Bank PO General Awareness

1. Name the Karnataka minister who resigned in the wake of the Lokayukta police filing a first information report against him on irregularities related to allotment of land through the Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board (KIADB): 1) Katta Subramanya Naidu 2) N Santosh Hegde 3) Jagmohan Reddy 4) Roshan Baig 5) None of these

2. The opposition parties are demanding JPC of the probe in 2G spectrum scam. JPC stands for 1) Joint Parliamentary Commission 2) Joint Parliamentary Committee 3) Joint Parliamentary Controversy 4) Joint Parties Commission 5) None of these

3. Who has assumed the presidency of the G-20 at the Seoul Summit in Nov 2010? l)HuJintao 2) Julia Gillard 3) Nicolas Sarkozy 4) Angela Merkel 5) None of these

4. The French President Nicolas Sarkozy referred to India's civil liability for nuclear damage law and urged New Delhi to comply with relevant international rules enshrined in the 1) Vienna Convention 2) Paris Convention 3) Lisbon Convention 4) London Convention 5) None of these

5. Richard Holbrooke is the US Special Representative for 1) West Asia 2)Myanmar 3) Pakistan & Afghanistan 4) Sri Lanka 5) None of these

6. World AIDS Day is observed on l )Decl 2) Dec 2 3) Dec 3 4) Dec 4 5) None of these

7. Name the President of Mozambique who visited India recently. 1) Armundo Emilio Guebuza 2) Stephen Harper 3) Naoto Kan 4) Felipe Calderon 5) None of these

8. Which country topped the medal tally list in the XIX commonwealth Games held in New Delhi? 1) China 2) India 3) Australia 4) New Zealand 5) None of these

9. Name the woman athlete of Jamaica who was adjudged the best athlete of the XIX Commonwealth Games and was presented David Dixon Award. 1) Natalie DuToit 2) Trecia Smith 3) Florence Griffith-Joyner 4) Marito Koch

5) None of these 10. Which Indian state continues to top the list with an

adult HIV infection prevalence rate of 1.40 per cent? l)Mizoram 2) Andhra Pradesh 3)Nagaland 4) Manipur 5) None of these

11. What isSABLA? 1) Anti-dowry police force 2) A women's organisation fighting for empowerment 3) A women welfare programme launched by the Central

govt 4) A helpline instituted by the National Commission for

Women (NCW) 5) None of these

12. Which of the following is associated with economy? 1) Hindu Growth Rate (HGR) 2) Islamic Saving Rate (ISR) 3) Sikh Deposit Rate (SDR) 4) Christian Investment Ratio (CIR) 5) None of these

13. A new scheme for the health improvement of expectant mothers and ensuring proper nutrition for the newborns has been named as 1) Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana 2) Rajiv Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana 3) Mahatma Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana 4) Kasturba Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana 5) None of these

14. The Union Cabinet has decided that street vendors will now enjoy the benefits of cashless-based health insurance scheme. They will be covered by 1) Janshree Bima Yojana 2) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana 3) AamAadmi Bima Yojana 4) Sampoorn Bima Yojana 5) None of these

15. The Union Cabinet on Oct 5, 2010 approved a bill for providing a mechanism to deal with complaints against Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court. Which of the following statements are true about this bill? A. The Bill will mandate judges to declare assets and

liabilities. B. The oversight committee will be headed by a retired

Chief Justice of India. C. The public can lodge complaints against judges with

the national oversight committee. D. The Bill will also require the judges not to have

close association with any member of the bar. l ) O n l y A & B 2 ) O n l y B & C 3 ) O n l y A , B & C 4) All the above 5) None of these

PRACTICE SET- II

16. Name the latest fast-attack craft (FAC) which was inducted by the Indian Navy on Oct 14, 2010 at the Southern Naval Command in'Kochi? l)INSChakra 2) INSKhukri 3)INSAkash 4) INS Kalpeni 5) None of these

17. Which of the following has been raised by the Indian Navy after 26/11 Mumbai terror attack? 1) Sagar Suraksha Bal 2) Sagar Prahari Bal 3) Coast Security Guard 4) Coastal Protection Force 5) None of these

18. Lok Pal Bill is associated with 1) Anti-Corruption 2) Security 3) Bio-diversity 4) Global warming 5) None of these

19. According to the Chief Election Commissioner SY Quraishi, the National Voters' Day will be observed on l ) Jan5 2 ) J a n l 5 3)Jan20 4) Jan 25 5) None of these

20. The 17th Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) Summit in Oct 2010 was held in 1) Singapore 2) Jakarta 3) Hanoi 4) Brunei 5) None of these

21. The fifth East Asia Summit (EAS) in Oct 2010 was held in 1) Hanoi 2) Kualalumpur 3) Laos 4) Yangon 5) None of these

22. Which of the following is the first-ever pollution-control warship? 1) Sagar Manthan 2) Sagar Rattan' 3) Sagar Prahari 4) Samudra Prahari 5) None of these

23. Name the country whose president has appointed Mohamed Abdullahi Mohamed as his prime minister. 1) Ethiopia 2) Somalia 3) Sudan 4) Kenya 5) None of these

24. Who is the author of the book Conversation with Myself! 1) Nelson Mandela 2) Aung Saan Suu Kyi 3) Liu Xiaobo 4) Fidel Castro 5) None of these

25. Which of the following has won the Best Film Award at 57th National Film Awards? 1) Kutty Shrank 2) Lahore 3) Paa 4) Abohoman 5) Putaani Party

26. The central bank in India is 1) Central Bank of India 2) State Bank of India 3) Bank of India 4) Indian Bank 5) Reserve Bank of India

27. Money supply could be increased when 1) RBI purchases govt securities 2) RBI sells govt securities 3) CRR of banks is increased 4) CAR is increased 5) None of these

28. Corporation tax in India is 1) Tax on production by companies 2) Tax on the sales income of the companies 3) Tax on net income of the companies 4) Tax on net savings of the companies 5) None of these

29. The function of money is/are 1) Medium of exchange 2) Measure of value

3) Store of value 4) All of these 5) None of these 30. Which among the following is not a type of inflation?

1) Creeping inflation 2) Walking inflation 3) Running inflation 4) Flying inflation 5) All the above

31. In India, the bankers, bank is 1) IMF 2) World Bank 3) IDBI 4) BIS 5) None of these

32. An appropriate measure of economic development is 1) rate of increase in income 2) improvement in Human Development Index 3) decrease in poverty rate 4) increase in poverty rate 5) increase in life expectancy rate

33. Disinflation means 1) increase in prices in the long run 2) the prices increase due to export 3) the increase in prices is more than average 4) increased prices decrease 5) level of unemployment increases

34. When rate of inflation increases 1) purchasing power of money increases 2) purchasing power of money decreases 3) purchasing power of money remains unaffected 4)All( l ) , (2)and(3) 5) foreign exchange rate increases

35. Under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme guarantee is provided for 1) One person in the family for 100 days in a year 2) Every person in the family for 100 days in a year 3) One person in the family for the whole year 4) Every person for the whole year 5) None of these

36. Devaluation of money means 1) decrease in purchasing power of money 2) icrease in purchasing power of money 3) decrease in external value of money 4) decrease in external reserves of the country 5) None of these

37. Who has been appointed as the new Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)? l)ANTiwari 2) Satyanand Mishra 3) Wajahat Habibullah 4) Meera Shankar 5) None of these

38. What was the rank of India in the medal tally at Guangzhou Asiad? 1) Second 2) Fourth 3) Sixth 4) Eighth 5) None of these

39. WhoisNiiraRadia? 1) A business woman 2) A social activist 3) A corporate lobbyist 4) Apolitician 5) None of these

40. The annual India-European Union (EU) Summit was held inDec2010in 1) London 2) Paris 3) Berlin 4) Brussels 5) None of these

41. Name the public sector undertaking which has topped the list of top 500 Indian companies compiled by the business magazine Fortune. 1)SAIL 2)ONGC 3)NTPC 4) IOC 5) None of these

42. Name the player who was named as the Most Valuable Player at Guangzhou Asian Games. 1) Lin Dan 2) Liu Xiang 3) Sun Yang 4) Tang Yi 5) None of these

43. Who has been appointed as the new chief of Intelligence Bureau (IB)? 1) Neschal Sandhu 2) Kiran Bedi 3) KPS Gill 4) YV Dadwal 5) None of these

44. In how many districts Sabla or Raj iv Gandhi Scheme for Adolescent Girls has been launched as a pilot project? 1)50 2)100 3)200 4)250 5) None of these

45. 1953 Armistice Agreement is associated with 1) North and South Vietnam 2) Afghanistan and Pakistan 3) North Korea & South Korea 4) Bangladesh and Pakistan 5) None of these

46. Name the place in Maharashtra in which a nuclear power proj ect is to be set up in collaboration with a French firm. 1) Pune 2) Jaitpur 3) Ulhasnagar 4) Narayanpur 5) None of these

47. NATO and Afghanistan agreed to the goal of a phased transfer of security responsibility to the Afghan govt by the end of 1)2012 2)2014 3)2020 4)2025 ' 5) None of these

48. The total number of medals won by India in Guagzhou Asian Games was 1)54 2)64 3)75 4)85 5) None of these

49. Who has won the Ashes Humanitarian Award recently? 1) Rohan Bopanna and Aisam-ul-Haq Qureshi 2) Leander Paes and Aisam-ul-Haq Qureshi 3) Leander Paes and Sania Mirza 4) Sania Mirza and Aisam-ul-Haq Qureshi 5) None of these

50. Who has been sworn in as the 32nd chief minister of Bihar for the second consecutive term? 1) Laloo Prasad Yadav 2) Ram Vilas Paswan 3) Nitish Kumar 4) Sushil Kumar Modi 5) None of these

English Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the passage carefully and

answer the questions given below it. All human actions are inspired by some ideas. The mak­

ing of the constitution of a country is also inspired by certain ideas. These are contained in the Preamble to the constitu­tion. Like any other constitution, the Constitution of India begins with an introduction or preface.

The preamble of India speaks about the vision that our

independent nation has set forth to achieve. Very often the preamble of the Indian Constitution is referred to as 'Mirror' of the constitution as it reflects the various aspects of the Constitutional provisions. It came into existence on 26th January 1950 and subsequently changed in 1976. It reads as follows:

We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice - social, economic and political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; Equality - of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all: Fraternity - assuring the dignity of the individual and the Unity and Integrity of the Nation;

\jn our Constituent Assembly this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to Ourselves this Constitution.

Thus the spirit of the Constitution is embodied in the words, "We the people of India .... do hereby adopt enact and give -to ourselves this Constitution": It means that this supreme document of the land has been prepared by the people's representatives and therefore draws its authority from the people with whom the ultimate power rests.

The nature and goals of the constitution are clearly expressed through the words Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, and Republic. In the original Constitution the Preamble stated "Sovereign democratic republic unity of the nation". 5L7 What does the preamble of India speak about?

1) The basic provisions of our constitution 2) The fundamental rights given to us 3) The vision that our nation has set to achieve 4) All the above 5) None of these

52. What did we resolve to constitute India as? 1) As a free independent country 2) As the biggest democratic republic 3) As a republic thich protects no particular religion 4) As a sovereign socialist secular democratic republic 5) None of these

53. What is secured by the Constitution of India to its citizens? 1) Freedom to work and act 2) Justice, Liberty and Equality 3) Freedom of speech, thought and movement 4) All the above 5) None of these

54. When was the constitution of India adopted? l )26Novl950 2)26 Jan 1950 3)26Novl949 4)26Janl949 5) None of these

55. Name the body that adopted the Constitution of India? 1) Parliament of India 2) Constituent Assembly 3) Constituent authority 4) Constitutional body framed for the purpose 5) None of these

57.

58

56. When did the Constitution of India come into existence? l )26Novl949 2)26 Jan 1949 3)15Augl947 4)26 Jan 1950 5) None of these Where does a human action get inspiration from? 1) from society 2) from country 3) from culture 4) from religion 5) None of these What does 'liberty', secured by the constitution of India, mean? 1) liberty of thought 2) liberty of expression 3) liberty of belief and worship 4) All the above 5) None of these

59. Where does the Constitution of India get its authority from? 1) The Parliament 2) Constituent Assembly 3) The people of the country 4) The provisions of the Constitution 5) None of these

60. When were the provisions of the Constitution amended? 1)1949 2)1950 3)1975 4) 1976 5) None of these Directions (Q. 61-65): Rearrange the sentences given

below in a way which would make an appropriate and meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentences and answer the questions given below.

A Even without heating it's warmer in a greenhouse than it's outside.

B. They pass through the panes of glass but cannot get out again. .

C The same increase of air temperature also occurs behind closed windows, for example, in a car.

D. The reason is not that a cold wind might be blowing outside.

E It's because invisible heat rays from the sun bombard us even on cloudy days.

E Once inside, the rays warm the interior. 61. Which will be the 2nd sentence after rearrangement?

1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E 62. Which will be the 3rd sentence after rearrangement?

1)B 2)C 3)D 4)E 5)F 63. Which will be the 4th sentence after rearrangement?

1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D - 5)E 64. Which will be the 5th sentence after rearrangement?

1)B 2)C 3)D 4)E 5)F 65. Which will be the 1st sentence after rearrangement?

1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E Directions (Q. 66-70): Fill up the blanks with the most

suitable pair of words from the options given to make a meaningful sentence. 66. Cellular phone service has in a new

of communication.

1) prevent, from 2) keep, away 3) stop, by 4) restrict, to 5) discourage, for

58. Retirement can either be a to age or an for an adventure. 1) defeat, alternative 2) surrender, opportunity 3) setback, option 4) agreement, start 5) loss, beginning

59. I am sorry that I have been to find a suitable for you.

1) able, j ob 2) fail, work 3) unable, vacancy 4) successful, place 5) not able, employment

70. my knowledge Mr Awas has a prejudice foreigners.

1) in, for 2) as to, words 3) for, at 4) within, against 5) with, against Directions (Q. 71-80): Read each sentence carefully

and detect the error which may be in any one of the parts— 1,2,3 or 4. In case of 'No e r ro r ' , 5 will be the answer. 71. 1) The whole / 2) country was / 3) suffering by/ 4) a

financial crisis. / 5) No error 72. 1) don't know/ 2) where could he have / 3) gone so early

/ 4) in the morning. 5) No error 73. 1)1 suggest that / 2) he goes / 3) to the doctor as soon as

he / 4) returns from taking the examination./ 5) No error 74. 1) The introduction of / 2) tea and coffee and / 3) such other

beverages have not I A) been without some effect./No error 75. 1) The newer type / 2) of automatic 13) machines wash/

4) the clothes faster. / 5) No error 76. 1) In spite of the roadblock/ 2) the guards allowed us / 3)

enter the restricted area / 4) to search for our friends./ 5) No error

77. 1) By the time/ 2) we got our tickets and / 3) entered the cinema theatre/ 4) the show was already begun/ 5) No error

78. 1) Each of the students / 2) in the computer class/ 3) has to type their own research / 4) paper this semester. / 5) No error

79. 1) The fact of me / 2) being a stranger / 3) does not excuse / 4) his conduct. / 5) No error

80. 1) The sea looks / 2) as if it / 3) has been / 4) agitated by a storm / 5) No error Directions (Q. 81-90): Each sentence has some word(s)

given in bold. Find a suitable replacement, if required, from the options given. (5) will be the answer if no correction is required. 81. She has slept for eight hours last night.

1) slept 2) had slept 3) has been sleeping 4) was sleeping 5) No correction required

83. He is in want of a reliable servant. l)is'wanting 2) needs 3) has wanted 4) did wanted 5) No correction required

84. He was rejected because he was too young. l ) so 2) that 3) for 4) because of 5)No correction required

85. I hope that 1 shall get a first class. 1)1 hope 2) I feel 3) I know 4) I trust 5) No correction required

86. In the desert, the sun is the master; all else resigns before its merciless rays. 1) collapses 2) fails 3) retires 4) surrenders 5) No correction required

87. I intend to learn French next year. 1) learning 2) learn 3) for learning 4) to learn the 5) No correction required

88. The police needed him for armed robbery. 1) liked 2) was needing 3) was after 4) looked 5) No correction required

89. There is no more room for you in tfiis compartment. 1) no more seat 2) no more place 3) no space 4) ho accommodation 5) No correction required

90. It is easy to find why cities grew on the river banks. 1) besides the river banks 2) along the river banks 3) in the river banks 4) by the river banks 5) No correction required Directions (91-100): In the following passage some of

the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

The Aryans 91 about northern Asia and Europe over the wide grasslands. But as their numbers grew and the climate became drier and the land 9 2 , there was not 93 food for them to eat. 94 they were forced to move to other parts of the world in search of 95 . They spread out all over Europe and 96 to India, Persia and Mesopotamia. Thus we find that nearly all the people of Europe and northern Asia, Persia and Mesopotamia, although they differ so much 97 each other now, are really descendants from the same 98 — the Aryans. Of course this was very long 99 and since then much has happened and races have got mixed to a large extent. The Aryans are 100 one great ancestral race of the people of the world today. 91. 1) wandered 2) wondered 3) worked

4) worried 5) None of these

92. 1) grassful 2) green 3) grassless 4) dead 5) None of these

93. l)full 2) enough 3) plenty 4) grass 5) None of these

94. l ) s o 2) as 3) because 4) yet 5) None of these

95. 1) riches 2) money 3) shelter 4) food 5) None of these

96. 1) gone 2) came 3) come 4) has come . 5) None of these

97. l ) t o 3) with 3) on 4) from 5) None of these

98. 1) friends 2) family 3) ancestors 4) Aryans 5) None of these

99. l ) ago 2) time 3) period 4) wait 5) None of these

100. 1) so 2) since 3) therefore 4) but 5) None of these

Quantitative Aptitude Directions (Q. 101-105): What value should come in

the place of question mark (?) in the following equations?

1)1.15 2)1.35 3)1.55

4)1.75 5)1.95

110. 133.88%ofl208 = ?

1)1620 2)1680 3)1720

4)1750 5)1780

Directions (Q. 111-115): What value should come in the

place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

111. 1270, 1189, 1125, 1076, 1040, ?

1)1010 2)1015 3)1020

4)1025 5)1005

112.40320, 26880, 10752, 3072, ?

1)960 2)836 3)756

4)712 . 5) None of these

113. 15, 99, 589, 2941, 11761, ?

1)35261 2)35271 3)35281

4)35291 5)36211

114.342, 306, 272, 240, 210, ?

1)148 2)164 ;,. 3)176

4)182 5)194

115.16, 101, 495, 1995, 5965, ?

1)11955 2)12995 3)35760

4)35820 5)41725

Directions (Q. 116-120): For the two given equations (I)

and (II) give answer

l ) I f p > q

2 ) l f p < q

3) If p = q or no relation can be,established

4 )p≥q

5 ) P ≤ q

116.1. 6 p 2 + 1 7 p + 1 2 = 0 II. 3q 2 + 4 q + l = 0

117.1. p2 + 18p + 80 = 0 II. q2 + 20q+100 = 0

118.1. 7p + 2 3 = 3 p + 35' II. q 2 - 6 q + 9 = 0

119.1. p 2 + p - 4 6 2 = 0 II. q2 + 22q = 0

120.1. p2 = -57p II. q2 = q

121. A shopkeeper mixes 22 kg of rice which cost ̀ 15 per kg with

26 kg of rice which cost ̀ 20 per kg. Now he sells the mixture

at `21.25 per kg. What is the percentage profit he gets?

1)8% 2)10% 3)15%

4)20% 5)24%

122. On a certain interest rate the difference between simple

interest gained in five years on `1500 and `1800 is `255.

Then what is the rate of interest?

1)8% 2)12% 3)15%

4)17% 5)21%

123. In 50 litres of a mixed juice (orange + grapes) the share of

orange juice is 40%. How much orange juice must be

added to the mixture to make the percentage of orange

Juice 60%?

1)15 lit 2) 20 lit 3)25 lit

4) 30 lit 5) 10 lit

124. If 16 boys make 40 toys in 10 days working 5 hours daily,

then in how many days can 10 boys make 60 toys working

10 hours daily?

1) 8 days 2) 12 days 3)15 days

4) 16 days 5) 20 days

125. Three friends Ajay, Vijay and Sanjay together earn

?2535 in 13 days. Ajay and Sanjay together earn ?2250

in 18 days and Vijay and Sanjay together earn ?2970 in

22 days. What is the daily earning of Sanjay?

1)`55 2)`?60 3)`65

4)`70 5)`75

126. A person completes a distance of2400 km in three equal

parts. The ratio of his constant speed in first part to his

constant speed is second part is 1 : 2 and the ratio of his

constant speed in the first part to that in the third part is

1 : 4 . If the total time he took is 70 hours then what was

his constant speed in the second part?

l)20kmh-' 2)40kmh-' 3)50kmh-'

4) 60 knur 1 5)30kmh-'

127. The present age of a child is 30% of his father's present

age and 37.5% of his mother's. The mother's present

age is 80% of the father's. If the sum of the present ages

of the child, the father and the mother is 105 years then

what is the 4/5 of the child's present age?

1) 12 years 2) 15 years 3) 16 years

4) 20 years 5) 8 years

128. What sum of money at compound interest amounted to

`52371 in three years, ifthe rate of interest is 10% for the first

year, 15% for the second year and 20% for the third year?

1)`32000 2)`34500 3)`36000

4)`37500 5)`40000

129. How many words can be formed with the letters of the

word'FUNCTION'?

1)256 2)5040 3)10080 4)20160 5)40320

130. A box contains 7 black, 8 white and 9 red balls. Two balls are drawn from the box at random. What is the probability that both the balls are of the same colour?

Directions (Q. 131-135): In the following table the quantity of different crops produced by different countries and quantity consumed by these countries are given. Quantity is given in thousand metric tonnes. Answer the questions based on this table.

Country

Whe­at

Prod­uced

Whe­at

Cons­umed

Corn Produ­

ced

Corn Con­

sumed

Rice Prod­uced

Rice Con­

sumed

Soybe­an

Produ­ced

Soybe­an

Con­sumed

China 87000 10500 114000 128000 11800C 135000 15400 18000

India 67000 69000 13000 12600 89000 85000 6800 7500

USA 63600 33200 250000 207000 6100 3800 66000 58000

Brazil 4700 9950 37500 37000 7300 8100 50000 56000

Indonesia 800 480 6500 7700 33300 37000 820 960

Thailand 500 350 4400 3200 17800 10200 220 200

Argentina 13500 3500 16000 8400 1600 1800 33000 30500

Canada 22000 7700 9200 11100 1200 980 2200 1800

131. What is the difference between the total production of rice and the total production of wheat. (Answer in thousand metric tonnes) 1)14400 2)15200 3)15650 4)16100 5) None of these

132. What is the difference between the average consumption of corn and the average consumption of soybean (in thousand metric tonnes)? 1)29435 2)29100 3)30255 4)31750 5) None of these

133. What is the ratio of the total wheat produced by Brazil, Indonesia and Thailand together and total rice produced by Argentina and Canada together? 1)15:7 2 ) 9 : 4 3 )11 :5 4 ) 9 : 5 5 )13 :7

134. Consumption of soybean by India is what percentage of the total Soybean produced by Brazil? 1)75% 2)60% 3)30% 4)25% 5)15%

135. Total corn produced by Thailand is what percentage more than the total corn consumed by it? 1)25% 2)32.5% 3)35% 4)37.5% 5)45%

Directions (Q. 136-140): In the given bar graph the total number of TVs sold (in hundreds) production cost per TV (in thousand `) and percentage profit earned on each TV, for six different models are given.

Answer questions based on this graph

136. What is the average number of TVs sold for all the six models together? 1)6000 2)6150 3)6200 4)6250 5)6300

137. What is the total profit (in ?) gained by selling all the TVs of Model D? l )8crores 2)8.4crores 3)9.2crores 4) 10 crores 5) 10.2 crores

138. The profit gained by selling all the TVs of Model-E is what percentage more than the total profit gained by selling all the TVs of Model F? 1)25% 2)40% 3)50% 4)60% 5)75%

139. What is the ratio of the profit gained by selling all TVs of Model-B to the profit gained by selling all the TVs of Model C. 1 )3 :2 2 ) 4 : 3 3 ) 5 : 4 4 ) 6 : 5 5 ) 1 : 1

140. What is the sum (in ?) of the production cost of all TVs sold of Model A and profit gained on all these TVs? l)21.124cr 2)20.736cr 3)22.4cr 4)23.12cr 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 141-145): In a sports event total 1600 players participated from six countries. The distribution of players is shown in the given pie-chart and in the line graph the percentage of female players from each country is given.

Answer the questions based on these two graphs.

141. What is the difference between the total number male players and that of female players? 1)120 2)124 3)138 4)132 5)136

142. The average number of male participants from all seven countries is what percentage of the total number of male participants from India? 1)80% 2)97.5% 3)120% 4) 150% 5) None of these

143. What is the ratio of the total male participants from Russia to the total female participants from the USA? 1)17:16 2 ) 9 : 8 3)13:11 4 ) 5 : 4 5 ) 1 : 1

144. What is the difference between double the number of female part icipants from France and total male participants from Japan? 1)36 2)48 J 3)60 4)64 5)108

145. The number of male participants from China is how much per cent more than the number of total participants from India? 1)20% 2)25% 3)30% 4)35% 5)40%

Directions (Q. 146-150): In the following line graph the percentage growth in population of two cities in six decades between 1950 and 2010 is given. Answer the questions based on this graph.

146. IfthepopulationofcityA atthebeginningoftheyear 1951 was 32 lakh, what will be its population at the end of year 1970? 1)48.20 lakh 2) 51.62 lakh 3) 52.5 lakh 4)53.625 lakh 5) 54.912 lakh

147. If the population of City Bat the end of the year 1990 is 50.96 lakh, what was its population at the start of the year 1971 ? 1) 24 lakh 2) 29.12 lakh 3) 32 lakh 4) 35 lakh 5) 35 lakh

148. If the populations of City A and City B at the start of the year 1971 were equal and it was 40 lakh each, then what will be the difference between the population of A and B at the end of the year 1990? 1)1.6 lakh 2) 2.8 lakh 3) 3.2 lakh 4) 3.5 lakh 5) 4 lakh

149. If the ratio of population of City Ato City B at the beginning of the year 1991 was 2 : 1 then what will be the ratio of population of A and B at the end of the year -2000. 1 )9 :4 2 ) 1 1 : 5 3 ) 8 : 5 4 ) 9 : 7 5 )2 :1

150. If the population of City A and city B at the start of year 1981 were equal, then the population of City B at the end of 1990 will be what percentage of the population of city A at the end of 1990? 1)92% 2)96% 3)100% 4)102% 5)104%

Test of Reasoning Directions (Q. 151-155): In each question below there

is a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2),

(3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer. 151. Statements: "Today I am rejecting your proposal to play

a cricket match against your team because of the absence of Mr Z but tomorrow I am ready to play against your team at any cost." — Mr X says to Mr Y Assumptions: L Mr Z will be available tomorrow. D. Match will be played tomorrow irrespective of

availability of Mr Z. UL Mr Y will be ready to play a match against Mr X

tomorrow. 1) All I, II and III 2) Either I or II and III 3) Only II and III 4) Only I and III 5) None of these

152. Statement: "An asteroid which burned up in the earth's atmosphere in June could have triggered a mistaken nuclear war between India and Pakistan had it detonated over South Asia." — Statement of Mr X in a report in The New York Times. Assumptions: 1 India and Pakistan are equipped with nuclear

weapons. tt Neither India nor Pakistan had the sophisticated

sensors that could determine the difference between a natural NEO (near-earth object) impact and a nuclear detonation.

UL India and Pakistan have no good relationship with each other.

1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only II and III 4) Only I and III 5) All I, II and III

153. Statement: "A court can convict an accused solely on the basis of a dying declaration but such a declaration should be free from any doubt and the victim making the statement should be mentally fit." — Supreme Court Assumptions: I One who is not mentally fit always makes statements

untrustworthy in nature. D. Declaration made by the dying person is likely to be

true. ID. It is possible to distinguish whether a declaration is

doubtful or not. 1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only II and III 4) Only III 5) None of these

154. Statement: "The 'X ' state cabinet endorsed our proposal to stagger shopping timing by allowing markets to re­main open till 10 PM to make it more dynamic." — A leader of traders Assumptions: L If it is taken well by traders, the state government

will permanently alter the closing time for all prominent markets in the city.

D. There is a need to boost commercial activities in the city.

IIL Keeping the market open till late is likely to enhance sales as well as make shopping more convenient for people with late working hours.

1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only II and III 4) Only I and III 5) None of these

155. Statement: The high court of state 'X ' has directed the state government 'X ' to issue a notification making speed governors compulsory for all four-wheelers in the city to check high-speed driving. Assumptions: L Speed governors will put an end to accidents. II Speed governors will he lp in reducing the

possibilities of road accidents. ID. High speed of veh ic les on the road causes

accidents. 1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only II and III 4) Only I and III 5) None of these Directions (Q. 156-160): In each question below a

statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three given/suggested courses of action logically follows the statement and decide the answers. 156. Statement: The adamant attitude of state 'X ' has cre­

ated much hue and cry. The state 'X ' is still adamant and

has not released water to state 'Z ' , thus violating central rule. Courses of action: L The Central Government should invoke Article 256,

which empowers the Centre to issue a directive to the states, if an existing Central law is violated, and to implement the same properly.

II. President rule should be imposed in state 'X ' . Ill The opposition and ruling parties of state 'Z ' should

start demonstrations against the failure of Central rule.

1) Only I follows 2) Only I and III follow 3) Only II and III follow 4) None follows 5) None of these

157. Statement: Prices of oil and gas are likely to rise in India owing to the rising tension in the Gulf region due to the fear of US attack on Iraq, a major source of oil. Courses of action: L India should tap new oil sources to avoid the fall­

out of an attack on Iraq. IL At least a month's stock of oil and its products

should be stored. IIL A fortnight's supply of oil is generally in transit on

the high seas, hence there is nothing to worry about. 1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only III 4) Either 2 or 3 5) None of these

158. Statement: India is facing attacks on religious places by suicide squads of'MUsiim terrorists.

„Coufses'of action: L Other religions should also develop suicide squads,

who need to be ready to do anything and everything.

IL The activities of every Muslim should be watched by intelligence authorities.

IIL People should make extremist groups at village level

2) Only I and III follows 4) Only II and III follow

to counter such strikes. 1) Only I follows 3) All follow 5) None follows

159. Statement: The Central Government has been planning to levy tax on agricultural income. Courses of action: L Government should seek suggestion from the

farmers of the country. IL Government should gather relevant information on

cost and returns of various crops as well as total income from and expenditure on various types of holdings, regionwise and farmwise.

DL Services of experts and their suggestions should be taken into consideration while formulating the planning.

1) All of the above 2) Only II and III 3) Only I and III 4) Only I and II 5) None of these

160. Statement: 'X ' state government stopped supply of free power to farmers. The decision came as a major setback to the farmers and gave rise to resentment among them. Courses of action: L The government of state 'X ' should withdraw its

decision in order to placate the farmers. IL The government of state 'X ' should assure the

farmers that if there is an improvement in the fiscal / / situation of the electricity supply board, free power

supply to farmers will be resumed. DL Opposi t ion par t ies of state ' X ' should start

demonstration's as, well as persuading people that the steps taken by the government is a total betrayal the farming community of the state.

1) Only I follows 2) Only II follows 3) Only II and III follow 4) All follow 5) None of these Directions (Q. 161-165): In making decisions on im­

portant questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between "strong" arguments and "weak" arguments inso­far as they relate to the question. "Strong" arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. "Weak" arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the ques-

tion or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments num­

bered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a "strong" argument and which is a "weak" argument. Give answer

1) if only argument I is "strong". 2) if only argument II is "strong". 3) if either I or II is "strong". 4) if neither I nor II is "strong". 5) if both I and II are "strong".

161. Statement: Should the provision to dissolve the assem­bly prematurely be amended? Arguments: L Yes. On many occasions the provision has been used

by ruling governments to fulfil their vested interests. H. No. To fulfil the constitutional obligations and

norms, it sometimes becomes need of the hour to dissolve the assembly prematurely.

162. Statement: Should HIV test be made mandatory in India for brides and grooms before marriage? Arguments: L Yes. India is one of the countries where the number

of HI V victims is the highest. It is essential for India to make efforts to restrict the number of victims.

IL No. Itwillbeahumilitationofbridesandgroomsboth. 163. Statement: Should there be a censor board for supervising

advertisements issued by different companies? Arguments: L No. It is impractical to have censor boards for

various purposes. IL Yes. On many occasions it has been witnessed that

an advertisement has created a lot of debate by showing such scenes in the advertisement as are detrimental to our social fabric.

164. Statement: Should students be allowed to work while they are studying? Arguments: L Yes. The economic background of every individual

does not allow them tb pursue education; such a permission therefore makes it feasible to fulfil one's dream.

IL Yes. work plays an important role in making a person self-sufficient. Besides, this practical knowledge becomes necessary to make studies meaningful.

165. Statement: Should the employer have the rightto terminate the services of an employee on the ground of disability? Arguments: L Yes. The employee plays an important role in

achieving the employer's objective. If an employee is unable to perform the role because of disability, the employer must have the right to terminate the services of the employee.

IL No. Humanity can't be ignored. If our Constitution

facilitates reservation in jobs for the disabled, why think of terminating the service if a normal person becomes disabled?

Directions (Q. 166-170): Below is given a passage fol­lowed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in context of the passage and de­cide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer

1) if the inference is "definitely true", ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.

2) if the inference is "probably true" though not "definitely true" in the light of the facts given.

3) if the "data are inadequate", ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

4) if the inference is "probably false" though not "definitely false" in the light of the facts given.

5) if the inference is "definitely false", ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts. After the news of crop failure and farmer distress, this

might come as an anticlimax: Indian exports of wheat and rice are racing to top at the world table. There were no exports of these two staple foodgrains before the end of 2000. Since Nov 2000 exporters have lifted 8.2 million tonnes of wheat and 5.3 million tonnes of rice from the godowns Food Corporation of India's. In the past three months alone, exporters have deposited enough money with the FCI to take away 2.4 million tonnes of rice and 1.5 million tones of wheat, taking the cumulative export earning since end-2000 to Rs 66.5 billion. Ever since the Union food ministry announced a subsidy for Indian exporters last June, the country's world offer price has been enough to relentlessly win a market share from other nations-.- Between January 1 and August 31 last year, India exported 0.9 million tonnes of rice. This year, during the same period, the figure had jumped to 4.3 million tonnes, very close to Thailand's performance. Wheat isn't a bad story either. India is exporting 23 countries and rice to 33. The Union government has already removed all quantitative restrictions on the export of rice, wheat and wheat products, subject to Union pool stocks not going below 14.3 million tonnes for wheat and 10 million tonnes for rice.

Assume that you are in the year 2001.

166. There was no surplus of wheat and rice before the year 2000 in India.

167. Indian exporters are not being encouraged by the gov­ernment.

168. Consumption of wheat in India is more than rice. 169. Farmers have no appropriate facilities for farming. 170. Thailand is a rice-producing country and no. 1 exporter

of rice. Directions (Q. 171-175): In each question below there

are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered

I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. 171. Statements: a. Only boxes are pencils.

b. Some cats are boxes. • c. All cats are elephants.

Conclusions: I. All pencils are boxes. II. Some cats are pencils. III. No cats are pencils. IV. Some cats are elephants.

1) All follow 2) Only I, IV and either II or III follow 3) Only IV and either II or III follow 4) Only I, III and IV follow 5) None of these

172. Statements: a. Some cups are flowers. b. Some flowers are boxes. c. All boxes are lions.

Conclusions: I. Some flowers are lions. II. Some flowers are not lions. III. No cups are lions. IV. No cups are boxes.

1) All follow 2) Only I, II and III follow 3) Either I or II follows 4) Only I follows 5) None of these

173. Statements: a. All papers are flowers. b. Some flowers are spoons. c. All spoons are windows.

Conclusions: I. Some papers are spoons. II. Some flowers are not papers. III. Some windows are not spoons. IV. Some windows are papers.

1) None follows 2) All follow 3) Only I and IV follow 4) Only II and III follow

5) None of these 174. Statements: a. Only cubes are rectangles.

b. No rectangles are pentagons. c. No cubes are octagons.

Conclusions: I. No octagons are pentagons. II. Some octagons are pentagons. III. Some pentagons are not cubes. IV. Some octagons are not cubes.

1) Only I, III and IV follow 2) Only II, III and IV follow 3) Either I or II and IV follow 4) Either I or II and III follow 5) None of these

175. Statements: a. Some bottles are tumblers. b. All tumblers are plates. c. All plates are stoves.

Conclusions: I. Some bottles are not stoves. II. No bottles are stoves. III. Some bottles are not plates. IV. Some bottles are not tumblers.

1) None follows 2) All follow 3) Only I, II and III follow 4) Only either I or II follows 5) None of these

P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q. P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q. P @ Q means P is greater than Q. P © Q means P is. not less than Q. Now in each of the following questions, assuming the

given statements to be t rue , find which of the two conclu­sions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I is true; 2) if only conclusion II is true; 3) if either I or II is true;

4) if neither I nor II is true; and

5) if both I and II are true.

176. Statements: Z # N , F ©N, F ♣ K

Conclusions: I. K $ N I I . K @ Z

177. Statements: D $ T, T © M, M # K

Conclusions: I. M $ D I I . D @ M

178. Statements: W © A, B ♣ A, B @ M

Conclusions: I. B # W I I .WSB

179. Statements: J ♣ M, M S N , N # T

Conclusions: I. T @ J H . T $ J

180. Statements: V♣F, F @ R , R©G

Conclusions: I. G # V II .G@V

Directions (Q. 181­186): Study the following informa­

tion carefully and answer the given questions that follow it.

In a club seven males and seven females participated in a

dance programme. A, B, C, D, E, F and G were the male partici­

pants while P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were the female participants. All

the fourteen persons were divided into seven groups. Each

group consisted of one male. After the end of the programme

each group was assigned a grade according to its performance.

For the purpose of grading seven letters were used, ie K, L, M,

N, O, PandQ indicating descending order.

F's group got grade L. Group B's grade was better than

at least three groups while Group C's grade was better than

at least four. E's partner was T. R's partner was not D. S's

group got grade K. A, D and C were not partners of U, V and

P respectively. Grade of one group was the same as the name

of a member of that group. Grades of Q's group and U's

group were better than U's group and V's group respectively.

Grade of B's group was better than C's. Grades of E's

and A's groups were neither P nor Q. T's group didn't get

grade O. R's group got the grade Q.

181. Grade O was assigned to which person's group?

1) Can't say 2 ) Q 3) S 4 ) T 5) None of these

182. Who among the following was the partner of C?

1) Can't say 2 )V 3)U 4 ) P 5) None of these

183. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Females Par tners

1)P D

2 ) Q E

3 ) R B

4 ) S G

5 ) T A

184. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Males Grade assigned

1)A O

2 ) B K

3 ) G Q

4 ) D P

5 )E M

185. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. P's group got the grade P.

II. Q's group got the grade Q.

1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Either I or II

4) Can't say 5) None of these

186. The group which got the best grade consisted of

1)AQ 2)FV 3)CU 4)BS 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 187­192): Study the following informa­

tion carefully and answer the given questions following it.

Mr X has an almirah. There are five levels L,, L 2, L 3, L 4,

and L5 in the almirah. The order of the levels indicates the

levels from bottom to top. is the bottom level while L> is

the top level. There are 21 drawers in the almirah. The draw­

ers are designed in such a manner that only one book can be

kept in a drawer. Any level consists of at least three drawers

but not more than six drawers. Mr X has kept 16 books in the

almirah. These books are of Hindi (2), English (2), Mathemat­

ics (3), Physics (5) and Chemistry (4). No two books of any

subject can be kept at the same level.

Books of English have been kept in levels at extreme

ends only. Number of places for books in L5 is double the

number for places of books in L . Number of places for books

in L4 is half the sum of the number of place's for books in L5

and L2 together. contains neither a book of Chemistry nor a book of

Mathematics. The books of Mathematics have been kept only in those levels where at least four books can be kept. Both the books of Hindi have been kept in adjacent levels. Level has no place to keep any more books. 187. How many drawers are there in level L,?

1)3 2)4 3 )5 4 ) 6 5)Can ' t say 188. In which level is the number of books minimum?

i )L , 2 )L 2 3 ) L 3 4 ) L 4 5) None of these 189.1 low many drawers are empty in level L 5?

1) Can't say 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2 5) None of these 190. In which of the following levels, is there no book of

Chemistry?

1) Can't say 2) L, 3) L2

4) L 3 5) None of these 191. If all the books are collected from those levels of the

almirah which contains the total books of Hindi then the number of books will be 1)6 2)7 3 )8 4) Can't say 5) None of these

192. In a certain level Mr X has kept only two books. Which of the following combinations are true regarding the books? 1) Physics, Mathematics ' 2) Physics, Hindi 3) Physics, Chemistry 4) Physics, English 5) None of these

193. How many pair of letters are there in the word GROTES-QUERIE which have the same number of letters between them as in the English alphabet? 1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) None of these

194. Five pairs of words are given below. There is some com­mon relationship between the two words in each of the four pairs. But the relationship is different in the word given in one of the pairs. Find out that odd pair. 1) Lock-key 2) Motorcycle-fuel 3) River-water 4) Book-copy 5) Pen-ink

195. If radio is called television, television is called refrig­erator, refrigerator is called VCD player, VCD player is called washing machine, washing machine is called digi­tal camera, and digital camera is called computer, then if Mr 'X ' wants to wash his clothes which of the follow­ing gadgets will be useful for him? 1) washing machine 2) VCD player 3) digital camera 4) computer 5) None of these

1%. Find the odd man out. 1) MOndAY 2)tUESdAY 3)thUrSdAY 4) S AtUrdAY 5) WEdNESdAY

197. Pusillanimous is related to courage in the same way as purblind is related to l)eye 2) way 3) sight 4) history 5) awareness

198. How many meaningful words can be made from the word

FACTION so that the order of letters remains unaltered and each letter of the word is used only once? l ) two 2) three 3) four 4) five 5) None of these

199. Pointing to a photograph, Y says, "He is the only brother of the only daughter of my s i s te r ' s maternal grandmother." Pointing to another photograph, X says, "he is the only brother of the only daughter of my sister's maternal grandmother." If among the two photographs, one was either of Mr X or Mr Y, and the photograph towards which Y was pointing was not of Mr X, then how is Y related to Mr X? 1) grandfather 2) paternal uncle 3) maternal uncle 4) Can't say 5) None of these

200. If today is 21st October and the day is Monday, then 9th February of next year will be 1) Can't say because of lack of information regarding

whether the current year is a leap year or not 2) Monday 3) Tuesday 4) Sunday 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 201-206): A word arrangement machine, when given a par t icular input, rearranges it following a part icular rule. Following is the illustration of input and the steps of arrangement:

Illustration - 1 Input: who at an in join does went late Step I: does who at an in join went late Step II: does join who at an in went late Step III: does join late who at an in went Step IV: does join late went who at an in Step V: does join late went who an at in

and step V is the last step for the given input. Illustration - 2

Input : ill were he up onion then love amuck Step I: amuck ill were he up onion then love Step II: amuck ill onion were he up then love Step III: amuck ill onion up were he then love Step IV: amuck ill onion up he were then love Step V: amuck ill onion up he love were then Step VI: amuck ill onion up he love then were

and step VI is the last step for the given input. 201. What will be the sixth step of the following input?

Input : minor out of each for also the bank 1) also bank each for minor of out the 2) also each of out bank for minor 3) bank for minor the also each out of 4) bank for minor the also each of out 5) None of these

202. Fourth step of an input is as follows: Step IV: areas in or chain civil food cold post Which of the following words might be the first element/ word of the input for step IV? 1) chain 2) cold 3) civil 4) post 5) in

203. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the following input?

Input: who nut cream page for after and on 1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) None of these

204. Below is given the third step of an input. What will be its second step? Step III: an export it do day year week month 1) an export do day year week month it 2) an export it day do year week month 3) an export do it day year week month 4) Can't say 5) None of these

205. Below is given the first step of an input. What will be the last three words/elements of the input? Step I: an emergence needs to invoke own states now 1) own states now 2) states now an 3) invoke own states 4) Can't say 5) None of these

206. Following is the third step of an input. What will be its fifth step? Step III: in India intelligent citizens read books with zeal 1) Can't say 2) in India intelligent books citizens read with zeal 3) in India intelligent books read citizens with zeal 4) Fifth step is not possible 5) None of these Directions (Q. 207-210): Study the following arrange­

ment carefully and answer the questions given below:

examination. (iv)have secured at least 55 per cent marks in the en­

trance examination, (v) pay Rs 60,000 annual fee at the time of admission.

If a student satisfies all the above conditions except (a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 70 per cent

overall marks in XII Std final examination, his/her case is to be referred to the Principal of the college.

(b) at (v) above, but can pay at least 60 per cent of the annual fee at the time of admission and the remain­ing amount within six months, his/her case is to be referred to the Vice-Principal of the college.

In each of the questions given below, detailed information about one student is given. You have to take one ofthe follow­ing courses of action based on the information provided and the above conditions and sub-conditions. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.7.2011.

M a r k answer (1): if the data provided is not adequate to take a decision. M a r k answer (2): if the student is to be admitted. M a r k answer (3): if the case is to be referred to the Principal. M a r k answer (4): if the student is not to be admitted. Mark answer (5): if the case is to be referred to the Vice-Principal.

211. Anirban Mandal has passed his XII Std final examina­tion with overall 75 per cent marks. He was born on 20th October 1993. He has secured 56 per cent marks in the entrance test and scored 62 per cent marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in XII Std final examination. He can pay ` 40,000 at the time of admission.

212. Shikha Gupta has secured 60 per cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics and 58 per cent overall marks in XII Std final examination. She was born on 14th February 1993. She has secured 60 per cent marks in the entrance test. She can pay ` 38,000 at the time of admission and the remaining amount within two weeks of admission.

213. Sudha Ghosal was born on 8th August 1994. She can pay ` 60,000 at the time of admission. She has secured overall 65 percent marks inXII Std. final examination and 55 per cent marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. She has also secured 75 per cent marks in the entrance test.

214. Arvind Gogoi has secured overall 75 per cent marks in XII Std final examination. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the entrance test. Hewasbornon 8th January 1992. Hecan pay `60,000 atthe time of admission. He has secured 58 per cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathemat­ics in XII Std final examination.

215. Mohan Awasthi was born on 25th October 1985. Hecan pay ` 40,000 at the time of admission and the remaining amount

Note: Treat the above as a single series. 207. If the order of the first twelve elements is reversed, after

that again the first 24 elements are reversed, and once again the first 36 elements are reversed to form a new series, which of the following will be sixth to the right of 36th element from the right in the new series?

Following are the conditions required for admitting stu­dents in Graduate course of Architecture in a college:

The student must (i) be at least 17 years old as on 1.7.2011. (ii) have secured at least 50 per cent overall marks in XII

Std final examination. (iii) have secured at least 60 per cent aggregate marks in

Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in XII Std final

within two months. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the entrance test. He has also secured 60 per cent average marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics and 56 per cent overall marks in XII Std final examination. Directions (Q. 216-220): Each of the following questions consists of unmarked

figures followed by five figures marked 1 ,2 ,3 ,4 and 5. Select a figure from the marked figures which will replace the question mark so that a series be estab­lished by the unmarked figures.

Problem Figures Answer Figures

Directions (Q. 221-225): In each of the following problems, a related pair of figures is given followed by five numbered pairs of figures. Four out of five pairs have similar relationship as that of the original pair. Select a pair that does not have a relationship similar to that in the original pair.