Program: BBI Div.: Roll No.: TYBBI Auditing I

Program: BBI Div.: Roll No.:

TYBBI – Auditing I

Sample Questions

1) Audit conducted between two annual audits is called as ____________.

a. Interim

b. Annual

c. final

d. Non-Statutory

2) ________________ means showing the books of accounts attractive

a. Secret reserve

b. window dressing

c. True and Fair

d. Genuine

3 Auditor must inform the registrar in writing of his acceptance or refusal of the appointment

within _______ from the days from the receipt of appointment of letter

a. 30 days

b. 45 days

c. 35 days

d. 20 days

4 _______________ is a book, which is maintained by audit staff

a. Audit note

b. Working Paper

c. Audit Programme

d. Client’s book

4 _________% of total deposits should be covered under concurrent audit

a. 50

b. 60

c. 70

d. 80

5 _____________ is referred to record of observing, summaries, and comments of auditor

a. Working Paper

b. Audit Programme

c. Audit notebook


d. Annual Report

6. Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?

a) To provide a basis for review of audit work

b) To provide a basis for subsequent audits

c) To ensure audit work is being carried out as per programme

d) To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues

7. The auditor’s permanent working paper file should not normally, include

a) extracts from client’s bank statements

b) past year’s financial statements

c) attorney’s letters

b) debt agreements

8.When the same transaction is recorded twice in the book it is called as Error of ___________.

a. Commission

b. Duplication

c. Compensating

d. Omission

9. Which of the following is not one of the three main reasons why the auditor should properly

plan engagements?

a. To enable proper on-the-job training of employees.

b. To enable the auditor to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence.

c. To avoid misunderstandings with the client.

d. To help keep audit costs reasonable

10. Audit programme is prepared by

a) the auditor

b) the client

c) the audit assistants

d) the auditor and his audit assistants

11. The main object of an audit is ___

a) Expression of opinion

b) Detection and Prevention of fraud and error

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) Depends on the type of audit.


12. A sale of Rs. 50.000 to A was entered as a sale to B. This is an example of _

a) Error of omission

b) Error of commission

c) Compensating error

d) Error of principle

13. Tolerable error, is the maximum monetary error that the auditor is prepared to accept in the

population and still conclude that audit objective has been achieved, is directly related to

a) Sample size

b) Audit risk

c) Materiality

d) Expected error

14. The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on:

a) Related party purchases

b) Related party sales

c) The restatement of sales

d) Omission of a sales transaction from being recorded

15. The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on:




d) Omission of a sales transaction from being recorded.

16.The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on___




d) Omission of a sales transaction from being recorded

17. In India, balance sheet audit is synonymous to-

a) Annual audit

b) Continuous audit


c) Detailed audit

d) Statutory audit

18. Test Checking refers to ____

A. Testing of accounts and records

B. Checking of selected number of transactions

C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries

D. Checking of all transactions record

19. Test checking should not be applied to _______

a. Sales book

b. Purchase book

c. Bank Reconciliation Statement

d. Bills book

20. Examples of non-sampling risk include _________

(a) inappropriate audit procedures

(b) misinterpretation of audit evidence

(c) failure to recognize a misstatement

(d) Audit procedures, Misinterpretation of audit evidence and failure to recognise

21.Which of the following factors is (are) considered in determining the sample size for tests of

control?

(a) Projected error

(b) Tolerable error

(c) Expected error

(d) Tolerable and Expected error

22. Which of the following is more scientific?

(a) Statistical

(b) Non- statistical


(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) Regression

23. Balance sheet audit includes verification of ______

a) Assets

b) Liabilities

c) Income and expense accounts where appropriate

d) Assets, liabilities and Income and Expenses.

24. The audit engagement letter, generally, should include a reference to each of the following

except

a) limitations of auditing

b) responsibilities of management with respect to audit work

c) expectation of receiving a written management representation letter.

d) a description of the auditor’s method of sample selection.

25. If a casual vacancy in the office of auditor arises by his resignation it should only be filled by

the company in a…

a) Board meeting

b) extraordinary general meeting

c) General meeting

d) annual general meeting

26. The use of an audit engagement letter is the best method of assuring the auditor will have

which of the following?

a) Auditor will obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence.

b) Management representation letter

c) Access to all books, accounts and vouchers required for audit purpose

d) Cooperation from other auditors

27. Auditing ends when ______ starts

a. Selling

b. Inventory Valuation

c. Accounting

d. Purchases

28. ________ is the cash purchase related voucher.

a) Cash bill

b) Cash memo


c) Goods inward book

d) Cash bill, Cash memo and Goods inward book

29.______ is a type of voucher.

a) Template voucher

b) Adjustment voucher

c) Reversal voucher

d) Template, Adjustment and Reversal

30. Misstatements can arise from ______.

a) Error

b) Fraud

c) Error and Fraud

d) None of the above

31.A reason to establish internal control is to_____________

a. Have a basis for planning the audit

b. Encourage compliance, reliability and timeless of information

c. Ensure the accuracy, reliability and timeless of information

d. Provide reasonable assurance that the objectives of the organizations are achieved.

32 The following is a component of Internal control

a. Legal environment

b. Organizational structure

c. Control Environment

d. Risk assessment process

33. The sequence of steps in the auditor’s consideration of internal control is as follows___

a) Obtain an understanding, design substantive test, perform tests of control, make a preliminary

assessment of control risk

b) Design substantive tests, obtain an understanding, perform tests of control, make a preliminary

assessment of control risk

c) Obtain an understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control risk, perform tests of

control, design substantive procedures.

d) Perform tests of control, obtain and understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control

risk, design

34. In comparison to the independent auditor, an internal auditor is more likely to be concerned

with


a) cost accounting system

b) internal control system

c) legal compliance

d) accounting system

35. The primary purpose of performing tests of control is to provide reasonable assurance

that____

a) there are no material misstatements due to fraud or error in financial statement

b) accounting system is well documented

c) Written evidence is there to support transactions

d) if internal control is effective

(8

36. The objective of tax audit is to assist the ------ in making the correct income tax assessment of the

assessee concerned

a) Government

b) Commissioner of income

c) CBDT

d) Income tax authorities

37. Vouching helps the auditors to ascertain whether the entries in the book________________, this is the

basic objective of auditing.

(a) True and fair

(b) Only true

(c) Only fair

(d) Not fair and Not true

38. In case of unclaimed wages, the auditor should examine whether-

a) the amount has been deposited in a separate bank account

b) deposited with the cashier

c) held in a safe deposit box

d) Cash book

39. Which of the following is not true about verification of assets?

a) It invoices substantiation of occurrence of transactions

b) Its objective is to establish existence, ownership, possession, valuation, and disclosure of assets

c) The auditor must form an opinion on different aspects


d) All are true

41. Which of the following assets is least likely to be subjected to lien?

a) Freehold land b) Plant and machinery

c) Leasehold property

d) Motor vehicles

42. -------------- of the companies Act 1956 prescribes the duty of preparing a report by an auditor

a. Sec-227(2)

b. Sec-273(1)

c. Sec-224(2)

d. Sec -225(3)

43. Which among the following is an example of intangible asset?

a. Goodwill

b. Land & Buildings

c. Outstanding wages

d. Loan

44. __________________section of Companies Act deals with share Capital

a. 69

b. 60

c. 50

d. 40

45. Verification of assets involves a critical examination of

a. Ownership

b. Valuation

c. Claims

d. Motor Vehicles.

46. KYC means

a) Know your customer

b) Know your character

c) Know your compliance


d) Know your company

47. Reserve Capital is a part of:

(A) Paid-up Capital

(B) Forfeited Share Capital

(C) Assets

(D) Capital to be called up only on liquidation of company

48.Expenses incidental to purchase of fixed assets are_

a . Debited to fixed asset

a. Credited to fixed asset

b. Debited to plant & Machinery

c. Credited to Plant & Machinery

49. Realization from Debtor’s should be as per the ----------- of the concern

a. Credit policy

b. Debit policy

c. Purchase policy

d. Sales policy

50. Share call amount due is credited to ------------------ account

a. Share application account

b. Share allotment account

c. Share capital account

d. Reserve account

Financial Services management

TYBBI Sem V

Question Bank

1. There are _____ parties involved in the contract of pledge.

a. Two

b. Three

c. Five

d. Eight

2. The one who pledges the asset is called as _____.

a. Pawnee

b. Pawnor

c. Depository

d. None pf the given

3. The one who grants a loan against collateral is called as Pawnee :

a. Pawnee

b. Pawnor

c. Depository

d. None pf the given

4. A bank included in the _____ schedule of the RBI Act 1934, is eligible to become depository.

a. First

b. Second

c. Third

d. Fifth

5. NSDL was inaugurated on November, 08 _____.

a. 1996

b. 1997

c. 1998

d. 2000

6. A depository system is governed by _____ act.

a. RBI

b. Banking

c. SEBI

d. IRDA

7. A depository company must have a minimum net worth of ` _____ crore.

a. 50

b. 100

c. 200

d. 300

8. Informal credit is type of

a. Long term credit

b. Conditional credit

c. Credit cards

d. Check trading

9. The person who is having goods in his/her possession known as

a. Middle mens

b. Brokers

c. Factors

d. Del crede agents

10. Cash and carry is the type of

a. Whole sellers

b. Departmental stores

c. Super markets

d. Retailers

11. The compensation given by the insurance company known as

a. Mark ups

b. Premium

c. Profits

d. Tax

12. The third copy of credit card is required to send to the

a. Credit card company

b. Cash account

c. Banks

d. Card holders

13. The entrance fee is necessary for

a. Charge Cards

b. Long term credit

c. Check trading

d. Hire Purchase agreement

14. The person who work on the behalf of a principle known as

a. Middlemen

b. Broker

c. Agent

d. Wholesaler

15. Breaking bulk is the function of

a. Retailers

b. House owners

c. Manufacturers

d. Whole sellers

16. NHB stands for

a. National Housing bank

b. National Housing business

c. Non Housing Business

d. Nagaland Housing Board

17. National Housing Bank was set up on _____.

a. 09 July 1986

b. 09 July 1987

c. 09 July 1988

d. 09 July 1989

18. National Housing Bank was set up on July 9, 1988 under which among the following acts

a. National Housing bank act 1985

b. National Housing bank act 1986

c. National Housing bank act 1987

d. National Housing bank act 1988

19. The National Housing Bank (NHB) was set up in India as a wholly-owned subsidiary of

1. State Bank of India

2. Reserve Bank of India

3. Union Bank of India

4. LIC of India

Unit III

20. The markets in which the derivatives are traded are classified as

1. assets backed market

2. cash flow backed markets

3. mortgage backed markets

4. derivative securities markets

21. The situation in which the large portion of majority is borrowed from the broker of

1. future investment

2. forward investment

3. leveraged investment

4. non-leveraged investment

22. The type of contract which involves the future exchange of assets at a specified price is

classified as :

1. future contracts

2. present contract

3. spot contract

4. forward contract

23. The type of unit which guarantees that all the buying and selling will be made by traders of

exchange is called

1. trading house

2. guarantee house

3. clearing house

4. professional house

24. The example of derivative securities is :

1. return backed security

2. mortgage backed security

3. cash flow backed security

4. interest backed security

25. Financial derivatives include :

1. stocks

2. bonds

3. futures

4. none of the given

26. A contract that requires the investor to buy securities on a future date is called as :

1. short contract

2. long contract

3. hedge

4. cross

Unit II

27. Factoring service is considered only in respect of receivables on account of

1. Debit sales

2. Credit sales

3. Cash Sales

4. Sales returns

28. A mutual fund is not

1. owned jointly by all investors

2. a company that manages investment portfolios of high net worth individuals

3. a pool of funds used to purchase securities on behalf of investors

4. a collective investment vehicle

29. The NAV of each scheme should be updated on AMFI's website

1. every quarter

2. every month

3. every hour

4. every day

30. Mutual funds are allowed to borrow

1. freely to meet their requirements

2. for investment purposes

3. only to meet redemption demands

4. not allowed at all

31. Who among the following are not eligible to invest in MF

1. Indian Companies

2. Banks

3. Non Banking Finance Companies

4. Foreign Citizens

32. What document Mutual Fund distributors need to refer for finding out eligible category of

investors in a particular Mutual Fund Scheme

1. SEBI Regulations Manual

2. AMFI booklet

3. Offer document

4. RBI Guidelines

5.

33. Investments made by a mutual fund on behalf of investors are accounted as

1. Assets

2. liabilities

3. capital

4. Expenses

34. The type of funds whose main objective is to hold an optimal mix of investments among cash,

equities, and income-producing securities is called as

a. Bond Funds

b. Equity Funds

c. Balanced Funds

d. Money Market funds

35. The type of funds whose main objective is to concentrate its holdings in one particular sector,

geographic region, or in one capital market is called as

a. Bond Funds

b. Speciality Funds

c. Equity Funds

d. Balanced Funds

36. Mutual Fund organisation does not involve

a. RBI

b. SEBI

c. Register & transfer agent

d. Asset management companies

37. Which of the following is a type of Factoring

a. General

b. Recourse

c. Specific

d. None of the given

1. Balanced fund

2. Money Market Fund

3. Equity Fund

38. Mutual fund organisations include

1. RBI

2. Central Government

3. State Government

4. Asset management companies

39. Which of the following is a type of factoring

1. General

2. Specific

3. With recourse

4. None of the given

40. Following is a party to factoring transaction

1. Shareholder

2. Drawer

3. Drawee

4. Debtor

Unit I

41. A merchant bank is a financial institution conducting money market activities and

1. Lending

2. Underwriting and financial advice

3. Investment service

4. All of the given

42. Formal merchant banking activity in India was originated in _____.

1. 1969

2. 1979

3. 1989

4. 1999

43. State Bank of India started merchant banking in _____

1. 1973

2. 1974

3. 1975

4. 1976

44. _____% of the GDP is domestic consumption–based.

1. 34

2. 40

3. 50

4. 64

45. Following is importance of Financial services.

a. Maximizes Return

b. Minimises Risks

c. Promotes Savings

d. All of the given

46. Following is the Non fund based Service

a. Leasing

b. Factoring

c. Hire Purchase

d. Issue management

47. Following is a Fee based Service

a. Leasing

b. Hire purchase

c. Factoring

d. Issue management

48. A mutual fund scheme has INR 1 crore as total assets under management with zero liabilities.

It has a total of 1,00,000 unit outstanding as of 31st march 2020. Calculate the NAV as on 31st

march 2020.

a. INR 10

b. INR 0.10

c. INR 1

d. INR 100

49. Mr Natvarlal purchase 1000 units of a mutual fund scheme with INR 100 lakhs as total assets

under management and a NAV of INR 10. What will be the total AUM of the scheme after

the investment made by Mr. Natvarlal

a. INR 99 lakhs

b. INR 101 Lakhs

c. INR 100 Lakhs

d. INR 200 Lakhs

50. Mr A is 36 years of Age and is the only earning member of his family consisting of his

Parent ( father aged 64 years & mother aged 59 years ) , his wife Aarti aged 32 years. He also

has a son, Raul aged 8 years. His total Annual income is 10 lakh P.A. as per you what should

be the appropriate life Insurance cover Mr A should have

a. INR 10 lakhs

b. INR 100 Lakhs

c. INR 1 Lakhs

d. INR 0 lakhs

TYBBI SEMESTER V

International Banking and Finance

(Sample Questions)

1) The Gold Standard System was popularized by __________

a. Bank of England

b. Bank of America

c. Bank of London

d. Bank of India

2) The US Federal Reserve Bank gave a ____________ Clause which stated an

unconditional guarantee to buy and sell unlimited.

a. Currency Convertibility

b. Forex Convertibility

c. Purchase Power Parity

d. Gold Convertibility

3) IBM India, a software company, which is initially based in the United States, but has

opened its subsidiaries in different parts of India. This is an example of _________.

a. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

b. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)

c. Debt Flows

d. All of them

4) Statement A - GDR holders do not acquire any voting rights.

Statement B - GDR eliminates the equity funding risk.

a. Statement A is true and B is false

b. Statement B is true and A is false

c. Both statements are true

d. Both statements are false

5) Which of the following is NOT a derivative?

a. Futures

b. Options

c. Spot

d. Swaps

6) Since gold is traded in both New York and Tokyo stock exchanges. As soon as gold

becomes cheaper in Japanese market, Mr.A buys it in Tokyo stock exchange and

straight away sells in New York stock exchange to make a profit. In this case, Mr.A

will be ___________

a. Speculator

b. Hedger

c. Arbitrager

d. Broker

7) __________ can be done through derivatives.

a. External hedging

b. Internal hedging

c. Speculation

d. Arbitrage

8) __________ refers to the risk that a government may default on its debt obligations. It

is based on a government’s inability to meet loan obligations.

a. Sovereign risk

b. Exchange risk

c. Location risk

d. Economic risk

9) Statement A: In International Trade, there is a wider choice available for selection of

product.

Statement B: No country is self-sufficient in its resources, it has to depend upon trade

with other countries.

a. Both statements are false

b. Both statements are true

c. Statement A is true and B is false

d. Statement B is true and A is false

10) Bitcoin mining is the process of creating new bitcoin by solving a computational

puzzle, also called as ___________

a. Hashing

b. dry run

c. hexa decimal

d. proof of work

11) In BOP, the difference between merchandise trade and invisible trade is known as

___________________.

a. Balance of merchandise

b. Balance of invisible trade

c. Balance of trade

d. None of them

12) The Smithsonian Agreement was abandoned in March __________

a. 1978

b. 1973

c. 1971

d. 1970

13) Out of the total Eurocurrency transactions which happens in the world, almost 1/3rd

share of the Eurocurrency market is focused upon __________

a. Washington

b. London

c. New York

d. Tokyo

14) Kangaroo Bonds are the foreign bonds floated/issues in ___________.

a. USA

b. UK

c. Japan

d. Australia

15) All the contracts in the foreign exchange market, must bear the clause – “subject to

the rules and regulations of the ____________”

a. Foreign Exchange Management Act

b. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act

c. Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India

d. World Bank

16) __________is a centralised establishment, usually of a commercial bank, which is

always willing to make/offer a two-way dealing price for different currencies

a. Clearing house

b. Dealing room

c. Authorised Dealer

d. Head office

17) Calculate the Cross quote for EUR-GBP if EUR/USD is 1.1740 and USD/GBP is

0.7815

a. 0.9177

b. 0.9174

c. 0.9213

d. 0.9166

18) Options which provide the buyer the right to sell the specified foreign currency are

called as __________

a. Put option

b. Call option

c. Throw option

d. Risk option

19) Statement A: A crypto currency implies a virtual or advanced cash utilizing

cryptography in order to guarantee security.

Statement B: Bitcoins can only be obtained by the process of mining.





20) Statement A: NRE A/c is a Rupee denominated account, means funds are maintained

in INR

Statement B: Funds cannot be transferred from NRO A/c to NRE A/c





21) Statement A: A BOP is prepared according to the principles of double entry system of

book-keeping.

Statement B: In practice, a BOP will always tally.

a. Both statements are False

b. Both statements are True



22) The left-hand side of BOP shows the _________________ of the country

a. Payments

b. Receipts

c. Assets

d. Liabilities

23) __________ means the currency of a country can be freely converted into foreign

exchange at market determined rate of exchange that is, exchange rate as determined

by demand for and supply of a currency.

a. Currency Convertibility

b. BOP Equilibrium

c. BOP Disequilibrium

d. Fixed Exchange Rate System

24) The Bretton Woods System was used during the years __________

a. 1801-1815

b. 1816-1914

c. 1915-1944

d. 1945-1971

25) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Gold Standard System?

a. It is much easier to implement than any other standard system

b. Gold standard provides currency which is universally acceptable

c. Gold standard cannot be secretly tampered by the independent will of the

government

d. It is an expensive standard and a luxury which all the countries cannot afford

26) The __________ emerged from a 1944 conference attended by 40 nations and aims to

standardize international monetary exchanges and policies in a broader effort to

nurture post World War II economic stability.

a. Gold Standard System

b. Flexible Exchange Rate System

c. Bretton Woods system

d. Managed Flexibility

27) The joint venture between SBI and BNP Paribas to form SBI Life Insurance is an

example of __________



c. Foreign Institutional Investors (FII)

d. IPO

28) A foreign company invests in the shares of Infosys (based in India) is an example of

__________



c. Debt Flows

d. All of them

29) Statement A: Euro Dollar, Euro Yen, Euro Rupee etc. are examples of Eurocurrency

deposits

Statement B: Eurocurrency deposits are accepted only in European countries

a. Both statements are True

b. Both statements are False



30) The major participant in Eurocurrency market is ___________

a. Corporates

b. Commercial Bank

c. Private Individuals

d. Government

31) _______ can be described as a negotiable derivative instrument, traded on a US

exchange, issued by a US bank, representing specified number of shares of a foreign

company, always denominated in US dollars and are issued only to US residents.

a. GDR

b. IDR

c. ADR

d. None of them

32) LIBOR stands for _____________________________________

a. London Interbank Operating Rate

b. London Interbank Offer Rate

c. London International bank Operating Rate

d. London International Bank Offer Rate

33) The other name for foreign exchange market is ____________

a. Forex market

b. FX market

c. currency market

d. All of them

34) __________ are derivative instruments that give a choice to a foreign exchange

market operator to buy or sell a foreign currency on or up to a date (maturity date) at a

specified rate (strike price).

a. Options

b. Swaps

c. Futures

d. Forwards

35) FEMA came into effect from ________

a. June 1, 1998

b. June 1, 1999

c. June 1, 2000

d. June 1, 1973

36) The management of foreign exchange market becomes necessary in order to prevent

and avoid _______

a. Trade

b. Foreign Exchange

c. Risks

d. Hedging

37) In practice, the settlement of a transaction takes _______ days in a Spot market.

a. T+0

b. T+1

c. T+2

d. T+3

38) __________ is the simultaneous buying and selling of foreign currencies with

intention of making profits from the difference between the exchange rate prevailing

at the same time in different markets.

a. Swap

b. Option

c. Future

d. Arbitrage

39) __________ the risk, _______ is the returns

a. Higher, lower

b. Higher, higher

c. More, less

d. Greater, same

40) Translation risk is also called as __________

a. Balance sheet risk

b. Profit & Loss risk

c. Transaction risk

d. Economic risk

41) __________ can be defined as the business risk arising out of changes in the

economic environment.

a. Transaction risk

b. Economic risk

c. Position risk

d. Market risk

42) A ____________ can be stated as an agreement between a buyer and a seller in which

the buyer acquires a right but not a compulsion to buy or sell specific quantity of

foreign currency on or before a fixed future maturity date at a predetermined price.

a. Forward contract

b. Future contract

c. Option contract

d. Swaps contract

43) __________ identifies imbalances that exists in a cross-border investment. It monitors

the potential for these risks to decrease the expected return of a cross-border

investment.

a. Investment Risk Analysis

b. Potential Risk Analysis

c. Country Risk Analysis

d. Market Risk Analysis

44) __________ refers to the risk that a government may default on its debt obligations. It

is based on a government’s inability to meet loan obligations.

a. Sovereign risk

b. Exchange risk

c. Location risk

d. Economic risk

45) The risk arising on currency rate fluctuations adversely which might lead to loss to

either party in transaction is _____________

a. Economic risk

b. Tolerable risk

c. Handling risk

d. Currency risk

46) Statement A: There is a lot of competition for market share among International

Banks

Statement B: Globalisation of banks has paved the way for expanding business

horizons abroad





47) Which of the following is a fintech company in India?

a. Paytm

b. PhonePe

c. PolicyBazaar

d. All of them

48) Abbreviation of Bitcoin cryptocurrency is _________

a. BTC

b. BTS

c. CTC

d. OTC

49) __________ is a process used by companies to turn raw data into useful information

by using software to look for patterns in large batches of data.

a. Blockchain

b. Algorithm

c. Data mining

d. Cryptocurrency

50) Statement A: There are almost 88% of bitcoins issued in the world.

Statement B: Today almost 900 bitcoins are added every day.





Research Methodology

Research is search for __________

A. Solution

B. Answer

C. Knowledge

D. Fun

Applied research is ____________.

A. Result Oriented

B. Solution Oriented

C. Customer Oriented

D. Observation Oriented

___________ research establishes cause and effect relationship

A. Descriptive

B. Explanatory

C. Causal

D. Applied

Two variables are called __________ Variables.

A. Dependent

B. Independent

C. Continuous

D. Distinct

Qualitative research is ______________

A. Economical

B. Costly

C. Profitable

D. Cheaper

Research design is a ____________ of the whole research activity.

A. Blueprint

B. Plan

C. Structure

D. Strategy

_____________ hypotheses establish no relationship among variables.

A. Complex

B. Null

C. Analytical

D. Causal

Sampling involves both design choice and ________ size.

A. Research

B. Sample

C. Qualitative

D. Design

In __________ sampling method, sample units are selected at random.

A. Probability

B. Non – probability

C. Snowball

D. Cluster

__________ is obtained by selecting ‘convenient’ population unit.

A. Judgment sample

B. Convenient sampling

C. Probability sampling

D. Snowball Sampling

__________ is a type of non-random sampling and is also called purposive sampling or deliberate

sampling.

A. Judgment sample




__________ is a non-probability samples in which selection of additional respondents is based on

referrals from the initial respondents.

A. Judgment sample




__________ methods are those in which every item in the universe has a known chance, or

probability, of being chosen for the sample.

A. Judgment sample




__________ creates the foundation of the entire research work.

A. Research design

B. Data collection

C. Sample Design

D. Research topic

__________ is determined before data are collected.

A. Research design

B. Data collection

C. Sample Design

D. Research topic

__________ is any process of preparing and collecting data.

A. Research design

B. Data collection

C. Sample Design

D. Research topic

__________ is research done simply to find out something by examining anything.

A. Basic or Pure research

B. Applied research

C. Descriptive research

D. Analytical research

___________ is a specific type of research that involves critical thinking skills and the evaluation of

facts and information relative to the research being conducted.

A. Basic or Pure research

B. Applied research

C. Descriptive research

D. Analytical research

Observation method gathers ___________ data.

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

D. Both Primary and Secondary

In _______________ observation subjects do not know they are being observed.

A. Disguised

B. Undisguised

C. Structured

D. Unstructured

______________ is the procedure to test questionnaire.

A. Editing

B. Piloting

C. Coding

D. Communicating

_______________ data is also known as recorded data from published sources.

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

D. Both Primary and Secondary

Response rate is __________ in personal interview technique.

A. Lowest

B. Highest

C. Limited

D. Restricted

Experimental method of data collection is ____________ and ___________.

A. Costly and lengthy

B. Quick and economical

C. Easy and safe

D. Accurate and speedy

Sample is a small representative of the _____________ population.

A. Total

B. Whole

C. Majority

D. Specific

In Multiple choice questions, choice given restricted to _____________.

A. Few alternatives

B. Large alternatives

C. Many alternatives

D. Unlimited alternatives

Pilot questionnaire is followed by _____________ questionnaire.

A. Final

B. First

C. Second

D. Second pilot

The method of collecting data through mailing of questionnaires to respondent is called

____________.

A. Mail survey

B. specific survey

C. general survey

D. Internet survey

___________ questionnaires are those in which the questions are definite.

A. Mixed

B. Structured

C. Unstructured

D. Open end

In __________ fixed alternatives answers are given so respondent can choose appropriate one.

A. Open end

B. Structured

C. Unstructured

D. Closed question

_____________ questions are designed to allow free response on the subject where the issue is

identified.

A. Mixed

B. Structured

C. Unstructured

D. Open end

Data processing does not consist of _____.

A. Editing

B. Coding

C. Tabulation

D. Analysis

While editing the following point must be scrutinized

A. Whether the data is reliable and accurate

B. Whether all questions have been answered

C. Whether all the schedules are uniform

D. Whether the data is reliable and accurate, whether all questions have been

answered, whether all the schedules are uniform.

One of the essentials of coding is __________

A. Table Number

B. Title of the Table

C. Sub-Title

D. One specific code

______________ refers to the task of drawing inferences from the collected facts after an

experimental study.

A. Analysis

B. Interpretation

C. Coding

D. Editing

Interpretation of the data has become a very important because of ________________.

A. More understanding

B. findings the reasons

C. in-depth knowledge

D. More understanding, findings the reasons, in-depth knowledge

______________ refers to statistically describing, aggregating, and presenting the constructs of

interest or associations between these constructs.

A. Qualitative Analysis

B. Quantitative Analysis

C. Descriptive Analysis

D. Inferential Analysis

Coded data can be entered into__________.

A. Spreadsheet

B. Database

C. Text file

D. Spreadsheet, Database, Text file

__________ examines how two variables are related to each other.

A. Univariate analysis

B. Bivariate analysis

C. Correlation Analysis

D. Causal Analysis

__________ compares a sample mean to a known population mean.

A. Paired Samples T-Test

B. One-Sample T-Test

C. ANOVA technique

D. F-test

__________ compares two sample means from the same population regarding the same variable at

two different times.

A. Paired Samples T-Test

B. One-Sample T-Test

C. ANOVA technique

D. F-test

Data processing is the conversion of ______________ to meaningful information.

A. Primary data

B. Secondary data

C. Raw data

D. Statistical data

________________ is the process of eliminating errors.

A. Editing

B. Coding

C. Tabulation

D. Analysis

_________________ saves time during data analysis

A. Editing

B. Coding

C. Tabulation

D. Analysis

Editing of data is a ______________ job.

A. Research

B. Academic

C. Critical

D. Easy

Interpretation is the _____________ of the research process.

A. Basis

B. Climax

C. Ground

D. Start

_____________ is the middle value.

A. Mean

B. Median

C. Mode

D. Regression

A statistical tool with the help of which we can find the degree of relationship that exists between

two or more variables is technically called _____________.

A. Correlation

B. Regression

C. Causation

D. Coefficient of determination

The correlation of a sample is represented by the letter ______________.

A. q

B. r

C. m

D. x

If there is no correlation between the two variables, then it is called _______________.

A. Positive correlation

B. Negative correlation

C. Zero correlation

D. Weak correlation

The range of possible values for a correlation is between___________.

A. -1 to +1

B. 0 to + 1

C. -1 to + 0

D. -2 to +1

_____________is a statistical method with the help of which we can estimate value of one variable

for the given value of the other variable.

A. Digression

B. Correlation

C. Regression

D. Causation

Application of regression is found in _________________.

A. Predictive Analytics

B. Operation Efficiency

C. Supporting Decisions

D. Predictive Analytics, Operation Efficiency, Supporting Decisions

Factor analysis is a technique that requires a _______________________.

A. Large sample size

B. Small sample size

C. Medium sample size

D. Few samples size

_________________ is used when we believe that the sample units come from an unknown number

of distinct populations or sub-populations.

A. Factor Analysis

B. Cluster Analysis

C. Multidimensional Analysis

D. Predictive Analytics

_________________ is a multivariate method which aims to classify a sample of subjects.

A. Factor Analysis

B. Cluster Analysis

C. Multidimensional Analysis

D. Predictive Analytics

_____________________the last activity of the research process.

A. Research design

B. Sample design

C. Report writing

D. Drawing Conclusions

A research report provides _____________ about a particular matter or subject.

A. Consolidated

B. Factual

C. up-to-date information

D. Consolidated, Factual, up-to-date information

A written format of a research work is known as ________________.

A. Research design

B. Sample design

C. Research report

D. Drawing Conclusions

A main body of report includes _____________.

A. Bibliography

B. Appendix

C. Analysis of the problem

D. Copies of data collection instruments

Title page includes ________.

A. Name of the candidate

B. Submission Month & Year

C. Title of the thesis

D. Name of the candidate, Submission Month & Year, Title of the thesis

Reference material includes ________.

A. Bibliography

B. Appendix

C. Copies of data collection instruments

D. Bibliography, Appendix, Copies of data collection instruments

____________includes the acknowledgement to the persons and sources that have been helpful to

the investigator.

A. Preface

B. Table of Contents

C. List of Tables

D. Preface, Table of Contents, List of Tables

____________ lists all the main chapter headings and the essential sub-heading in each with the

appropriate page numbers against each.

A. Preface


C. List of Tables


____________ consists of the titles or captions of the tables included in the thesis along with the

page number where these can be located.

A. Preface


C. List of Tables


____________ is the last section of the research report.

A. Introduction

B. Review of literature

C. Analysis

D. Conclusion

Technical report is ________________.

A. Difficult to understand

B. Easy to understand

C. Complicated to understand

D. Lengthy to understand

_____________ is designed for publications in a professional journal.

A. Preface

B. Report

C. Research abstract

D. Research article

_________________ constitute the heart of research report.

A. Introduction

B. Recommendations

C. Findings

D. Conclusions

Research abstract is a summary of _______________ report.

A. Research

B. Technical

C. Audit

D. Popular

Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given

below:

List - I (Interviews) List - II (Meaning)

(a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility approach

(b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the questions to be answered

(c) Focused interviews (iii) individual life experience

(d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question

(v) non-directive

a. a – iv b – i c – ii d – iii

b. a – ii b – iv c – i d – iii

c. a – v b – ii c – iv d – i

d. a – i b – iii c – v d – iv

. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?

(I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.

(II) to discover new things.

(III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.

(IV) to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources with

objectivity.

a. IV, II and I

b. I, II and III

c. I and III

d. II, III and IV

From the list given below identify those which are called Non-probability sampling

procedures’:

(i) Simple random sampling

http://www.netugc.com/

(ii) Dimensional sampling

(iii) Snowball sampling

(iv) Cluster sampling

(v) Quota sampling

(vi) Stratified sampling

Choose the correct option

a. (i), (ii) and (iii)

b. (ii), (iv) and (V)

c. (i), (iii) and (V)

d. (ii). (iii) and (V)

The components of a research design are:

(a) Comparison

(b) Control

(c) Reactivity

(d) Manipulation

(e) Non representativeness

(f) Generalization

a. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

b. (a), (c), (e) and (f)

c. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

d. (a), (b), (d) and (f)

. In the list given below, identify those statements which correctly describe the meaning and

characteristics of research.

(i) Research is a method of improving our common sense.

(ii) Deductive and inductive methods get integrated in a research process.

(iii) Research is creativity and charisma. www.netugc.com (iv) Research is the use of scientific method to provide answers to meaningful questions.

(v) Method of consulting and using experience is called research.

(vi) The answers provided by research can be empirically verified.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

a. (ii), (iv) and (vi)

b. (i), (ii) and (iii)

c. (iv), (v) and (vi)

d. (i), (iii) and (v)

. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates

their characteristics. Match the two and given your answer by selecting the appropriate code.

Set – I (Research types) Set – II (Characteristics)

(a) Fundamental research (i) Finding out the extent of perceived impact of an intervention

(b) Applied research (ii) Developing an effective explanation through theory building

(c) Action research (iii) Improving an existing situation through use of interventions




(d) Evaluative research (iv) Exploring the possibility of a theory for use in various

situations

(v) Enriching technological resources

a. a – ii b – iv c – iii d – i

b. a – v b – iv c – iii d – ii

c. a – i b – ii c – iii d – iv

d. a – ii b – iii c – iv d – v

Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is

relatively greater?

(1) Preparing research summary

(2) Presenting a seminar paper

(3) Participation in research conference

(4) Participation in a workshop

Which of the following is the most likely code book entry for a three point satisfaction scale?

a. 1= satisfied, 10= very satisfied, 100= extremely satisfied

b. 1= satisfied, 2= extremely satisfied, 3=extremely dissatisfied

c. 1= dissatisfied, 3= satisfied, 5= very dissatisfied

d. 1=dissatisfied, 2= neither dissatisfied or satisfied, 3= satisfied

‘Please circle your main mode of transport to university: 1: Walk, 2: Bicycle, 3: Bus; 4: Train;

5: Car, 6: Other’. This question is _________.

A. An open-ended quantitative question

b. A closed categorical question

c. An open-ended qualitative question

d. Neither open ended nor close ended

Strategic Management (Question Bank)

MCQ – 50

1) The process of collecting scrutinizing and providing information for strategic

purposes are called ----

a) Strategy Evaluation

b) Strategy Formulation

c) Environmental Scanning

d) Environmental Mapping

2) ____implies making a strategy work as intended or putting the organization’s

chosen strategy into action.

a) Strategy implementation

b) Environmental scanning

c) Strategy evaluation

d) Strategy formulation

3) ____refers to the organizational arrangements, formal relationships, and

hierarchy.

a) Systems

b) Structure

c) Shared values

d) Strategy

4) -------are units or products that have both a low market share and a low growth

rate.

a) Cash Cows

b) Question marks

c) Stars

d) Dogs

5) -------------is formulated at the top level by the top management.

a) Corporate level strategy

c) Business Level Strategy

b) Functional Level Strategy

d) Operational Level Strategy

6)____finance refers to all funds raised to promote party activity and promote candidates.

a) Political

b) Campaign

c) Marketing

d) Business

7) Making a proper use of funds is the social responsibility of business to _____

a) Shareholders

b) Suppliers

c) Customers

d) Government

8) _____ are the positive competencies of a firm as compared to its competitors in

different functional areas.

a) Profit margins

b) Goodwill

c) Capital

d) Strengths

9) ____is used to test the waters before continuing with a full-fledged strategy.

a) No change strategy

b) Profit strategy

c) Stability strategy

d)Pause/proceed with caution strategy

10) _____is selection of the best strategic option that helps to achieve organization’s

objectives.

a) Strategic choice

b) Strategic implementation

c) Strategic formulation

d) Strategic evaluation

11) Microenvironment does not include _____

a) mission

b) management structure

c) human resource

d) Customers

12) ______ is concerned with the managerial exercise of executing a chosen strategy

that is putting the strategy into action for achieving objectives.

a) Strategic analysis

b) Strategic Implementation

c) Strategic choice

d) Strategic analysis

13) By _____ managers ensure that the required actions are working as expected.

a) Strategic Articulation

b) Strategic Validation

c) Strategic Monitoring

d) Strategic engagement

14) ____indicates how much income should flow in each period.

a) Profitability standards

b) Market position standard

c) Productivity standards

d) Product leadership standards

15) ________ focusses on the set of interrelated activities performed in sequence for

producing and marketing a product and service.

a) Quantitative Analysis

b) Value chain analysis

c) Qualitative analysis

d) Comparative Analysis.

16) -------------is formulated at the middle level by the heads of various departments.

management.

a) Corporate level strategy

b) Business Level Strategy

c) Functional Level Strategy

d) Operational Level Strategy

17) _____strategies are pursued when a company’s product lines are performing

poorly because of weak competitive position or general decline in industry or

markets.

a) Retrenchment

b) Expansion

c) Combination

d)Stability

18) -------is a process of systematically surveys and interprets relevant data to

identify external opportunities and threats

a) Strategy Evaluation

b) Strategy Formulation

c) Environmental Scanning

d) Environmental Mapping

19) ____involves sale of same products in new market.

a) Market penetration

b) Market development

c) Product development

d) Product introduction

20)) ------ is a law to protect employee.

a) The MRTP Act

b) Consumer Credit Act

c) The Factory Act

d) The competition Act

21) The beliefs customs practices and behaviours of people comes under ------

environment

a) Ecological

b) Social

c) Legal

d) Economic

22) Evolution of the software and the rapid advances in field of telecommunication is

a part of ------environment

a) Ecological

b) Social

c) Legal

d) Technological

23)_____is building consensus within the team responsible for delivery of the

strategy about the outcomes to be achieved.

a) Strategic Articulation

b) Strategic Validation

c) Strategic communication

d) Strategic engagement

24) Avoiding artificial scarcity of products is a part of social responsibility of

business to _____

a) Employees

b) Suppliers

c) Customers

d) Government

25) Expansion through _______strategy requires a lot of cash.

a) Concentration

b) Integration

c) Digitalization

d) Diversification

26) _____involves the integration of businesses operating at the same level or

acquisition of one or more competitors.

a) Backward integration

b) Horizontal integration

c) Vertical integration

d) Forward integration

27) ______is an association of business units from the same or different industries

with a view to accomplish certain well-defined objectives like market control,

creation of monopoly, elimination of competition.

a) Concentration

b) Integration

c) Digitalization

d) Diversification

28) Anything that a firm does especially well compared to rival firms is referred to as

a) Competitive advantage

b) Comparative advantage

c) An external opportunity

d) Opportunity cost

29) _____ is an analytic tool to determine those organizations in an industry who

have a similar strategic characteristic, follow similar strategies.

a) Strategic group analysis

b) Experience curve analysis

c) Corporate parenting analysis

d) Life cycle analysis

30) Effective ____is essential for accomplishing the organisational goals.

a) teamwork

b) results

c) sales

d) actions

31) _____is the capacity, location, layout, and service design etc.

a) Production system

b) Operation planning

c) Research and development

d) Operational level

32) ____structure is set up so that each portion of the organization is grouped

according to its purpose.

a) Functional

b) Divisional

c) Strategic Business Unit

d) Matrix

33) The problem of limited resources within a firm makes _____ particularly important as

the firm decides how to allocate its resources.

a) Long-range planning

b) Short-term planning

c) Strategy formulation

d) Strategy implementation

34) Formal systems are adopted to bring _____ & amalgamation of decentralized units into

product groups.

a) Manpower

b) Co-ordination

c) Production

d) Recruitment

35) The two most critical questions that _____ strategy must address are how a company

will achieve its objectives today, when other firms may be competing to satisfy the same

customer's needs and how the firm plans to compete in the future.

a) Corporate

b) Functional

c) Operational

d) Business

36) Leader as a _____ is responsible to provide strategic direction to the organization.

a) decision maker

b) organizer

c) guide

d)motivator

37) Which environment is special teams, political issues, legal changes, macro, and

technology trends?

a) Internal

b) Industry

c) General external

d)Global

38) Leader as a _____ does the basic function of planning and working of strategies.

a) decision maker

b) organizer

c) guide

d)motivator

39) Leader as a _____ has the responsibility to study the situation and find the gap

between current and desired state.

a) decision maker

b) analyst

c) guide

d)motivator

40)______is the correct order of steps in the strategic control process.

a) Taking corrective action, determine what to control, Set standards, Measurement

of standards and Analysis of Variance

b) Determine what to control, set standards, Measurement of standards, Analysis of

Variance and Taking corrective action.

c) Determine what to control, taking corrective action, Set standards, Measurement


d) Set standards, taking corrective action, determine what to control, Measurement


41) ___________Benchmarking involves businesses or operations from within the

same organization.

a) External

c) Performance

b) Process

d) Internal

42) ___________Benchmarking is used by successful high performers to improve a

business’s high performance.

a) External

c) Performance

b) Strategic

d)Process

43) Which level is the lowest level of strategy?

a) CEO

b) Business

c) Functional

d) Operations

44) ________aims at evaluating whether the plans, programmes and projects are

guiding the organizations towards the predetermined objectives or not.

a) Implementation Control

b) Premise Control

c) Strategic Surveillance

d) Special Alert control

45) ___________Benchmarking involves comparison of organizational performance

of industry with other organization in the similar industry.

a) External

c) Performance

b) Process

d) Internal

46) ___________Benchmarking involves identifying how other organizations perform

same functional task.

a) External

c) Performance

b) Strategic

d)Process

47) ___________Benchmarking involves identification and analyses of the best

practitioners elsewhere in the world.

a) Domestic

c) Performance

b) International

d) Internal

48) _______provides information and experience to the strategist to prepare new

plans.

a) Benchmarking

b) Strategic Evaluation

c) Gap analysis

d) Strategy Formulation

49) _________control is concerned with whether the organization is doing the right

thing.

a) Traditional control

b) Informational control

c) Behavioural control

d) Contemporary control

50) ______is designed to observe wide range of events within and outside the

organization that are likely to affect the organization’s strategy.

a) Implementation Control

b) Premise Control

c) Strategic Surveillance

d) Special Alert control

TY BBI

Semester V

Business Ethics and Corporate Governance

Sample Question Paper

1. ________ refer to person’s personal or self created values and code of conduct. a) Personal ethics b) Professional ethics

c) Managerial ethics d) Business ethics

2. ________ is the principles and rules dictated by upper management in an organization

a) Personal ethics

b) Professional ethics c) Managerial ethics

d) Business ethics

3. ________ is a code of conduct in dealing of one person with another person a) Regulatory ethics

b) Transaction ethics c) Recognition ethics

d) Social ethics

4. ________ is applicable for an organisation engaged in foreign trade. a) International Trade

b) Domestic Trade c) Local Trade

d) Country Trade

5. _______ is a free market in which many buyers and sellers are present. a) Oligopoly

b) Monopoly c) Monopolistic

d) Perfect competition

6. Information technology act has been introduced in _____

a) 2001 b) 2205

c) 2000 d) 2006

7. ______ is the first country to ratify the Marrakesh Treaty 2013 for Access to copy

right works for visually impaired person. a) China

b) India c) Japan

d) USA

8. Ethical practice goes beyond obeying the ______

a) Values b) Principles

c) Virtues d) Law

9. Which ethics affect family, relations, and finances ?

a. Personal

b. Managerial

c. Professional

d. Management

10. For business________, business ethics is compulsory.

a. Survival

b. Leader

c. Satisfaction

d. Growth

11. ________ theory based on Consequences of happiness

a) Utilitarian b) Fairness

c) Deontological d) Emotional

12. The term deontology derived from Greek word deon means______

a) Goodness b) Happiness

c) Duty d) Moral

13. ______ approach treat everyone equally regardless of their status

a) Common good b) Fairness

c) Virtual d) Utilitarian

14. ______ theory is consequences based.

a) Utilitarian b) Fairness

c) Deontological d) Emotional

15. _______ objectives are given importance than lower order objectives.

a) Higher b) Lower

c) Middle d) Higher and Middle

16. Gandhian trusteeship aimed at reforming_______ society

a) Socialist b) Capitalist

c) Economist d) Democratic

17. Puffery advertisement are ______ a) ethical

b) unethical c) Neither ethical nor unethical

d) Accepted by Advertising council of India 18. _______ practice is unfair in International Trade

a) Dumping

b) Trade fair c) Promotional

d) Technological transfer. 19. Picturing women as a home maker in advertisement

is an example of _________

a) Surrogate advertisement

b) Puffery advertisement c) Stereotype advertisement

d) Exaggeration

20. Marketing Mix means__________

a. Product, Price , Promotion , Place

b. Product , Plan, Price, Promotion

c. Praise, Product, Place , Promotion

d. Promotion, Place . Praise, Praise

21. Considering the rights of all stake holders and giving equal treatment is called

_______ feature of Corporate Governance a) Accountability

b) Fairness c) Responsibility d) transparency

22. _________ helps to avoid scam

a) Corporate Governance b) Management Committee c) Internal Audit

d) Board of Directors 23. Which is not the core principles of Corporate Governance ________

a) Accountability b) Fairness c) Responsibility

d) Planning of strategy 24. Deceptive price is ________________

a) Trade practice b) Ethical c) Unethical

d) Immoral

25. ______ theory of CG based on the principle of self motivation and self interest.

a) Agency b) Shareholder theory

c) Stakeholder theory d) Stewardship theory

26. Intrinsic values are the values which are related to _____ a) goals of an individual

b) goals of society c) goal of the group, d) goal of an organisation)

27. Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary objective of a

business organization?

a. To make a profit

b. To procure resources

c. To communicate with shareholders

d. To meditate between the Organization and the environment.

28. Ethics in Free and Perfect Market means_________.

a. Anybody can dominate the market

b. No single buyer or seller can dominate the market

c. Powerful organizations can take hold of small organizations

d. There is no Freedom of opportunity and consent for buyers and sellers

29. The full form of CII is _______ _____________ _______. a. Configuration of Indian Industries

b. Constituents of Indian Industries

c. Consolidation of Indian Industries

d. Confederation of Indian Industries

30. Which one of the following is termed as ethical practice in marketing.

a. Misinterpretation

b. Exaggeration

c. Omission

d. Disclosure of facts

31. _____ values help an individual to achieve intrinsic value.

a) Higher order

b) Instrumental value

c) Motivating

d) Ethical

32. ________ values are higher order value

a) Intrinsic

b) extrinsic

c) instrumental

d) Ethical

33. Bible, Quran, Geeta are called as _______

a) Religious text

b) Epics of India

c) Scriptures

d) manuscripts

34. Audit committee consists of ______directors.

a) dependent directors,

b) independent

c) executive

d) non – executive

35.Board of directors are responsible for implementing________ responsibility.

a) economical

b) social

c) fiduciary

d) welfare

36. Dividend is declared in _______

a) Annual General Meeting b) class meeting c) Statutory meeting

d) special Annual General Meeting 37. Securities and Exchange Board of India has been set up in ______

a) 1990

b)1988

c) 1992,

d) 1995

38. Securities and Exchange Board of India has been set up to protect the interest of issuers,

intermediaries and ________.

(a)company

b) investors,

c) brokers

d) society

39. Prohibition of price rigging is one of the ________ function of SEBI

a) developmental,

b) regulatory

c) protective,

d) administering)

40.SEBI framed code of conduct as a ________function.

a) developmental,

b) regulatory

c) protective,

d) administering)

41. Government of India has introduced the negotiable Instruments Act1881, which

provides for provisions to deal with cases of _________under section 138 to 142.

a. Cheque bounce

b. Check bounce

c. Take Bounce

d. Ted Bounce

42. _________ is defined as any behaviour by which a person intended to gain a dishonest

advantage over another. a. Trend

b. Fraud

c. Scam

d. distrust

43. Cut the Red Tape’- is one of the measures to overcome __________.

a. Poverty

b. Corruption

c. Malpractices

d. Corelation

44. To ensure best practice , organizations need both to measure their ______________

performance and to foster open______.

a. Ethical, Discussion

b. Unethical, Discussion

c. Brain storming , Discussion

d. Ethical dilemma, Discussion

44.____________ is a widely publicized allegation or set of allegations that damage ( or

tries to damage ) the reputation of an Institution ., individual or creed .

a. Scam

b. Scandal

c. Scan

d. Sham

45. During __________ the politicians try to lure the people by offering money and other

things.

a. Festivals

b. Elections

c. Recession

d. Selection

46. Business is extremely a wide term in the business world at _______ as well as ______

level.

a. National ,State

b. State ,District

c. National, International

d. International, Inter-global

47. Ethics are important not only in business but in all aspects of life because it is an

essential part of the foundation on which a _______society is build

a. Uncivilized

b. Civilized

c. Civilian

d. Non –Civilian

48. ___________ business is the oldest and most common mode of economic organization.

a. Private

b. Family

c. Public

d. Corporate

49. India has no _______ detective agency which can investigate with full power and freedom

to expose the corrupt individuals.

a. Dependant

b. Independent

c. Separate

d. Special

50.Punishing corruption is a vital component of any effective ____________ effort.

a. Pro corruption

b. Anti corruption

c. Corruption

d. Co-operative

___________________________________________________________________________

Program: BBI Div.: Roll No.: TYBBI Auditing I

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Transcript of Program: BBI Div.: Roll No.: TYBBI Auditing I