectively. The pump is running at 1200r.p.m. The vane angles of the impeller at inlet and outlet are 200 and 300 respectively. The water enters the impeller radially and velocity of flow is constant. Determine the work done by the impeller per unit weight of water.

    7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2208

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    ELECTRICAL MACHINES-II (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 08 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Explain with suitable sketches the construction of squirrel cage and slip ring induction motor. State the merit and dements of each type.

    9M

    b) The starting and maximum torques of a 3 phase induction motor is 1.5 times and 2.5 times its full load torque. Determine the percentage change in rotor circuit resistance to obtain a full load slip of 0.03. Neglect stator impedance.

    6M

    2. a) Describe the constructional features of a double cage induction motor and explain its operation.

    6M

    b) A 25hp, 6 pole, 50Hz, 3 phase induction motor has stator/rotor phase voltage ratio of 6/5. The stator and rotor impedance per phase are (0.25+j0.75) ohms and (0.173+j0.52) ohms respectively. Find the starting torque exerted by the motor when an external resistance of 1.0 ohm is inserted in each phase, the motor being started directly on the 400 V supply system. Assume Y/Y connections.

    9M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Discuss the method of speed control of induction motor by changing the number of poles.

    5M

    b) A 30HP, 500V, 50Hz, 4 pole, delta connected cage motor gave the following test data: No Load: 500 V,8 A,1.5 KW Block rotor: 150 V, 50 A, 3.5 KW. Draw the circle diagram and obtain the values of: i. Line current ii. P.F Assume stator resistance and rotor resistance to be equal.

    10M

    4. a) Why a starter is needed for induction motor? Explain the operation of DOL starter giving its circuit diagram.

    8M

    b) A 3 phase Induction motor takes a starting current which is five times full load current at normal voltage. Its full load slip is 4%.What auto transformer ratio would enable the motor to be started with not more than twice the full load current drawn from the supply? What would be the starting torque under this condition?

    7M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Explain the constructional features of a 3-φ alternator with neat diagrams. 9M b) A 4 pole alternator has an armature with 25 slots and 8 conductors per slot. The flux per

    pole is 0.06wb and machine rotates at 1500rpm. Calculate the EMF generated, if the winding factor is 0.96 and all the conductor in a phase are connected in series.

    6M

    6. a) Explain how you determine Xd and Xq using slip test. 9M b) Two alternators are working in parallel supplying a lighting load of 300KW and a motor

    load of 5MW at 0.8pf lagging. One machine is loaded up to 5MW at 0.9pf lagging. What is the load and power factor of other machine?

    6M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Suggest any one method and hence explain in detail how do you synchronize an alternator with the infinite bus.

    6M

    b) A 2000V, 3-phase, star connected, 8-pole synchronous motor has impedance per phase equal to (0.4+j6Ω). When the motor runs at no load, the field excitation is adjusted so that Ef (induced emf) is made equal to V. When the motor is loaded, the rotor is retarded by 30 mechanical. Calculate the armature current, power factor and power developed by the motor. What is the maximum power the motor can supply without falling out of step?

    9M

    8. a) Discuss the application of Synchronous Motors. 6M b) A synchronous motor improves the power factor of a load of 500kW from 0.707 lagging

    to 0.95 lagging. Simultaneously the motor caries a load of 100kW. Find: i. The leading kVAr supplied by the motor ii. kVA rating of the motor iii. Power factor at which the motor operates

    9M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Explain why a single phase induction motor has zero starting torque. Explain the operation of single phase induction motor based on double revolving field theory.

    8M

    b) Explain the construction and principle of working of a universal motor and mention its applications.

    7M

    10. a) Explain the construction and working principle of the capacitor start induction motor. 8M b) Explain the construction and working principle of the shaded pole induction motor. 7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2414

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    ANALOG COMMUNICATIONS

    (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

    Date: 05 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Draw the circuit diagram of Ring modulator and explain its operation and indicate all the waveforms and spectrums.

    8M

    b) In DSB AM system, the carrier is c(t)=Acos(2πfct) and the message signal is given by m(t)=sinc(t)+sinc2(t). Find the frequency domain representation and bandwidth of the modulated signal.

    7M

    2. a) Describe with suitable block diagram the coherent detection of DSB-SC modulated wave using Coastas receiver.

    8M

    b) Consider the message signal m(t)=30cos2πt volts and the carrier wave c(t)=50cos100πt: i. Give the time domain expression for the resulting conventional AM wave for 75%

    modulation ii. Find the power developed across a load of 100Ω due to this AM wave

    7M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Explain the concept of frequency division multiplexing with relevant block diagram. 7M b) In SSB-SC system LSB of a message signal is transmitted. The local carrier has no

    frequency error but a phase error of θ radians. Discuss the effect of phase error on the demodulated signal.

    8M

    4. a) Explain and analyze with suitable block diagram how a single carrier frequency can be used to send two signals simultaneously over the same channel.

    7M

    b) The single tone modulating signal m(t) = Amcos(2fmt) is used to generate the VSB signal.

    s(t)=aAmAccos[2(fc +fm)t] +(1-a)AmAccos[2(fc -fm)t] Where a is constant, less than unity, representing the attenuation of the upper sideband frequency. Find the in-phase and quadrature component of the VSB modulated signal s(t). What is the value of constant a for which s(t) reduces to a DSBSC modulated wave? What is the value of constant a for which s(t) reduces to an SSBSC modulated wave?

    The VSB wave s(t) plus the carrier Accos(2fct) is he passed through an envelope detector . Determine the distortion produced by the quadrature component. What is the valued of ‘a’ for which this distortion reaches its worst possible value?

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) With a neat block diagram, explain Armstrong method of FM generation. 7M b) A carrier is frequency modulated with a sinusoidal signal of 2KHz resulting in a max

    deviation of 5KHZ. Find the bandwidth required. If the amplitude of the modulating signal is increased by a factor of 3 and its frequency is lowered to 1 KHz, find the maximum frequency deviation and bandwidth of the new modulated signal.

    8M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    6. a) Show that how a PLL can be used in the demodulation of FM wave with relevant

    mathematical equations. 8M

    b) An FM signal with = 1 is transmitted through an ideal bandpass filter with mid-band frequency fc and bandwidth 5fm, where fc is the unmodulated carrier frequency and fm is the frequency of the single-tone modulating wave. Determine the amplitude spectrum of the filter output given: J0(1) = 0.765, J1(1) = 0.44, J2(1) = 0.115

    7M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain the generation of PWM with relevant diagrams. 8M b) A simple lab procedure for measuring noise figure of a 2 port network consists

    of following steps: i. First connect resistance at room temperature Toto input and measure

    output power ii. Heat the resistor till output power is doubled and record temperature in

    degree Kelvin. Let temperature of resistor is Tr. Assuming resistor and power meter are impedance matched to 2 port device. Show that noise figure is F = (Tr/To) – 1

    7M

    8. a) Analyze the different types of pulse modulation schemes with relevant diagrams.

    8M

    b) Explain the model of DSBSC receiver using coherent detection and derive the expression for figure of merit.

    7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Draw the block diagram of AM transmitter and explain function of various blocks. 8M b) In a super heterodyne receiver having no RF amplifier the loaded Q of the antenna

    coupling circuit is 90. If the intermediate frequency is 455 KHz, Calculate the image frequency rejection ratio at a signal frequency of 950 KHz.

    7M

    10. a) Compare the following: i. AM transmitter with FM transmitter ii. AM Receiver with FM Receiver

    7M

    b) In a broadcast super heterodyne receiver having no RF amplifier, the loaded Q of the antenna coupling circuit (at input the mixer) is 100. If the intermediate frequency is 455KHz, calculate: i. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 1000KHz ii. The image frequency and its rejection ratio at 25MHz

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2316

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    HYDRAULIC MACHINERY AND SYSTEMS

    (Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 01 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) State and explain the Impulse momentum principle. 5M b) A Jet of water of diameter 7.5cm strikes a curved plate at its centre with a velocity of

    20m/s, which is moving with a velocity of 8m/s in the direction of the jet. The Jet is deflected through an angle of 165˚. Assuming the plate as smooth, find: i. The force exerted by the Jet on the plate ii. The power of the Jet iii. The efficiency of the Jet

    10M

    2. a) Prove that the force exerted by the Jet of water on a fixed semicircular plate in the direction of the jet when the jet strikes at the centre of a semicircular plate is two times the force exerted by the Jet on a fixed plate.

    7M

    b) A 150mm diameter jet moving at 30m/s impinges on a series of vanes moving at 15m/s in the direction of the jet. The jet leaves the vanes at 60o with the direction of the motion of vanes. Calculate i. The force exerted by the jet in the direction of motion ii. Work done by the jet per second

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Discuss the suitability of hydraulic turbines based on available head. 6M b) A pelton wheel is supplied with a 75mm diameter jet having a velocity of 100m/s. The

    buckets deflect the jet by 170o when stationary. The ratio of their vane speed to jet speed is 0.47. Neglecting losses find: i. Wheel diameter ii. Power developed iii. Kinetic energy head of the jet leaving the pelton wheel. Take speed of the turbine as

    600rpm.

    9M

    4. a) With the help of sketches explain any two draft tubes. 5M b) Determine the absolute pressure head at the inlet of a vertical divergent draft tube from

    the following data. Total length of draft tube is 5.75m, length of draft tube 1.25m, head loss due to friction is 0.25 X kinetic head at outlet velocity, velocity of water at inlet is 5m/s. Tube inlet diameter is 0.6m, outer diameter of tube is 0.9m. Find the efficiency of draft tube.

    10M

    Unit – III

    5. a) What is Cavitation? How it can be avoided in a reaction turbine? 5M b) A Pelton wheel is revolving at a speed of 200rpm and develops 5886KW of shaft power,

    when working under a head of 200m with an overall efficiency of 80%. Determine the unit speed, the unit discharge and the unit power. The speed ratio for the turbine is 0.48; Find the speed of the turbine, when working under a head of 150m.

    10M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    6. a) Define the terms: Slip, Percentage slip and negative slip of a reciprocating pump. 6M b) A Single acting reciprocating pump running at 50rpm delivers 0.01 m3/sec of water. The

    diameter of the piston is 200mm and stroke length is 400mm. Determine the: i. Theoretical discharge of the pump ii. The coefficient of discharge iii. The slip and percentage slip of the pump

    9M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) With respect to centrifugal pumps, explain the working of following components in brief. i. Volute casing ii. Vortex chamber iii. Guide blades

    6M

    b) A centrifugal pump running at 1450rpm discharges 110 lt/s against a head of 2.3m. If the diameter of the impeller is 250mm and its width is 50mm. Find the vane angle at the outer periphery. Take manometric efficiency of the pump as 75%.

    9M

    8. a) Obtain an expression for specific speed of a centrifugal pump. 7M b) Two geometrically similar pumps are run at the same speed of 1000rpm. One has an

    impeller diameter of 0.3m and lifts water at the rate of 20lt/s against a head of 15m. Determine the head and impeller diameter of the pump to deliver half the discharge.

    8M

    Unit – V

    9. a) With the help of neat sketch explain the working of hydraulic accumulator 8M b) A hydraulic intensifier is supplied with water at a pressure of 0.18 N/mm2. The sliding

    and the fixed rams of the intensifier are 50mm and 120mm in diameter respectively. Find the pressure intensity of water leaving the intensifier.

    7M

    10. a) Explain with a neat sketch the working of an air lift pump. Mention its advantages. 7M b) A hydraulic lift is required to lift a load of 8KN through a height of 10m; once in every

    80sec. the speed of the lift is 0.5m/s. Determine: i. The power required to drive the pump ii. The working period of the lift in sec iii. The idle period of the lift in sec

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2317

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    KINEMATICS OF MACHINERY (Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 08 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit - I 1. a) Differentiate between the following:

    i. Completely constrained and successful constrained ii. Open pair and closed pair iii. Structure and kinematic chain

    9M

    b) Draw a neat sketch of kinematic pair which is classified based on the nature of relative motion between the elements.

    6M

    2. a) What is kinematic chain? List out the different types of kinematic chain. Explain with neat sketch of beam engines.

    8M

    b) Write the line diagram with neat sketch of oscillating cylinder engine mechanism.

    7M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Prove that a point on one of links of a hart mechanism traces a straight line on the movement of its links.

    7M

    b) What is a pantograph? Show that it can produce paths exactly similar to the ones traced out by a point on a link on an enlarged or a reduced scale.

    8M

    4. a) The crank of a slider crank mechanism is 480mm long and rotates at 20rad/sec in the counter clockwise direction. It has a connecting rod of 1600mm long. Determine the following when the crank is at 60ofrom the inner dead center: i. Velocity of slider ii. Angular velocity of connecting rod iii. The position and velocity of a point P on the connecting rod having least absolute

    velocity

    8M

    b) A four bar mechanism ABCD is made up of four links, pin jointed at the ends AD is a fixed link which is 180mm long. The links AB, BC and CD are 90mm, 120mm and 120mm long respectively. At certain instant, the link AB makes an angle of 60o with the link AD. If the link AB rotates a uniform speed of 100rpm clockwise determine: i. Angular velocity of links BC and CE ii. Angular acceleration of the links CD and CB

    7M

    Unit – III

    5. Explain Klein’s construction for slider crank mechanism to find velocity and acceleration.

    15M

    6. a) What is mean by steering gear? Write about Davis steering gear. 7M b) Two shafts are connected by a Hooke’s joint. The driving shaft is rotating at a uniform

    speed of 1000r.p.m Find the greatest permissible angle between the axes of the two shafts so that the total fluctuation of speed does not exceed 90r.p.m.

    8M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – IV

    7. Draw the profile of a cam operating a knife-edge follower when the axis of the follower passes through the axis of cam shaft from the following data: Follower to move outwards through 30 mm during 600 of cam rotation, Follower to dwell for the next 450 Follower to return to its original position during next 900, Follower to dwell for the rest of cam rotation. The displacement of the follower is to take place with S.H.M during both the outward and return strokes. The least radius of the cam is 30mm. If the cam rotates at 300r.p.m, determine the maximum velocity and acceleration of the follower during outward stroke and return stroke.

    15M

    8. a) Derive an expression for centrifugal tension in a belt. 8M b) An open-belt drive connects two pulleys 120cm and 50cm diameters, on parallel shafts

    4m apart. The maximum tension in the belt is 1900N. The co-efficient of friction is 0.3. The driver pulley of diameter 120cm runs at 200r.p.m Calculate the power transmitted and torque on each shaft.

    7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Derive an expression for the minimum number of teeth required on the pinion in order to avoid interference in involute gear teeth.

    7M

    b) Two 20o involute spur gears have a module of 10mm. The addendum is equal to one module. The larger gear has 40 teeth while the pinion has 20 teeth. Will the gear interfere with the pinion?

    8M

    10. a) Propose a gear train arrangement for a watch mechanism where hour and minute needles are to be mounted on the same axis. Draw a neat sketch and explain.

    5M

    b) In a reduction gear shown in Fig.1, the input S has 24 teeth. P and C constitute a compound planet having 30 and 18 teeth respectively. Find the ratio of reduction gear. Assume A to be fixed.

    Fig.1

    10M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2507

    (AUTONOMOUS)

    B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2017 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS (Information Technology)

    Date: 28 April, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit

    All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Apply quick sort algorithm to sort for the following list {4, 1, 6, 3, 9, 2, 7, 5}. Write the quick sort partition algorithm.

    9M

    b) Indicate whether first function of each of the following pairs has a smaller, same or larger order of growth than second function: i. n (n + 1) and 2000n2 ii. 100n2 and 0.01n3 iii. log2 n and ln n iv. 2n-1 and 2n v. log2 n and log2 n

    2 vi. (n – 1)! and n!

    6M

    2. a) Write the binary search algorithm. 7M b) Develop an algorithm to determine the minimum and maximum values in an array {a1, a2,

    … an} of integers (Here n>=1 and the entries in the array need not be distinct). Determine the worst case complexity for this algorithm.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Solve the following graph for its minimum spanning tree using: i. Prim’s algorithm ii. Kruskal’s algorithm

    Fig.1

    8M

    b) Solve the following knapsack problem where m=40 and n=4 using greedy technique. i. Weights [W1, W2, W3, W4] = [20, 25, 10, 15] ii. Profits [P1, P2, P3, P4] = [20, 40, 35, 45]

    7M

    4. a) With suitable example, explain the Dijikstra’s algorithm to find all pair shortest paths from a given source vertex to all other vertices in a graph.

    8M

    b) Differentiate between depth first search and breadth first search techniques.

    7M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    Unit – III

    5. a) Explain the following: i. Reliability design ii. String editing

    6M

    b) With an example, explain how to find the solution to the 0/1 knapsack problem using dynamic programming?

    9M

    6. a) What is binary search tree? 3M b) Solve the all-pairs shortest path problem using dynamic programming for a digraph

    represented by the following cost adjacency matrix:

    A B C D

    A 0 999 3 999

    B 2 0 999 999

    C 999 7 0 1

    D 6 999 999 0

    12M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain the recursive backtracking algorithm. 4M b) What is the advantage of backtracking in solving a particular problem? With a complete

    algorithm and example, explain how this backtracking is used to solve 4-queens problem.

    11M

    8. a) Write and explain an algorithm for finding all Hamiltonian cycles. 9M b) What is branch-and-bound method? Also write a note on least cost search. 6M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Discuss Cook’s theorem for NP-Complete and NP-Hard problems. 8M b) Differentiate between NP-Complete and NP-Hard problems.

    7M

    10. a) Can we write a polynomial algorithm for every NP-class problem? Explain with justification.

    7M

    b) With an example, explain the following solvable NP-Complete problems: i. Decision problem ii. Optimization problem

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2108

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    STRENGTH OF MATERIALS-II (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 03 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) What do you understand by the theories of failure? Explain principal stress theory. 7M b) A bolt is subjected to an axial pull of 12kN together with a transverse shear force of 6kN.

    Determine the diameter of bolt using maximum principal stress theory. 8M

    2. At a point in strained material there is a tensile stress of 80N/mm2upon a horizontal plane and a compressive stress of 40N/mm2 upon a vertical plane. There is also a shear stress of 48N/mm2 upon each of these planes. Determine the maximum shear stress at the point. Determine also the resultant stress on the planes of maximum shear stress and sketch the resultant stresses.

    Fig.1

    15M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Derive the formula for Euler’s buckling load of a column with both ends fixed. 7M b) Calculate the safe compressive load on a hollow cast iron column (one end rigidly fixed

    and other hinged) of 15cm external diameter, 10cm internal diameter and 10m in length. Use Euler’s formula with factor of safety of 5 and E=95kN/mm2.

    8M

    4. a) A mild steel T-section having width of web as 150mm and depth of section 150mm, has uniform 10mm thickness of web and flange. This section is used as a strut, 4m long with both ends fixed. Determine, by Rankine’s formula, the safe load it can carry with a factor of safety of 3. Take fc=330N/mm

    2 Rankine’s constant 1/7500.

    7M

    b) Determine the maximum stress induced in a horizontal strut of length 2.5m and of rectangular cross section 40mm wide and 80mm deep when it carries an axial thrust of 150kN and a vertical load of 6kN/m length. The strut is having pin joints at its ends. Take E=2X105N/mm2.

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Mention the assumptions in theory of pure torsion. 5M b) Determine the diameter of a solid shaft which will transmit 330kW at 300rpm. The angle

    of twist must not exceed 1degree in 2m length nor the maximum shear stress 40MN/m2. Modulus of rigidity C=84GN/m2.

    10M

    6. a) Distinguish between proof load, proof stress and proof resilience 5M b) A closed coiled spring is to be made of wire 5mm diameter for which E=200GPa and

    C=80GPa it is required to extend to 28mm for an axial load of 100N and twist 0.22 radians for an axial couple of 1Nm. Find the mean diameter of the coils and number of coils required.

    10M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Define core of a section. Derive expression for core of circular section. 7M b) A masonry chimney 24m high of uniform circular section, 3.5m external diameter and

    2m internal diameter is subjected to a horizontal wind pressure of 1kN/m2 of projected area. Find the maximum and minimum stress intensities at the base, if the specific weight of masonry is 22kN/m3.

    8M

    8. a) What is middle third rule? Explain stability condition of masonry dam. 7M b) A masonry dam is 1m wide at the top, 4m wide at base and 6m high. The face of the

    wall exposed to water is vertical and water is likely to rise to the top of the wall. Find the maximum and minimum intensities of normal stress intensities at the base, if the specific weight of masonry is 22kN/m3 and that of water is 9.8kN/m3.

    8M

    Unit – V

    9. Analyze the truss shown in Fig.2 and evaluate the magnitude and nature of forces in the members of the truss by method of joints.

    Fig.2

    15M

    10. Determine the value of force ‘W’ which would produce a force of magnitude 150kN in the member AB of the cantilever truss shown in Fig.3. Also determine the forces in the members EF and EA by the method of sections.

    Fig.3

    15M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2111

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    BUILDING PLANNING AND DRAWING (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 08 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) What is FAR? Explain with examples. 7M b) Explain the principles underlying building byelaws.

    8M

    2. a) Discuss how building byelaws emphasis on lighting and ventilation requirements and its importance.

    8M

    b) Discuss about the height restrictions regulation imposed by building byelaws.

    7M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Give requirements for Bed room and Dining room in a residential building. 8M b) What are the minimum planning standards of Banks and Hospitals?

    7M

    4. a) Explain about planning of Hotels and Motels. 7M b) Explain the planning of buildings for Recreation.

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Draw the Plan of one and half brick wall odd and even courses and elevation of English Bond.

    7M

    b) Draw the conventional signs for the following: i. Stone ii. Wood iii. Glass iv. Sand filling

    8M

    6. With a neat sketch explain plan and view of odd and even courses of one and a half brick thick wall junction of a corner in Flemish bond.

    15M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Draw a neat sketch of a queen post truss and indicates the parts. 8M b) Draw to a suitable scale, elevation and section of a paneled window of suitable size.

    7M

    8. With neat sketch describe the king post roof truss. 15M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – V

    9. From the line diagram shown in Fig.1 draw to a suitable scale the plan and elevation of the building.

    Fig.1

    15M

    10. From the line diagram shown in Fig.2, draw to a suitable scale the plan and section of the building showing all details.

    Fig.2

    15M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2213

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    ELECTRICAL TECHNOLOGY

    (Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 28 April, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Calculate the current through the Galvanometer in the following bridge given below:

    Fig.1

    8M

    b) Define KVL and KCL with example.

    7M

    2. a) Determine the current supplied by each battery in the circuit shown in Fig.2. below:

    Fig.2

    7M

    b) A network of resistances is formed as follows: AB=9 Ω; BC=1 Ω; CA=1.5 Ω forming a delta and AD=6Ω; BD=4Ω and CD=3Ω forming a star. Compute the network resistance measured between: i. A and B ii. B and C iii. C and A.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Define and explain Thevenin’s theorem with an example. 7M b) Find the current in the 4 Ω resistance in Fig.3. using the principle of superposition.

    Fig.3

    8M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    4. a) Define Norton’s theorem with an example. 7M b) Using Thevenin’s theorem, determine the current in the 1Ω resistance of the network

    shown in below Fig.4:

    Fig. 4

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Define self inductance and mutual inductance. 6M b) Mention the types of D.C. generators and obtain its voltages and current relationship.

    9M

    6. a) Explain with circuit diagram the flux control of speed in a D.C. shunt motor. 6M b) A 220V, D.C. shunt motor at no load takes a current of 2.5A. The resistances of the

    armature and shunt field are 0.8Ω and 200Ω respectively. Estimate the efficiency of the motor when the input current is 32 A. State precisely the assumption made.

    9M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) By conducting O.C and S.C test of a transformer, draw its equivalent circuit. 8M b) A 125KVA transformer has a primary voltage of 2000V at 60Hz. If the number of turns on

    the primary 182 and secondary 40. Find i. The secondary no load voltage ii. Flux in the core iii. Full load primary and secondary currents

    7M

    8. a) Derive the condition for the maximum efficiency of a transformer. 6M b) A 600KVA, Single phase transformer has an efficiency of 92% both at full load and half

    full load UPF. Determine the efficiency at 75% full load 0.9 power factors.

    9M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Show that stator output is a rotating magnetic field. 7M b) Draw and explain the power stages in an induction motor.

    8M

    10. a) Explain with rotor figures of squirrel cage and slip-ring induction motor construction. 6M b) A 3 phase, 6 pole, 50Hz induction motor has a slip of 1% at no load, and 3% at full load.

    Determine: i. Synchronous speed ii. No load speed iii. Full load speed iv. Frequency of rotor at standstill v. Frequency of rotor current at full load

    9M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2315

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY-I

    (Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 05 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Define pattern and explain in detail the different types of pattern allowances. 7M b) With a flow chart indicate and explain the different activities involved in casting process.

    8M

    2. a) Describe the process of investment casting with a neat sketch and state its advantages and applications.

    7M

    b) What is a Riser? List the functions of Riser in metal casting. Sketch the difference between Open and blind Riser.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) With a neat sketch illustrate the operation of flux cored arc welding process and state its advantages.

    8M

    b) Explain the process of Resistance Seam welding with a neat sketch and list its advantages.

    7M

    4. a) Illustrate the gas welding operation and give details about different flames used in gas welding process.

    8M

    b) Explain the process of Thermit welding with a neat sketch and state its applications. 7M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Differentiate between TIG and MIG welding operations. 6M b) Describe the operation of laser welding with illustration and states its advantages and

    applications.

    9M

    6. a) List the welding defects and explain causes and remedies of the same. 7M b) Define HAZ. Describe the metallurgical changes related to welding with a neat sketch. 8M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain the concept of strain hardening effect in cold working. 7M b) Describe the types of roll mills with illustration.

    8M

    8. a) Explain the concept of impression die forging with a neat sketch and state its advantages and applications.

    8M

    b) With the help of a neat sketch explain the drop forging process. 7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) List the types of extrusion. Explain with neat sketches direct extrusion. 7M b) What is impact extrusion? Briefly describe the process with a neat sketch and its

    applications.

    8M

    10. a) Explain why lubrication is important in hot extrusion process. 7M b) With a neat sketch explain injection moulding process. What are its advantages? 8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2109

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-I (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 05 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit - I 1. a) Draw SFD and BMD for a given structure. Also draw the elastic curve. Assume EI

    constant throughout.

    Fig.1

    15M

    2. a) Determine the deflection at 1/3 of the span for the propped cantilever beam shown in Fig.2.

    Fig.2

    15M

    Unit – II

    3. A beam AB of uniform section is 6m span fixed at the ends a UDL of 30kN/m runs over left half of the span and there is an additional concentrated load of 40kN at the right quarter span determine the end moments and the reactions sketch neatly the BMD and SFD.

    15M

    4. Analyze the continuous beam by Clapeyron’s theorem of three moments and draw BMD and SFD as shown in Fig.3.

    Fig.3

    15M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Draw ILD for the following forces of simply supported beam AB: i. Reaction at A ii. SF at section X

    5M

    b) Two wheel loads of 160kN (leading loads) and 400kN spaced 2metres apart move on a simply supported beam girder of span 16metres from left to right. Find the maximum positive and negative shear force at a section: i. 4 metres from the left end ii. 6 metres from the left end

    10M

    6. For the span shown in Fig.4, obtain the bending moment at a section P, 20m from A, due to the given loads in the position indicated. Also determine the position of the loads, for maximum bending moment at section P and the value of the maximum moment.

    Fig.4

    15M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Write the step - by- step procedure in slope deflection method. 5M b) Analyze the beam loaded as shown in Fig.5 below by slope deflection method. Draw

    B.M.D and S.F.D. EI is constant.

    Fig.5

    10M

    8. A continuous beam ABCD 12m long is loaded as shown in Fig.6. Support B sinks by 10mm. Analyze the beam for reactions at supports. E=200GPa and I=108mm4. Draw BMD. Assume E=200GPa and I=8X106mm4.

    Fig.6

    15M

    Unit – V

    9. Find the degree of static indeterminacy for the structures as shown in Fig.7.

    Fig.7

    15M

    10. Calculate the vertical deflection components of joint B of the truss loaded as shown in Fig.8 by strain energy method. Cross-sectional area of each member is 500x10-6m2. E=200x106kN/m2.

    Fig.8

    15M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2513

    (AUTONOMOUS)

    B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    UNIX PROGRAMMING (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

    Date: 08 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit

    All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit - I

    1. a) With suitable examples discuss the methods used to change file permissions. 8M b) Explain the relationship between kernel and shell in the architecture of Unix Operating

    System.

    7M

    2. a) Discuss the importance of the following regular expression character sub set: * . [pqr] ^pqr [c1-c2] ^abc$

    6M

    b) Explain the following commands with suitable syntax and example: i. head ii. tee iii. comm How is egrep different from grep?

    9M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Write a shell script to perform any three string related tests on a given file. 6M b) Write the syntax and usage of the following functions:

    i. read() ii. umask() iii. lstat()

    9M

    4. a) Discuss the concept of redirection used by shell with respect to. the three standard files.

    6M

    b) Write the syntax and usage of the following functions: i. lseek() ii. symlink() iii. telldir()

    9M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Explain the functions used for dynamic memory allocation in C with relevant syntax. 6M b) Discuss the importance of the following functions with syntax:

    vfork ( ) waitpid( ) system ( )

    9M

    6. a) Discuss the importance of the following functions in Unix Programming with relevant syntax: wait() exec() alarm()

    9M

    b) Explain how fcntl ( ) can used for record locking. 6M Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Write a C program to demonstrate the parent and child communication over a pipe. 7M b) Describe the message queue functions: msgget( ), msgsnd( ), and msgctl( )

    8M

    8. a) What is a shared memory? 7M b) What is a pipe? Mention the limitations on pipe.

    8M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Explain the following function with its syntax: i. Bind() ii. Connect() iii. Listen() iv. Accept()

    8M

    b) Define a socket. How do you create a socket? Give an example.

    7M

    10. a) List and explain the different types of sockets. 5M b) Write a program to illustrate the process of creating a socket, initializing the socket

    address structure and establishing a connection from a client to the server. Assume the server IP address as 10.10.2.5 and the port number= 8000. The client after establishing a connection should send “Hello” message and wait for a reply.

    10M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2011

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

    (Common to Computer Science and Engineering, Information Technology, Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 01 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Illustrate the various environmental ill effects and benefits associated with dams. 8M b) Define Environment. State the need for public awareness for solving environmental

    problems.

    7M

    2. a) Discuss in detail the factors responsible for Land Degradation. What are the means to prevent land degradation?

    7M

    b) Define Deforestation. What are the causes of Deforestation? Discuss its consequences.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Explain the concept of an Ecosystem. Give a Schematic representation of the structure of an ecosystem.

    8M

    b) What do you understand by Hotspots of Biodiversity? Name and briefly describe the two hotspots of Biodiversity that extend into India.

    7M

    4. a) Explain food chains and food webs. Describe importance of food webs. 7M b) Briefly explain the direct and indirect values of Biodiversity.

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Discuss the causes and effects of Soil Pollution. What control measures can be taken for prevention of Soil Pollution?

    7M

    b) What are the effects of improper Municipal Solid Waste Management? State the measures recommended for proper management?

    8M

    6. a) Elaborate the following concepts: i. Resettlement and Rehabilitation ii. Rain Water Harvesting

    7M

    b) Define Ozone Layer Depletion. Discuss the causes, effects and control methods of Ozone Layer Depletion.

    8M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Describe the role of information technology in the field of human health. 8M b) Analyze the “polluter pay principle”. Does it bring balance to the environment?

    7M

    8. a) Define green building. Mention its environmental benefits with illustrations. 8M b) Explain how information technology plays important role in the field of environment? 7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Explain the issues involved in enforcement of Environmental Legislation. 7M b) Define Environmental Ethics and Discuss why they are important with respect to

    Environmental Protection?

    8M

    10. a) Discuss the Salient features of Environmental Protection Act and Forest Conservation Act. 8M b) Define Environmental Impact Assessment. Discuss the purpose, goals and benefits of

    Environmental Impact Assessment. 7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2314

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    THERMAL ENGINEERING-I (Mechanical Engineering)

    Date: 03 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) What are the important basic components of an IC engine? Explain them briefly. 5M b) In what respect four stroke CI engine differ from that of an SI engine.

    10M

    2. a) For a CI engine, compare with the help of a diagram the actual cycle with the limited pressure fuel-air cycle.

    5M

    b) Show and compare the effect of spark advance on a single p-v diagram. What do you mean by progressive burning? What are the factors on which the time of progressive burning depends?

    10M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Explain the terms controlled, uncontrolled and abnormal combustion. 5M b) How does the nucleus of a flame grow and how does the combustion proceed? Also

    distinguish between combustion and burning. List the factors that affect the octane requirement of an engine.

    10M

    4. a) Define the terms: i. Ignition lag ii. After burning

    5M

    b) Show and explain with reasons the variation of pressure and temperature in the SI engine as a function of crank angle. Discuss the effect of compression ratio on ignition lag.

    10M

    Unit – III

    5. a) What is the need for measurement of speed of an I.C engine? 3M b) An eight-cylinder four stroke engine of 9cm bore and 8cm stroke with a compression

    ratio of 7 is tested at 4500rpm on a dynamometer which has 54cm arm. During a 10 minutes test the dynamometer scale beam reading was 42kg and the engine consumed 4.4kg of gasoline having a calorific value of 44000kJ/kg. Air at 270C and 1 bar was supplied to the carburetor at the rate of 6kg/min. Find: i. The brake power delivered ii. The brake mean effective pressure iii. The brake specific fuel consumption iv. The brake specific air consumption v. The brake thermal efficiency vi. Volumetric efficiency

    12M

    6. a) Schematically explain heat balance of an IC engine. 5M b) A four stroke, four-cylinder gasoline engine has a bore of 60mm and a stroke of 100mm.

    On a test it develops a torque of 66.5Nm when running at 3000rpm. If the clearance volume in each cylinder is 60cc the relative efficiency with respect to brake thermal efficiency is 0.5 and the calorific value of the fuel is 42MJ/kg. Determine the fuel consumption in kg/hr and the brake mean effective pressure.

    10M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain what is meant by volumetric efficiency of a compressor. Explain how clearance volume effects it. Discuss the effects of clearance upon the performance of an air compressor.

    7M

    b) A three stage air compressor delivers 5.2m3 of free air per minute. The suction pressure and temperature are 1 bar and 300C. The ambient pressure and temperature are 1.03bar and 200C. The air is cooled at 300C after each stage of compression. The delivery pressure of the compressor is 150bar. The rpm of the compressor is 300. The clearances of L.P, I.P, and H.P cylinders are 5% of the respective strokes. The index of compression and re-expansion in all stages is 1.35. Neglecting pressure losses, find the B.P of the motor required to run the compressor if the mechanical efficiency is 80%.

    8M

    8. a) What factors limit the delivery pressure in a reciprocating compressor? 8M b) In test a test of a single cylinder, single acting air compressor having 100mm bore and

    125mm stroke, air is taken from atmosphere at 1.013bar and delivered through a valve, which maintains a delivery pressure of 800kN/m2 to a reservoir of 1.2m3 capacity. A motor giving 1.765KW drives the compressor at 422rpm and indicated mean effective pressure is 220kN /m2. The reservoir is initially at atmospheric pressure and 200C and after 20 minutes running reaches 70kN/m2 and 670C. Calculate the delivery in m3 of free air per minute at 200C, the volumetric efficiency at atmospheric conditions, the isothermal efficiency and the mechanical efficiency.

    7M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Compare centrifugal and axial flow air compressors. 5M b) A centrifugal compressor operating at a pressure ratio of 4:1 has inlet temperature of

    150C. Calculate the outer diameter of impeller given that the speed of operation 15000r.p.m. Slip factor=0.9, Power input factor =1.03, Isentropic efficiency=0.85.

    10M

    10. a) Discuss the losses in axial flow compressors. 5M b) An axial flow compressor stage consisting of a rotating and stationary blade row receives

    air at 100kN/m2 and 150C. The axial velocity of air is 200 m/s. Inlet and exit blade angles of rotor row are 500 and 220 respectively. Assuming degree of reaction to be 50%, calculate the power required if the air compressed to 1.2kg/s.

    10M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code : A2413

    (AUTONOMOUS)

    B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017 (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY AND TRANSMISSION LINES (Electronics and Communication Engineering)

    Date: 01 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit

    All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Prove Gauss Law and Find the Electric Flux Density due to infinite Line Charge using Gauss Law?

    8M

    b) Four Point Charges of 500 C each are placed at the corners of a 3 m side square. The

    Square located in the Z = 0 free space plane between x=+ 3 and y=+ 3 m in free

    space. Find the force on a point charge 30 C located at (0,0,4).

    7M

    2. a) State and explain point form of continuity equation. Given the field H=20ρ2 aφ A/m. Determine the current density J.

    7M

    b) If a sphere of radius has a charge density 3krv then find D and D as a function

    of radius r and sketch the result. Assume k constant.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) State and explain Ampere’s Circuital Law. Use Ampere’s Circuital Law to obtain H due to an infinitely long straight filament of current I.

    7M

    b) A solenoid of 200 turns wound tightly on a cylindrical tube of length 60cm and of diameter 6cm, given that medium is air. Find the inductance. Derive the formula used.

    8M

    4. a) State and prove Biot-Savart’s law and explain the relation between B and H with an example.

    7M

    b) Explain briefly magnetic scalar and vector potential. Let A=(3y-z)ax + 2xzayWb/m in certain region of free space. Find B and H at point P(2,-1,3).

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Explain the inconsistency in Ampere circuital law and high light the difference between Conduction Current Density and Displacement Current Density.

    8M

    b) In a material for which ς=5 S/m and εr=1, the electric field intensity is E=250 sin1010t V/m.

    Find the conduction and displacement current densities and the frequency at which both have equal amplitudes.

    7M

    6. a) Derive the expression for tangential and normal components of electric field intensity and electric flux density at the boundary between the two perfect dielectrics.

    8M

    b) Given E

    =Em sin(ωt-βz) ya

    in free space, find , ,D H B

    . Sketch E

    and H

    at t=0.

    7M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Explain the propagation in good conductors. Hence derive an expression for depth of penetration or skin depth.

    7M

    b) Consider the fields: E(z,t)=2000 cos(107πt-βz) xa

    V/m and H(z,t)=4 cos(107πt-βz) ya

    A/m

    represent a uniform plane wave propagating in Z-direction at a velocity of 1.5x108 m/sec in a perfect dielectric. Find phase constant, wavelength, intrinsic impedance, relative permeability, relative permittivity and attenuation constant.

    8M

    Cont…2

  • ::2::

    8. a) Discuss the reflection of uniform plane waves at normal incidence. 7M

    b) Travelling E

    and H

    waves in the free space(region-1) are normally incident on the interface with a perfect dielectric (region-2) with εr=3.0. Compare the magnitude of the

    incident wave and transmitted E

    and H

    waves at the interface.

    8M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Derive the input impedance of open and short circuited line with the lines being dissipation less. Also show the variation of X/R0 v/s length of line.

    7M

    b) A lossless transmission line with Z0=60Ω is 400m long. It is terminated with a load ZR=40+j80Ω and operated at a frequency of 1MHz. The velocity of the wave on the line is 0.8 times the velocity of light. Using Smith chart, find: i. The reflection co-efficient ii. SWR iii. Input impedance

    8M

    10. a) Derive an expression for the input impedance of a quarter wave line. Explain how it can be used for impedance matching?

    7M

    b) A line of Zo=400Ω is connected to a load of 200+j300Ω which is excited by a matched

    generator at 800MHz. Find the location and length of a single stub nearest to the load to produce an impedance match. (with or without Smith chart).

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2511

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    FORMAL LANGUAGES AND AUTOMATA THEORY

    (Common to Computer Science and Engineering & Information Technology)

    Date: 03 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Design a DFA which accepts all the strings with even number of 0’s and odd number of 1’s over an alphabet {0,1}.

    6M

    b) Convert the following NFA to a DFA recognizing the same language, using the subset construction. Give a state diagram showing all states reachable from the start state, with an informative name on each state. Assume the alphabet is {0, 1}.

    Fig.1

    9M

    2. a) Explain the finite automata (FA) with output clearly indicating the machine types. 6M b) Convert the given NFA with ɛ-moves to DFA:

    Fig.2

    9M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Write the regular expression for the following languages over the alphabet {a, b} i. L = {an bm: n < 4, m ≥ 3} ii. All the strings not ending with ‘ab’ iii. All the strings do not contain two consecutive a’s

    9M

    b) Give the regular expression for the following DFA:

    Fig.3

    6M

    Cont….2

  • ::2::

    4. a) State and prove pumping lemma for the regular language. 9M b) Describe which languages the following regular expressions represent:

    i. (0 ∪ 1)* 01 ii. 1*01* iii. (11)* iv. (0*10*10*)* v. (0 ∪ 1)*01(0 ∪ 1)* vi. 1*0*

    6M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Write the context free grammars for the following regular expressions: a* a* U b* a(a* U b*)b

    8M

    b) Consider the grammar G = (V, ∑, R, S), where ∑ = {the_lady, the_gentleman, the_flowers, with, behind} V = {S, NP, P, PP} R = S → NP NP → NP PP PP → P NP NP → the_lady NP → the_gentleman NP → the_flowers P → with P → behind Consider the string: "the_lady behind the_gentleman with the_flowers" Give two derivations for the string using same rules in different order using different rules at some step of the derivation process.

    7M

    6. a) Eliminate all unit productions from below grammar: S ABA | BA | AA | AB | A | B A aA | a B bB | b

    8M

    b) Convert the below grammar to CNF: S aAD, A aB | bAB, B b, D d

    7M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) Differentiate : Deterministic PDA and Nondeterministic PDA Language accepted by PDA by final state and by empty stack.

    7M

    b) Design PDA for the following language accepted by final state. Also write instantaneous description for the string ”aabbbbbccc”. L = { anbn+mcm : n ≥ 0 , m ≥ 1}

    8M

    8. a) Is the PDA corresponding to the language L ={ wwR | w Є (a+b)*} is deterministic? 10M b) Write the procedure to convert CFG to PDA and Vice versa. 5M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Define Turing machine along with its working. 7M b) Design a Turing Machine to recognize 0n1n2n.

    8M

    10. a) Write note on Universal Turing machine and Extensions of Turing machine. 8M b) What are linear bound automata? Mention the conditions that satisfy LBA. 7M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2107

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY

    (Civil Engineering)

    Date: 28 April, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) List different types of laboratory tests conducted on cement and discuss about the Soundness test.

    8M

    b) What is hydration of cement? What are the factors effecting the process of hydration?

    7M

    2. a) Explain the classification and functions of various chemical admixtures with example of each admixture.

    7M

    b) Discuss the fresh and hardened state properties of concrete that are affected by texture, shape, size and grading of aggregate.

    8M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Briefly explain the steps involved in the manufacture of concrete? 7M b) Discuss the factors effecting workability and the factors affected by workability.

    8M

    4. a) Differentiate between true slump, shear slump and collapse slump, with sketches. 7M b) Discuss the applicability of various workability tests for different mixes.

    8M

    Unit – III

    5. a) What is Gel Space Ratio? Determine the Gel space ratio of OPC of 300gm for full hydration and partial Hydration of 60% and compare their results?

    8M

    b) Specify the relationship between water cement ratio and maturity concept with the strength properties of concrete?

    7M

    6. a) Distinguish between destructive and non destructive testing of concrete? Explain with neat sketch one of the method of NDT of concrete?

    8M

    b) Explain the following term with respect to strength of concrete: i. Young’s modulus of concrete ii. Poisons ratio

    7M

    Unit – IV

    7. Design a concrete mix by BIS guidelines for the following requirements: Characteristic strength at 28 days : 30 MPa Degree of supervision is good Maximum nominal size of the aggregate : 20mm Slump required at the site : 100 mm Fine aggregate used is river sand and conforms to Zone II Maximum w/c ratio from durability is 0.55 Specific gravity of cement, fine aggregate, coarse aggregate and chemical admixture (SP) used are 3.07,2.62,2.72 and 1.08 respectively. Minimum cement is 300kg/m3 and maximum cement is 450 kg/m3. Coarse aggregate is crushed angular aggregate. (Assume suitable values) Additionally you can also use the values observed in the laboratory for compressive strength and w/c ratios as given below to get the appropriate w/c ratio. Consider the aggregates in SSD condition:

    Fck (MPa) 20 22 27 30 36 43 50 60

    w/c ratio 0.60 0.55 0.50 0.45 0.40 0.35 0.30 0.27

    15M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    8. a) List out and explain the factors affecting the mix proportioning of concrete. 7M b) What do you understand by durability of concrete? Explain carbonation and sulphate

    attack in concrete and the remedial measures for sulphate attack.

    8M

    Unit – V

    9. a) Write short on: i. Self compacted concrete ii. Polymer concrete

    7M

    b) As a engineer at site suggest a suitable concrete to be used for an industrial flooring. Also enlist its properties as a material of construction.

    8M

    10. a) Differentiate between structural light weight concrete and normal weight concrete. 7M b) Write in detail about the types of Fiber Reinforced Concrete(FRC). 8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2207

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    POWER SYSTEM GENERATION

    (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 10 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Explain and draw the single line diagram of the electrical power system. 5M b) A hydro-electric station is supplied from a catchment area of 150km2 with an annual

    rainfall of 200cm and effective head of 300 meters. Assume a yield of 60%, calculate: i. The available continuous power ii. The rating of generator installed iii. Net energy available in kwh

    10M

    2. a) With a neat schematic, explain the operation of a hydro power station. 8M b) Explain how a pumped storages results in overall economy in an interconnected system.

    7M

    Unit – II

    3. a) Explain thermal power station operation with a line diagram. 8M b) Give the classification of steam turbines used in power plants. Briefly discuss their use

    and characteristics.

    7M

    4. a) Explain the following: i. Types of boilers ii. Cooling tower iii. Super heater iv. Economizer

    8M

    b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a thermal power station?

    7M

    Unit – III

    5. a) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear power plants with respect to thermal and hydro power plants.

    6M

    b) With a neat sketch, explain the working of Gas power plant.

    9M

    6. a) Explain the open cycle gas power plant and explain its demerits. 7M b) With a neat sketch, explain pressurized water reactor.

    8M

    Unit – IV

    7. a) With neat sketch explain sectionalized single bus bar scheme. 8M b) Explain air insulated substation with diagram.

    7M

    8. a) With single line diagram, explain substation layout showing the location of all substation equipment.

    8M

    b) Define substation and explain about indoor and outdoor substation.

    7M

    Cont…2

  • :: 2 ::

    Unit – V

    9. a) Define the following terms: i. Demand factor ii. Load factor iii. Plant capacity factor iv. Plant use factor

    8M

    b) A 1000MW Power station delivers 1000MW for 2 hours, 500MW for 6 hours and shut down for the rest of each day. It is also shut down for maintenance for 60 days annually. Calculate annual load factor.

    7M

    10. a) Discuss the various methods for power factor improvement. 7M b) A single phase motor connected to 400V, 50Hz supply takes 31.7A at a power factor of

    0.7 lagging. Calculate the Capacitance required in parallel with the motor to raise the Power factor to 0.9 lagging.

    8M

  • Hall Ticket No: Question Paper Code: A2209

    (AUTONOMOUS) B. Tech IV Semester Supplementary Examinations, April/May - 2017

    (Regulations: VCE-R14)

    CONTROL SYSTEMS

    (Electrical and Electronics Engineering)

    Date: 03 May, 2017 FN Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 75

    Answer ONE question from each Unit All Questions Carry Equal Marks

    Unit – I

    1. a) Explain the features of open loop and closed loop control system. 6M b) For the mechanical system shown in Fig.1 draw the torque-current analogous network

    and write the corresponding equations.

    Fig.1

    9M

    2. a) Explain the classification of control system. 6M b) Determine the t