P.Y. DESHMUKH Saraswati Coaching Classes,...
Transcript of P.Y. DESHMUKH Saraswati Coaching Classes,...
Time : 3.00 hrs. Marks : 720
Subject Chemistry Physics Biology
Paper --- --- ---
Questions 045 045 090
Marks 180 180 360
Jubilee Test Series : 2017 – 18
P.Y. DESHMUKH SIR’S
Saraswati Coaching Classes, Akola
Instructions to Candidates This booklet is your question paper.
Answers have to be marked on the provided OMR sheet.
Rough work is to be done on question paper itself no rough sheet
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hall.
On the OMR sheet, o Fill up all details including Question paper Code with
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Marking Scheme
o All 180 questions are compulsory and carry 4 mark for
each questions. o Each wrong answer deduct 1 mark from your score.
21 Jan. 2018 TS P.T.O.
2
Section – A : Physics
1) Consider the following figure, a uniform
magnetic field of 0.2 T is directed along
the positive x-axis. What is the magnetic
flux through top surface of the figure
a) Zero b) 0.8 m-wb
c) 1.0 m-wb d) – 1.8 m-wb
2) A circular coil of 500 turns of a wire
has an enclosed area of 0.1 m2 per
turn. It is kept perpendicular to a
magnetic field of induction 0.2 T and
rotated by 180o about a diameter
perpendicular to the field in 0.1 sec.
How much charge will pass when the
coil is connected to a galvanometer
with a combined resistance of 50
ohms
a) 0.2 C b) 0.4 C
c) 2 C d) 4 C
3) The variation of induced emf (E) with
time (t) in a coil if a short bar magnet is
moved along its axis with a constant
velocity is best represented as
a) b)
c) d)
4) A square loop of side „a‟ and resistance R
is placed in a transverse uniform
magnetic field B. If it suddenly changes
into circular form in time t then
magnitude of induced charge will be
a)
2
(4 1)Ba
R b)
2 11
4
Ba
R
c)
2 11
4
Ba
R
d)
1
42
R
Ba
5) A short-circuited coil is placed in a time-
varying magnetic field. Electrical power is
dissipated due to the current induced in the
coil. If the number of turns were to be
quadrupled and the wire radius halved, the
electrical power dissipated would
a) Halved b) The same
c) Doubled d) Quadrupled
6) In the following figure, the magnet is
moved towards the coil with a speed v and
induced emf is e. If magnet and coil
recede away from one another each
moving with speed v, the induced emf in
the coil will be
a) e b) 2e c) 2
e d) 4e
7) A bar magnet is falling freely inside a long
copper tube and a solenoid as shown in
figure (i) and (ii) respectively then
acceleration of magnet inside the copper
tube and solenoid are respectively
(acceleration due to gravity = g)
a) g, g
b) Greater than g, lesser than g
c) Greater than g, g
d) Zero, lesser than g
8) A rectangular loop is drawn from left to
right across a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular into the plane of the loop
a) The direction of current in position 1
is clockwise
b) The direction of current in position 2
is clockwise
c) The direction of current in position 3
is anticlockwise
d) The direction of current in position 4
is clockwise
9) A short magnet is allowed to fall along
the axis of a horizontal metallic ring.
Starting from rest, the distance fallen by
the magnet in one second may be
a) 4 m b) 5 m c) 6 m d) 7 m
Y
60° 9 cm
Back
Front
10 cm
30°
X
Z
10 cm
4 cm
S N
S N
v
S N
v
v
N
S S
N
2 3 4 1
E
t
E
t
E
t t
E
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10) A square metallic wire loop of side 0.1 m and resistance of 1 is moved with a
constant velocity in a magnetic field of
2 wb/m2 as shown in figure. The
magnetic field is perpendicular to the
plane of the loop, loop is connected to a
network of resistances. What should be
the velocity of loop so as to have a
steady current of 1mA in loop
a) 1 cm/sec b) 2 cm/sec
c) 3 cm/sec d) 4 cm/sec
11) A player with 3m long iron rod runs
towards east with a speed of 30 km/hr.
Horizontal component of earth‟s
magnetic field is 4 × 10–5 wb/m2. If he is
running with rod in horizontal (East-
west) and vertical positions, then the
potential difference induced between the
two ends of the rod in two cases will be
a) Zero in vertical position and 1 × 10–3
V in horizontal position
b) 1 × 10–3 V in vertical position and
zero is horizontal position
c) Zero in both cases d) 1 × 10–3 V in both cases
12) As shown in the figure a metal rod
makes contact and complete the circuit.
The circuit is perpendicular to the
magnetic field with B = 0.15 Tesla. If the resistance is 3, force needed to move
the rod as indicated with a constant
speed of 2m/sec is
a) 3.75 × 10–3 N b) 3.75 × 10–2 N
c) 3.75 × 102 N d) 3.75 × 01–4 N
13) A sphere frame of metallic wire is
moving in a uniform magnetic field )(B
acting perpendicular to the paper inward
as shown. LP and QN are also metallic
wires then find the potential difference
between L and N
a) Zero
b) Bvl
c) 2Bvl
d) 3Bvl
14) A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates
vertically about one of its ends at angular
velocity 5 radians per second. If the
horizontal component of earth's magnetic
field is T4102.0 , then the e.m.f.
developed between the two ends of the
conductor is
a) 5 mV b) 50 V
c) 5 V d) 50 mV
15) A copper disc of radius 0.1 m rotates
about its centre with 10 revolutions per
second in a uniform magnetic field of
0.1 Tesla. The emf induced across the
radius of the disc is
a) 10
V b)
2
10
V
c) 10 mV d) 20 mV
16) In a region of uniform magnetic
induction B = 10– 2 Tesla, a circular coil of radius 30 cm and resistance 2 ohm is
rotated about an axis which is
perpendicular to the direction of B and
which forms a diameter of the coil. If the
coil rotates at 200 rpm the amplitude of
the alternating current induced in the
coil is a) 42 mA b)30 mA
c) 6 mA d) 200 mA
17) A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a
length of 0.30 metre. The area of its
cross-section is 1.2 × 10–3 m2. Around
its central section, a coil of 300 turns is
wound. If an initial current of 2A in the
solenoid is reversed in 0.25 sec, then the
emf induced in the coil is
a) 6 × 10–4 V b) 4 × 10–3 V
c) 6 × 10–2 V d) 48 mV
18) A coil of wire of a certain radius has 600
turns and a self-inductance of 108 mH.
The self-inductance of another similar
coil of 500 turns will be
a) 74 mH b) 75 mH
c) 76 mH d) 77 mH
19) A coil of Cu wire (radius-r, self
inductance-L) is bent in two concentric
turns each having radius is .2
r The self
inductance now
a) 2L b) L c) 4 L d) L/2
20) An ideal transformer has 500 and 5000
turns in primary and secondary windings
respectively. If the primary voltage is
connected to a 6V battery then the
secondary voltage is
a) 0 b) 60V
c) 0.6 V d) 6.0 V
21) An alternating current of frequency 200
rad/sec and peak value 1A as shown in
the figure, is applied to the primary of a
transformer. If the coefficient of mutual
induction between the primary and the
secondary is 1.5 H, the voltage induced
in the secondary will be
a) 300 V b) 191 V
c) 220 V d) 471 V
22) If the frequency of an alternating current
is 50 Hz then the time taken for the
change from zero to positive peak value
3 3
3 3
3
v l
B
P
Q
v = 2m/s
× × × × × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × × × ×
R 50 cm
B = 0.15 T (into page)
v
B
L
P
Q
N
l
l
l
+1
– 1
O
v
B
L
P
Q
N
l
l
l
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and positive peak value to negative peak
value of current are respectively
a) 1/200 sec, 1/ 100 sec
b) 1/ 100 sec, 1/200 sec
c) 200 sec, 100 sec
d) None of these
23) In an ac circuit, V and i are given by
100sin(100 ) ,andV t volts .
100sin 1003
i t mA
The power
dissipated in circuit is
a) 104 watt b) 10 watt
c) 2.5 watt d) 5 watt
24) Voltage and current in an ac circuit are
given by
6100sin5
tV and
6100sin4
ti
a) Voltage leads the current by 30°
b) Current leads the voltage by 30°
c) Current leads the voltage by 60°
d) Voltage leads the current by 60°
25) An ac voltage source of E = 150 sin 100
t is used to run a device which offers a resistance of 20 and restricts the flow
of current in one direction only. The
r.m.s. value of current in the circuit will
be
a) 1.58 A b) 0.98 A
c) 3.75 A d) 2.38 A
26) An alternating voltage )100sin(2200 tE
is connected to a 1 microfaracd capacitor
through an ac ammeter. The reading of
the ammeter shall be
a) 10 mA b) 20 mA
c) 40 mA d) 80 mA
27) The frequency for which a F5 capacitor
has a reactance of 1000
1 ohm is given by
a) MHz
100 b) Hz
1000
c) Hz1000
1 d)1000 Hz
28) Let frequency = 50 Hz, and capacitance
C = 100F in an ac circuit containing a
capacitor only. If the peak value of the
current in the circuit is 1.57 A. The
expression for the instantaneous voltage
across the capacitor will be
a) E = 50 sin (100 t – 2
)
b) E = 100 sin (50 t)
c) E = 50 sin (100 t)
d) E = 50 sin (100 t + 2
)
29) In an LR-circuit, the inductive reactance
is equal to the resistance R of the circuit. An e.m.f. )cos(0 tEE is applied to the
circuit. The power consumed in the
circuit is
a)R
E20 b)
R
E
2
20
c)R
E
4
20 d)
R
E
8
20
30) A resistance of 40 ohm and an
inductance of 95.5 millihenry are
connected in series in a 50 cycles/second
ac circuit. The impedance of this
combination is very nearly
a) 30 ohm b) 40ohm
c) 50 ohm d) 60 ohm
31) F
5.2 capacitor and 3000-ohm
resistance are joined in series to an ac
source of 200 volt and 150 sec
frequency. The power factor of the
circuit and the power dissipated in it will
respectively
a) 0.6, 0.06 W b) 0.06, 0.6 W
c) 0.6, 4.8 W d) 4.8, 0.6 W
32) A telephone wire of length 200 km has a capacitance of 0.014 F per km. If it
carries an ac of frequency 5 kHz, what
should be the value of an inductor
required to be connected in series so that
the impedance of the circuit is minimum
a) 0.35 mH b) 35 mH
c) 3.5 mH d) Zero
33) In LCR circuit, the capacitance is
changed from C to 4C. For the same
resonant frequency, the inductance
should be changed from L to
a) 2L b) L/2
c) L/4 d) 4L
34) An LCR series circuit is connected to an external e.m.f. te 100sin200 . The
values of the capacitance and resistance in the circuit are F2 and 100
respectively. The amplitude of the
current in the circuit will be maximum
when the inductance is
a) 100 Henry b) 2/50 Henry
c) 100 Henry d) 2100 Henry
35) In a series resonant LCR circuit, if L is
increased by 25% and C is decreased by
20%, then the resonant frequency will
a) Increase by 10%
b) Decrease by 10%
c) Remain unchanged
d) Increase by 2.5 %
36) In an LCR circuit 100R ohm. When
capacitance C is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by 3/ . When
inductance L is removed, the current leads the voltage by 3/ . The
impedance of the circuit is
a) 50 ohm b) 100 ohm
c) 200 ohm d) 400 ohm
37) In the following circuit diagram inductive reactance of inductor is 24 and
capacitive reactance of capacitor is 48,
then reading of ammeter will be
a) 5 A b) 2.4 A c) 2.0 A d) 10 A
L 240 V C
ac
ammeter
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38) An ideal choke takes a current of 8A
when connected to an ac source of 100
volt and 50Hz. A pure resistor under the
same conditions takes a current of 10A.
If two are connected in series to an ac
supply of 100V and 40 Hz, then the
current in the series combination of
above resistor and inductor is
a) 10A b) 8A
c) 25 amp d) 210 amp
39) The self inductance of a choke coil is
10 mH. When it is connected with a 10V
dc source, then the loss of power is
20 watt. When it is connected with
10 volt ac source loss of power is 10
watt. The frequency of ac source will be
a) 50 Hz b) 60 Hz
c) 80Hz d) 100 Hz
40) In a series circuit HLR 9.0,300 ,
FC 0.2 and ./1000 secrad The
impedance of the circuit is
a) 1300 b) 900
c) 500 d) 400
41) In an ac circuit, containing an inductance
and a capacitor in series, the current is
found to be maximum when the value of
inductance is 0.5 henry and a
capacitance of 8 F . The angular
frequency of the input ac voltage must
be equal to
a) 500 rad/sec b) 4105 rad/sec
c) 4000 rad/sec d) 5000 rad/sec
42) When 100 volt dc is applied across a
solenoid, a current of 1.0 amp flows in it.
When 100 volt ac is applied across the
same coil, the current drops to 0.5 amp.
If the frequency of ac source is 50 Hz
the impedance and inductance of the
solenoid are
a) 200 ohms and 0.5 henry
b) 100 ohms and 0.86 henry
c) 200 ohms and 1.0 henry
d) 100 ohms and 0.93 henry
43) A coil of resistance 300 ohm and self
inductance 1.5 henry is connected to an
ac source of frequency .100
Hz
The
phase difference between voltage and
current is
a) o0 b) o30
c) o45 d) o60
44) The instantaneous values of current and
potential difference in an alternating circuit are ti sin and tE cos100
respectively. r.m.s. value of wattless
current (in amp) in the circuit is
a) 1 b) 2/1
c)100 d) Zero
45) The r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2 A.
If the wattless current be A3 , what is
the power factor
a)3
1 b)
2
1
c)2
1 d)
3
1
Section – B : Chemistry
46) The basic character of methylamines in
vapour phase is
a) 30>20 > 10 > NH3 b) 20>30 >10>NH3
c) 10> 20 > 30 > NH3 d) None of these
47) What is decreasing order of basicity of
p–, s–, t– ethyl amines and NH3? a) NH3>C2H5NH2 >(C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N
b) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2>NH3
c) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2>NH3>(C2H5)3N
d) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N>C2H5NH2>NH3
48) Identify X in the sequence,
X 2HNO C3H8O 2 2 7
2 4
K Cr O
H SOC3H6O2
a) CH3 – NH – CH2 – CH3
b) CH3 –CH2 – CH3 – NH2
c) (CH3)3N
d) None of the above
49) Primary nitroalkanes on hydrolysis give
a) RCOOH + NH2OH b) RCOOH
c) NH2OH d) RCOR
50) The product D in the following sequence
of reactions is
CH3COOH 3NH A
Heat B 2 5P O
C 2 5Na C H OH D
a) ester b) amine
c) acid d) alcohol
51) The value of Kb is highest in case of
a) p – methoxy aniline b) p – chloroanilne
c) p – nitroanilnie d) p–methyl aniline
52) Aniline and ethylamine resembles in
a) solubility
b) action with HNO2
c) action of Grignard reagent
d) coupling reaction
53) Identify „Z‟ in the change :
C6H5NH2 2 /
280
NaNO HCl
KX
/CuBr HBrZ
54) Among the following compounds
the order of basicity is
a) IV > III > II > I b) II > I > III > IV
c) III > IV > II > I d) I > III > IV > II
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55) Choose the correct statement from the
ones given below for two anilium in
a) II is not an acceptable canonical
structure because carbonium ions are
less stable than ammonium ions
b) II is not an acceptable canonical
structure because it is non-aromatic
c) II is not an acceptable canonical
structure because the nitrogen has
10 valence electrons
d) II is an acceptable canonical structure
56) Nitrobenzene can be prepared from
benzene by using a mixture of conc.
HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. In the nitrating
mixture HNO3 acts as a ----
a) base b) acid
c) reducing agent d) catalyst
57) In the chemical reactions
NH2
2 4
,278
NaNO HBF
HCl KA B
the compounds „A‟ and „B‟ respectively are
a) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
b) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
c) phenol and benzene
d) benzene diazonium chloride and
fluorobenzene
58) Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a
product D.
NH2 2 2NaNO HCuCN
HCl NiA B
2HNO
C D
The structure of the product D would be
a) C6H5NHCH2CH3 b) C6H5CH2OH
c) C6H5CH2NH2 d) C6H5NHOH
59) An organic compound (C3H9N) (A),
when treated with nitrous acid, gave an
alcohol and N2 gas was evolved. (A) on
warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash
gave (C) which on reduction gave
isopropylmethylamine. Predict the
structure of (A).
CH3
a) CH– NH2 b) CH3CH2–NH–CH3
CH3
c) CH3 – N – CH3 d) CH2CH2CH2–NH2
|
CH3
60) Ketones and 10 amine reacts to form
a) amides b) oximes
c) urea d) anils
61) Plots showing the variation of the rate
constant (k) with temperature (T) are
given below. The plot that follows
Arrhenius equation is
62) Consider a reaction aG + bH
Products. When concentration of both
the reactants G and H is doubled, the
rate increases eight times. However,
when concentration of G is doubled
keeping the concentration of H fixed, the
rate is doubled. The overall order of
reaction is ----
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
63) The energy of activation for forward and
backward change for an endothermic
reaction X Y are Ef and Eb
respectively. Which is correct?
a) Eb < Ef b) Eb > Ef
c) Eb = Ef d) No relation between them
64) A reaction, A2 + B2 2 AB occurs by
the following mechanism;
A2 A + A ….(slow)
A + B2 AB + B …(Fast)
A + B AB …(Fast)
Its order would be ---
a) 3/2 b) 1 c) zero d) 2
65) Among the following reaction, the fastest
one is ----
a) burning of coal
b) rusting of iron in moist air
c) conversion of monoclinic sulphur to
rhombic sulphur
d) precipitation of silver chloride by
mixing silver nitrate and sodium
chloride solutions
66) In Arrhenius equation K = /Ea RTe
the
quantity – Ea/RT is referred as
a) Boltzmann factor b) Frequency factor
c) Activation factor d) None of these
67) Which curve represents zero order
reaction?
68) If the concentration units are reduced by
n times, then the value of rate constant
of first order will ----
a) increase by n times
b) decrease by factor of n
c) not change
d) none of these
69) If „a‟ is the initial concentration of a
substance which reacts according to zero
order kinetics and K is rate constant, the
time for the reaction to go to completion
is ---
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a) a
K b)
2
Ka c)
K
a d)
2K
a
70) The rate constant of nth order has units ---
a) litre1–n mol1–n sec–1
b) mol1–n litre1–n sec–1
c) mol1–n litre1–n sec–1
d) none of these
71) The rate of reactions becomes 2 times
for every 100C rise in temperature. How
the rate of reaction will increase when
temperature is increased from 300C to
800C?
a) 16 b) 32 c) 64 d) 128
72) In a first order reaction the a/(a – x) was
found to be 8 after 10 minute. The rate
constant is
a) (2.303 x 3 log2)/10
b) (2.303 x 2 log3)/10
c) 10 x 2.303 x 2 log 3
d) 10 x 2.303 x 3log2
73) For A + B C+D, H = –20 kJ mol– 1
the activation energy of the forward
reaction is 85 kJ mol–1. The activation
energy for backward reaction is ---- kJ
mol– 1
a) 65 b) 105 c) 85 d) 40
74) The reaction L M is started with
10 g of L. After 30 and 90 minutes, 5 g
and 1.25 g of L are left respectively. The
order of reaction is
a) 0 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3
75) If a first order reaction the concentration
of reactant decreases from 800 mol/dm3
to 50 mol/dm3 in 2 x 104 sec. The rate
constant of reaction in sec–1 is ---
a) 2 x 104 b) 3.45 x 10–5
c) 1.386 x 10–4 d) 2 x 10–4
76) The half – life period of a first order
chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The
time required for the completion of 99 %
of the chemical reaction will be (log2 =
0.301)
a) 23.03 minutes b) 46.06 minutes
c) 460.6 minutes d) 230.3 minutes
77) For a first order reaction a)
products, the concentration of A changes
from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes.
The rate of reaction when the
concentration of A is 0.01 M is
a) 3.47 x 10– 4 M/ min
b) 3.47 x 10– 5 M/ min
c) 1.73 x 10– 4 M/ min
d) 1.73 x 10– 5 M/ min
78) If concentration of reactants is increased
by „X‟, the rate constant K becomes
a) eK/X b) K/X
c) K d) X/K
79) For the reaction A B, the rate law
is; rate = K[A]. Which of the following
statements is incorrect?
a) The reaction follows first order kinetics
b) The t1/2 of reaction depends upon
initial concentration of reactant
c) K is constant for the reaction at a
constant temperature
d) The rate law provides a simple way
of predicting the concentration of
reactants and products at any time
after the start of the reaction
80) 2 A B + C; It would be a zero
order reaction when ---
a) the rate of reaction is proportional to
square of conc. of A.
b) the rate of reaction remains same at
any conc. of A
c) the rate remains unchanged at any
conc. of B and C
d) the rate of reaction doubles if conc.
of B is increased to double
81) For a I order reaction A B the
reaction rate at reactant concentration
0.01 M is found to be 2.0 x 10– 5 Ms – 1.
The half life period of the reaction is
a) 30s b) 300s c) 220s d) 347 s
82) If 60 % of a first order reaction was
completed in 60 minute, 50 % of the
same reaction would be completed in
approximately.
a) 45 minute b) 60 minute
c) 40 minute d) 50 minute
83) The rate constant of a first order
reaction is 3 x 10–6 sec–1. If initial
concentration is 0.10 M, the initial rate is
(M s–1) ---
a) 3 x 10–6 b) 3 x 10–5
c) 3 x 10–8 d) 3 x 10–7
84) Which of the following is correct method
to convert p–toluidine to p – toluic acid?
a) Diazotisation, CuCN, H2/PD
b) CHCl3/NaOH, KCN, Sn/HCl
c) Diazotisation, CuCN/KCN, H2O/ H+
d) Diazotisatoin, NaCN, NaOH
85) The structure of Product X in the
following reaction is
86) C6H6 3
2 4
HNO
H SOP
/Sn HCl Q 2NaNO
HClR
3 2
2
H PO
H OS
The end product S in the given sequence
of reaction is
a) Benzoic acid b) Benzene
c) Phenol d) Chlorobenzene
87) The product „D‟ in the following sequence
of reactions is
NH2
2
( )
Br
aqA 2NaNO
HClB 4HBF
CHeat D
a) 2, 4, 6 – tribromofluorobenzene
b) Fluorobenzene
c) p – bromofluorobenzene
d) Tribromobenzene
88) For a nitration of aniline, which of the
following steps is followed?
a) Direct, nitration using nitrating
mixture (conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4)
followed by oxidation
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b) Using fuming HNO3 carrying out
reaction at 273 K followed by
hydrolysis
c) Using NaNO2 and HCl followed by
reaction with conc. HNO3 followed by
hydrolysis
d) Acetylation followed by nitration and
hydrolysis
89) Coupling of diazonium salts of following
takes place in the order
a) IV < II < III < I b) IV > III < II < I
c) II < IV < I < III d) I < II < III < IV
90) Cyclohexylamine is stronger base then
aniline because
a) in aniline electron pair is involved in
conjugation
b) in cyclohexylamine electron pair is
involved in conjugation
c) in aniline – NH2 group is protonated
d) in cyclohexylamine nitrogen has a
negative change
Section – C : Biology
91) A sigmoid growth curve is characteristics of
a) Bacteria growing in culture medium
b) Organisms growing in natural habitat
c) All cells, tissue and organs
d) All
92)
A – Leaf B – Leaf
AGR RGR AGR RGR
a) 1 % 1% 2% 2%
b) 100 % 5% 10% 5%
c) 10 cm2 100% 10cm2 10%
d) 0.5 cm2 100% 1.5cm2 100%
93) For growth which one (s) is non-essential –
a) Nutrients b) CO2
c) O2 d) All
94) Under certain conditions regaining the
lost capacity of division by living cells is
called –
a) Dedifferentiation b) Redifferentition
c) Differentiation d) Efficiency index
95) Which one (s) is/are redifferentiated cell(s)?
a) Cork b) Secondary cortex
c) Both d) None
96) The ability of plant to follow different
pathways and produce different
structures in response to environment
and phases of life is termed as –
a) Elasticity b) Growth efficiency
c) Plasticity d) Heterophylly
97) Environmental heterophylly is seen in –
a) Ranunculus (Buttercup) b) Cotton
c) Coriander d) Larkspur
98) PGRs include –
a) Only growth promoters
b) Only growth inhibitors
c) Both growth promoters and growth
inhibitors
d) Only solid hormones, not gaseous
hormones
99) The term “auxin” is used for –
a) IAA b) NAA
c) 2, 4 – D and 2, 4, 5 – T d) All
100) The hormone responsible for
phototropism is –
a) Auxin b) C2H4
c) ABA d) GA
101) The discovery of auxin is traced back to
the work of Charles and Francis Darwin.
In their experiments, they studied
a) Photonastic movement
b) Photoperiodism
c) Phototropism
d) Photosynthesis
102) Which process is not directly affected by
auxin?
a) Apical dominance and root initiation
b) Parthenocarpy
c) Synthesis of – amylase by barley
seeds
d) Leaf abscission
103) Which of the following plant hormones
can cause the base of a shoot to form
new root, prevents fruit and leaf drop at
early stage, to be used as herbicide/
weedicide, also controls xylem
differentiation and helps in cell division –
a) GA b) Cytokinin
c) Auxin d) ABA
104) Removal of shoot tips (decapitation)
means loss of apical dominance and it is
widely applied in –
a) Tea plantation b) Hedge – making
c) Both d) Bolting
105) How many gibberellins have been
reported from fungi and higher plants –
a) Less than 100 b) more than 1000
c) More than 100 d) 100
106) Bolting is –
a) Internodal elongation just prior to
flowering in beet, cabbage and many
plants with rosette habit
b) A type of grafting
c) Nodal elongation in certain plants
d) None
107) Two cytokinins are kinetin and Zeatin.
What is the different between the two?
a) Kinetin is the active form of zeatin
b) Zeatin is the active form of kinetin
c) Zeatin is a synthetic cytokinin and
kinetin is naturally occurring
d) Zeatin is a naturally occuring plant
cytokinin, kinetin is not
20
10
110
100
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108) Auxin and cytokinin are antagonistic in
which of the following functions?
a) Cell division b) Phototropism
c) Apical dominance d) Geotropism
109) Cytokinin helps in delay of leaf
senescence by –
a) Increasing more water absorption by
root
b) Increasing rate of translocation of
organic solutes
c) Promoting nutrients mobilization
d) Formation of adventitious buds
110) C2H4 is synthesized in large amounts by–
a) Shoot tip
b) Root tip
c) Young leaves
d) Tissue undergoing senescence and
ripening fruits
111) Which one is stress hormone –
a) ABA b) C2H4
c) GA7 d) IAA
112) The most widely used compound as a
source of C2H4 is –
a) Kinetin b) Zeatin
c) IBA d) Ethephon
113) Which hormone promotes female
flowers in cucumber –
a) ABA b) C2H4
c) GA4 d) GA3
114) Long day plants flower specially when the –
a) Light period is lesser than some
critical length
b) Light period is greater than some
critical period
c) Dark period is less than some critical
length
d) Dark period is more than some
critical length
115) Agar blocks 1 and 2 are kept in the
position shown in the diagram below for
several hours and then transferred on to
two freshly cut coleoptiles.
Which of the following would result after
two days of growth?
116)
Identify Growth (s) and Phase (s) in
above diagrammatic representation –
a) G – I – Arithmetic growth, G – II –
Geometric growth, P – I – Geometric
phase, P – II – Arithmetic phase
b) G – I – Arithmetic growth, G – II –
Geometric growth, P – I – Arithmetic
phase, P – II –Geometric phase
c) G – I – Geometric growth, G – II –
Arithmetic growth, P – I – Geometric
phase, P – II – Arithmetic phase
d) G – I – Geometric growth, G – II –
Arithmetic growth, P – I – Arithmetic
phase, P – II – Geometric phase
117) Match the plant hormones listed in
column A with their major role listed in
column B and select the correct option
from the codes given below –
Column I Column B
A) Auxin i) Fruit ripening
B) Cytokinins ii) Phototropism
C) Abscisic acid iii) Antagonist to GAs
D) Ethylene iv) Stoomatal opening
and closing
v) Growth of laeral
buds
a) A – IV; B – V; C – III, II; D – I
b) A – II; B - IV; C – III, IV; D – I
c) A – II; B – IV, V; C – III; D – I
d) A – III, IV; B – V; C – II; D – I
118) Vernalisation stimulates flowering in
a) Zamikand b) Turmeric
c) Carrot d) Ginger
119) During seed germination its stored food
is mobilized by
a) Ethylene b) Cytokinin
c) ABA d) Gibberellin
120) Which one of the following growth
regulators is known as anti-GA?
a) Abscissic acid b) Ethylene
c) Cytokinin d) Indole acetic acid
121) You are given a tissue with its potential
for differentiation in an artificial culture.
Which of the following pairs of hormones
would you add to the medium to secure
shoos as well as roots?
a) Auxin and abscisic acid
b) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
c) IAA and gibberellin
d) Auxin and cytokinin
122) Plants which disregard the requirement
of a definite day length for the following
are called –
a) Short day plants
b) Long day plants
c) Day neutral plants
d) Long short – day plants
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123) Seed dormancy can be broken by the
following combination of chemicals
a) GA3, IAA and ABA
b) KNO3, GA3 and Ethylene
chlorohydrins
c) NAA, 2, 4, 5 – T and IAA
d) ABA, BAP and GA3
124) The primary hormone causing abscission
of leaves is
a) IAA b) Ethylene
c) ABA d) Cytokinin
125) DNA fingerprinting involves identifying
differences in some specific regions in
DNA sequence called as
a) Euchromatin b) Repetitive DNA
c) Genophore d) Heterochromatin
126) Imagine an error occurring during DNA
replication in a cell, so that where there
is supposed to be a T in one of the genes
there is instead a G. What effect will this
probably have on the cell?
a) The amino acid sequence of one of it
kinds of proteins will be completely
changed
b) An amino acid will be missing from
each of its kinds of proteins
c) One of its kinds of proteins might
contain an incorrect amino acid
d) An amino acid will be missing from
one of its kinds of proteins.
127) A sequence of pictures of polypeptide
synthesis shows a ribosome holding two
transfer RNAs. One tRNA has a
polypeptide chain attached to it, the
other tRNA has a single amino acid
attached to it. What does the next
picture show?
a) The polypeptide chain moves over
and bonds with the single amino acid
b) The tRNA with the amino acid leaves
the ribosome
c) The amino acid moves over and
bonds with the polypeptide chain
d) The tRNA with the polypeptide chain
leaves the ribosome.
128) Which of the following is true?
A. „Operon hypothesis‟ was proposed by
Jacob and Monod
B. „One gene – one enzyme theory‟ was
proposed by Beadle and Tatum
C. „Southern blotting‟ is used in DNA
fingerprinting
D. Uracil bases remain present in DNA.
a) B, C b) A, B, C, D
c) B, C, D d) A, B, C
129) Termination of protein synthesis needs
A. 5‟AUG3‟ codon B. 5‟GUG3‟
C. Stop signal/ Non – sense codon
D. Release/ termination factor
a) A, C b) A, B, C, D
c) C, D d) A, B, C
130) Satellite DNA –
A. Is classified in many categories such
as micro – satellites, minisatellites,
etc on the basis of base composition
length of segments and number of
repetitive units
B. Normally does not code for any protein
C. Shows polymorphism
D. Forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting
a) A, C b) A, B, C, D
c) B, C, D d) A, B, C
131) An RFLP is a –
a) DNA probe used for hybridization
b) Variation of a DNA segment cut by
restriction enzyme (s)
c) Recessive form of deleterious allele
d) Restrictive enzyme used to cut DNA
132) A cell is grown in a solution containing
radioactive nucleotides, so that its DNA
is labeled with radioactivity. It is
removed from the radioactive solution
and grown in a normal medium, so that
any new DNA strands it makes will not
be radioactive. In the normal medium,
the cell replicates its DNA and divides.
The two daughter cells also replicate
their DNA and divide, producing a total
of four cells. If a dotted line represents a
radioactive DNA strand and a solid line
represents a non radioactive DNA strand,
which of the following depicts the DNA of
the four cells?
133) If each amino acids weighs 10 mass
units, what is the weight (in mass units)
of the protein, molecule synthesized
from a mRNA molecule which is 600
bases long and in mid position mutation
takes place in UGC (C replace by A)?
a) 2000 b) 1000
c) 3000 d) 6000
134) The base – paired structure of DNA
implies that it
a) can replicate to form identical molecules
b) can be used as a template to make RNA
c) is the hereditary material
d) a and b
135) The molecules that function to replicate
DNA in the cell are
a) DNA nucleoside triphosphates
b) DNA polymerases.
c) Nucleoside polymerases
d) DNAses
136) Using code dictionary selection the
option which correctly fills up the blanks
in the following table.
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137) An mRNA codon for the amino acid
alanine is GCC. How many alanine
molecules are present in the
polypeptide, containing eight amino
acids, coded for by the following DNA
template?
T C G G C C T A C C G G G C C C A T G C C A A T
a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
138) The diagram of the lac operon from E.
coli is shown below. Each letter indicates
its components may be used more than
once.
Which of the following options is correct
in respect of the letters and their
functions –
a) C – the binding site for the repressor
protein, B – the binding site for RNA
polymerase, D – the structural
genes, A – the gene that codes for
the repressor protein.
b) A – the binding site for the repressor
protein, B – the binding site for RNA
polymerase, C – the structural genes,
D – the gene that codes for the
repressor protein.
c) A – the binding site for the repressor
protein, D – the binding site for RNA
polymerase, B – the structural genes,
C – the gene that codes for the
repressor protein.
d) D – the binding site for the repressor
protein, C – the binding site for RNA
polymerase, B – the structural genes,
A – the gene that codes for the
repressor protein.
139) Find the number of phosphodiester
bonds and glycosidic linkages associated
with E. coli DNA respectively –
a) 9.2 x 106 – 2, 9.2 x 106 –2
b) 4.6 x 106 – 2, 4.6 x 106 –2
c) 4.6 x 106 – 2, 4.6 x 106
d) 9.2 x 106 – 2, 9.2 x 106
140) You have obtained a sample of DNA, and
you transcribe mRA from this DNA and
purify it. You then separate the two
strands of the DNA and analyze the base
composition of each strand and of the
mRNA. You obtain the data shown in the
table. Which strand of the DNA serves as
a template for mRNA synthesis?
A G C T U
DNA strand 1 19.1 26.0 31.0 23.9 0
DNA strand 2 24.2 30.8 25.7 19.3 0
mRNA 19.0 25.9 30.8 0 24.3
a) Strand 1 b) Strand 2
c) Both strands 1 and 2
d) Neither strand 1 nor 2
141) The prediction of sequence of amino acid
is ____A____ if the sequence of
nucleotides of mRNA is known. The
prediction of sequence of nucleotide is
concerned m RNA is ____B____ because
the genetic code is ____C____.
a) A–possible, B–impossible, C–universal
b) A–possible, B-impossible,C–degenerate
c) A–impossible, B- possible, C–universal
d) A–impossible, B- possible, C–degenerate
142) Sequencing the whole set of genome
that contains all the coding and non
coding parts is
a) Expressed Sequence Tags
b) Sequence Annoation
c) Microarray
d) Electrophoresis
143) The length of E. coil DNA and length of
DNA in a human 2N cell is –
a) 1.36 mm and 2.2 m respectively
b) 1.36 mm and 2.2 mm respectively
c) 1.36 m and 2.2 m respectively
d) 1.36 cm and 2.2 cm respectively
144) Which suspect would you charge with
the crime?
a) Both suspect 1 and 2
b) Only suspect 1
c) Only suspect 2
d) Neither suspect 1 nor suspect 2
145) Out of 64 codons, the number of codons
with GGG is –
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6
146) Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
a) Lysosomes b) Nucleolus
c) Nucleoplasm d) Ribosomes
147) In eukaryotes, Okazaki fragments are
about ____long.
a) 50 base pairs b) 150 base pairs
c) 1 – 500 base pairs
d) 150,000 base pairs
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148) You have analyzed the DNA isolated
from a newly discovered virus and found
that its base composition is 32 % A,
19 % C, 32 % G, and 19 % T. What
would be a reasonable explanation of
this observation?
a) The virus must be extraterrestrial
b) In some viruses, double – stranded
DNA is made up of base pairs
containing two purines or two
pyrimidines
c) Some of the T was converted to C
during the isolation procedure
d) The genome of the phage is single –
stranded, not double – stranded
149) The enzyme DNA ligase is required
continuously during DNA replication because
a) Fragments of the leading strand must
be joined together
b) Fragments of the lagging strand must
be joined together
c) The parental strands must be joined
back together.
d) 3‟ – deoxynucleoside triphosphate
must be converted to 5‟ –
deoxynucleoside triphosphates
150) The enzyme that restores the
phosphodiester linkage between
adjacent fragments in the lagging strand
during DNA replication is
a) DNA ligase b) Primase
c) Reverse transcriptase d) Helicase
151) The Hershey – Chase experiment
a) Proved semiconservative replication
is the mode for DNA replication
b) Used 32P to label protein
c) Used 35S to label DNA
d) Helped to prove DNA was the genetic
molecule
152) In gel-electrophoresis, all the DNA
fragments move towards the base of the
gel with variable velocities because
a) DNA is positively charged
b) DNA is slightly negatively charged
c) DNA fragments have different
molecular weights
d) both b and c
153) The polymerase chain reaction
a) is a method for sequencing DNA
b) is used to transcribe specific genes
c) amplified specific DNA sequences
d) does not required DNA replication
primers
154) You estimate that cytosine represent
30 % of the total pyrimidine content of
DNA from a mouse cell. Using Chargaff‟s
rules, you determine that the percentage
of total nucleotides in the DNA
represented by adenine is
a) unknown b) 70 %
c) 35 % d) 30 %
155) How many adenylate residues are added
at 3‟ end during the processing of hnRNA
in eukaryotes?
a) 50 – 100 b) 100 – 150
c) 600 – 700 d) 200 – 300
156) nu body of nucleosome consists of
a) H1 and H2A b) H2A and H2B
c) H3 and H4 d) both b and c
157) SNP which is pronounced as „snips‟
stands for
a) Small nuclear protein
b) Single nucleotide particle
c) Single nucleotide polymorphism
d) Small nicking points
158) During translation, the ______site within
the ribosome holds the growing amino
acids chain while the ______ site holds
the next amino acid to be added to the
chain.
a) A, P b) P, A c) A, B d) B, A
159) Escherichia coli cells were grown for
many generations in 15NH4Cl as sole
nitrogen source. Subsequently, these
cells were grown exactly for four
generations in medium containing 14NH4Cl. The DNA from these cells were
isolated and separated. If 15N/15N
represents the two strands of DNA where
both strands have heavy nitrogen; 15N/ 14N as intermediate DNA; and 14N/ 15N
as DNA containing light nitrogen, the
ratios for heavy : intermediate : light
DNA, respectively would be
a) 1 : 0 : 7 b) 1 : 1 : 6
c) 0 : 1 : 7 d) 0 : 8 : 0
160) Which one of the following also acts as a
catalyst in a bacterial cell?
a) r RNA b) tRNA
c) m RNA d) hn RNA
161) In m-RNA base sequence is 5‟AAC CAA
GAC CCC GGG3‟ what is the possible no.
of codons in case of overlapping and non
overlapping respectively.
a) 14, 5 b) 13, 5
c) 12, 5 d) 10, 4
162) If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous
base sequence at ATCTG, what would be
the complementary RNA strand sequence
a) TTAGU b) UAGAC
c) AACTG d) ATCGU
163) Which enzyme/s will be produced in a
cell in which there is a nonsense
mutation in the lac Y gene?
a) Lactose permease
b) Transacetylase
c) Lactose permease and transacetylase
d) – galactosidase
164) In order to identify the person who
committed a crime. Forensic experts will
need to extract DNA from the tissue
sample collected at the crime scene, and
conduct one of the following procedures
for DNA finger – printing analysis
a) cut the DNA and hybridize with
specific micro-satellite probes
b) cut the DNA and subclone the
fragments
c) determine the sequence of the subclones
d) b followed by c
165) In human genome chromosome no. 1
posses about percent of gene?
a) 15 % b) 10 %
c) 5 % d) 20 %
166) Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for
a) replication of RNA
b) formation of peptide bond
c) splicing
d) initiation of transcription
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167) The nuclear structure observed by
Henking in 50 % of the insect sperm
after spermatogenesis was
a) X body b) Autosome
c) Y chromosome d) nucleolus
168) A 340 A0 long segment of DNA molecule
has 20 thymine nitrogenous bases, what
will be the number of guanine nitrogen
bases in the same segment?
a) 10 b) 40
c) 80 d) 160
169) In 125 amino acid sequence if the codon for
25th amino acid is mutated to UAA, then
a) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids is
formed
b) A polypeptide of 124 amino acids is
formed
c) No polypeptides are found
d) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids is
formed
170) The enzyme peptidyl transferase of
prokaryotes resides in
a) 50S ribosome b) 30S ribosome
c) 40S ribosome d) 60S ribosome
171) The RNA triplet UAG acts as a stop codon
terminating the synthesis of a
polypeptide. The diagram shows a strand
of DNA which codes for four amino acids.
Where would a mutation, introducing a
thymine nucleotide, results in the
termination of transcription?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
172) In sea urchin DNA, which is double
strand, 17 % of the bases were shown to
be cytosine. The percentage of the other
three bases expected to be present in
this DNA are
a) G 17 %, A 33 %, T 33 %
b) G 8.5 %, A 50 %, T 24.5 %
c) G 34 %, A 24.5 %, T 24.5 %
d) G 17 %, A 16.5 %, T 32.5 %
173) Identify the correct order of organization
of genetic material from largest to
smallest
a) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
b) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
c) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
d) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
174) Balbiani rings are sites of
a) Polysaccharide synthesis
b) RNA and protein synthesis
c) Lipid synthesis
d) Nucleotide synthesis
175)
Find the sequence of nucleotide in
m–RNA produced by transcription of
above given DNA.
a) 5‟ ATCGTACG3‟ b) 5‟CGUACGAU3‟
c) 3‟TAGCATGC5‟ d) 5‟GCATGCTA3‟
176) Find out the sequence of binding of the
following amino acyl t – RNA complex
during translation to an m – RNA
transcribed by a DNA segment having
the base sequence 3‟ATACCCATGGGG5‟.
Choose the answer showing the correct
order of alphabets.
a) I, II, III, IV b) IV, I, II, III
c) I, II, IV, III d) II, I, III, IV
177) Which of the following is required as
inducer (s) for the expression of Lac
operon?
a) Glucose b) Galactose
c) Lactose d) Lactose and galactose
178) Which one of the following is the starter
codon?
a) AUG b) UGA
c) UAA d) UAG
179) The enzyme, which helps to cut one
strand of DNA duplex to release tension
of coiling of two strands is
a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase – I
c) Topoisomerase d) Helicase
180) A veterinarian wanted to determine the
pedigree of a bear cub born in the zoo.
Four adult male bear are considered as
possible fathers of the cub.
To find out the father of the cub, the
veterinarian seeked help of the DNA
fingerprinting technology. The results are
shows here
Which male is most likely the father of
the cub?
a) W b) X
c) Y d) Z