Question CAT

Unproctored - Mock CAT 9��

SECTION - ISECTION - ISECTION - ISECTION - ISECTION - I

DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for Questions 1 to 5: for Questions 1 to 5: for Questions 1 to 5: for Questions 1 to 5: for Questions 1 to 5: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.The members of the Scouts Association are divided into three clubs namely : Cubs, Scouts and Rovers. Themembers receive one or the other of the three coloured badges namely red, blue and green for the social andadventure activities done by them. The table given below provides information about the number of badgesof each colour received by the members in two types of activities namely – Social and Adventure and alsoabout the number of badges received by each of the clubs in these activities.

Colour of badges Activities Number of badges Name of Clubs Activities Number of badgesSocial 14 Social 12

Adventure 11 Adventure 8Social 11 Social 12

Adventure 9 Adventure 8Social 7 Social 8

Adventure 5 Adventure 9

RED

BLUE

GREEN

CUBS

SCOUTS

ROVERS

Members of each club received only two colours of badges in each type of activities. In each type of activitybadges of a particular colour is received by exactly two clubs and also badges of no colour is given to thesame pair of clubs in both the types of activities.

No red coloured badge was received by members of Rovers club in the social activities and by the membersof Cubs club in the Adventure activities. The members of the Cubs club received the same number of badgesof different colours in the Social activities.

1. The number of blue coloured badges received by members of Scouts club in the Social activities is(1) 0 (2) 4 (3) 5(4) Either (1) or (3) (5) Either (1) or (2)

2. If members of Cubs club received 6 blue badges in the Adventure activities, then the number of redbadges received by members of Rovers club in the Adventure activities is(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) Cannot be determined

3. If members of Rovers club received more number of green coloured badges in the Adventure activitiesthan Social activities, then the total number of blue coloured badges that the members of Scouts clubreceived is(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4 (5) Cannot be determined

4. The maximum possible number of badges of a particular colour that was received by the members ofany club in the Adventure activities is(1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 11 (4) 9 (5) 8


5. If members of Scouts club received more number of green coloured badges in the Adventure activitiesthan in the Social activities, then which of the following statements is definitely false?(1) The number of red coloured badges that members of Scouts club received is more than the number

of blue coloured badges received by the members of Rovers club.(2) In the Adventure activities the clubs which did not receive badges of colours red, blue and green are

Cubs, Scouts and Rovers respectively.(3) In the Adventure activities the members of Rovers club did not receive any green coloured badge.(4) The number of green coloured badges that the members of Scouts club received is more than the

number of blue coloured badges received by the members of Rovers club.(5) More than one of the given statements.

DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for QQQQQuestions 6 to 10:uestions 6 to 10:uestions 6 to 10:uestions 6 to 10:uestions 6 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.In a tennis tournament eight different players namely A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H participated. Each playerplayed exactly one match against each of the remaining seven players. No match ended in a draw or tie.In each match two out of the eight players contested and one player won whereas the other player lost.Exactly five out of the eight players won five matches each.

Additional Information Given:Additional Information Given:Additional Information Given:Additional Information Given:Additional Information Given:1. G lost his matches against each of B, C, D and E.2. F lost his match against A but won against G.

6. Find the total number of matches played in the tennis tournament.(1) 24 (2) 28 (3) 32 (4) 36 (5) 40

7. How many players won exactly one match?A. NoneB. OneC. TwoD. Three(1) A or B or D (2) B only (3) A or B or C or D(4) B or D (5) B or C or D

Additional Information for questions 8 to 10:Additional Information for questions 8 to 10:Additional Information for questions 8 to 10:Additional Information for questions 8 to 10:Additional Information for questions 8 to 10:G won its match against H while A lost its match against both C and D.

8. How many matches were won by A in the tennis tournament?(1) One (2) Two (3) Five (4) Three (5) Cannot be determined

9. How many matches were won by F in the tennis tournament?(1) One (2) Five (3) Two (4) Three (5) Cannot be determined

10. If H won his match against B, and C lost its match against F, then which of the following pairs of playersdefinitely won its match against E?(1) A and C (2) C and D (3) A and D (4) A and F (5) Cannot be determined


11. There are exactly three pairs of siblings among ten children namely Sam, Joe, Tim, Ron, Ken, May,Bob, Ian, Den and Emy such that no child is common in these pairs. Mr. Vaughan selects four childrensuch that in each selection, there is exactly one pair of siblings and the other two children do not haveany sibling. Some of the selections done by him are listed in the table given below.

I Sam Tim Den MayII Ken Ron Joe BobIII Tim Ian Bob EmyIV May Bob Den SamSe

lect

ions

Which of the following can never be a selection done by Mr. Vaughan?(1) Den, Ken, Sam and May (2) Ian, Emy, May and Ron (3) Tim, Ken, Joe and Ron(4) Ron, Sam, Joe and May (5) Sam, Den, Ken and Bob

12. The numbers assigned by Professor Chaurasia to each of the 26 alphabets namely A, B, C, ......, Y andZ are 1, 2, 3, ......, 25 and 26 respectively. He makes a selection of certain alphabets such that hisselection includes all the vowels and all those alphabets which have been assigned a prime number. Heforms a five-letter word using the alphabets from his selection. Which of the following is definitely nota word formed by him?(1) IGCAM (2) SCEKA (3) SUOEM(4) UQKAE (5) OGVUE

13. Seven containers namely C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7 are filled with one out of the 7 liquids namelyA, B, C, D, E, F and G not necessarily in this particular order. C2, C4 and C6 are filled with A, E and Crespectively. C1 is filled with neither D nor G. C7 is filled with neither B nor D. If C1 is filled with F,which liquid is filled in C7?(1) A (2) G (3) C(4) Either (2) or (3) (5) Cannot be determined


DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for Questions 14 and 15: for Questions 14 and 15: for Questions 14 and 15: for Questions 14 and 15: for Questions 14 and 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.The figure shows the data of a mutual fund company. The allocation of funds in each sector Auto(A), Chemical(C), Pharmaceutical(P), IT(I), Bank(B), and Others(O) is shown below.The price at which the shares of respective sectors were purchased and their current market price is shown inthe graph:

Percentage of funds invested in each sector

15%5%

10%

25%

20%

25%

A C P I B O

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

700

800

A C P I B O

Pur

chas

e P

rice

(in

Rs.

)050100150200250300350400450

Cur

rent

mar

ket

valu

e as

a

perc

enta

ge o

f P

urch

ase

Pri

ce

Purchase Price

Current market value as a percentage of Purchase Price

Note:Note:Note:Note:Note: Funds with the Mutual Fund Company are worth Rs. 100 crore.Market Capitalization = Number of Shares × Current Market Price.Market Appreciation = Number of Shares × (Current Market Price – Purchase Price)

14. For which sector Market Capitalization is the maximum?(1) Chemical (2) Pharmaceutical (3) IT(4) Bank (5) Auto

15. For which sector Market Appreciation is the minimum?(1) Chemical (2) Pharmaceutical (3) Auto(4) Bank (5) Others


DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20:DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20:DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20:DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20:DIRECTIONS for Questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.There are ten boxes namely Box 1, Box 2, Box 3, ….. , Box 9 and Box 10 with Mr. Zero. Each of these tenboxes is colored with one out of the four colors namely Black, White, Yellow and Pink. The number of coinsin these boxes is one of the five numbers 12, 15, 20, 25 and 30. The following bar – graphs provides informationabout the number of boxes that are colored Black, White, Yellow and Pink and also about the number ofboxes that have different number of coins.No two boxes that are colored with the same color have equal number of coins.

5

2

2

1

0 2 4 6

Black

White

Yellow

Pink

Col

ors

Number of Boxes

10

4

65

8

0

2

4

6

8

10

12

At least12 coins

At most15 coins

At least20 coins

At least25 coins

At most25 coins

Num

ber

of B

oxes

16. The number of boxes that have exactly 20 coins is(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (5) Cannot be determined

17. What is the total number of coins in all the boxes that are colored black?(1) 102 (2) 92 (3) 95 (4) 105 (5) Cannot be determined.

18. The total number of coins in all the ten boxes with Mr. Zero can at the most be(1) 202 (2) 207 (3) 212 (4) 222 (5) 227

19. If the number of coins in the box that is colored pink is 30, then which of the following can be the totalnumber of coins in all the boxes that are colored white?(1) 45 (2) 37 (3) 42(4) Either (1) or (2) (5) Either (1) or (2) or (3)

20. If the total number of coins in the boxes that are colored yellow is the maximum possible and the totalnumber of coins in all the boxes is the least, then what is the number of coins in the box that is coloredpink?(1) 25 (2) 30 (3) 15 (4) 12 (5) Cannot be determined.


DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 25:DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 25:DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 25:DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 25:DIRECTIONS for Questions 21 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Each of the five people namely Rohan, Deepak, Tripti, Sonal and Tarun completed 200, 180, 140, 150 and240 units of work. The number of days taken by Rohan, Deepak, Tripti, Sonal and Tarun to complete thementioned units of work is 12, 10, 8, 10 and 12 days respectively. The following table provides informationabout the units of work completed by each of these people after every day.

After Rohan Deepak Tripti Sonal Tarun1 day 10 12 5 20 182 days 22 32 15 25 203 days 24 50 25 40 444 days 40 52 50 50 485 days 60 84 80 65 506 days 68 120 96 80 957 days 140 140 108 100 1008 days 148 156 140 125 1129 days 176 172 140 140 11510 days 180 180 140 150 12011 days 184 180 140 150 16012 days 200 180 140 150 240

Number of Units

21. Out of the mentioned days, what is the maximum units of work completed by all the five people on asingle day?(1) 123 (2) 124 (3) 129 (4) 131 (5) 130

22. What was the approximate average units of work per day per person?(1) 17.50 (2) 15.17 (3) 75 .83 (4) 91.00 (5) None of these

Additional Information for questions 23 and 24:Additional Information for questions 23 and 24:Additional Information for questions 23 and 24:Additional Information for questions 23 and 24:Additional Information for questions 23 and 24:A person is said to be more efficient than the other person only if he/she has done more number of units ofwork than him/her on at least seven days.

23. Tarun is more efficient than which of the following people?(1) Deepak (2) Sonal (3) Rohan(4) Both (1) and (2) (5) Both (1) and (3)

24. Out of the five people, how many are more efficient than exactly two of them?(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0 (5) 3

25. On how many days does Sonal do more units of work than that of at least one and at most two of thesepeople?(1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 9


SECTION - IISECTION - IISECTION - IISECTION - IISECTION - II

26. Mr. Chaalu while buying clothes uses a faulty meter tape which actually measures 110 cm for a meterand while selling them he uses another faulty meter tape which actually measures 90 cm for a meter. Ifhe buys the cloth at a discount of 5% on the marked price and sells it at a discount of 10% on the samemarked price, then what is his percentage gain or loss?(1) 15.8% profit (2) 4.21% loss (3) 5% loss (4) 25% profit (5) None of these

27. The number of zeroes in binary notation of 2189 – 289 is(1) 0 (2) 89 (3) 100 (4) 189 (5) 90

28. How many 5 digit multiples of 3 or 4 (but not both) can be formed using the first 6 natural numbers, ifthe repetition of digits is not allowed?(1) 432 (2) 372 (3) 312 (4) 240 (5) 268

29. ‘z’ is a positive integer. Find the smallest positive integer ‘m’ such that 23z always divides m3113+1.(1) 8z – 3 (2) 8z – 5 (3) 4z – 3 (4) 23z – 1 (5) None of these

30. Sanjay bought a basket of oranges, a basket of apples, a basket of mangoes and a basket of peaches. Hepaid a total of Rs.790 for the baskets of fruits bought by him. While driving back to home, he realizedthat if he decreased the price of the basket of mangoes by Rs.4, increased the price of basket of peachesby Rs.7, multiplied the price of the basket of oranges by 3 and divided the price of the basket of applesby 2, then all the baskets would have the same price. Find the price of the basket of peaches.(1) Rs. 160 (2) Rs. 180 (3) Rs. 95 (4) Rs. 176 (5) Rs. 170

31. A circle with radius 2 cm is circumscribed by two triangles ABC and ADE as shown in the following

figure. It is given that DE = 7 cm, BC = 5 cm, AC = 13 cm and the measure of ∠ = °CBD 90 . Also it can

be concluded that =+

2BDGF ,

BD kwhere ‘k’ is a real constant. Find the value of ‘k’.

AB

C

D

E

FG

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 0

32. If 5x 2y z 81,+ + = where x, y and z are distinct positive integers, then find the difference between themaximum and the minimum possible value of x + y + z.(1) 44 (2) 48 (3) 55 (4) 60 (5) 64


33. Ramu is an intelligent sheep rearer. He observed that the average number of wool pieces produced persheep is equal to the number of sheeps owned by him in the year 2006. In 2007, he observed that theaverage number of wool pieces produced per sheep owned by him is 97. The number of wool piecesproduced by the sheeps owned by him in the year 2007 is less than the number of wool pieces producedby the sheeps owned by him in the year 2006 by 3500. If the total number of sheeps owned by Ramuin 2006 and in 2007 is the same, then find the total number of sheep owned by Ramu in the year 2006.(1) 100 (2) 120 (3) 130 (4) 150 (5) 125

34. There are two alloys of gold and copper. In the first alloy, there is twice as much gold as copper and inthe second alloy, the quantity of copper is five times the quantity of gold. In what ratio we must mix thefirst and the second alloy such that the amount of copper is twice the amount of the gold in this newalloy?(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1.5 (4) 1 : 2.5 (5) 2 : 1

35. How many different points in the X-Y plane are at a distance of 5 units from the origin and haveco-ordinates (a, b), where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are integers?(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12 (5) 16

36. A boat while going downstream, crosses a floating wooden piece. After 1 hr, the boat reaches the port,and starts travelling in the opposite direction immediately. Now, after moving from the port for 1 hr, theboat crosses that wooden piece again at a point which is 8 kms ahead of the place where it wasencountered earlier. Find the speed of the stream.(Assume that the speeds of the boat and the streamremain constant).(1) 4 km/hr (2) 3 km/hr (3) 2 km/hr (4) 1 km/hr (5) 8 km/hr

37. The total number of terms in an arithmetic progression (A.P.) is odd. The sum of all the even placedterms is 7 and the sum of all the odd placed terms is 8.75 in this A.P. It is also given that the last term ofthis A.P. exceeds the first term by 2. Find the total number of terms in the A.P..(1) 5 (2) 9 (3) 11 (4) 21 (5) Cannot be determined

38. There are two numbers A and B. A can be expressed as a product of 13 and a two-digit prime numberand B can be expressed as a product of 17 and a two-digit prime number. If the unit’s digit of theproduct of A and B is 7, then how many distinct products of A and B are possible?(1) 48 (2) 55 (3) 80 (4) 110 (5) 120

39. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral with AB = 8 units, BC = 5 units and CD = 6 units. If the diagonals of thisquadrilateral intersect at right angles, then AC is approximately equal to(1) 10 units (2) 11 units (3) 12 units (4) 9 units (5) None of these

40. If a, b and c are positive real numbers, then find the minimum possible value of

+ ++ + +a b c

.b 3c c 3a a 3b

(1) 3

8(2)

3

5(3)

15

22(4)

18

25(5)

3

4


41. In the figure given below ABDE is a quadrilateral. The line segments ED and AB are extended tointersect at a point C. Given that the lengths of the line segments EC, DC and AE are equal to16, 12 and 8 units respectively. If DB = BC, then what is the perimeter of quadrilateral ABDE?

C

B

A8

E

D

1 2

(1) ( )+3 3 2 2 units (2) ( )+4 2 2 1 units (3) ( )+3 6 2 2 units

(4) ( )+2 3 3 4 units (5) ( )+4 2 3 3 units

DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for for for for for QQQQQuestions 42 and 43:uestions 42 and 43:uestions 42 and 43:uestions 42 and 43:uestions 42 and 43: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Rohit wishes to donate some amount of money to three charitable organizations viz. A, B and C such that theamount donated by him to C is equal to the total amount donated by him to A and B together. If Rohit donatesRs. ‘x’ to C and Rs. ‘y’ to A, then the amount donated to B will be less than 20% of ‘y’ and if he donates Rs.(x + 1) to C and Rs. ‘y’ to A, then the amount donated to B will be more than 25% of ‘y’. ‘x’ is a positiveinteger.

42. Which of the following can be a possible value of ‘y’?(1) Rs.19.18 (2) Rs.20.12 (3) Rs.20.54 (4) Rs.22.22 (5) None of these

43. How many values of ‘x’ are possible?(1) 0 (2) 19 (3) 4 (4) 23 (5) 24

DIRECTIONS for Questions 44 and 45:DIRECTIONS for Questions 44 and 45:DIRECTIONS for Questions 44 and 45:DIRECTIONS for Questions 44 and 45:DIRECTIONS for Questions 44 and 45: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.N is a natural number such that 300 < N < 750. P is the sum of the number N and the number formed byreversing the digits of N, even if upon reversing, it becomes a two-digit or a single-digit number. P is alsoequal to ‘k’ times the sum of the digits of the number N.

44. Find the minimum possible value of ‘k’.(1) 28.5 (2) 32.75 (3) 37.5 (4) 40.25 (5) 43.5

45. If = 4'k ' 96 ,

17 then find the remainder when N is divided by the sum of its digits.

(1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 11 (4) 5 (5) 6

46. ABCD is a square and G is a point on DC such that AG is the angular bisector of ∠ DAC. The diagonalsof the square intersect at the point E and AG intersects one of the diagonals at the point F. The length of

the line segment =FE 3 2 units. What is the length of DE?

(1) ( )6 1 + 2 units (2) ( )6 2 + 2 units (3) ( )12 1 + 2 units

(4) 3 2 units (5) 3(2 + 2)units


47. There were twelve teams participating in a football tournament where each team played exactly onematch with each of the other eleven teams. Each match was played between two teams. The winner ofeach match was awarded 3 points while no point was awarded to the team that lost the match. In case ofa tie, both teams got 1 point each. If the aggregate number of points awarded to all the teams at the endof the tournament was 189, then how many matches ended in a tie?(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 6 (5) 4

48. Find the sum of the series (given below) which has infinite terms.

1 1 1 13, 2, 1, 1, , , , ....

3 2 9 4

(1) 7 (2) 7.5 (3) 8.0 (4) 8.5 (5) 9.0

49. A and B work for m and n hours per day respectively. They complete a work independently in ‘a’ and‘b’ days respectively. If each of them reduces their working hours per day by 4 hrs, each would take 5days more to finish the work independently. If they work together at their original work hours and ifthey start at the same time everyday, the job will get done in (a, b, m, n are distinct natural numbers andm, n < 16):(1) 3 days 3 hours (2) 4 days (3) 5 days(4) 5 days 6 hours (5) Cannot be determined

50. The sum of four natural numbers a1, a2, a3 and a4 is 210. What can be the minimum possible L.C.M.. ofthese numbers?(1) 500 (2) 84 (3) 105 (4) 42 (5) None of these


SECTION – IIISECTION – IIISECTION – IIISECTION – IIISECTION – III

DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for for for for for QQQQQuestions 51 to 53: uestions 51 to 53: uestions 51 to 53: uestions 51 to 53: uestions 51 to 53: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choosethe most appropriate answer to each question.

PASSAGE 1PASSAGE 1PASSAGE 1PASSAGE 1PASSAGE 1

Knowledge originates either in scientific, objective observation of the “real” world, or in emotional, highlypersonal apprehension of values expressed as I like or approve of this. Rhetoric is not possible within thisduality. We, can however, question this duality and this involves some border crossing from the territory ofphilosophy into the old world of rhetoric that turns to study the particular sites where writing takes place toexplore how writing and persuasion works. From this perspective the structure of a scientific report is not justa matter of superficial style, but rather a complex stock of argumentative moves or commonplaces that serveto reinforce and reproduce a view of the world that characterizes the discipline of science. In short, the“common” topics have become, in their way, as specialized as the “special” topics (or specialized knowledgethat characterizes a particular discipline).

Knowledge is also discovered through dialectic. Knowledge is not created through the isolated self interact-ing with the physical world, nor even by groups of selves attempting to achieve Platonic certainty through thediscursive testing of logical propositions or mathematical axioms. Rather, knowledge is developed commu-nally through the process of making an intelligible world with my fellow human being. Hence we have theidea of an ongoing conversation with persuasion a necessary means of keeping the conversation (as a form ofsocial interaction) going.

But how do we influence each other through language? In ‘Why Does Rhetoric Need a Theory of Reading’?Doug Brent says:

Traditional rhetoric simply had to have faith that an audience could interpret accurately. Rhetoric is tradition-ally defined as the art of using language to influence others’ behaviour and belief. This implies that discourseis a reasonably reliable means by which one person can affect another. The rhetor must know that what heputs into his discourse will be roughly reflected in what the audience takes out. Otherwise persuasion ismeaningless, for the rhetor has no predictable influence on his audience. To do his job, the rhetor mustbelieve human beings act not at random, but rather for reasons that he can predict and use. This assumption,however, has been treated simply as an assumption, an article of faith.

51. A suitable title for the passage is(1) Ways through which knowledge is discovered.(2) Knowledge can be discovered only through rhetoric.(3) Rhetoric and the discovery of knowledge.(4) Traditional Rhetoric and its assumptions.(5) Philosophy and Rhetoric.


52. The tone of the passage is predominantly(1) Descriptive (2) Argumentative (3) Analytical(4) Subjective (5) Skeptical

53. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?(1) The ‘duality’ as regards the origin of knowledge takes into account communal interactions.(2) The effectiveness of Rhetoric as a means to discover knowledge is suspect.(3) Persuasion is one of the factors which impede the discovery of knowledge through rhetoric.(4) The Rhetor can influence his audience even if the audience is not interested in what he is saying.(5) ‘The rhetorical philosophy’ seeks to increase universal brotherhood and universal love.


PASSAGE 2PASSAGE 2PASSAGE 2PASSAGE 2PASSAGE 2

Farmers who used “slash and burn” methods of clearing forests to grow crops thousands of years ago couldhave increased carbon dioxide levels enough to change the climate, researchers claimed today.The US scien-tists believe that small populations released carbon emissions as they cleared large tracts of land to producerelatively meagre amounts of food.They were much less efficient than farmers using today’s agriculturalpractices because there were no constraints on land.

A study published online in the journal Quaternary Science Reviews by researchers at the University ofVirginia and the University of Maryland-Baltimore County (UMBC) said that early farmers could have clearedfive or more times as much land as they used at any one time.According to the researchers, today’s populationof six billion people uses about 90% less land per person for growing food than the early farmingsocieties.William Ruddiman, the paper’s lead author and emeritus professor of environmental sciences at theUniversity of Virginia, said the early farmers were likely to have cleared land by burning forests, planted cropseeds among the dead stumps and moved on to a new area once the yields declined.”They used more land forfarming because they had little incentive to maximise yield from less land, and because there was plenty offorest to burn. They may have inadvertently altered the climate,” he said.

Ruddiman first published a hypothesis five years ago suggesting people began altering the global climatethousands of years ago, with human activity accounting for rises in carbon dioxide that began about 7,000years ago.His theory was criticised by scientists who believe the human impact on the climate began with theindustrial revolution because earlier populations were too small to influence the level of carbon emissions inthe atmosphere.

But Ruddiman said that early farming methods, with around 10 times the amount of land per person than isused today, could have created an impact on the climate despite the small number of people in early civilisations.

54. Which of the following would be strongly supported by Ruddiman’s critics ?(1) Land use in the past was similar to land use today and that the great population explosion of the past

centuries has increased land use proportionally.(2) The modes of farming have become more efficient since the industrial revolution.(3) Farmers today use lesser land per person than farmers before the industrial revolution.(4) The proportion of carbon emitted by vehicles is much more as compared to that emitted by

agricultural practices.(5) Farmers of the earlier ages used 10 times more land per person than the present day farmers.


55. The passage is trying to establish which of the following facts ?A. Much smaller earlier populations used more land than the current populations and may have more

greatly affected climate than current models reflect.B. Much smaller earlier populations burnt and cleared a lot of forest land and may have more greatly

affected climate than current models reflect.C. Much smaller earlier populations used lesser land than the current populations and may have more

greatly affected climate than current models reflect.(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) A and B (4) B and C (5) A, B and C

56. The author’s tone in the passage is?(1) Supportive (2) Analytical (3) Neutral (4) Expounding (5) Can’t say

DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for Questions 57 to 59: for Questions 57 to 59: for Questions 57 to 59: for Questions 57 to 59: for Questions 57 to 59: In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences thatforms a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammarand usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

57. A. A Farewell to Arms is a very dramatic book.B. Many scholars, such as Ray B. West, Jr., have compared its five-book structure to the traditional

English five-act play.C. There are similarities to be drawn between the structure of the novel and tragic drama.D. The first book, like the first act in a play, introduces the characters and the situation of the story, and

in the second book the romantic plot is developed.E. Book III provides the climactic turning point: Frederic’s desertion of his post in the army and his

decision to return to Catherine.(1) D & E (2) A & D (3) B only (4) B, C & D (5) A, B & D

58. A. Development is a process whereby insignificant and imperceptibleB. quantitative changes lead to fundamental, qualitative changes.C. The latter occur not gradually, but rapidly and abruptly, in the form of a leap from one state to

another.D. A simple example from the physical world might be the heating of water: a one-degree increase in

temperature is a quantitative change,E. but on 100 degrees there is a qualitative change-water to steam.(1) A, C & D (2) A & D (3) C only (4) E only (5) B, C & D

59. A. The next step towards globalisation comes from an unexpected quarter–global farmlands.B. Stung by growing food shortages, the Chinese government is encouragingC. its agricultural firms to buy or lease farmlands in AfricaD. and South America to bolster food security back home. The new government policy comes in the

wake of higher income levels that encourageE. spending away from staple rice diets and towards increasing consumption of meat.(1) C & E (2) A & C (3) B, C & D (4) A only (5) None of the above


DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for for for for for QQQQQuestions 60 to 63:uestions 60 to 63:uestions 60 to 63:uestions 60 to 63:uestions 60 to 63: For the word given at the top of each table, match the dictionarydefinition on the left (A, B, C, D) with their corresponding usage on the right (E, F, G, H). Out of the fivepossibilities given in the boxes below the table, select the one that has all the definitions and their usagesclosely matched.

60. Bellow

Dictionary definition UsageA. to emit a hollow, loud, animal cry, as a

bull or cowE. The Tory leaders started bellowing at

the opposition leader, when he set out to prove that Britain was not a safe place under them.

B. to roar; bawl F. The steward kept bellowing his commands across the kitchen.

C. to utter in a loud deep voice G. The principal was bellowing with rage.

D. to utter protests in a loud voice H. The bull kept bellowing in pain after the truck hit it.

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61. Ethereal

Dictionary definition UsageA. pertaining to, containing,

or resembling ethyl etherE. In comparison to the fervent poetry of

Wordsworth, the more ethereal poetry of Kelly will be remembered by a number of readers.

B. refined F. Her ethereal beauty commanded instant attention.

C. heavenly or celestial G. The remaining ingredients instantly dissolved in the ethereal solution.

D. light H. These ethereal creatures are found only in the deeper regions of the Amazon forests.

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62. Ply

Dictionary definition UsageA. to assail persistently E. The dishonest innkeeper would always ply

his guests with drinks until they would be inebriated.

B. to supply with or offer something pressingly to

F. Mustafa was diligent to ply his trade as a good cobbler.

C. to carry on, practice, or pursue busily or steadily

G. The cruel charioteer never ceased to ply the horses with a whip.

D. to pass over or along steadily or on a regular basis

H. There are few boats remaining that ply on the Yamuna.

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63. Gross

Dictionary definition UsageA. without deductions; total E. Ahana found his gross ways

extremely repulsive and refused to go out with him.

B. lacking in refinement, good manners, education

F. He wore an outfit that was absolutely gross.

C. flagrant and extreme G. Gross injustice was meted out to those affected by the industrial accident.

D. extremely objectionable, offensive, or disgusting

H. Gross sales last year were much higher.

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DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS DIRECTIONS for Questions 64 to 66:for Questions 64 to 66:for Questions 64 to 66:for Questions 64 to 66:for Questions 64 to 66: Each question has a set of four sequentially ordered statements. Eachstatement can be classified as one of the following:- Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open

to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an ‘F’).- Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer

option indicates such a statement with an ‘I’).- Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and

occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a‘J’).Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.

64. 1. Yuvraj Singh’s 6 sixes in an over in the match against England in the twenty 20 world cup helpedhim score the fastest 50 in any form of cricket.

2. India would have lost the game against England if Yuvraj had not played.3. Yuvraj’s innings propelled India to a score which would have otherwise been difficult to reach.4. Yuvraj Singh won the man of the match award for his outstanding performance in India’s match

against England.

(1) FIIF (2) IJIF (3) FJJF (4) FIJF (5) FIIJ

65. 1. Reddys are now on the defensive since it has been established beyond doubt that the communitywas behind the attacks launched on the Dalit community of the state.

2. From the report submitted by the investigating agency it appears that the preplanned attack againstthe Dalits was another futile attempt by the Reddys to reassert their age old authority which hadseen fissures with the growing assertion of the Dalits.

3. Twenty one of the accused have been given life imprisonment while thirty five of the accused havebeen asked to serve one year rigorous imprisonment.

4. A coalition of Dalit organizations has been pressing the government to file a petition in the uppercourt to challenge the acquittal.

(1) JFFF (2) IFFF (3) JJFF (4) IIFJ (5) JIFF

66. 1. Sebi has given an ‘informal guidance’ to Insilco on the buy back of Non Convertible Debentures.2. This move could serve as a useful guide for other companies who may have similar plans.3. The debentures are due for redemption in three annual installments.4. Insilco may go ahead with early redemption since Sebi has clarified the process.

(1) FIII (2) FJJI (3) FJFI (4) JJJI (5) FJFJ


DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for Questions 67 to 69: for Questions 67 to 69: for Questions 67 to 69: for Questions 67 to 69: for Questions 67 to 69: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the lastsentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the mostappropriate way.

67. Existentialism is the view of life which focuses on “a man” and in so doing denies that any man is to bemeasured or equated against any class called “man” in any sense of experience. Since “man” traditionallyis classified in terms of his mind, body and will against the framework of an external world, the existentialposition denies, utterly, the certainty of any external world, as object, and denies, utterly, the assertionthat any rule – physical, emotive, or intellectual - is valid in relation to the single individual.__________________ .(1) The exponent of existentialism considers the traditional world to be one of illusion.(2) Man is not an accidental expression of colliding atoms which continuously move in a random

fashion.(3) It is quite interesting to analyze organized religion with this background.(4) It is the consciousness of a man that he is existing in terms of his own flowing of experience, a flow

which is governed by natural laws.(5) Therefore, the existentialist is free to choose because there are no objective standards to inhibit or

constrain his choice.

68. What is nonlinear science all about? The core ideas are not hard to describe. Nonlinear dynamics arisefrom repeated iteration or feedback. A system, whether physical or mathematical, starts in some initialstate. That initial state provides the input to a feedback mechanism which determines the new state ofthe system. The new state then provides the input through which the feedback mechanism determinesthe system’s next state and so on. Each successive state is causally dependent on its predecessor.__________________ .(1) Mathematics aside, nonlinearity has a crucial contribution to make towards general friction regardless

of technological developments.(2) Sometimes the fundamentals of nonlinear science evade understanding.(3) The dynamics of non-linear science are being deeply pondered by scientists.(4) The attempt to apply the ideas of nonlinear science are resisted by the widespread predominance of

linear modes of thought.(5) But what happens to the system over the course of many iterations can be more complex and less

predictable than one might suppose.

69. The solitary condition of watching movies hasn’t changed—if anything, DVD probably means that weare more often literally on our own when we watch films—but the movie world has lost some of its lovefor loners. Even CGI fantasies like the Toy Story films and the Lord of the Rings cycle are aboutteamwork. So if it is going too far to say that movies are more liberal than they were, they are at any rateless socially empty. Reality, it seems, no longer “pops you out of the story,” as they say in Hollywood.We don’t mind seeing it now and again on the big screen, especially if our daily lives don’t always feelthat real. _________________________(1) One of the biggies was Traffic, a film about duplicity in the US war on drugs that won four Oscars

for Steven Gaghan as screenwriter.(2) Erin Brockovich was about a single mother who takes on and beats a corporation, for which Julia

Roberts won her Oscar.(3) The political strain in cinema was there then—it always has been, the question is whether it will only

ever be a strain.(4) But to put this in perspective, it is worth looking back to the 2001 Oscars to see what was nominated

in the year before 9/11. (5) The MP4 format is becoming more popular.



PASSAGE – 3PASSAGE – 3PASSAGE – 3PASSAGE – 3PASSAGE – 3

Even as the tiger crisis makes the headlines, conservationists should be doing all they can to garner greaterpublic support for wildlife conservation. Instead, we are making many more enemies. Across the country indozens of sites, the fragile livelihoods that communities living within forests have carved out for themselvesare being snatched away by insensitive conservation laws and programmes. The people, who have for centuriesconsidered forests their mother, are being alienated from them.

In March this year, there were reports of widespread forest fires in the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple WildlifeSanctuary, in Karnataka. Once famous as the hideout of Veerappan, BRT WLS is a stronghold of the elephantand other wildlife, as also home to a few thousand Soliga adivasis. Newspaper reports cited forest officialsblaming these adivasis for the fires, suggesting that they were probably taking out their anger on the governmentfor having banned collection of non-timber forest produce.

An investigation by Kalpavriksh revealed that indeed the Soliga adivasis were angry and upset. The ban oncollection of produce like amla (gooseberry), medicinal plants, honey, and lichen, had hit them badly. Insome cases such produce comprised over 60 per cent of their income, apart from their own use for food,health, housing, and other requirements.

Gauramma, an elder of Kaneri Colony, a Soliga settlement, had this to say: “Ever since we have been stoppedfrom collecting forest produce, we are in a desperate situation. We used to have two full meals a day, noweven one is difficult to get.” She and her husband now migrate out of the sanctuary to work, earning a meageramount as labour in the fields of non-adivasis.

Our investigation found that the Soligas could not be blamed for most of the forest fires. However, thealienation caused by the NTFP ban led to a lack of interest in reporting fires or helping the Forest Departmentto douse them, as was the case earlier.

Additionally, local researchers reported that outsiders had chopped down several dozen amla (gooseberry)trees in the WLS.

In previous years, they would have been stopped by the Soligas who had a stake in protecting the trees.Clearly, the NTFP ban is not only causing widespread impoverishment and misery, but also backfiring onconservation itself. This will intensify if the anger among the Soligas grows, and if, as some local socialworkers fear, “Naxalite” groups active in nearby areas gain a foothold among the disgruntled adivasis.BRT WLS is not an isolated example. A recent study revealed that thousands of families in various protectedareas of Orissa have suffered a similar fate. In Baisipalli and Satkosia Sanctuaries, the ban on NTFP collectionhas reduced already thin earnings, by 50 to 90 per cent. Many families are migrating to find work, withserious impact on social life and greater chances of exploitation. The government has provided no alternatives.

This is an issue of grave constitutional and human rights violation, as the right to life can only be sustained ifaccess to basic livelihood resources is ensured.


70. The main point from the author’s view is that(1) there is a need for a more balanced approach to conservation and livelihoods.(2) basic livelihood activities should be considered “bona fide” and not “commercial”.(3) the effect of this widespread hostility because of the law may be more serious than it was in the

absence of the law.(4) the anti-social elements will thrive under such laws.(5) only large scale extraction should be banned.

71. The author’s attitude as it is revealed in the language used is one of:(1) Skepticism (2) Hostility (3) Criticism (4) Indifference (5) Scathing

72. According to the passage the ban would result in:(1) affecting the produce. (2) rebounding on conservation.(3) creating social stigma. (4) degrading the fauna.(5) eroding the culture.


PASSAGE – 4PASSAGE – 4PASSAGE – 4PASSAGE – 4PASSAGE – 4

The magic of Mahatma Gandhi is that he defies categorization. Would one call him a saint, philosopher, socialreformer, or politician? Actually, he was all of these and perhaps, much more than any of these. He was adeeply religious person, but which religion could one ascribe his beliefs to? He was greatly influenced byVedanta, but was not really a traditional Vedantist. Vedantic thought tells us the atman or self in each individualis essentially one, a part of the divine being or Brahman. The traditional interpretation of this principle is aneffort to disassociate oneself from the world and its machinations so that one becomes free of maya or theillusion of a separately existing, ego-bound I . Gandhi applied this principle in his unique way, extending it tostrive for a better society, free of all divisions. He worked for caste and communal amity and maintained thatthe service of the neediest people is the worship of Daridranarayan (God in the form of the poor). His life’smission was to work for the betterment of society by affirmative action. For him, India’s independence wasnot merely about wrangling power from the British but about creating a more equitable society or Swarajya,“for those toiling and unemployed millions who do not get even a square meal a day and have to scratchalong with a piece of stale roti and a pinch of salt”.

The Bhagavad Gita says, “You have the right to act, but do so without expecting the fruits of your action.”From this, Gandhi drew inspiration to persevere undaunted in his struggle, fully understanding that his maybe a prolonged struggle which may or may not yield the expected results within a reasonable period of time.

Many attribute his fetish for fasts to the Jain philosophy, which was an early influence on him. However, therewas a key difference in the application of this principle by Gandhi. While the Jain concept of fasting isrenunciation of action that of Gandhi was fasting for a cause. In the Sermon on the Mount, another greatinspiration for Gandhi, Jesus says, “Resist not him that is evil, but whosoever smiteth thee on thy right cheekturn to him the other also.” Forgiveness, the central principle of Christ, was embraced by Gandhi, but he didnot stop at that. He extended this principle to make non-violent opposition a potent weapon. Fighting againstinjustice without causing any harm or harboring any ill-feelings towards the enemy came to be his guidingprinciple. Hence, though deeply religious, he cannot be categorized as belonging to any particular sect orcreed. Like all great messiahs and masters, he rose above the practices of the day and culled the essence fromeach faith, beautifully interweaving various religious traditions to create a mosaic of spirituality that wasuniquely his own.


73. This passage principally intends to:(1) Extol disciplinary ideas.(2) Recognize the great work done.(3) Identify the creation and practice of an ideology.(4) Extend religious beliefs.(5) Create a feeling of curiosity.

74. The phrase “defies categorization” in the passage means:(1) Challenges classification.(2) Resists grouping.(3) Rebels labeling(4) Disobeys groups(5) Dares tagging

75. The last paragraph of the passage succeeds mainly in:(1) Laying down the political ideologies of the times.(2) Bringing out the greatness of the future leaders.(3) Highlighting the evolution of Gandhian ideology.(4) Defining true religion.(5) Delineating the philosophy of life.

Question CAT

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