Pyramid a e Civil Model Exam 2

CODE –FTEST2/2012

III FLOOR, B&K COMPLEX, MAIN ROAD,SRI RAM NAGAR, KARAIKUDI. CONTACT 94864 31610

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PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY KARAIKUDI

TNPSC COMBINED ENGINEERING

SERVICES AE CIVIL

MODEL EXAMINATION-2

Marks: 200 Time : 3hours 1. A redundant frame satisfies the equation a) m= 2j - 3 b) m< 2j-3 c) m> 2j - 3 d) none of these 2. The load shared by the member BC of the structure shown in figure below is a) 2 kN

b) 3 kN c) 4 kN d) 3 kN. 3. The polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is

a. b.

c. d. none of these

4. The C.G of a semicircular lamina lies at a distance of

a) from base diameter

b) from base diameter

c) from base diameter

d) none of these

5. In the torsion equation = = the term is called a) shear modulus b) section modulus c) polar modulus d) none of these 6. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to a) 0.1 x 105 N/mm2 b) 0.8 x 105 N/mm2 c) 1.0 x 105 N/mm2 d) 2.1 x 105 N/mm2 7. When a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular like and equal direct stresses, the ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain (within certain limit) is known as a) Young’s modulus b) Poisson’s ratio c) shear modulus d) Bulk modulus 8. Force in the member AC in the figure shown below is

a. 1 kN b. -1 kN c. d. - kN.

9. The limit within which Hook’s law holds good is known as a) Elastic limit b) Plastic limit c) Yield limit d) Euler’s limit. 10. The maximum deflection at the free end of a cantilever subjected to a point load at l/2 from both end is a) 5 W l ³/48 EI b) 5 W l ³/46 EI c) 5 W l ³/42 EI d) 5 W l ³/44 EI

11. The degree of indeterminacy for a fixed beam is a) 1 b) 0 c) 3 d) 2

12. The effect of external forces or the nature of internal forces developed in a body may be a) tension b) compression c) shear d) all of these

13. Poisson’s ratio may vary from a) 0.52 to 0.60 b) 0.55 to 0.60 c) 0.25to 0.40 d) none of these

14. The point of contra flexure occurs in a) simply supported beams only b) cantilever beams only c) columns only d) overhanging only

15. A simply support offers a) only a vertical reaction b) only a horizontal reaction c) a vertical reaction and a horizontal reaction d) a horizontal reaction and a moment reaction

16. When a rectangular bar of length l, breadth b and thickness t is subjected to a pull of p, then volumetric strain is a) e(1- 2m) b) e(2m-1) c) e(1- 2/m) d) e(2/m-1) 17. A beam supported on more than two support is called a) simply supported beam b) fixed beam c) cantilever beam d) continuous beam

18. The basic perfect frame is a a) triangle b) rectangle c) hexagon d) square

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19. A circular steel bar of 2cm dia carries a tensile load of 30 KN. If E=2×10⁵ N/ mm², the elongation in the 30 cm length bar will be a) 0.0143mm b)0.1430mm c)1.43mm d)14.30mm 20. The unit of strain is a) N-mm b) N/mm c) no unit d) mm. 21. The seasoning of timber is done to a) heat the timber b) expel the moisture from timber c) make it waterproof d) increase its strength 22. Turpentine oil is used in paints as a a) base b) drier c) thinner d) vehicle. 23. Mortar is a paste made by mixing a) lime, surki, and water b) lime, sand, and water c) cement, sand and water d) all of these 24. Vicat’s apparatus is used to determine all of the following except a) normal consistency of cement b) fineness modulus cement c) initial setting time of cement d) final setting time of cement 25. The function of a solvent in the paint is a) to dilute the base of a paint b) to produce desired colour of the paint c) to dissolve and hold in suspension the base and pigment d) to dilute the vehicle prior to the application of paint on the surface. 26. The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support heavy concentrated structural loads, is known as a) combined footing b) strap of footing c) raft footing d) none of these 27. The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase a) strength b) workability c) stability of structure d) all of these 28. The portion of a brick cut across the width, is called a) closer b) hall brick c) bed d) bat. 29. The volume of one bag of cement weighing 50 kg is a) 0.05m3 b) 0.0345 m3 c) 0.025 m3 d) 0.04 m3

30. Cavity walls a) prevent dampness from entering the building b) have lesser dead load for given wall thickness c) are better insulated against heat and sound d) all of these 31. The width of rebate provided in a door frame is equal to the width of the shutter whereas depth of the rebate provided should be a) 50 mm b) 20 mm c) 12mm to or 13 mm d) 5 mm to 8mm 32. The best and the common material to be used as damp-proofing material is a) cement concrete b) bitumen c) paraffin wax d) cement solution 33. A type of bond in a brick masonry consisting of alternate course of headers and stretchers is called a) English bond b) Flemish bond c) stretcher bond d) none of these 34. The innermost central portion of a tree is called a) heart wood b) pith c) sap wood d) cambium layer 35. Damp-proof course should be a) impervious horizontal (or) vertical c) continuous d) all of these 36. According to their movements, doors are classified as a) folding b) swinging c) glazed d) both (A) and (B) 37. The excess alumina in the clay makes the brick a) to crack and warp on drying b) brittle and weak c) to melt and distort during burning d) to absorb moisture from air which on drying leaves powder deposit on the brick 38. The highest point on the extrados of the arch is known as a) summit b)ridge c) crown d) peak 39. Dampness causes a) growth of termites b) strengthening of concrete c) strengthening of plaster d) adhesion of paint to surface 40. The horizontal member of the frame which divides the window horizontally is a) rail b) transit c) transom d) divider

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41. The solidification of molten magma when it reaches the surface of earth results in the formation of a) sedimentary rocks b)metamorphic rocks c)basalts and traps d)granite 42. Slate and marble stone belong to a) igneous rocks `b)metamorphic rocks c) sedimentary rocks d)foliated rocks 43. Refractory bricks are specially manufactured a) to withstand high temperature b) to withstand high crushing pressure c) to have high insulation against sound d) none of the above 44. Formation of whitish deposit on the bricks due to the presence of excess salts is called a) efflorescence b)disintegration c) warping d)floating 45. The calcination of pure lime results in a) quick lime b) hydraulic lime c) hydrated lime d) fat lime 46.The process of heating the lime stone to redness in contact with air is termed a) carbonation b) oxidation c) hydration d) calcinations 47. Match List –I(property of cement) with List II (Method) and select the correct answer using the codes:

List I List II

A)Specific Gravity 1. Blain’s apparatus

B) Setting time 2.Le Chatelier’s flask

C) Soundness 3.Compressometer

D) Fineness 4.Autoclave

5.vicat’s apparatus

a) A-3 B-5 C-1 D-2 b) A-2 B-5 C-1 D-4 c) A-2 B-5 C-4 D-1 d) A-5 B-3 C-4 D-1 48. Increase in fineness of cement a) reduces the rate of strength development and leads to higher shrinkage b) increase the rate of strength development and reduces the rate of deterioration c) decrease the rate of strength development and increase the bleeding of cement d) increase the rate of strength development and leads to higher shrinkage 49. Consider the following strength of concrete: 1.Cube strength 2.Cylinder strength 3.Split –tensile strength

4.Modulus of rupture The correct sequence in increasing order of these strengths is a) 3,4,2,1 b) 3,4,1,2 c) 4,3,2,1 d) 4,3,1,2

50. Match List –I with List II (Method) and select the correct answer using the codes:

Type of cement Characteristics

List I List II

A)Air entraining Portland cement

1.suitable for very large structure

B) Low heat Portland cement

2.unsuitable for very large masses of concrete

C) Hydrophobic Portland cement

3.Greater resistance to frost attack

D) Rapid hardening Portland cement

4.Safe storage under unfavourable conditions of humidity

a) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2 c) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2 d) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3 51. Which of the following is a measure of particle size range? a) Effective size b) uniformity coefficient b) Coefficient of curvature d) None of these 52. While testing a soil, thread test is conducted in the field in order to find out a) Liquid limit b) Plastic limit c) Shrinkage d) Bearing limit 53. The water content of soil which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid state is known as a) liquid limit b) plastic limit c) shrinkage limit d) plasticity index 54. Specific gravity of the soil particles is needed in determining a) void ratio b) porosity and degree of saturation c) particles size distribution d) all of these. 55. The ratio of the volume of voids to the total volume of the given soil mass is known as a) Porosity b) specific gravity c) Void ratio d) water content 56. The liquid limit exists for a) sandy soil b) silty soil c) clayey soil d) none of these 57. The maximum size of the particles of clay is about a) 0.0002mm b) 0 .002mm c) 0 .02mm d)0 .2mm

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58. At the liquid limit the a) Soil just begins to crumble when rolled into thread b) Shearing strength against flow is negligible c) Shearing strength against flow is small but definite d) Soil is not saturated 59. The void ratio of a soil defined as the ratio of the a) Weight of water to weight of solids b) Volume of water to volume of voids in the soil mass c) total volume of voids to the volume of solids d) total volume of voids to the total volume of soil. 60. The yield of a well can be obtained by a) a pumping test b) Recuperating test c) a chemical test d) either (a or b) 61. The ratio of volume of water present in a given soil mass to the volume of voids in it is known as a) percentage voids b) relative compactness c) degree of saturation d)water content 62. The symbol OH indicates a) other soils b) clay of high plasticity c) silt of high plasticity d) organic silts and organic clays of high plasticity 63. The difference between plastic limit and shrinkage limit is called a) fluidity index b) relative consistency c) plastic index d) shrinkage index 64. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5m and of sp.gr. 2.67 and void ratio of 0.67 is equal to a)1.0m b)2.0m c)1.5m d)3.0m 65. An isobar is a) a curve connecting points of equal vertical pressure b) a point at which the net pressure is zero c) a curve connecting points of equal total pressure d) a curve connecting points of equal pore water pressure 66.The consolidation settlement of a soil is a) directly proportional to compression index b) indirectly proportional to compression index c) directly proportional to the voids ratio

d) none of the above 67. Westergaard’s theory is more appropriate for a) Layered soils b)homogeneous deposits c)anisotropic soils d)normally consolidated homogeneous soils 68. The strength theory applicable to a C-Ф soil is a)Darcy’s law b)Terzaghi’s theory c)Mohr-columb theory d)all 69. According to Terzaghi in case of presence of water table the ultimate bearing capacity equation has to modified as a) qult=CNc+rDNq+0.5rBNr b) qult=CNc-rDNq-0.5rBNr c) qult=CNc-rDNqRw1-0.5rBNrRw2 d) qult=CNc+rDNqRw1+0.5rBNrRw2 70. A raft foundation is preferred for a) columns of industrial buildings b) load bearing walls of multi storied buildings c) columns of a building which are closely spaced d) none 71. Indian Road congress was established in a) 1934 b) 1952 c) 1947 d) 1961 72. As per IRC, the carriageway width for two lane traffic should be a) 7.5 m b) 10 m c) 12.5m d)5 m 73. A gradient which a vehicle does not require any tractive effort, to maintain the specified speed is called a) minimum gradient b) floating gradient c) ruling gradient d) pushing gradient 74. The portion of a roadway used by vehicular traffic is called a) Carriageway b) Right of way c) Expressway d) Motar way 75. The rate of rise or fall of a road along its alignment is known as a) Gradient b) Camber c) Slide slope d) Superelevation. 76. The highest point on a carriageway is known as a) crown b) Camber c) Superelevation d) Gradient 77. While testing a soil, thread test is conducted in the field in order to find out

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a) Liquid limit b) Plastic limit c) Shrinkage d) Bearing limit 78. Bottom must layer of pavement is known as a) Wearing course b) base course c) sub- base course d) subgrade 79. The alignment of highway means layout of its a) centre line on ground b) width c) superelevation d) none of these

80. California bearing ratio (CBR) is a) a measure of soil strength. b) a procedure for designing flexible pavement. c) a method of soil identification d) a measure to indicate the relative strengths of paving materials. 81. Purpose of the seal coat is to provide a) impervious layer b) coarse sand + Bitumen c) water repellant agent d)adhesive to improve bond between aggregates 82. As per IRC the max width of a vehicle is a)1.75m b)2.20m c)2.44m d)6.00m 83. PUC equivalent for a bus is a)1.00 b)1.75 c)2.25 d)6.00 84. The safe speed on a highway is a) 50th percentile speed b) 75th percentile speed c) 85th percentile speed d) 98th percentile speed 85.Traffic density is a) no.of vehicles moving in a specific direction per lane per day b) no.of vehicles moving in a specific direction per hour c) no.of vehicles per unit length d) max.no.of vehicles passing a given point in one hour 86.An instrument used to study ‘Spot speeds’ in traffic engineering is a) speedometer b) enoscope c) speed recorder d) road repairs 87. The area of most acute vision of a driver is a cone of a) 30 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200. 88. A basic requirement of ‘Intersection at grade’ is a) the area of conflict should be small b) the relative speed should be small

c) the relative angle of approach of the vechicles should be small d) it should clearly indicate what driver should do.

Total AE selections from Pyramid Academy

2010 Exam -395 2008 Exam -178

Our Student Er.M.M.Poongodi , First rank (267) in PWD-WRO,

in 2008 exam receiving appointment order from Honourable minister

TOPPERS in 2008 Exam from Pyramid Academy

J.Solaimurugan M.M.Poongodi I.Vaithilingam Overall II rank WRO I rank Buildings I rank

267 267 261

A.Antogeetha S.Elavarasan R.Anbalagan

261 261 259.5

G.Kalidas (258) R.Samuel(256.5) N.Elanchelian(256.5)

M.Kalaiselvi (253.5) S.Parthiban(253.5) M.S.Nanthini (253.5)

A.Krishnan (252) P.Ganapathy(250.5) D.Sivakumar (250.5)

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89. Rotary is ideally suited a) when traffic is more than 4 streams join at the junction b) when traffic is very heavy c) when the pedestrian traffic is heavy d) for congested areas 90. An advantage of traffic signal is a) no rear end collision b) easy segregation of traffic c) quick movement of vehicles d) orderly movement of vehicles. 91. Infiltration is the: a) movement of water by soil surface b)absorbtion of water by soil surface c)both (a and b) d) none of these. 92. Method of irrigation in which water is applied in the form of a spray as in ordinary rain a) furrow irrigation b) sprinkler irrigation c) check flooding irrigation d) free flooding irrigation 93. The ratio of area under different crop for a particular channel is known as …………ratio. a) discharge b) supply c) feed d) crop 94. The average yield from a tube well is of order of a) 20 to 40 lit/sec b) 40 to 50 lit/sec c) 50 to 100 lit/sec d) 100 to 150 lit/sec. 95.The top of the weir or spillway is called a) Ridge b) core c) crest d)peak. 96, Consider the following conditions I. Places having high ground water table II. places having impervious soils occurring at a depth of 2 m to 3 m below the ground surface. III. places with moderate land slope. The system of sub-surface irrigation can be employed usefully under the conditions a)I and II b)II and III c)III and I d)I,II and III. 97. When the bed level of the canal is higher than the H.F.L. of drainage, then the cross drainage work is said to be a) aqueduct b) superpassage c) canal siphon d) siphon aqueduct. 98.A diversion head work is constructed to a) raise water level in the river b) regulate the intake of water in to canal.

c) control the silt entry into the canal d) all of these. 99. The mercury does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of the liquid known as a) cohesion b) adhesion c) viscosity d)surface tension 100. The relation between duty D in hectares/ cumec, depth of water Delta in metres and base period B in days is given by

a) D

B98.1=∆ b) D

B64.8=∆

c) D

BB68.5=∆ d) B

D64.8=∆

101. Reciprocal ranging is adopted when ………… is encountered. a) a dense forest b) a hillock c) a river d) a tall building 102.The last staff reading in any set-up of the instrument and indicates shifting the instrument is a) Back sight b) Fore sight c) Change point d) Intermediate point. 103. The vertical distance between any two consecutive contours is known as a) horizontal equivalent b)vertical equivalent c) contour interval d) contour gradient. 104. The respective fraction 1/2500 means that the scale is a) 1cm=.25m b) 1cm=2.5m c) 1cm=25m d) 1cm=250m. 105. For a closed traverse, the sum of the measured interior angles shall be equal to a) (2n+4) right angles b) (2n-4) right angles c) (n+n/4) right angles d) (2n+n/4) right angles. 106. For the computation of areas of irregular planes which rule is most accurate? a) mid-ordinate rule b) average ordinate rule c) trapezoidal rule d) simpson’s rule.

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107. The contour plan shown in fig. indicates.

a) a hill b) a depression c) steep slope d) plain ground 108. The back bearing of a line having fore bearing of S 12◦ 24’ E will be a) N 12◦ 24’W b) N 77◦ 36’W c) N192◦ 24’W d) N 191◦ 12’W. 109. A tie line in a chain survey a) checks the accuracy of the frame work b) enables the surveyor to locate the interior details which are far away from the main chain lines c) fixes up the directions of all other lines. d) all of these. 110. The error in measured length due to sag of a chain (or) tape is known as a) positive error b) negative error c) compensating error d) instrumental error. 111. A manhole is generally provided at each a) bend b) junction c) change of gradient d) all of these. 112. If bearing of OA=20◦ and bearing of OB is 120◦’ then AOB is a) 100◦ b) 140◦ c) 280◦ d) 80◦ 113. The backwash arrangement is made only in the case of a) a rapid sand filter b) a slow sand filter c) a sedimentation tank d) a coagulation tank. 114. Goitre is caused by deficiency of a) chlorine b) oxygen c) iodine d) nitrogen. 115. A goose neck is a) a bent flexible pipe between ferrule and stopcock b) a T-shaped brass length between water meter and ferrule c) a straight G.I. pipe, service pipe and stopcock d) a bent rigid pipe between service pipe and water meter.

116. The value which operates automatically when the pressure in the pipe exceeds the set pressure is called a)safety valve b) pressure valve c) relief valve d) reflux valve. 117. A sanitary sewer is expected to run a) full b) half full c) 2/3rd full d) 90% full. 118. The waste water from kitchen, baths etc. is Called a) sullage b) sewage c) sludge d) none of these. 119. Consider the correct statement regarding the quantities of sand used for filtration I. Free from dirt and other impurities II. Uniform size III. Soft and collective IV. It losses at least 10% of its weight when immersed in hydrochloric acid for 24 hrs. Of these statements ; a)I alone is correct b) II alone is correct c) I and II are correct d) III and IV are correct. 120. Alum is chemically A) copper sulphate B)aluminium sulphate C)ferrous sulphate D)ferric sulphate 121. The maximum depth of sedimentation tank is limit up to a)2m b)3m c)4m d)6m 122. Self cleaning velocities in sewer are achieved by a) providing large diameter sewer pipes b) providing adequate discharge through sewer line c) providing minimum bends in sewer pipes. d) providing smooth surface of sewer pipes 123.The efficiency of a pumping set is usually assumed as a)100% b)80% c)65-70% d)50-55 124.Three different type of sewer are a) sanitary, storm and conventional b) sanitary, storm and combined c) sanitary, storm and ground water d) conventional, surface and combined 125.The plumbing system which is used in multistoried building is a)single stack system b)one pipe system c)two type system d)multi stack system

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126.In order to design waste water disposal system for a locality the important information to be collected is a)record of population and its change b)water consumption rate and sewage flow c)hydrological date d)all of these 127.The coagulant widely used for sewage treatment is a)ferric chloride b)ferric sulphate c)lime d)alum 128. Pumping system is best suited when a)fire accidents b)density of population is high and space available is less c)source of water is low level d)power failures are more common 129. The treatment of water is required mainly for a)the removel of germs of diseases b)the removel of copper sulphate c)increasing pH value d)the removel of chorides 130. Hydrogen ion concentration indicates the a)presence of bacteria b) colour c)presence of foreign matter d)acidity and alkality. 131. Quantity of earthwork for foundation of a room size 4.20X3.60 m whose wall thickness is 30 cm, breadth of foundation 90 cm and depth of excavation 1 m, is a) 15.12 m3 b) 14.04 m3

c) 16.20 m3 d) none of these 132. The cost of a machine is Rs. 10,000 with a useful life of 10 years. Its depreciated cost, after 5 years, if the salvage value is Rs. 1,000, on straight line basis, will be a) Rs. 1,500 b) Rs. 3,500 c) Rs. 5,500 d) Rs. 7,500 133. Plinth area normally does not include area covered under a) lavatories b)garage c) open courtyard d)all of these 134. One cubic meter of Portland cement weights a)1000Kg b)1220Kg c)1440Kg d)1660Kg 135. Of the total estimated cost of a building, electrification usually accounts for a)1% b)2% c)8% d)15%

136. ’Lead and lift’ is the term used in a) earthwork b) reappropriation of funds c) salvage value d) tender notification. 137. The approximate cost of a building can be found out by a) service-unit method b) square-meter method c) cubic-meter method d) all of these. 138. The specification define a) the quality of materials b) workmanship c) both (a and b) d) none of these. 139. Estimate a) the actual cost of construction of structure b) the probable cost arrived at before commencement of the structure c) a random guess of the cost of the structure d) none of these. 140. In detailed estimate the volumes are worked out to the nearest a) 0.001 m3 b) 0.005 m3

c) 0.01 m3 d) 0.05 m3 141. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to a) pressure difference b) temperature difference c) natural topographical barriers d) all the above 142. According to Dicken’s formula for estimating floods, the peak discharge is proportional to a) A b) A1/2 c) A2/3 d) A3/4 143. The elementary profile of a dam is a) a rectangle b) a trapezoidal c)an equilateral triangle d) a right angle triangle 144. The main function of a divide wall is to a) Control the silt entry in the canal b) Prevent river floods from entering the canal c) Separate the under sluices from weir proper d) Provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity 145. A water shed canal a) irrigates only on one side b) is most suitable in hilly areas c) avoids the cross drainage works d) is generally aligned parallel to the contours of the area

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146. Garret’s diagrams are based on a. Kennedy’s theory b. Lacey’s theory c. Khosla’s theory d. Bligh’s theory 147. The maximum rainfall depth of 300mm in 24Hrs has a return period of 100 yrs .The probability of 24 hrs rainfall equal to or greater than 300mm occurring at least once in 10yrs is given by a) (0.99)10 b) 1- (0.99)10 c) (0.9)100 d) 1- (0.9)100 148. The porosity of sand sample is 50%. The specific yield of an aquifer containing this sand will be a) equal to 50% b) less than 50% c) more than 50% d) none of the above 149. Discharge per unit drawdown at a well is called a) specific storage b) specific yield c) specific capacity d) none of the above 150. Match List –I with List II (Method) and select the correct answer using the codes:

Control structure Their function

List I List II

A)canal drop 1.control of flow depth

B) canal escape 2.control of bed grade

C) canal cross –regulator

3.control of full supply level

a) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 b) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4 c) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 d) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1 151. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to a) minimum weight b) minimum depth c) maximum weight d) minimum thickness of web 152. The effective length of a battened column is increased by a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d)20% 153. Which of the following is most correct estimate? a) Plinth area estimate b) cube rate estimate c) Analysis of rates d) building cost index estimate. 154. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than a) 1.5d b) 2.0d c) 2.5d d) 3.0d

155. Match List –I with List II (Method) and select the correct answer using the codes:

Type of stress Allowable value of stress

List I List II

A)Axial Tension 1. 0.75fy

B) Bending tension 2. 0.66fy

C) Maximum shear stress 3. 0.60fy

D)Bearing stress 4.0.40fy

a) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4 b) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1 c) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 d) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 156. consider the following statements: Assertion A: The behavior of an over reinforced beam is more ductile than that of an under reinforced beam. Reason R: Over reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete. Of these statements a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanations of A b) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanations of A c) A is the true but R is false d) A is false but R is true 157. If fcu and fy are cube compressive strength of concrete and yield stress of steel respectively and Es is the modulus of elasticity of steel , for all grades of concrete ,the ultimate flexural strain in concrete can be taken as a)0.002 b) fcu/1000 c) 0.0035 d) (fy/1.15Es)+0.002 158. For prestressed structural elements, high strength concrete is used primarily because a)both shrinkage and creep are more b) shrinkage is less but creep is more c) modulus of elasticity and creep values are higher d) of high modulus of elasticity and low creep 159. Which one of the following statement is correct? a) maximum longitudinal reinforcement in an axially loaded short column is 6 % of gross sectional area b) columns with circular section are provided transverse reinforcement of helical type only c) spacing of lateral ties can not be more than 16 times the diameter of bar d)Longitudinal reinforcement bar need not be in contact with lateral ties 160) Match List –I with List II (Method) and select the correct answer using the codes:

List I List II

A)Doubly reinforced beam

1.serviceability

B) Limit state method 2.durability

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C) Minimum cover 3.reducton in sectional depth

D) Span depth ratio 4.ultimate moment capacity

a) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 b) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 c) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 d) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 161) Effective length of the column whose one end fixed and the other end free is a) equal to overall length b) less than overall length c) greater than overall length d) less than overall length. 162) In limit state design , the maximum strain in concrete at the outer most compression fibre is a)0.0020 b)0.0035 c)0.0055 d)none of above 163. The buckling load of a column will be maximum, if its end conditions are as a) one end is fixed and other end is hinged b) both ends are pin-jointed c) one end is fixed and the other end is free d) both ends are fixed. 164. The maximum number of steps in a flight is restricted to a) 10 b)15 c) 12 d) 20 165. The spacing of vertical stirrups in a rectangular beam is a) maximum near the support b) minimum near the support c) minimum near the centre d) none of these 166. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beam shall not exceed a) 0.15 % b) 1.50% c) 4.00 d) 1.00% 167. Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger than the diameter of the rivet by a) 1.00 mm for rivet diameter up to 12mm b) 1.50 mm for rivet diameter exceeding 25mm c) 2.00 mm for rivet diameter over 25mm d) none of these 168. Slenderness ratio of a compression member is a) Moment of inertia/ Radius of gyration b) Effective length / Area of cross-section c) Effective length / Radius of gyration d) Moment of inertia / Area of cross-section 169. The minimum pitch of rivet holes of diameter ‘d’ should not be less than

a) 1.25 d b) 1.50 d c) 2.00 d d) 2.50d. 170. For design purposes, the width of one way slab is always taken as a) 1mm b) 100mm c) 1000mm d) 2000mm 171. The minimum percentage of longitudinal reinforcement in R.C.C. column is a) 0.6 b) 0.8 c) 0.1 d) 1.2 172. The factor of safety for a) steel and concrete are same b) steel is lower than of concrete c) steel is higher than of concrete d) none of these 173. Poisson’s ratio for concrete a) remains unchanged b) increase with richer mixes c) decrease with richer mixes d) none of these 174. The application of elasticity theory to the beams is based on the assumption at a) any cross-section, plane sections before bending remain plain after bending b) all tensile stresses are taken up by reinforcement above and none by the concrete c) steel reinforcement is free from initial stresses when it is embedded in concrete d) all of these 175. In a doubly reinforced beam, steel reinforcement is provided in a a) tension zone b) compression zone c) either (a) or (b) d) both (a) and (b) 176. The section of beam having greater width at the top in comparison to the width below neutral axis is known as a) critical section b) T-section c) L-Section d) none of these 177. The breadth of rib in a T-beam should at least be equal to ………. the depth of rib. a) one-half b) one-third c) one-fourth d) one-sixth 178. In roof trusses, the most frequently used section is a) two-angle sections placed back to back b) two-channel sections placed back to back c) two-channel sections placed at a distance apart. d) four-angle section 179. The main reinforcement in RCC cantilever members is placed at

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a) top fibre b) side fibres c) bottom fibre d) top and bottom fibres 180. The most economical section for a column is a) I-Section b) tubular section c) solid round section d) rectangular section 181. In PWD, a tender is called “ for and on behalf of the” a) Chief Engineer b) Executive Engineer c) Governor of the state d) Government. 182. Match list I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List I List II

A Piece work contract

1 Not practiced in government

B Lumpsum contract

2 Payment made by detailed measurement of different items

C Item rate contract

3 Adopted for buildings, roads, bridges and electrical works

D Labour contract

4 Petty works and regular maintenance works.

a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 b) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 c) A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2 d) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 183. Pre-tender stage of a project requires a) site selection and acquisition of land b) final alignment of work c) preparation of estimate and final designs d) all of these. 184. The contractor’s ledger is maintained in the a) Section office b) Division office c) Sub-division office d)Circle office 185. The check measurement certificate should be obtained a) in the site order book b) on a separate prescribed form c) in the measurement book itself d) in the indent form. 186. Which of the following is an activity? a) Construction of foundation b) Construction of roof c) Construction of retaining wall d) all of these. 187. The field of activities of an engineer includes a) estimation b) tendering

c) approval of construction plans by the local authority d) all of these. 188. Dummy activity means a) neither requires any time nor any resources b) a connecting link for control purposes c) for maintaining uniqueness of activity d) all of these 189. The conditions of contract include a) conditions relating to measurement any payments b) conditions relating to settlement of disputes c) conditions relating to labour d) all of these. 190. The bill to be used for making a single payment for a work a) First and final bill b) Running account bill c) Lumpsum contract bill d) none of these. 191. One Terra byte is equal to a) 1024 Bytes b) 1024 Mega Bytes c) 1024 Giga Bytes d) 1024 Kilo Bytes 192. Which one is wrong?

a) First Generation Vacuum tubes

b) Second generation Transistors

c) Third generation Micro processors

d) Fourth generation Very Large Scale Integrated Circuits

193. Pick up odd one out. a) RAM b) ROM c) Compact Disc d) Floppy Disc 194. A flow chart is a a) Program b) Graphical representation c) Pseudocode d) Algorithm 195. Which one of the following is wrong ? a) Classification of the electronic computers may be based on either their principles of operation or their configuration b) Analog Computer is a computing device that works on continuous range of values. c) Digital computer operates on digital data such as numbers. d) Analog Computer use binary system in which there are only two digits 0 and 1. 196. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ? a) Optical Character Recognition- (OCR) b) Optical Mark Reading and Recognition -(OMR) c) Video display unit – VDU d) Central Processing Unit – CPU

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197. Which one of the following is wrong? a) The smallest dot that can be displayed is called a pixel. b) The resolution of the screen reduces as the number of pixels is increased. c) CPU is the brain of any computer system. d) The arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) is the part of CPU where actual computations take place.. 198. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ? a) Regular Access Memory - RAM b) Read Only Memory -ROM c) Programmable Read- Only Memory -PROM d) Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory – EPROM 199. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ? a) Local Area Network -LAN b) Wide Area Network -WAN c) Transmission control protocol - TCP d) International Protocol – IP 200. Which one of the following is wrong ? a) Every web page has a unique address called the Uniform Resource Locator or URL. b) The URL locates the pages on the Internet. c) Web browser translates HTML (Hyper Text Markup Language) documents of the website and allows viewing it on the screen. d) The first page of the website is called a Origin page.

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SMART WORK INSTEAD OF SMART WORK INSTEAD OF SMART WORK INSTEAD OF SMART WORK INSTEAD OF

HARDWORKHARDWORKHARDWORKHARDWORK

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**** ALL THE BEST****

PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY Most Successful Institute in

TNPSC AE Exam

Total AE selections from Pyramid Academy

2007 Exam -130 2008 Exam -178 2010 Exam -395 In 2010 Exam,

47 selections in Top 50 & All top 20

students are from Pyramid

Toppers – 2010 Exam

Rank 1 294 Mohamad Abdhahir

Rank 2 286.5 Umamageswari

283.5 Muthukumar

283.5 Mohansakthi

279

Tamilarasan 279

Durairaj 279

Marimuthu 277.5

Dineshkumar

277.5

Ranjithkumar

277.5

Parthiban 277.5

Muruganantham

276

Vimalraj

276

Balasubramanian

276

Vimal

276

Thangaraju

276

Perumalsamy

274.5

Ashok pandian

274.5

Natarajan

273

Murugaprakash

273

Saravanan

Pyramid a e Civil Model Exam 2

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