provisional model answer key (civil engineering and mechanical ...
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Transcript of provisional model answer key (civil engineering and mechanical ...
State Forest Service Examination - 2014
(Provisional Model Answer Key)
Mechanical Engineering
Q1 : A mass of 1 kg is attached to the middle of a rope, which is being pulled from both ends in the opposite directions.
Taking g =10m/sec2 the minimum pull required to completely straighten the rope will be :
A 5 N
B 20N
C 25 N
D Infinite
Answer Key: D
Q2 : Three forces acting on a body can keep it in equllibrium, only when they are.
A Collinear
B Coplanar and concurrent
C Coplanar and and parallel
D Coplanar and and non-cocurrent
Answer Key: B
Q3 : The conditions of equillbrium for non-concurrent coplanar force systems are.
A
B
C
D
Answer Key: C
Q4 : Simple Harmonic Motion is a :
A Rectiliner motion with uniform acceleration
B Rectiliner motion with variable acceleration
C Curvilinear motion with variable acceleration
D Curvilinear motion with variable angular speed
Answer Key: B
Q5 : When a particle is executing Simple Harmonic Motion, the velocity is maximum at.
A The mean position
B Extreme position
C Midway Between extreme and mean position
D One-third distance from mean positon
Answer Key: A
Q6 : When a body is freely falling, the work done by force of gravity is :
A Positive
B Negative
C Zero
D Infinite
Answer Key: A
Q7 : The work done is stretching a spring of spring constant k by a length is.
A k
B k 2
C k /2
D k 2/2
Answer Key: D
Q8 : The number of strain readings (using strain gauges) needed on a plane surface to determine the principal strains
and their direction is.
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer Key: C
Q9 : A steel rod 2m long is heated through a temperature of 1000C. The coefficient of linear expansion is 6.5x10
-6/0C
and Young’s Modulus is 2x106N/m
2,the stress induced in the bar will be :
A 1000 N/m2
B 1200 N/m2
C 1300 N/m2
D 1400 N/m2
Answer Key: C
Q10
:
For a given material, Young’s modulus is 1x106 N/m
2 and modulus of rigidity is 0.4x10
6 N/m
2 The bulk modulus
of elasticity will be.
A 5x106N/m
2
B 0.67x106N/m
2
C 67x106N/m
2
D 6.7x106N/m
2
Answer Key: B
Q11
:
A simply supported beam of length 3m carries a concentrated load of 12kN at a distance of 1m from left support.
The maximum bending moment in the beam is.
A 12 kNm
B 24 kNm
C 8 kNm
D 16 kNm
Answer Key: C
Q12
:
A simply supported beam carries a couple at a point on its span, the shear force :
A varies by cubic law
B varies by parabolic law
C varies linearly
D is uniform throughtout
Answer Key: D
Q13
:
The variation of bending moment due to uniformly distributed load is given by :
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D sine law
Answer Key: B
Q14
:
The outside diameter of a hollow shaft is twice of its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque carrying capacity to
that of a solid shaft of the same material and the same outside diameter is.
A 15/16
B 3/4
C 1/2
D 1/16
Answer Key: A
Q15
:
Four vertical columns of the same material, height and weight have the same end conditions. The bucking will be
largest for a column having.
A Square cross section
B Hollow circular cross section
C Circular cross section
D I-section
Answer Key: B
Q16
:
The variation of shear in a circular shaft subjected to torsion is :
A linear
B parabolic
C hyperbolic
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q17
:
The Euler load for a column is 1000kN and crushing load is 1500kN. The Rankine load is equal to.
A 600 kN
B 1000 kN
C 1500 kN
D 2500 kN
Answer Key: A
Q18
:
For a circular column having its ends hinged, the slenderness ratio is 160. The L/d ratio of the column is :
A 80
B 57
C 40
D 20
Answer Key: C
Q19
:
In a thin cylinder, the ratio of hoop stress to longitudinal stress is :
A 1/4
B 1/2
C 2
D 4
Answer Key: C
Q20
:
A test specimen is stressed slightly beyond the yield point and then unloaded. Its yield strength will :
A increase
B decrease
C remains same
D be zero
Answer Key: A
Q21
:
Quick return mechanism is an inversion of.
A Four bar chain
B Single slider crank chain
C Double slider crank chain
D Crossed slider crank chain
Answer Key: B
Q22
:
Inversion of a mechanism is obtained by :
A changing of a higher pair to lower pair
B fixing different links in a kinematic chain
C reversing the direction of force
D changing sliding pairs into turning pairs
Answer Key: B
Q23
:
In a cam mechanism with reciprocating roller follower, the follower has a constant acceleration in the case of :
A cycloidal motion
B simple harmonic motion
C parabolic Motion
D rectilinear motion
Answer Key: C
Q24
:
If the rotating mass of rim type flywheel is distributed on another rim type flywheel whose mean radius is half the
mean radius of the former, then the energy stored in the later at the same speed will be :
A four times the former
B same as the former
C one fourth of the former
D twice of the former
Answer Key: C
Q25
:
A fixed gear having 100 teeth meshes with another gear having 25 teeth , the centre lines of both the gears being
joined by an arm so as to form an epicylic gear train. The number of rotations made by The smaller gear for one
rotation of arm is.
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer Key: C
Q26
:
A system of masses rotating in different parallel planes is in dynamic balance if the resultant :
A resultant force is equal to zero only
B resultant couple is equal to zero only
C both resultant force and resultant couple are equal to zero
D resultant force equals resultant couple in magnitude
Answer Key: C
Q27
:
A pair of 200 full depth involute spur gears having 30 and 50 teeth respectively and module 4 mm, are in mesh. The
addendum of larger gear will be :
A 3mm
B 6mm
C 9mm
D None of these correct
Answer Key: D
Q28
:
A flywheel has radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2500 kg. The starting torque is 1500N-m and may be assumed
constant. The angular acceleration of the flywheel will be :
A 0.3rad/s2
B 0.6rad/s2
C 0.9rad/s2
D 1.2rad/s2
Answer Key: B
Q29
:
The number of degrees of freedom for sphere-plane kinematic pair is :
A one
B three
C five
D six
Answer Key: C
Q30
:
In hypoid gears, axes of the shafts are.
A parallel
B intersecting at any angles
C intersecting at 900 only
D neither parallel nor intersecting
Answer Key: D
Q31
:
If the air screw of an airplane rotates anti-clockwise when viewed from the rear and the airplane takes a right turn,
then the gyrosocopic effect will
A tend to raise the tail and depress the nose
B tend to raise the nose and depress the tail
C tilt the aeroplane about spin axis
D the airplane will remain in same position
Answer Key: A
Q32 Product of circular pitch and diametral pitch in a gear is :
:
A one
B /2
C 2/
D
Answer Key: D
Q33
:
Minimum number of teeth in rack and pinion for 200 pair angle teeth is
A 20
B 18
C 22
D 24
Answer Key: B
Q34
:
When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed than the governor is said to
be
A isochronous
B hunting
C insensitive
D stable
Answer Key: B
Q35
:
When car takes a turn, for the stability of car :
A only gyroscopic effect should be considered
B only centrifugal effect should be considered
C both gyroscopic and centrifugal effects should be considered
D only speed of the car should be considered
Answer Key: C
Q36
:
The fatigue life of a part can be more better improved by :
A Electroplating
B Polishing
C Coating
D Shot peening
Answer Key: D
Q37
:
Normally in the assembly of pulley, key and shaft, the
A pulley is made the weakest
B key is made the weakest
C key is made the strongest
D shaft is designed as weakest
Answer Key: B
Q38
:
The design of the key in pulley- seft assembly is done by considering.
A shearing only
B crushing only
C both crushing and shearing
D principle stress and strain
Answer Key: C
Q39
:
The most suitable bearing for carrying very heavy loads with slow speed is :
A Hydrodynamic bearing
B Ball bearing
C Roller bearing
D Hydrostatic bearing
Answer Key: D
Q40
:
The ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of the rivets is 0.25, then the tearing efficiency of the joint is :
A 0.5
B 0.75
C 0.25
D 0.87
Answer Key: B
Q41
:
Shaft carrying transverse load and transmitting power is subjected to.
A bending stress only
B torsional stress only
C both bending and torsion stress
D axial stresses only
Answer Key: C
Q42
:
The bolts in a rigid flanged coupling connecting two shaft transmitting power are subjected to :
A Shear force and bending moment
B Axial force
C Torsion only
D Torsion and bending moment
Answer Key: A
Q43
:
Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in :
A ductile materials
B brittle materials
C equally serious in ductile and brittle materials
D depends on other factors
Answer Key: B
Q44
:
The atomic diameter of a FCC crystal ( lattice parameter is a) is :
A a/
B a/2
C 2a
D a/2
Answer Key: A
Q45
:
The atomic packing factor is maximum for :
A BCC structure
B FCC structure
C HCP structure
D Cubic structure
Answer Key: B
Q46
:
The coarse grain size in heat treatment is due to.
A slow cooling
B fast cooling
C quenching
D oil cooling
Answer Key: A
Q47
:
Recrystallization temperature for pure metals is (Tm is absolute melting temperature) :
A 0.1 Tm
B 0.3 Tm
C 0.5 Tm
D 0.7 Tm
Answer Key: B
Q48
:
After rapid cooling, austenite will transform into
A Pearlite
B Bainite
C Martensite
D Fine pearlite
Answer Key: C
Q49
:
Soderberg and Goodman equations are concerned with the safety factors in case of
A static stress
B variable stress
C creep effect
D stress concentration effect
Answer Key: B
Q50
:
A cotter joint is used to transmit
A only axial tensile load
B only axial compressive load
C only torsional load
D both axial tensile and compressive load
Answer Key: D
Q51
:
The addition of coal dust to the green moulding sand is to improve
A Permeability
B Surface finish
C Mouldability
D Green strength
Answer Key: B
Q52
:
The purpose of chaplet is to
A Compensate shrinkage
B Help pouring of hot metal
C Help in uniform solidification
D Support the core
Answer Key: D
Q53
:
Misrun is the casting defect due to
A Moulding and core making materials
B Mould and core making techniques
C Casting process
D Impurities in molten metal
Answer Key: B
Q54
:
Draft on pattern is
A A locating aid
B An allowance for machining
C A taper provided to facilitate withdrawal of pattern
D An allowance for shrinkage
Answer Key: C
Q55
:
Cold working of metal increases
A Tensile strength
B Hardness
C Yield strength
D All options are correct
Answer Key: D
Q56
:
In drawing operation the metal flows mainly due to.
A Ductility
B Work hardening
C Plasticity
D Shearing
Answer Key: C
Q57
:
Mechanical properties of the metal improve in hot working due to
A Recovery of grains
B Recrystallisation
C Grain growth
D Refinement of grain size
Answer Key: D
Q58
:
Upsetting or cold heading is a
A Rolling process
B Extruding process
C Bending process
D Forging process
Answer Key: D
Q59
:
Cold or hot rolling does not produce
A A hollow circular section
B A T-section
C An I-section
D A channel section
Answer Key: A
Q60
:
A tooth paste tube can be produced by
A Solid forward extrusion
B Solid backward extrusion
C Hollow backward extrusion
D Hollow forward extrusion
Answer Key: C
Q61
:
In electric resistance welding, voltage (V) required for heating is in the range
A 1 to 5 V
B 6 to 10 V
C 11 to 15 V
D 16 to 20 V
Answer Key: B
Q62
:
In arc welding, the temperature of arc is in the range of
A 10000C to 2000
0C
B 20000C to 4000
0C
C 40000C to 6000
0C
D 60000C to 7000
0C
Answer Key: C
Q63
:
TIG welding is preferred for
A Mild steel
B Aluminium
C Silver
D All options are correct
Answer Key: B
Q64
:
In MIG welding
A No flux is required
B Welding speed is high
C Non consumable electrode is used
D Even unclean surfaces can be welded
Answer Key: D
Q65
:
Arc length in arc welding should be equal to
A Half the diameter of electrode rod
B Rod diameter
C Twice the rod diameter
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q66
:
Continuous chips are formed during machining of
A Cast iron
B Mild steel
C Aluminium
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q67
:
Cemented carbide tools are genearally poor in
A Torsion
B Tension
C Compression
D Shear
Answer Key: D
Q68
:
For machining brass by high speed steel tool, the rake angle is
A Zero
B Positive
C Negative
D Depends on surface finish required
Answer Key: A
Q69
:
Tool signature comprises of
A 4 elements
B 5 elements
C 6 elements
D 7 elements
Answer Key: D
Q70
:
Negative rake is usually provided on
A HSS tools
B High carbon steel tools
C Cemented carbide tools
D Tools to get high metal removal rate
Answer Key: C
Q71
:
The production planning function, which refers to the determination of the sequence of operations to be performed
for the job and allocation of facilities is called
A Sequencing
B Scheduling
C Routing
D Dispatching
Answer Key: C
Q72
:
Which of the following is a subset of scheduling
A Routing
B Sequencing
C Dispatching
D Expediting
Answer Key: B
Q73
:
Which one of the following is basic system of time study
A Man-machine diagram
B Statistical sampling
C Threblings
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q74
:
In time study, standard time is always
A More than normal time
B Less than normal time
C Equal to allowances
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q75
:
In fixed position layout, which of the following is fixed
A Material
B Machinery
C Tools
D Workmen
Answer Key: A
Q76
:
Gantt chart does not show
A Scheduled start and finish time
B The delays that have occurred in each operation
C Planned time for each operation
D Cost of each operation
Answer Key: D
Q77
:
Which of the following material handling equipment uses gravity
A Pulley blocks
B Pallets
C Chutes
D Conveyors
Answer Key: C
Q78
:
Break-even point does not depend on
A Fixed cost
B Variable cost
C Overheads
D Revenue
Answer Key: C
Q79 Decision of plant location will depend on
:
A Transport facility
B Availability
C Social infrastructure
D Types of Machines employed
Answer Key: D
Q80
:
Job shop production comprises of
A Special purpose machines
B Uninterrupted movement of material
C Less job instructions
D Large inventory of materials, tools and parts
Answer Key: D
Q81
:
A system comprising of a single phase, is known as
A Open system
B Closed system
C Homogeneous system
D Heterogeneous system
Answer Key: C
Q82
:
The measurement of temperature is based on
A Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B Firs law of thermodynamics
C Second law of thermodynamics
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q83
:
A process, in which no heat is added or rejected and entropy is not constant is called
A Isothermal
B Isentropic
C Polytropic
D Adiabatic
Answer Key: D
Q84
:
In an isothermal process, internal energy
A Increases
B Remains constant
C Decreases
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q85
:
In Carnot cycle, the algebraic sum of the entropy changes for the cycle is
A Positive
B Negative
C Zero
D Depends on temperature of sink
Answer Key: C
Q86
:
Rankine cycle efficiency for a power plant is 29%. The carnot cycle efficiency will be
A 15%
B 25%
C 29%
D None of these
Answer Key: D
Q87
:
For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle as compared to Otto cycle is
A Less
B More
C Equal
D Depends on operating temperature
Answer Key: A
Q88
:
Thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio 5.5, will be
A 25%
B 50%
C 55%
D 100%
Answer Key: B
Q89
:
With decrease in cut-off ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remains constant
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q90
:
In a vapour compression refrigeration plant, if the condenser temperature increases, the power input to the
compressor will
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain the same
D Be unpredictable
Answer Key: B
Q91
:
The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
A Centigrade
B Celsius
C Kelvin
D Fahrenheit
Answer Key: C
Q92
:
Heat transferred to a system at a constant pressure is equal to
A Work transfer
B Change in internal energy
C Change in enthalpy
D Change in entropy
Answer Key: C
Q93
:
In an irreverisible process there is
A Heat loss
B Heat gain
C No heat loss
D No transfer of heat
Answer Key: B
Q94
:
The more effective way of increasing the efficiency of a Carnot engine is to
A Increase the higher temperature
B Increase the lower temperature
C Decrease the lower temperature
D Decrease the higher temperature
Answer Key: C
Q95
:
A domestic refrigerator of 0.75 tonne capacity is found to have a Co-efficient of performance of 7.5 It's power
consumption is
A 750 W
B 550 W
C 350 W
D 150 W
Answer Key: C
Q96
:
The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is known as
A Metacenter
B Centre of pressure
C Centre of buoyancy
D Centre of gravity
Answer Key: B
Q97
:
Centre of pressure on an inclined plane is
A At the centroid
B Above the centroid
C Below the centroid
D At metacentre
Answer Key: C
Q98
:
In steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is
A Constant
B Variable
C Zero
D Negative
Answer Key: C
Q99
:
Bernoulli"s equation can not be applied when the flow is
A Rotational
B Turbulent
C Unsteady
D All options are correct
Answer Key: D
Q100
:
Separation of flow occurs due to reduction in pressure gradient to
A Zero
B Negligibly low value
C The extent such that vapour formation starts
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q101
:
Thickness of laminar boundary layer at a distance X from the leading edge over flat plate varies as
A X2
B X3
C X1/2
D X4/5
Answer Key: C
Q102
:
Thickness of turbulent boundary layer at a distance X from the leading edge over flat plate varies as
A X4/5
B X5/4
C X2/5
D X5/3
Answer Key: C
Q103
:
Rotameter is used for measuring
A Density of fluids
B Velocity of fluid in pipes
C Viscosity of fluids
D Discharge of fluids
Answer Key: D
Q104
:
The locus of elevations that water will rise in a series of pitot tube is called
A Hydraulic grade line
B Pressure Head
C Energy grade line
D Head loss
Answer Key: C
Q105
:
The flow of water in a pipe of diameter 3000 mm can be measured by
A Venturimeter
B Rotameter
C Pitot tube
D Orifice plate
Answer Key: C
Q106
:
In laminar flow, maximum velocity at the center of pipe is how many times to the average velocity ?
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Half
Answer Key: A
Q107
:
The velocity distribution in the turbulent boundary layer follows
A Straight line law
B Parabolic law
C Hyperbolic law
D Logatithmic law
Answer Key: D
Q108
:
Euler's number is the ratio of
A Inertia force to elastic force
B Inertia force to gravity force
C Inertia force to buoyant force
D Inertia force to pressure force
Answer Key: D
Q109
:
For supersonic flow, increase in flow area
A Decreases velocity
B Does not cause any change
C Increases velocity
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q110
:
A Perfect black body is the on which
A Absorbs all incident radiations
B Reflects all incident radiations
C Is coated with lamp black
D Absorbs most of the incident radiations
Answer Key: A
Q111
:
For a given heat flow and for the same thickness, the temperature drop across the material will be maximum for
A Copper
B Steel
C Glass-wool
D Refractory brick
Answer Key: C
Q112
:
How can radiation heat transfer between two surfaces be reduced ?
A By introducing radiation shield between the surfaces
B By bringing surfaces closer together
C By polishing surfaces
D All options are correct
Answer Key: A
Q113
:
Three metal walls of the same cross-sectional area having thermal conductivities in the ratio 1:2:4, transfer heat at
the rate of 6000 kJ/hr. For the same wall thickness, the temperature drop will be in the ratio
A 1:2:4
B 1:1/2:1/4
C 1/4:1/2:1
D 1:1:1
Answer Key: B
Q114
:
For steady flow and constant value of conductivity, the temperature distribution for a plane wall is
A Parabolic
B Linear
C Logarithmic
D Cubic
Answer Key: B
Q115
:
When two refrigerants are mixed in proper proportions, the mixture forms a third refrigerant called
A Auxiliary refrigerant
B An azeotrope
C Synthetic refrigerant
D None of these
Answer Key: D
Q116
:
In grey body, rate of emission is
A Less than one
B Equal to one
C More than one
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q117
:
Wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by
A Wein’s law
B Stefan’s law
C Kirchoff’s law
D Planck’s law
Answer Key: A
Q118
:
Relation between emissive and absortive power of a body is given by
A Wein’s law
B Stefan’s law
C Kirchoff’s law
D Planck’s law
Answer Key: C
Q119
:
The total emissive power of a surface is 500 W/m2 at a temperature T1 and 1200W/m
2 at a temperature T2, where
the temperatures are in Kelvin. Assume the emissivity of the surface to be constant, the ratio of the temperature
T1/T2 is
A 0.308
B 0.416
C 0.803
D 0.874
Answer Key: C
Q120
:
In the dimensionless Biot number, the characteristic length is the ratio of
A Perimeter to surface area of solid
B Surface area to perimeter of solid
C Volume of solid to its surface area
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q121
:
One tonne of refrigeration is equivalent to
A 1.5 kW
B 2.5 kW
C 3.5 kW
D 5 kW
Answer Key: C
Q122
:
In a refrigeration cycle, the moisture is to be removed before it enters the
A Cold side of the system
B Evaporator
C Compressor
D Condenser
Answer Key: C
Q123
:
In sensible cooling process, specific humidity of the system
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remains constant
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q124
:
In spray humidification process, total heat
A Remains same
B Decreases
C Increases
D Unpredictable
Answer Key: A
Q125
:
In a refrigeration cycle, the heat is absorbed by a refrigerant in a
A Evaporator
B Condenser
C Compressor
D Expansion valve
Answer Key: A
Q126 In a psychometric chart, vertical lines indicate
:
A Dry bulb temperature
B Wet bulb temperature
C Dew point temperature
D Relative humidity
Answer Key: A
Q127
:
Taking B as bypass factor in sensible cooling or heating of air, the coil efficiency is equal to
A B-1
B 1-B
C B+1
D 1/B
Answer Key: B
Q128
:
Cooling of air, without any change in its specific humidity, is called
A Sensible heating
B Humidification
C Dehumidification
D Sensible cooling
Answer Key: D
Q129
:
Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest boiling point?
A R-134a
B R-407c
C R-410a
D R-417a
Answer Key: C
Q130
:
Which of the following refrigerant has minimum ozone depletion potential?
A R-11
B R-12
C R-22
D R-134a
Answer Key: D
Q131
:
The ignition quality of diesel is expressed by its
A Cetane number
B Octane number
C Calorific value
D Flash point
Answer Key: A
Q132
:
The thermal efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with decrease in
A Compression ratio
B Cut-off ratio
C Pressure ratio
D Ratio of specific heats
Answer Key: B
Q133
:
The thermal efficiency of Otto cycle increases with increase in
A Compression ratio
B Pressure ratio
C Adiabatic index
D All options are correct
Answer Key: D
Q134
:
An example of forced circulation boiler is
A Cochran boiler
B Lancashire boiler
C Babcock and Wilcox boiler
D Lamont boiler
Answer Key: D
Q135
:
Which of the following is water tube boiler
A Cochran boiler
B Lancashire boiler
C Babcock and Wilcox boiler
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q136
:
In case of reaction steam turbine
A There is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
B There is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
C There is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
D There is no enthalpy drop
Answer Key: A
Q137
:
The refrigerant commonly used in commercial ice plants
A CO2
B Air
C Ammonia
D Freon-12
Answer Key: C
Q138
:
The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of steam through a nozzle
when steam is initially dry saturated is
A 0.6
B 0.578
C 0.555
D 0.5457
Answer Key: B
Q139
:
The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially dry saturated at inlet is approximated by
equation
A pv=c
B pv1.4=c
C pv1.3=c
D pv1.135=c
Answer Key: D
Q140
:
For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is
A 25%
B 50%
C 60%
D 100%
Answer Key: B
Q141
:
Economisers are used to heat
A Air
B Feed water
C Flue gases
D All options are Correct
Answer Key: B
Q142
:
Function of air pump in condenser is to
A Remove water
B Maintain vacuum
C Remove condensate
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q143
:
With suction pressure being atmospheric, increase in delivery pressure with fixed clearance volume
A Increases volumetric efficiency
B Decreases volumetric efficiency
C Does not change
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q144
:
ISO-octane content in a fuel for SI engine
A Accelerates auto ignition
B Retards auto ignition
C Does not affect auto ignition
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q145
:
Reference fuels for knock rating of SI engine fuels would include
A ISO-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
B Normal octane and aniline
C ISO-octane and n-heptane
D ISO-octane and n-hexane
Answer Key: C
Q146
:
How many storage locations are available when a memory device has twelve address lines?
A 4096
B 512
C 144
D 2048
Answer Key: A
Q147
:
What is object in C++?
A Object is part of syntax of a class
B Object is data type of a class
C Object is an instance of a class
D Object is function of a class
Answer Key: C
Q148
:
In an unsaturated air the state of a vapour is
A Wet
B Superheated
C Saturated
D Unsaturated
Answer Key: A
Q149
:
Which of the following approach is followed by Object Oriented Language during the execution of a program?
A bottom up approach
B Top down approach
C Random approach
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q150
:
Which Memory looses its content when power is lost
A Nonvolatile
B Static
C Volatile
D Random
Answer Key: C
State Forest Service Examination - 2014
(Provisional Model Answer Key)
Civil Engineering
Q1 : If the modulus of elasticity is zero, the material is said to be
A Rigid
B Elastic
C Flexible
D Plastic
Answer Key: D
Q2 : If the cross – section of a member is subjected to a uniform shear stress of intensity ‘q’, then the strain energy stored per unit volume is equal to
A 2q2 / G
B 2G / q2
C q2 / 2G
D G /2q2
Answer Key: C
Q3 : During tensile testing of a specimen using Universal Testing Machine, the parameters actually measured include
A Poisson’s ratio and Young’s modulus
B True stress and strain
C Engineering stress and engineering strain
D Load and deflection
Answer Key: D
Q4 : For a given material, the modulus of rigidity is 100 GPa and poisson’s ratio is 0.25. The value of modulus of elasticity in GPa is
A 125
B 150
C 200
D 250
Answer Key: D
Q5 : In stress – strain curve, the area up to elastic limit of stresses indicates the following mechanical property
A Ductility
B Strength
C Resilience
D Endurance
Answer Key: C
Q6 : The maximum bending moment due to a moving point load on a fixed ended beam occurs
A One of the supports
B Always at the mid span
C Under the load only
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q7 : The shape of the bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its length is
A A straight line
B A hyperbola
C An ellipse
D A parabola
Answer Key: D
Q8 : The point of contraflexure is a point where
A Shear force changes sign
B Bending moment changes sign
C Shear force is maximum
D Bending moment is maximum
Answer Key: B
Q9 : A 10 m long simply supported beam carries a point load at a distance of 2 m from the left support where the reaction is 10 kN. The BM at the centre of the beam will be
A 50 kN-m
B 12.5 kN-m
C 10.0 kN-m
D 7.5 kN-m
Answer Key: B
Q10
:
The ratio of flexural strengths of two square beams one placed with two sides horizontal and the other placed on its
edge (with one diagonal being vertical and other being horizontal) is
A
B
C
D 1/
Answer Key: A
Q11
:
Shear stress in a beam having triangular cross – section is maximum at
A Extreme top fibre
B Mid depth
C Neutral axis
D Extreme bottom fibre
Answer Key: B
Q12
:
The maximum stress intensity due to a suddenly applied load is x – times the stress intensity produced by the load of
the same magnitude applied gradually where ‘x’ is equal to
A 1/2
B 1
C 2
D 4
Answer Key: C
Q13
:
The radius of Mohr’s circle of stress of a strained element is 20 N/mm2. The minor principal tensile stress is 10
N/mm2.
The major principal stress is
A 30 N/mm2
B 50 N/mm2
C 60 N/mm2
D 100 N/mm2
Answer Key: B
Q14
:
The radius of Mohr’s circle gives the value of
A Minimum normal stress
B Minimum shear stress
C Maximum normal stress
D Maximum shear stress
Answer Key: D
Q15
:
Consider the following statements
1) On planes having maximum and minimum principal stresses, there will be no tangential stress
2) Shear stresses on mutually perpendicular planes are numerically equal
3) Maximum shear stress is equal to half the sum of maximum and minimum principal stresses
Select the correct statements.
A 1 only
B 1 and 2
C 2 and 3
D 1, 2 and 3
Answer Key: B
Q16
:
Varignon’s theorem of moments states that
A The arithmetical sum of the moments of two forces about any point is equal to the moment of their resultant about that
point
B The algebraic sum of the moments of two forces about any points is equal to the moment of their resultant about that
point
C The arithmetical sum of the moments of the forces about any point in their plane is equal to the moment of their
resultant about that point
D The algebraic sum of the moments of the forces about any point in their plane is equal to the moment of their resultant
about that point
Answer Key: D
Q17
:
Which of the following statements are correct. Macaulay’s method for calculating of slope and deflection in a beam
is suitable for
1) Prismatic beams only
2) Several concentrated loads can be extended to uniformly distributed loads
3) Both prismatic and non – prismatic beams
A Only 1
B 1 and 2
C Only 3
D 2 and 3
Answer Key: B
Q18
:
Bending moment at any section in a conjugate beam gives in the actual beam
A Bending moment
B Curvature
C Slope
D Deflection
Answer Key: D
Q19
:
The ratio of circumferential stress to longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder subjected to internal hydrostatic pressure is
A 1/2
B 1
C 2
D 4
Answer Key: C
Q20
:
A thin cylinder contains fluid at a pressure of 500 N/mm2, the internal diameter of the shell is 0.6 m and the tensile
stress in the material is to be limited to 9000 N/mm2. The shell must have a minimum wall thickness of nearly
A 23 mm
B 17 mm
C 11 mm
D 9 mm
Answer Key: B
Q21
:
A hollow shaft of inner radius 30 mm and outer radius 50 mm is subjected to a twisting moment. If the shear stress
developed at inner radius of shaft is 60 N/mm2. What is the maximum shear stress in shaft?
A 60 N/mm2
B 75 N/mm2
C 100 N/mm2
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q22
:
If two shafts of the same length, one of which is hollow, transmit equal torque and have equal maximum stress, then
they should have equal
A Polar moment of inertia
B Polar modulus of section
C Angle of twist
D Diameter
Answer Key: B
Q23
:
A close – coiled helical spring of stiffness 4 N/mm is in series with another spring of stiffness 6 N/mm. What is the
stiffness of the composite spring?
A 1.5 N/mm
B 2.4 N/mm
C 4.0 N/mm
D 6.0 N/mm
Answer Key: B
Q24
:
Rankine – Gordon formula for buckling is valid for
A Slenderness ratio < 80
B Slenderness ratio < 100
C Slenderness ratio < 140
D Slenderness ratio having any value
Answer Key: D
Q25
:
If diameter of a long column is reduced by 20%, the Euler’s buckling load reduces to nearly
A 0.41 of original load
B 0.51 of original load
C 0.59 of original load
D 0.64 of original load
Answer Key: D
Q26
:
A bar of length L and uniform cross – sectional area A is subjected to a pull P. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of
the bar material is E, the expression for strain energy stored in the bar will be
A (PL2/AE)
B (P2L/AE)
C (PL2/2AE)
D (P2L/2AE)
Answer Key: D
Q27
:
Strain energy in a member is
A Directly proportional to strain
B Directly proportional to changes in strain
C A function of strains as well as stress
D A function of loads only
Answer Key: B
Q28
:
If there are ‘m’ unknown member forces, ‘r’ unknown reaction components and ‘j’ number of joints, then the degree
of indeterminacy of a pin – jointed plane frame is given by
A m + r + 2j
B m – r + 2j
C m + r – 2j
D m + r – 3j
Answer Key: C
Q29
:
The carry over factor in a prismatic member whose far end is fixed
A -1
B 1
C 0
D 1/2
Answer Key: D
Q30
:
Consider a prismatic beam of span ‘L’ and flexural rigidity ‘EI’. The moment required to rotate its near end through
a unit angle without translation, the far end being hinged, is given by
A (3EI/L)
B (4EI/L)
C (2EI/L)
D (EI/L)
Answer Key: A
Q31
:
A uniformly distributed load, whose length is shorter than the span, crosses a simply supported beam from left to
right. The maximum bending moment occurs at a section when
A The load remains only on the left of the section
B The load remains only on the right of the section
C The section divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span
D Half of the load remains to the left of the section and the other half on the right of section
Answer Key: C
Q32
:
The ordinates of influence line diagram for bending moment always have the dimension of
A Length
B Force
C Moment
D Force / length
Answer Key: A
Q33
:
The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply supported girder
A Always occurs at the centre of the span
B Always occurs at the point of contraflexure
C Always occurs at a distance equal to depth of the girder from the support
D Always occurs under a wheel load
Answer Key: D
Q34
:
In a two hinged arch an increase in temperature induces
A Minimum bending moment at the crown
B Uniform bending moment in the arch rib
C No bending moment in the arch rib
D Maximum bending moment at the crown
Answer Key: D
Q35 Calculate the number of unknown reactions in the following portal frame considering all members of the frame have uniform flexural rigidity.
:
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 6
Answer Key: A
Q36
:
The portal method of structural analysis is generally suitable for
A Tall buildings
B Low – rise buildings
C Low - rise buildings with uniform framing only
D Low - rise buildings with non – uniform framing only
Answer Key: B
Q37
:
Consider the following methods of analysis
1) Slope deflection method
2) Three – moment equations method
3) Column analogy method
4) Kani’s method
Which of the above method(s) are not the displacement method of structural analysis ?
A 1, 2 and 3
B 2 and 4
C Only 2
D Only 3
Answer Key: D
Q38
:
Consider the following assumptions in the analysis of a plane truss
1) The individual members are straight
2) The individual members are connected by frictionless hinges.
3) The loads and reactions act only at the joints
4) External loads act uniformly over the length of each member perpendicular to its axis
Which of the above assumptions are valid
A 1, 2 and 3 only
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 2 only
D All the four
Answer Key: A
Q39
:
Force in the member BC of the truss shown in the following figure is
A 5t, tensile
B Zero
C (10/ )t, tensile
D 5t, compressive
Answer Key: D
Q40
:
A propped cantilver beam of span L is loaded with uniformly distributed load of intensity w/unit length, all through
the span. The bending moment at the fixed end is
A (wL2/24)
B (wL2/8)
C (wL2/12)
D wL2
Answer Key: C
Q41
:
Two beams of equal cross – sectional area are subjected to equal bending moment. If one beam has circular cross –
section and the other has square cross – section, then
A Beam with circular section will be stronger
B Beam with square section will be stronger
C Both the beam will be equally strong
D The strength of the beam will depend on the nature of holding
Answer Key: B
Q42
:
An ideal fluid is
A Compressive and gaseous
B Incompressible and frictionless
C One which obeys perfect gas laws
D One which has viscosity
Answer Key: B
Q43
:
The viscosity of
A Liquids increases with temperature rise
B Gases increases with temperature rise
C Gases decreases with temperature rise
D Liquids remains constant with temperature change
Answer Key: B
Q44
:
If the capillary rise in a 3 mm tube is 10 mm, the height of capillary rise in a 1.0 mm tube in the same liquid will be
A 10/3 mm
B 10 mm
C 30 mm
D 0.3 mm
Answer Key: C
Q45
:
A water container has floating block of ice. When the ice block continue to melt, the water level in the container
A Falls
B Rises
C First falls and then rises
D Remains the same
Answer Key: D
Q46
:
The centre of pressure for a rectangular plane surface immersed vertically in a liquid
A Coincides with the centre of gravity
B Lies above the centre of gravity
C Lies below the centre of gravity
D Is not related to the centre of gravity
Answer Key: C
Q47
:
A U-tube mercury monometer is open to both ends. If water of 6.8 cm height is added in one limb, the difference in
mercury levels at equilibrium will be
A 0.5 cm
B 1.0 cm
C 2.0 cm
D 6.8 cm
Answer Key: A
Q48
: An open cubical (each side = 2.0 m) tank is initially filled with water. If the tank is accelerated with acceleration g
on a horizontal plane along one of its sides then the volume of spilled water with respect to its initial volume will be
A 0
B 1/3
C 1/2
D 2/3
Answer Key: B
Q49
:
In a steady flow
A Streamlines and pathlines are identical but are different from streaklines
B Streaklines and pathlines are identical but are different from streamlines
C Streamlines, streaklines and pathlines are different from each other
D Streamlines, streaklines and pathlines are all identical
Answer Key: D
Q50
:
A two dimensional flow in xy plane is irrotational if
A
B
C
D
Answer Key: B
Q51
: The stream function in a two dimensional flow field is given by the magnitude of velocity at point (1,0)
in x-direction will be
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 0.5
Answer Key: D
Q52
:
For pipe flow case, the energy correction factor is
A More for laminar flow than turbulent flow
B Less for laminar flow than turbulent flow
C Same for laminar flow and turbulent flow
D Sometimes less and sometimes more for laminar flow in comparison for turbulent flow
Answer Key: B
Q53
:
For laminar flow through a pipe case, the momentum correction factor is
A 1.0
B 4/3
C 3/2
D 2.0
Answer Key: B
Q54
:
A pitot tube at any point measures
A Velocity
B Discharge
C Energy
D Force
Answer Key: A
Q55
:
The dimensions of dynamic viscosity
A M1L -1 T
-1
B M0L 2 T
-1
C M1L -1 T
-2
D M1L 1 T
-1
Answer Key: A
Q56
:
The dimensions of Manning's roughness coefficent are
A Dimensionless
B M0L 1/3 T
1
C M0L 1/2 T
-1
D M0L 1 T
0
Answer Key: B
Q57
:
A hydranlic structure is to be studied by a 1/5 scale model. An area of 100 m2 in the prototype will become in the
model as
A 500 m2
B 100 m2
C 20 m2
D 4 m2
Answer Key: D
Q58
:
The Reynold's Number for flow of an oil in a pipe is 400. The friction factor for this flow is
A 0.10
B 0.16
C 0.20
D 0.40
Answer Key: B
Q59
:
The head loss in laminar flow through uniform circular pipe varies
A Linearly with velocity of flow
B Linearly with discharge
C inversely with (diameter)4
D All options are correct
Answer Key: D
Q60
:
In laminar flow between two fixed parallel plates, the shear stress is
A Maximum at centre and zero at plates
B Constant throughout between plates
C Zero all through between plates
D Zero at center and maximum at plates
Answer Key: D
Q61
:
In a turbulent flow through a pipe the centreline velocity is 2.286 m/s and the friction factor f = 0.01. The mean
velocity of the flow is
A 1.143 m/s
B 1.715 m/s
C 2.0 m/s
D 1.524 m/s
Answer Key: A
Q62
:
In a fully rough turbulent pipe flow the friction factor f is a function of
A Both Reynold's number and relative roughness
B Reynold's number only
C Relative roughness only
D Neither Reynold's number nor relative roughness
Answer Key: C
Q63
:
In the Moody Diagram the values of f for turbulent flow are based on
A Hazen-William pipe flow formula
B Colebrook- White data on commercial pipe
C Data on non-uniform sand grains coated to a pipe
D Nikuradse's uniform sand grains data
Answer Key: B
Q64
:
Two identical pipes of length L, diameter D and friction factor f are connected in parallel between two points. The
length of a single pipe of diameter D and friction factor f, equivalent to the parallel system is
A L/4
B L/2
C L/
D
Answer Key: A
Q65
: A rectangular channel of 1.0 m width carries water at m
3/s under critical condition. The specific energy for
this flow is
A 2 m
B 3 m
C 1 m
D 1.5 m
Answer Key: C
Q66
:
In a rectangular channel the depth of flow is 1.6 m and the specific energy at that section is 2.7 m. The flow is
A Subcritical
B Critical
C Supercritical
D Not possible
Answer Key: C
Q67
:
At critical depth the discharge is
A Minimum for a given specific energy
B Maximum for a given specific energy
C Minimum for a given specific force
D Maximum for a given specific force
Answer Key: B
Q68
:
A best hydraulic rectangular channel section has bed width equal to 10.0 m, then corresponding depth of flow will be
A 5 m
B 10 m
C 15 m
D 20 m
Answer Key: A
Q69
:
A rectangular channel of 4.0 m bed width carries a discharge at depth of flow 2.0 m. If bed slope of channel is 1 in
100 and Manning roughness coefficient is 0.01, the discharge is
A 8.0 m3/s
B 80 m3/s
C 10.0 m3/s
D 100 m3/s
Answer Key: A
Q70
:
The pre jump Froude Number in a horizontal rectangular channel is 10. The sequent depth ratio for this hydraulic
jump is about
A 10
B 12
C 14
D 16
Answer Key: C
Q71
:
The error due to bad ranging is
A Cumulative, positive
B Cumulative, negative
C Compensating
D Multiplicative
Answer Key: C
Q72
:
Ranging is the process of
A Fixing ranging rods on extremities of the survey area and fixing the position of the third rod
B Aligning the chain in a straight line between two extremities of the survey area
C Taking offsets from a chain line between two extremities of the survey area
D Taking offsets from a chain line between two intermediate points within the survey area
Answer Key: A
Q73
:
Which one of the following is an obstacle to ranging
A Rivulet
B Hillock
C Swamp
D Lake
Answer Key: B
Q74
:
If the true bearing a line PQ is 2680 30' , then the azimuth of the line PQ is
A 10 30'
B 880 30'
C 910 30'
D 2680 30'
Answer Key: A
Q75
:
If the forbearing of a line PQ is 350 and that of line QR is 25
0, then the included angle between the lines is
A 600
B 1500
C 1700
D 1900
Answer Key: C
Q76
:
Which one of the following statements is correct
A The prismatic compass gives whole circle bearing of a line whereas, the surveyor's compass gives quadrantal bearing
B Prismatic compass as well as surveyor's compass, both give whole circle bearing of a line
C Prismatic compress as well as surveyor's compass, both give quadrantal bearing of a line
D The prismatic compass gives quadrantal bearing of a line whereas, the surveyor's compass gives whole circle bearing
Answer Key: A
Q77
:
Theodolite is an instrument used for
A Measurement of horizontal angles only
B Measurement of vertical angles only
C Measurement of both horizontal as well as vertical angles
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q78
:
The two-peg test for a dumpy level is used for
A Adjustment of the level tube
B Adjustment of the cross hair ring
C Adjustment of the line of collimation
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q79
:
One of the fundamental principles of surveying is
A Location of a point by measurement from at least one reference point
B Working from part to whole
C Working from whole to part
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q80
:
The rise fall method of levelling provides a complete check on
A Back sight
B Intermediate sight
C Fore sight
D All options are correct
Answer Key: D
Q81
:
With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube
A Decreases
B Increases
C Remains unaffected
D May remain same or decrease depending upon the changes in temperature
Answer Key: B
Q82
:
The correction for refraction as applied to the staff reading is (Where, d is the horizontal distance between the points,
and R is the radius of earth)
A
B
C
D
Answer Key: A
Q83
:
Contour interval is
A Inversely proportional to the scale of the map
B Directly proportional to the scale of the map
C Directly proportional to the flatness of the ground
D Larger for accurate work
Answer Key: A
Q84
:
Benchmark is
A Is a relatively permanent point of reference whose elevation with respect to some assumed datum is known
B Is the permanent point of reference at the mean sea level
C A temporary point where the surveying instrument is set for making observations
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q85
:
In setting up the plane table at a station "S" the corresponding point on the plan was not accurately centered above
"S". If the displacement of "S" was 20 cm in a direction at right angles to the ray, how much on the plan would be
the consequent displacement of a point from its true position, of the scale is 1 cm =2 meters ?
A 0.1 mm
B 1.0 mm
C 2.0 mm
D 10.0 mm
Answer Key: B
Q86
:
Which of the two methods are generally used for locating plane table stations
I Radiation
II Traversing
III Intersection
IV Resection
The correct answer is
A I and II
B III and IV
C II and IV
D I and III
Answer Key: C
Q87 One of the major advantages of plane tabling based survey is
:
A It is particularly useful in magnetic areas
B It is particularly suitable in rainy season and in wet climate
C It is particularly suitable in case large scale accurate work is required
D All options are correct
Answer Key: A
Q88
:
The representative fraction 1/5000 means that the scale is 1 cm equal to
A 0.5 m
B 5.0 m
C 50 m
D 25.0 m
Answer Key: C
Q89
:
The sag correction in chain survey is always
A Negative
B Positive
C Zero
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q90
:
The point of curve is
A The point of intersection of back tangent and forward tangent
B The point from which the alignment changes from a tangent to the curve
C The point from which the alignment changes from a curve to the tangent
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q91
:
Tangent length (T) of a simple circular curve (if R is the radius of the curve and is the external deflection angle
between the two tangents) can be calculated as
A T = 2R sin ( /2)
B T = R-R cos ( /2)
C T = R tan ( )
D T = R tan ( /2)
Answer Key: D
Q92
:
Which of the following instrument is used for measuring the area of plan of any given shape?
A Alidade
B Tachometer
C Aerometer
D Planimeter
Answer Key: D
Q93
:
A closed contour line with one or more higher contour lines inside it represents
A Hill
B Depression
C Plane surface
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q94
:
For a closed traverse the sum of the internal included angles in degrees must be (where n is number of lines or
number of angles)
A (2n) x 90
B (2n-4) x 90
C (2n-2) x 90
D (2n-3) x 90
Answer Key: B
Q95
:
The magnetic bearing of a line is 480 30' . What is the true bearing if the magnetic declination is 5
0 40' east?
A 540 10'
B 420 50'
C 530 10'
D 420 10'
Answer Key: A
Q96
:
Which of the following can not be a source of local attraction
A Magnetite in the ground
B Wire carrying electric current
C Tall trees
D Underground iron pipe
Answer Key: C
Q97
:
A fully saturated soil is
A One phase system
B Two phase system with soil and air
C Two phase system with soil and water
D Three phase system
Answer Key: C
Q98
:
The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil is known as
A Air content
B Voids ratio
C Porosity
D Percentage air voids
Answer Key: C
Q99
:
The plasticity index is zero for soil type
A sand
B Slit
C Clay
D Silty Clay
Answer Key: A
Q100
:
The most accurate method for the determination of water content of soil is
A Sand bath method
B Over drying method
C Pycnometer method
D Calcium carbide method
Answer Key: B
Q101
:
The measure of particle size range is
A Effective size
B Coefficient of curvature
C Uniformity coefficient
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q102
:
Mixing of silt in clay results to
A Decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index
B Decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index
C Decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index
D Increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index
Answer Key: C
Q103
:
The equivalent Hydraulic conductivity
A Parallel to stratification is always greater than that normal to stratification
B Parallel to stratification is always less that than normal to stratification
C Is always same in both direction
D Parallel to stratification is less for some soils and more for other soils than that normal to stratification
Answer Key: A
Q104
:
Along a phreatic line in an earthen dam
A Velocity potential varies linearly with elevation
B Stream function remains constant
C Velocity potential remains constant
D Both (velocity potential varies linearly with elevation) and (stream function remains constant)
Answer Key: D
Q105
:
The most suitable method of drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is
A Deep well system
B Electro - osmosis method
C Well point system
D Vacuum method
Answer Key: B
Q106
:
Rate of consolidation
A Is unaffected by hydraulic conductivity of soil
B Is independent of temperature
C Increases with decrease in temperature
D Increases with increase in temperature
Answer Key: D
Q107
:
Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
A Drum roller
B Sheep foot roller
C Rubber typed roller
D Vibratory roller
Answer Key: D
Q108
:
The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is
A Directly proportional to the compression index
B Directly proportional to the void ratio
C Inversely proportional to the compression index
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q109
:
With increasing in the amount of compaction energy
(OMC is optimum moisture content and MDD is maximum dry density)
A OMC increases but MDD decreases
B OMC decreases but MDD increases
C Both OMC and MDD increase
D Both OMC and MDD decrease
Answer Key: B
Q110
:
Unconfined compressive strength test is
A Drained test
B Undrained test
C Consolidated drained test
D Consolidated undrained test
Answer Key: B
Q111
:
The angle that coulomb's failure envelope makes with the horizontal is equal to
A Cohesion
B Angle of repose
C Angle of internal friction
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q112
:
If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the inclination of the cracks with horizontal
is
A 00
B 22.50
C 450
D 600
Answer Key: C
Q113
:
In the triaxial compression test, the application of deviator stress on the soil specimen produces shear stress on
A Horizontal plane only
B Vertical plane only
C Both horizontal and Vertical planes
D All planes except horizontal and vertical planes
Answer Key: D
Q114
:
In Rankine's Theory of earth pressure, the back of wall is assumed as
A Vertical and smooth
B Vertical and rough
C Plane and smooth
D Plane and rough
Answer Key: A
Q115
:
For a loose sand (angle of internal friction =300 ), the coefficient of active earth pressure is
A 3
B 1
C 1/2
D 1/3
Answer Key: D
Q116
:
Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is
A Greater than both active and passive earth pressures
B Greater than active earth pressure but less than passive earth pressures
C Less than both the active and passive earth pressures
D Less than active earth pressure but greater than passive earth pressures
Answer Key: B
Q117
:
Cohesive soils are
A Poor for backfill due to large lateral pressure
B Good for backfill due to high shear strength
C Good for backfill due to low lateral pressure
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q118
:
Bishop's method of stability analysis
A Assumes the slip surface as an arc of circle
B Is more conservative
C Neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
D All options are correct
Answer Key: A
Q119
:
Base failure of a finite slope
A Occurs when soil below the level of toe is strong
B Occurs when soil below the level of toe is relatively soft and weak
C Occurs when there is a weak zone is upper part of slope
D Is most common failure and occurs in relatively steep slopes
Answer Key: B
Q120
:
Maximum differential settlement in isolated footings on clayey soils is restricted to
A 20 mm
B 30 mm
C 40 mm
D 50 mm
Answer Key: C
Q121
:
The ultimate bearing capacity at ground surface on a cohesive soil (having c unit cohesion) and for a smooth base
of a strip footing as per Terzaghi's theory is
A 2.57 c
B 5.14 c
C 5.7 c
D 6.2 c
Answer Key: B
Q122
:
Terzaghi's bearing capacity factors are functions of
A Angle of internal friction only
B Cohesion only
C Both Cohesion and angle of internal friction
D Neither Cohesion nor angle of internal friction
Answer Key: A
Q123
:
Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on cohesive soil is
A Uniform throughout
B Less at edges compared to middle
C More at edges compared to middle
D None of these
Answer Key: C
Q124
:
A plate load test is useful to estimate
A Settlement of foundation
B Bearing capacity of foundation
C Both settlement and bearing capacity of foundation
D Neither settlement nor bearing capacity of foundation
Answer Key: C
Q125
:
A foundation is shallow if it
A Rests on the ground surface
B Causes less settlement
C Has low bearing capacity
D Has depth of embedment less than its width
Answer Key: D
Q126
:
A soil having particles of nearly the same size is
A Well graded
B Poorly graded
C Unifomly graded
D Both Well graded and Unifomly graded
Answer Key: C
Q127
:
The soils most susceptible to liquefaction are
A Saturated dense sands
B Saturated fine and medium sands of uniform particle size
C Saturated clays of uniform size
D Saturated gravels and cobbles
Answer Key: D
Q128
:
Permissible settlement is relatively higher for
A Isolated footings on clays
B Isolated footings on sands
C Rafts on clays
D Rafts on sands
Answer Key: B
Q129
:
An anisotropic soil medium has hydraulic conductivities as 2.0 m/day and 8.0 m/day in two perpendicular
directions. The equivalent hydraulic conductivity in isotropic medium, will be
A 2.0 m/day
B 4.0 m/day
C 6.0 m/day
D 8.0 m/day
Answer Key: C
Q130
:
A soil is of medium plasticity as per Atterberg if the plasticity index (PI) is
A 0 < PI < 7
B 7 PI 17
C 17 < PI < 27
D PI 27
Answer Key: B
Q131
:
Uniformity coefficient of a soil is
A Always less than 1
B Always equal to 1
C Equal to or less than 1
D Equal to or greater than 1
Answer Key: D
Q132
:
Darcy's equation is
A Continuity equation
B Momentum equation
C Energy equation
D None of these
Answer Key: B
Q133
:
Fig shows seepage flow from one medium to another medium
The hydraulic condivities k1 and k2 of medium are related as
A k1 > k2
B k1 < k2
C k1 = k2
D None of these
Answer Key: A
Q134 Which of the following is not correct for flow through unconfined aquifer with Dupuit's assumptions
:
A The computed phreatic line is below the actual phreatic line
B There is difference in slope of the pheratic line at entry point
C The seepage face can be estimated
D The difference between computed and actual phreatic lines is more for higher head difference
Answer Key: C
Q135
:
Phreatic line in an earthen dam is
A Straight line
B Circular
C Elliptical
D Parabolic
Answer Key: D
Q136
:
Time factor for a clay layer is
A A dimensionless parameter
B Directly proportional to hydraulic conductivity of soil
C Inversely proportional to drainage path
D Independent of thickness of clay layer
Answer Key: B
Q137
:
If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes is
A 450
B 900
C 1350
D 2250
Answer Key: B
Q138
:
Quartzite is chemically classified as
A Metamorphic rock
B Argillaceous rock
C Calcareous rock
D Silicious rock
Answer Key: D
Q139
:
The timber having maximum resistance against white ants is obtained from
A Chir
B Shisham
C Sal
D Teak
Answer Key: B
Q140
:
A well seasoned timber may contain moisture upto
A 4 to 8%
B 8 to 10%
C 10 to 12%
D 12 to 16%
Answer Key: C
Q141
:
Linseed oil is used in paints as
A Thinner
B Vehicle
C Base
D Dryer
Answer Key: B
Q142
:
Duco is one of the patent forms of
A Emulsion paints
B Plastic paints
C Cellulose paints
D Water based paints
Answer Key: C
Q143
:
Percentage of silica in a good quality brick earth lies between
A 10 and 20%
B 20 and 30%
C 30 and 50%
D 70 and 80%
Answer Key: C
Q144
:
If P is the percentage of water required for normal consistency then, the weight of water to be added for
determination of initial setting time, is
A 0.70 P
B 0.75 P
C 0.80 P
D 0.85 P
Answer Key: D
Q145
:
Soundness of cement refers to
A Free lime content in cement
B Ringing sounds after setting
C Tensile strength of cement
D Rapid Hardening of cement
Answer Key: A
Q146
:
The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns in industrial buildings is
A Raft foundations
B Well foundations
C Grillage foundations
D Isolated footing
Answer Key: C
Q147
:
Width of the land left on sides of a building in a plot as mandated by local laws is called
A Façade
B Setback
C Plinth area
D Floor-space index
Answer Key: B
Q148
:
North-light trusses are preferred in large industrial buildings for
A They give natural diffused light that saves energy
B They give natural direct sunlight that is required for precision work
C They give high amount of positive energy that motivates workers
D They give good aesthetics to building
Answer Key: A
Q149
:
Sum of tread and rise in a staircase must lie between
A 600 and 650 mm
B 500 and 550 mm
C 400 and 450 mm
D 300 and 350 mm
Answer Key: C
Q150
:
The split tensile strength of M15 grade concrete when expressed as a percentage of its compressive strength is
A 25 to 30%
B 20 to 25%
C 15 to 20%
D 10 to 15%
Answer Key: D
