WINTER TERM REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. In which layer of Earths atmosphere does most weather occur? a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere e. Lithosphere 2. *** The atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide increased from 278 ppm in 1970 to 383 ppm in 2007. What is the approximate percent increase in carbon dioxide concentration from 1970 to 2007? a. 38% b. 50% c. 92% d. 105% e. 138% 3. Which of the following best explains why polar regions are colder than tropical regions? a. Polar regions have lower albedo values. b. Polar regions receive less solar energy per unit of surface area. c. Tropical regions receive less direct sunlight throughout the year. d. Sunlight travels through more atmosphere and loses more energy in tropical regions. e.

Tropical regions rotate at a faster speed than polar regions. 4. Which of the following statements explains the rain-shadow effect? a. Air gains water vapor as it rises b. The atmosphere gets denser as elevation increases, causing snow to fall. c. Temperatures are higher on one side of a mountain than on the other. d. Wind patterns cause precipitation. e. Mountains force air to rise; air cools and releases moisture as it rises. 5. Why do scientists use dominant plant growth forms to categorize terrestrial biomes? a. Plants with similar growth forms are always closely related genetically. b. Different plant growth forms indicate climate differences, whereas different animal forms do not. c. Plants from similar climates evolve different adaptations. d. Similar plant growth forms are found in climates with similar temperatures and amounts of precipitation. e. Similar plant growth forms exist in terrestrial and aquatic biomes. 6. What is most significant when determining the diversity of an ecosystem? a. The number of organisms present b. The number of species present c. The amount of land the ecosystem covers d. The amount of precipitation an ecosystem receives e. The interactions between producers and consumers

***Questions 7 -10 refer to the layers of Earths atmosphere in the temperature profile shown below.

7. *** Region where the protective ozone layer is located 8. ***Region that contains the majority of molecules in the atmosphere 9. ***Region largely responsible for the weather experienced at the Earths surface 10. ***Region with the lowest atmospheric pressure. 11. Exceptionally strong warming of the eastern Pacific ocean is referred to as a. Coriolis effect b. Global warming c. El Nino d. La Nina e. Hot times in Alaska 12. What factors are used to determine what constitutes a species? I. Physically distinct from other groups of organisms II. Can interbreed with others from the same group resulting in fertile offspring III. Shares the same habitat as other groups of organisms within the ecosystem

a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II e. I, II, and III

13. Which of these systems has a sinking limb around 30 north and south? a. Polar cell b. Trade winds c. Hadley cell d. Westerlies e. Easterlies

a. Exosphere

b. Thermosphere

c. Mesosphere

d. Stratosphere

e. Troposphere

14. Using the diagram above, which of the following is the best description of the two communities shown? a. Community 1 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 2 b. Community 1 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 2 c. Community 1 has a higher evenness and equal richness to Community 2 d. Community 2 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 1 e. Community 2 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 1 15. When a population suddenly reduces in size either from habitat loss, natural disaster or other changes in the environment, its genetic variation is affected. When this occurs, this is known as

a. Founder effect b. Geographic isolation c. Genetic Drift d. Bottleneck effect e. Mutation

16. *** Which of the following is a commercially used method for harvesting trees and is most likely to lead to a fragmented landscape with serious impacts on biodiversity? a. Selective cutting b. Clear cutting c. Shelter wood cutting d. Slash and burn clearing e. Gleaning 17. Which of the following is not an example of geographic isolation? a. Founder effect b. Natural disturbance that separates a population into two c. Allopatric speciation

d. Sympatric speciation e. A group of birds colonizes a new island

18. When part of one chromosome breaks off and reattaches to another chromosome, this is known as: a. A mutation b. Reattachment disorder c. Natural selection d. Recombination/ Crossing over e. Genetic merging 19. Which of the following would NOT be considered when determining the fundamental niche of a species? a. Reproductive rate b. pH tolerance c. Temperature tolerance d. Salinity e. Soil moisture content

20. Which type of species would be most vulnerable to environmental changes? a. Species with a large population size b. Niche generalists c. Species with rapid reproductive rates d. Niche specialists e. Species with high genetic variation 21. All of the following result in a species increased ability to adapt to an environmental change except? a. A rapidly changing environment b. A population with high genetic variation c. A short generation time d. a small population e. the rate of environmental change is slow 22. ***Which of the following is part of a positive feedback mechanism associated with global climate change? a. Increased gas mileage in cars b. Increased cloudiness caused by more moisture in the atmosphere c. Melting of arctic sea ice d. Increased acidity of seawater e. Increased growth of CO2-absorbing trees and grasses 23. Which of the following is NOT considered to be contributing to the current increase in extinction rates? a. Habitat destruction b. Natural selection c. Overharvesting d. Introduction of invasive species e. Climate change 24. What cellular process can create genetic diversity? I. Mutation II. Recombination III. Respiration a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II e. I, II and III 25. Which of the following are processes in which evolution occurs? I. Artificial selection II. Natural selection III. Genetic Drift a. I only b. II only c. III only d. II and III e. I, II, and III

26. ***If an area was originally forested and then underwent urban development, which of the following shows the most likely effects on various parts of the water cycle in the area. (Note: represents an increase; represents a decrease) Evaporation and Runoff Groundwater Transportation Recharge ______________________________________________________________________________ a. b. c. d. e. 27. In a stable ecosystem, the growth of most populations shows the influence of limiting factors. As a result, these populations are a. increasing exponentially most of the time. b. stable at an exact number of individuals most of the time. c. Stable around a number of individuals but undergoing small fluctuations d. decreasing most of the time because of the limiting factors. 28. Deer invest a great deal of energy in a few offspring that have a good chance of living to reproduce. Based on this information, they can best be classified as: a. K - strategists b. density - dependent c. r- strategist d. type III 29. Sea urchins produce a cloud of eggs that quickly produce larvae that become part of the zoo plankton that filter feeding animals consume. This is an example of which type of survivorship? a. type I survivorship curve b. type II survivorship curve c. type III survivorship curve d. type IV survivorship curve 30. Which of the following is an example of a density - independent factor? a. earthquake b. drought c. parasitism d. a and b 31. If prey increases, which of the following is most likely to happen to the predator population? a. it will start to increase the same year as the prey population starts to increase. b. it will start to increase a few years after the prey population starts to increase. c. it will start to decrease the same year as the prey population starts to increase. d. it will start to level out at its carrying capacity. 32. If a country is in the pre industrial stage, it is likely to have: a. a high birth rate, a decreasing death rate, and a high growth rate. b. a high birth rate, a high death rate, and a moderate growth rate. c. a decreasing birth rate, a low death rate, and a slowing growth rate. d. a high birth rate, a decreasing death rate, and a moderate growth rate.

33. A populations carrying capacity is: a. its maximum growth rate in its environment. b. its maximum number of individuals maintainable over an infinite period of time. c. its maximum number of individuals in its environment. d. its maximum growth rate in any environment. 34. In the northern coniferous forest, removal of wolves from the ecosystem have first caused an explosion of the elk population, followed by a collapse. Which statement best describes this phenomenon? a. environmental resistance to elk population growth decreased b. the elk exceeded the carrying capacity of the environment. c. the elk are K strategists. d. the elk ate most of the plants they depend on and starved. e. All are correct 35. Which factor prevents population control in Africa and other developing countries? a. religious restrictions against practicing birth control b. low status of women c. cultural traditions of having large families d. having children to help with farming and manual labor e. all of the above 36. If similar species each occupy a smaller niche when they live together than they would if they lived alone, they are said to be a. involved in succession. b. partitioning resources. c. coevolving. d. increasing niche overlap. e. engaging in mimicry. 37. The concept that two species cannot occupy the same ecological niche is called a. coevolution. b. mutualism. c. primary succession. d. competitive exclusion. e. commensalism. 38. If the growth rate r of a population is positive and remains constant, the number of people added to the population a. remains constant. b. fluctuates randomly. c. decreases each year. d. reaches carrying capacity. e. increases each year. 39. The total fertility rate (TFR) is an estimate of a. the number of children that will survive to adulthood. b. the number of years a typical infant will live. c. the number of children each woman in a population will have. d. the number of births per 1000 people per year. e. the percentage of women in a population that are able to have children. 40. Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have a. high death rates b. the same proportion of individuals in each age group c. a declining population d. a high growth rate e. all of the above

41. The population of the United States continues to grow as a result of a. immigration. b. babies born to baby boom generation parents.

c. the birth rate being above replacement level fertility during the 1940s through 1960s. d. population momentum. e. All of the above. 42. Malthus noted that human populations grow ____ while food supply grows ____. a. linearly; exponentially b. linearly; sigmoidally c. exponentially; linearly d. exponentially; logarithmically e. logarithmically; exponentially 43. The region of the world with the highest incidence of HIV infections is a. North America b. Eastern Europe/ Central Asia c. Western/Central Europe d. Sub-Saharan Africa e. Middle East/North Africa 44. In a stable ecosystem, the growth of most populations shows the influence of limiting factors. As a result, these populations are a. increasing exponentially most of the time. b. stable at an exact number of individuals most of the time. c. Stable around a number of individuals but undergoing small fluctuations d. decreasing most of the time because of the limiting factors. 45.Deer invest a great deal of energy in a few offspring that have a good chance of living to

reproduce. Based on this information, they can best be classified as: a. K - strategists b. density - dependent c. r- strategist d. type III 46.Sea urchins produce a cloud of eggs that quickly produce larvae that become part of the zoo plankton that filter feeding animals consume. This is an example of which type of survivorship? a. type I survivorship curve b. type II survivorship curve c. type III survivorship curve d. type IV survivorship curve 47. Which of the following is an example of a density - independent factor? a. earthquake b. drought c. parasitism d. a and b 48. If prey increases, which of the following is most likely to happen to the predator population? a. it will start to increase the same year as the prey population starts to increase. b. it will start to increase a few years after the prey population starts to increase. c. it will start to decrease the same year as the prey population starts to increase. d. it will start to level out at its carrying capacity. 49. If a country is in the pre industrial stage, it is likely to have: a. a high birth rate, a decreasing death rate, and a high growth rate. b. a high birth rate, a high death rate, and a moderate growth rate. c. a decreasing birth rate, a low death rate, and a slowing growth rate. d. a high birth rate, a decreasing death rate, and a moderate growth rate.

50. A populations carrying capacity is: a. its maximum growth rate in its environment. b. its maximum number of individuals maintainable over an infinite period of time. c. its maximum number of individuals in its environment. d. its maximum growth rate in any environment. 51. In the northern coniferous forest, removal of wolves from the ecosystem have first caused an explosion of the elk population, followed by a collapse. Which statement best describes this phenomenon? a. environmental resistance to elk population growth decreased b. the elk exceeded the carrying capacity of the environment. c. the elk are K strategists. d. the elk ate most of the plants they depend on and starved. e. All are correct 52. Which factor prevents population control in Africa and other developing countries? a. religious restrictions against practicing birth control b. low status of women c. cultural traditions of having large families d. having children to help with farming and manual labor e. all of the above 53. While AIDS is a growing concern globally, some countries are experiencing a much more severe level of outbreak of both HIV and AIDS. Reasons for this include a. prostitution without protection b. high incidence of Injection drug use c. lack of STD information d. these are all contributing factors 54. In China, an outcome of governments efforts to control population will be: a. zero population growth by the year 2050. b. men will outnumber women by 2050. c. women will out number men by 2050. d. the total fertility rate will be less than 1 in 2050. e. increased abortions of male babies currently and in the near future. 55. Which is the most effective means of birth and disease control? a. condoms b. surgical sterilization c. abstinence d. oral contraceptives e. IUDS 56. The Kyoto protocal was a global summit that addressed concerns over: a) global acid deposition b) global increase in photochemical smog c) global warming from CO2 d) reduction in global oil reserves e) clean water 57. The Clean Air Act of 1970 was most successful in reducing the amount of _____ in the air. a) ozone b) lead c) carbon monoxide d) nitrogen oxides e) sulfur oxides

58.One could argue that eating a vegetarian diet is more efficient than eating a diet of meat because: a. there is energy lost as heat during energy flow to higher trophic levels b. a carnivore has less energy available to eat than a herbivore c. about 90% of the energy available to carnivores in the bodies of herbivores is lost in the transfer d. all of the above 59. Which of the following substances is released by CFCs and catalyses a chain reaction that breaks down ozone in the upper atmosphere? a) Carbon monoxide b) Carbon dioxide c) Chlorine d) Sulfur dioxide e) Methane 60. Although ozone in the stratosphere has been decreasing in recent years, ozone near the Earths surface is on the increase. This ozone near the surface is undesirable because it: a) Absorbs ultraviolet light b) Has a different chemical structure than stratospheric ozone c) Reacts with hydrocarbons to form CFCs d) Is a strong oxidant and respiratory irritant e) Accelerates rates of photosynthesis in plants 61. The chemical formula for ozone is: a) CFC b) ClO2 c) 03 d) 04 62. Chloroflurocarbons [CFCs] are released into the atmosphere by: a) industrial smoke stacks b) leaking air conditioners and refrigerators c) car exhaust d) burning coal e) all of the above 63. The primary pollutants that lead to photochemical smog are: a) PANs, O3 and hydrocarbons b) NOx and hydrocarbons c) NOx, SOx and CO d) CFCs and CO2 e) CH4, O3 and H2SO4 64. All of the following are non-point source pollution except a) farming b) construction c) strip mining d) storm drain e) hog farm 65. Which of the following air pollutants is correctly paired with one of its major effects? a) sulfur oxides ......photochemical smog b) nitrogen oxides .....acid rain and photochemical smog c) CFCs .... acid rain and photochemical smog d) CO2 .... reduces the bloods ability to transport oxygen e) Hydrocarbons..... ozone depletion

66. All of the following are examples of primary air pollutants except a) sulfur dioxide. b). carbon dioxide c) tropospheric ozone. d) nitrogen oxide. e) particulates. 67. Oligotrophic bodies of water have all but which of the following characteristics? a) High nutrient levels b) Good light penetration c) High DO d) Low algal growth 68. The most likely explanation for the sick building syndrome is a synergism between gaseous or volatile air pollutants and _________. a) formaldehyde in particle board b) color printer paper c) ink solvents d) allergens like dist and mold e) all of the above 69. A heavy metal associated with he burning of coal is? a) Mercury b) Uranium c) Sulfur d) Iron e) Carbon 70. Pig farms released sewage into streams. The most likely result would be _________ a) low BOD b) Algal bloom downstream c) fish kills d) both b and c e) none of the above` 71. Under natural conditions the pH of rainfall is closest to a) 8.5. b) 7.1. c) 5.6. d) 4.5. e) 3.1. 72. Two major factors involved in the conversion of primary pollutants into secondary pollutants are a) sunlight and water. b) sulfates and sunlight. c) water and volatile organics. d) nitrogen oxides and sulfates. e) sulfur dioxide and sulfuric acid 73 76 **** Refer to the following answers. Select the one lettered choice that best fits each statement. Use each choice only once. a) Carbon monoxide b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen dioxide d) Methane e) Radon 73. An important precursor to acid rain __________ 74. Has a stronger affinity for hemoglobin than oxygen has _____ 75. An important indoor pollutant __________ 76. Produced by bacterial digestion of hydrocarbons in solid waste ________

77 79 **** refer to the following chemical reactions. Select the one lettered choice that best fits each statement.

A) SO2 + CaO CaSo3 B) Cl + O3 ClO + O2 77. This reaction produces acid rain from coal fired power plants. ___________ 78. This reaction increases human exposure to ultraviolet radiation. ___________ 79. This reaction produces heat that boils water and produces electricity, but also contributes to the greenhouse effect. _____________ 80. A thermal inversion a) rarely occurs in cities but is common in rural areas. b) helps remove pollutants from the atmosphere. c) leads to decreased amounts of ground-level smog. d) occurs when a warm air layer overlies a cooler layer. e) occurs when a cool air layer overlies a warmer layer. 81. Which of the following material(s) is mostly removed by primary water treatment? A) nitrates b) dissolved phosphate c) suspended organic solids d) sediment e) digested sludge 82. Disinfection of wastewater can be accomplished by all of the following methods except? a) ozone b) tetraethyl benzine c) chlorine d) ultraviolet light 83. Which of the following materials are mostly removed by secondary water treatment? a) nitrates b) dissolved phosphate c) suspended organic solids d) sediment e) digested sludge 84. Which of the following would be an indication that a body of water was contaminated by human wastewater? a) Low BOD and a fecal coliform count of zero

b) High levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, and high BOD c) Low BOD and low levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus d) Low levels of nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, and a fecal coliform count of zero e) A lack of dead zones 85. Both septic systems and sewage treatment plants utilize bacteria to break down organic matter. Where in each system does this process occur? a) Septic tank and leach field; primary treatment and secondary treatment b) Septic tank only; primary treatment and chlorination c) Leach field only; secondary treatment only d) Septic tank and leach field; secondary treatment only e) Leach field only; secondary treatment and chlorination 86. The greatest emission of sulfur dioxide comes from a) on-road vehicles. b) biofuels. c) industrial processes. d) electricity generation e) fires.

87. The accumulation of tropospheric ozone at night depends mainly upon the atmospheric concentration of A) nitrogen dioxide. B) volatile organics C) chlorofluorocarbons D) sulfates and nitrates. E) nitric acid. 88. Human wastewater entering into bodies of water can be dangerous because

I. It causes a drop in the biological oxygen demand II. It can lead to cultural eutrophication III. The wastewater can carry pathogens A) I only B) II only C) III only D) II and III only D) I, II and III

89. Which of the following is an environmental problem associated with abandoned coal mines?

A) Thermal pollution of streams in the area B) Acid drainage due to leaching of spoil heaps by rainwater

C) Air pollution caused by smog from ozone formation D) Alkaline solutions that pollute streams E) Released nutrients that cause eutrophication into streams 90. All of the following are commonly used to deal with the side effects of eutrophication in lakes EXCEPT A) applying herbicides to kill nuisance plants B) dredging out lakes to deepen them C) pumping oxygen into the lowest layers of water D) introducing insects that eat certain nuisance plants E) adding nitrates 91. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of phytoremediation? A) The use of plants to absorb and accumulate toxic materials from the soil B) The concentration of toxic materials in the tissue of organisms as they move through successive trophic levels C) The breaking down of toxic materials in the natural environment by sunlight D) The remediation of an ecosystem degraded by human activities back to its original structure and composition

E) The use of bacteria and other microorganisms to break down hazardous waste 92. Which of the following elements is most likely to limit primary production in freshwater lakes?

A) Oxygen B) Calcium C) Phosphorus D) Carbon E) Iron

93. Some automobiles in the United States are fueled by natural gas. What is the primary environmental advantage of natural gas relative to gasoline as a transportation fuel? A) The United States has 60% of the worlds proven natural gas reserves. B) Natural gas is a renewable resource that is usually produced from corn and other agricultural products. C) When natural gas is burned in an automobile engine, the only emission product is water vapor. D) Natural gas combustion emits fewer pollutants. E) There is an extensive retail distribution network for natural gas so that natural gas is available at most gas stations.

94. Global climate change occurs because increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases in A) the troposphere absorb outgoing IR radiation B) the stratosphere absorb outgoing IR radiation C) the troposphere absorb incoming UV radiation D) the stratosphere absorb incoming UV radiation E) neither the troposphere nor the stratosphere absorb incoming UV radiation 95. Although levels of CFCs in the atmosphere are much lower than those of CO2 , CFCs are still potent greenhouse gases because they A) remain in the atmosphere for only a brief time B) lack natural sources C) are much more efficient at absorbing thermal radiation D) circulate through the troposphere more easily than CO2 does E) are more difficult to remove from smokestacks and tailpipes 96. The separation of the various components of crude oil in refineries is accomplished primarily by taking advantage of differences in which of the following?

A) The densities of the components B) The boiling points of the components C) The solubility of the components D) The sulfur content of the components E) The viscosities of the components

97. Which of the following federal laws specifically deals with the cleanup of abandoned hazardous waste sites? A) Clean Air Act B) Clean Water Act C) Safe Drinking Water Act D) Resource Conservation and Recovery Act E) Comprehensive Environmental Responsibility Compensation and Liability Act 98. The majority of atmospheric mercury is produced by

A) medical waste incinerators B) volatilization of lead-based paint C) coal-burning power plants D) runoff from thermometer factories E) municipal waste incinerators

99. Step P. Water is passed through a screen to remove debris. Step Q. Pathogenic organisms are killed by chlorination, UV, or ozone. Step R. Suspended particles clump and settle out. Step S. A floccing agent, such as alum, is added to the water. The processes described above are steps in the purification and treatment of municipal wastewater. The steps are listed in random order. Which of the following lists the steps in the correct sequence?

(A) S P R Q (B) S R P Q (C) Q S P R (D) P Q R S (E) PSRQ

100. Some toxic compounds are ingested and retained in the tissues. These pollutants pose special risks to humans and other organisms high on the food chain because of which process?

A) Synergism B) Compound contamination C) Biomagnification D) Threshold effect E) Carcinogenesis

101. Which of the following is true of sewage treatment plants in the United States? A) They release wastewater before solids are removed from the sewage. B) They use storm water runoff to assist in the treatment process. C) They are not designed to remove pharmaceutical chemicals from wastewater. D) They have largely eliminated cultural eutrophication in Chesapeake Bay E) They release wastewater that is not regulated by the Clean Water Act. 102. Which of the following is true of sewage treatment plants in the United States? A) They release wastewater before solids are removed from the sewage. B) They use storm water runoff to assist in the treatment process. C) They are not designed to remove pharmaceutical chemicals from wastewater. D) They have largely eliminated cultural eutrophication in Chesapeake Bay. E) They release wastewater that is not regulated by the Clean Water Act. 103. The development of dangerous strains of disease organisms represents a significant consequence of which of the following agricultural practices? A) Using herbicides in mechanized, large-scale grain farming B) Using plant-based insecticidal compounds on vegetable crops C) Growing crops that are genetically modified for increased yields D) Including the use of legumes into crop- rotation protocols E) Incorporating antibiotics into the feeding regimens of densely concentrated livestock 104. Important factors that contribute to smog formation in the Los Angeles basin include which of the following?

I. Ample summer sunshine II. Sea-level elevation

III. High concentration of automobiles A) I only B) III only C) I and III only D) II and III only E) I,II,and III

105. Particulates can be removed from smokestack emissions by which of the following methods?

A) Irradiation by UV light B) Electrostatic precipitators C) Catalytic converters D) Liquid chromatography E) Exhaust-stream aeration

106. Which of the following are direct products of the use of hydrocarbon fuels in automobile engines?

A)O,N,and CO B) CO, Ar, and O C) CO2 , H2O, and O3 D) CO2, O3, and Pb E) CO2,NOx,andVOCs

107. Which of the following best explains why more contaminants are leached when solid waste is crushed into small particles and put in contact with water than when the particles are large? A) Larger particles have greater density per unit weight. B) Water penetrates larger particles more easily than smaller particles. C) Internal pressure is greater in smaller particles than in larger particles. D) Smaller particles have a larger surface area per unit volume than larger particles. E) The contaminant concentration gradient between particle interior and surface is greater for smaller particles. 108. Which of the following has the largest proven coal reserves?

(A) South America B) The United States C) Australia D) Indonesia E) Africa

109. Which of the following is generally true of K- strategist species as compared to r-strategist species?

A) They reach sexual maturity earlier. B) They have more young. C) They are more likely to be invasive species. D) They have longer life spans. E) Their population cycles are more rapid.

110. Which of the following is the best illustration of the tragedy of the commons? A) Depletion of fishing stocks in the North Atlantic B) Collective farming of wine grapes in communities in France C) Using national forests for wood production and harvesting D) Allocation of all nuclear wastes to one site in Nevada E) Agreements among western ranchers to jointly manage common grazing land 111. In Mediterranean climate regions like portions of California, a wetter-than-normal winter often leads to greater severity of fires the following summer. This seeming paradox occurs because in creased rain leads to

A) greater accumulation of chapparal biomass B) higher pollination rates of annual flowers C) greater recreational use of parklands D) greater erosion and damage of access roads E) decreased summer rainfall

112. Which of the following is the zone of a pond or lake in which rooted, emergent plants such as cattails and rushes are located?

(A) Benthic (B) Limnetic (C) Littoral (D) Profundal (E) Riparian

113. Which of the following has most directly resulted in increased skin cancer rates in Australia? A) Water pollution in the Antarctic Ocean B) Ozone depletion in the stratosphere C) Increased immigration of Asian people into Australia D) The occurrence of a solar maximum E) Global warming in the lower atmosphere

114. Population biologists are concerned about introduced species such as the zebra mussel in North America because A) their removal from their native habitat has a negative impact B) predators of the introduced species often overpopulate because of the influx of the Introduced species C) the introduced species compete for resources more effectively than native species D) Introduced species often become endangered when they are placed in a new habitat E) their introduction will require more land to be protected 115. It has recently been estimated that the growth in world population has slowed in the past decade. Despite this trend, environmentalists remain concerned about the environmental impact of world population, principally because A) the standard of living is increasing in many developing countries, leading to an increased per capita use of natural resources

B) people are living longer in developed nations, putting a strain on the economies of those countries

C) life expectancy is still decreasing in Africa due to AIDS D) the standard of living is poor in many developing countries, leading to a great deal of deprivation and suffering E) fertilityisfallingduetoexposureto endocrine disruptors released into the environment 116. The country of Sudan has an estimated annual growth rate of 2 percent. At this rate of growth, approximately how many years will it take for the population of Sudan to double?

A) 30 years B) 35 years C) 50 years D) 80 years E) 140 years

117. A field is abandoned, and an invasive plant that can live in nutrient-poor soil moves into the field. If the land is later cleared of this invasive species and it is discovered that the soil has an abundance of nitrogen compounds, what conclusion can best be made? A) The plants used up all of the phosphorus and potassium and left the nitrogen behind. B) Primary succession always produces an abundance of nitrogen. C) Bacteria in soil and in root nodules converted free nitrogen into nitrogen compounds. D) The plants were able to produce nitrogen in their leaves. E) More rock was weathered and broken down to release nitrogen compounds. 118. explanations is consistent with this increase? A) The number of passengers per car increased. B) People drove less, conserving gasoline. C) The price of gasoline increased. D) The number of cars on the road increased. E) Cars that were more fuel-efficient were manufactured. 119. Which of the following practices is consistent with the production of organic crops according to the United States Department of Agriculture? A) Using sodium nitrate as a fertilizer on green, leafy vegetables B) Using strychnine to prevent buildup of aphid populations in field crops C) Using chemicals known as pheromones to disrupt insect mating cycles D) Using sewage sludge to improve the fertility and structure of soil E) Using genetically modified plant varieties that kill insects that chew their leaves

120. Which of the following best describes the process known as mountaintop removal? A) The use of trees planted at high elevations to eliminate carbon dioxide from the atmosphere B) The use of heavy equipment to move overburden downhill during the strip mining of coal C) The placement of hazardous-waste disposal sites at high elevations in mountainous regions D) The shearing away of undersea mountain peaks to improve shipping lanes E) The reduction of glacial ice resulting from increased global temperatures 121. Although the use of DDT was banned in the United States in 1972, a test of the body tissue of an average United States resident today would most likely reveal the presence of DDT because A) DDT is the breakdown product of some newer pesticides on the market B) DDT is water soluble C) other countries that export produce to the United States still use DDT D) many farmers in the United States are still using DDT illegally E) DDT is naturally produced by many plants 122. Which of the following is NOT and example of The first law of thermodynamics A a rock breaks into small pieces as water erodes it. B) when a lump of coal is burnt it becomes smaller and a large amount of heat is given off. C) A trophic pyramid is largest at the base and becomes smaller as you move up each level. D) Much of the food you eat goes to maintaining your metabolic functions and allowing you to perform work. 123. Which is an example of how biotic and abiotic factors interact? A) sunlight increases the temperature of pond water B) water percolates into the soil to create abundant groundwater C) ground water enables the producers in the ecosystem to photosynthesize effectively D) soil erodes from a hillside and causes the pond water to become dirty [preventing sunlight from getting to the bottom of the pond] 124. Which part of the water [hydrologic cycle] is a biological process? [think carefully about this one] A) condensation B) run off C) percolation D) transpiration 125. During a long period when there is no rainfall, a mountain lion may temporarily leave its usual hunting ground to drink from a farm pond. This behavior is due to: A) a change in an abiotic factor in the environment B) a change in a biotic factor in the environment C) its need to find a new habitat D) its need to eat at a different trophic level. 126. Energy that becomes unusable to organisms in the ecosystem is in the form of: A) glucose B) heat C) fat [stored in body tissues] D) ATP 127. A bird stalks, kills and eats an insect; based on its behavior, which pair of ecological terms describes the bird: A) producer, autotroph B) consumer, decomposer C) 1 consumer; heterotroph D) 2 consumer; heterotroph

128. Synthetic fertilizers have many advantages over traditional organic animal waste fertilizers. These include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Ease of application b. Highly adjustable nutrient content

c. Bioavailability of nutrients d. Lack of nutrient runoff problems e. Highly concentrated when produced

129. After many years of applying the selective pesticide provironex, a farmer notices that the applications seem less effective. This is likely due to a. The target species has begun to evolve resistance b. Provironex is selective, so other pests are filling the niche from the exterminated ones c. Provironex is persistent, and the farmer should apply less for better results d. The fact that provironex is fat soluble and has been bioaccumulating e. Provironex is a wide spectrum pesticide that needs to be fine tuned for the target species 130. Scientists have inserted a gene for the production of vitamin A into rice. This practice of changing the genetic structure of agricultural products to improve desirable traits is known as a. Natural Selection b. Transmodification c. Selective Breeding d. Genetic Engineering e. Animal Husbandry 131. No till farming will most likely to lead to all of the following EXCEPT a. Decrease in the use of herbicides b. Decrease in wind erosion c. Decrease in water erosion d. Regeneration of natural soil horizons e. Reduction in CO2 emissions from the soil 132. Integrated Pest Management (IPM) is especially successful in developing countries because a. The availability of high quality pesticides in developing countries is spotty at best b. High-input industrial farming is not feasible because farmers lack financial resources c. IPM resembles traditional farming techniques so closely d. Developed nations often offer subsidies to farmers using IPM techniques e. IPM has never been successful in developing countries 133. Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations (CAFOs) make meat more economical, but may have some negative environmental impacts. These include all of the following EXCEPT a. High concentrations of animal waste b. Increase in nutrients in stormwater runoff c. Increase in sediments in stormwater runoff d. Increased use of land area over other types of animal farming e. Increase in strains of antibiotic resistant microorganisms 134. Marine fisheries are particularly susceptible to the tragedy of the commons because a. Fish are r-Selectors that experience boom and bust cycles b. Fish are highly migratory, so they dont belong to any one nation c. Pollution is highest in areas with high fish populations d. International waters are governed by antiquated nautical law e. Fishery collapse is viewed by many countries as a sign that they are managing populations properly 135. If a population is growing at a constant rate of 4.5% per year then it will double in about a. 15 years b. 25 years c. 30 years d. 40 years e. 50 years

136. Within an ecosystem, consumers may represent which of the following? a. photosynthetic green plants b. photosynthetic bacteria c. parasites associated with plants and animals d. chemosynthetic bacteria e. a, b and c are all correct 137. The term Salinization refers to: a. the amount of salt in marine ecosystems b. the accumulation of salts in soil, restricting plant growth c. the excessive irrigation of soil allowing salts to build up d. the irrigation of crops using diluted water from the oceans e. both b and c are correct 138. Strictly anthropogenic process(es) that put carbon dioxide into the atmosphere is/are a. forest fires started by lightning b. volcanic eruptions c. internal combustion d. aerobic respiration e. decomposition of leaf litter 139. Which of the following is NOT found in storm drain runoff? a. fertilizer b. pesticides c. bacterial waste and oil d. activated sludge e. leaves and sticks 140. 5 to 10 percent of electricity generated in the nations electrical grid is lost a. to vampire appliance in the home [leaking] b. as it is transported along transmission lines [friction] c. due to aging infrastructure d. as a result of excessive neon lighting in major cities e. it is not lost, just misplaced 141. Which of the following is the best illustration of the tragedy of the commons? a. Depletion of fishing stocks in the North Atlantic b. Collective farming of wine grapes in communities in France c. Using national forests for wood production and harvesting d. Allocation of all nuclear wastes to one site in Nevada e. Agreements among western ranchers to jointly manage common grazing land 142. Which of the following will result in accelerated eutrophication when introduced into streams, lakes and bays? a. Bacteria and viruses b. Pesticides c. Herbicides d. Phosphates e. Acid wastes and salts [CH 3] 143. Problems developed at Mono Lake as a consequence of the a. San Francisco earthquake of 1906 b. redirection of water that fed the lake for use by Los Angeles. c. rerouting of water that fed the lake to support the development of Los Angeles. d. addition of pollution from detergents to the lake in 1940s. e. failure of Canadian geese to migrate from the area around the lake.

144. Mass number refers to the a. number of protons b. number of protons + neutrons c. same thing as the atomic number d. number of electrons e. number of isotopes 145. Elements that gain or lose electrons to form compounds create a. protons b. covalent bonds c. ionic bonds d. molecular bonds e. isotopes 146. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of water a. is great in relation to the energy required to change the temperature of most other substances. b. is small in relation to the energy required to change the temperature of most other substances c. is not significant in understanding climate d. is responsible for more moderate seasonal temperature swings in areas close to large bodies of water e. both a and d 147. Types of macromolecules, the basis of biological molecules, include a. carbohydrates, methane, nucleic acids, and lipids b. carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids c. organelles, proteins, nucleic acids and lipids d. carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids and organophosphates e. carbohydrates, methane, nucleic acids and lipids 148. Proteins are a. made up of long chain sugars b. made up of chains of amino acids c. made of glucose d. important in structural support, energy storage and protection from infection e. both b and d 149. Chemical energy a. is a form of potential energy b. is a form of kinetic energy c. is created by ingesting food d. can be released by ingesting/digesting food e. both a and d 150. In the electrical lines that transmit electricity between a power plant and a home, _____ percent of the energy is lost as heat and sound.

a. 5 b. 10 c. 30 d. 50 e. 70

151. Which of the following shows the complex interactions between species within an ecosystem a. food chain b. food pyramid c. energy pyramid d. food web e. trophic level diagram

152. The sun is the ultimate source of energy for terrestrial ecosystems. Approximately how much of the potential energy available from the suns rays hitting the earth is used in photosynthesis? a. 1% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50% e. 80% 153. How is the majority of energy within an ecosystem lost? a. energy to grow biomass b. cellular respiration c. cellular metabolism d. heat loss e. energy used to capture prey 154. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of GPP? a. total amount of energy available to primary consumers b. total amount of energy available form the sun c. total amount of energy that producers capture via photosynthesis d. total amount of energy available within an ecosystem e. total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem 155. A wetland ecosystem has an NPP of 1.02kg C/m2/year and a GPP of 2.80 kg C/m2/year. How much carbon is being used during respiration of autotrophs. a. 3.82kg C/m2/year b. 1.76kg C/m2/year c. 1.78kg C/m2/year d. 2.86kg C/m2/year e. 2.75kg C/m2/year 156. In what ways have humans had an effect on the Nitrogen cycle?

I. Use of fertilizers II. Urbanization III. Combustion of fossil fuels

a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I and III e. I, II and III 157. When nutrients are transported through soil with water, this process is known as a. leaching b. percolation c. decomposition d. infiltration e. nitrification 158. Which nutrient is most often limiting in aquatic ecosystems? a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorus c. Carbon d. Hydrogen e. Sulfur 159. What effect would clear cutting within a watershed have on the water quality of a river running through the watershed?

a. Decrease in nutrient concentration in the waters of the clear cut watershed b. Increase in nutrient concentration in the waters of the clear cut watershed c. Decrease in the amount of runoff entering the waters of the clear cut watershed d. Increase in the biodiversity of the river e. Clear cutting should not have an effect on the water quality of a river

160. In which step of the Nitrogen cycle do plants absorb Nitrogen compounds? a. Nitrification b. Dentrification c. Assimilation d. Ammonification e. Nitrogen Fixation

[CH 4 161. Which level of the atmosphere is the densest? a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere e. Exosphere 162. Which of the following is NOT true about the suns energy heating the Earth? a. The suns rays hit the Earth at different angles depending on the latitude b. The suns rays are concentrated over a smaller surface area at the equator than they are in the higher latitudes c. The polar regions reflect more sunlight than the tropical regions d. The suns rays arte more strongly reflected in the lower latitude regions e. The unequal heating helps to determine an areas climate 163. Which of the following would best describe the observation that warm air is more humid than cool air?

a. Warmer air has a lower saturation point than cool air b. Warmer air has a higher capacity for water vapor than colder air c. Cooler air has a higher saturation point than warm air d. Cooler air has a higher capacity for water vapor than warmer air e. Warm air rises, encountering more water vapor in the upper atmosphere

164. What factor is most closely related to adiabatic cooling and heating? a. Saturation point b. Latitude c. Amount of water vapor present d. Speed of air e. Air pressure 165. At what latitude is the surface of the Earth moving at the highest velocity? a. 90 N and S b. 60 N and S b. 30 N and S d. 0 e. The surface moves at a constant rate. 166. Which of the following statements about the Coriolis Effect is INCORRECT? a. The Coriolis Effect causes objects to be deflected to the west in the northern hemisphere b. The Coriolis Effect causes objects to be deflected to the east in the southern hemisphere c. Global winds are not affected by the Coriolis Effect d. The Coriolis Effect is caused by the rotation of the Earth e. The different rotation speeds of Earth at different latitudes causes the deflection of traveling objects 167. What is a positive effect of upwelling? a. Creates an area of high precipitation b. Creates an area of high nutrient levels along the coast c. Creates an area of high nutrients in the center of the ocean basin d. Creates and area of low precipitation e. Brings warm water to the surface of the ocean [CH5] 168. Which of the following statements about mutations is correct? a. All mutations are harmful b. A mutation is a change in an organisms DNA c. Mutations may cause the offspring to die before they are even born d. Mutations may be caused by environmental factors such as UV radiation e. Mutations may lead to greater genetic diversity

169. When an organism has a trait that improves that individuals fitness for an environment, it is known as: a. An advantage b. An adaptation c. Inherited d. Increased strength e. Increased size 170. Which of the following are processes in which evolution occurs? I. Artificial selection II. Natural selection III. Genetic Drift a. I only b. II only c. III only d. II and III e. I, II and III 171. Which of the following is the best example of artificial selection? a. Bees pollinating different species of flowers b. Adaptation of finches to different sources of food on different islands c. An isolated population of frogs develops a phenotype distinct from the original population d. Breeding of horses for speed e. A small population has an unusually high percentage of a rare phenotype 172. Under what conditions would sympatric speciation most likely occur? a. Geographic isolation b. Bottleneck effect c. Founder effect d. Polyploidy e. Genetic Drift 173. Which of the following would result in the highest rate of evolution? a. A rapidly changing environment b. A population with high genetic variation c. A long generation time d. Few variations of phenotypes and genotypes e. Drastic changes to the environment 174. Which types of species would be most vulnerable to environmental changes? a. Species with large population size b. Niche generalists c. Niche specialists d. Species with rapid reproductive rates e. Species with high genetic variation 175. The variety of genes within a species is called its a. Species evenness b. Genetic diversity c. Species diversity d. Ecosystem diversity e. Species richness 176. What occurs when a small group from a population colonizes a new area? a. Founder effect b. Artificial selection c. Bottleneck effect d. Sympatric speciation e. Genetic Drift 177. Which term refers to the variety of ecosystems within a region? a. Species evenness b. Genetic diversity c. Species diversity d. Ecosystem diversity e. Species richness

178. In a small population, when genotypes are lost by chance it is called? a. Genetic diversity b. Founder effect c. Allopatric speciation d. Genetic Drift e. Artificial selection 179. Which of the following decreases genetic variation? I. Bottleneck effect II. Mutation III. Genetic Drift a. I only b. II only c. I and III d. II and III e. I, II and III [CH 6] 180. Which of the following is true? a. Some populations grow without restraint as long as resources are not limiting. b. The size of some populations tend to remain relatively constant over time c. In some populations size fluctuates in a cyclical pattern d. Population size may vary sporadically in response to environmental changes e. All of the above are true 181. If a population of 100 birds increases to 120 birds the following year, r= ______? a. 0.16 b. 0.20 c. 1.2 d. 2 e. 20 182. Which of the following is true? a. Under ideal conditions, bacteria, and eagle populations both grow exponentially b. Populations of bacteria, which grow much faster than eagles, show exponential growth, whereas populations of eagles do not c. Because eagles grow to a larger size than bacteria, they have a J-shaped growth curve. d. The growth curve of bacteria is never constrained by K e. Eagles are r-selected species while bacteria are usually K-selected species. 183. The intrinsic growth rate of a population: a. directly affects the environmental resistance b. causes changes in birth rates without affecting death rates c. causes changes in death rates without affecting birth rates d. is the maximum rate at which a population may increase e. all of the above 184. During the winter of 1999, minimum temperatures did not get much below freezing in an Oregon pond, and the following summer large mosquito populations were observed. In the winter of 2000, frost came early, and most ponds froze for three months. In the following summer, very low mosquito populations were observed. This is an example of: a. Density-independent regulation b. Density-dependent regulation c. Ecosystem carry capacity d. Community carrying capacity e. Exotic regulation 185. An important density-independent factor limiting population size is __________. a. Predation b. Weather c. Environmental resistance d. Competition e. Food quantity

186. An ecosystems carrying capacity for a population is determined by all of the following factors EXCEPT? a. Space b. Energy c. Water d. Food e. Climatic events, such as tornadoes 187. Some predators feed preferentially on the most abundant prey. This type of predation is: a. Competitive b. Exponential c. Density-dependent d. Density-independent e. Cyclical 188. Populations of predators increase when populations of prey are high because: a. predators nutrition is better b. It is easier to find prey c. the prey population may be weakened by competition for resources d. reproductive output may increase e. All of the above 189. Rabbits were introduced into Australia about 100 years ago for the purpose of hunting. They have been multiplying, eating up the native vegetation and destroying the native habitat of other small animals ever since. In the 1950s, in order to control the rabbit population, government scientists released the myxomatos virus. The virus, which dramatically reduced the rabbit population, is an example of: a. a predator b. a parasite b. a cyclical pattern of growth d. the effect of migration on growth e. mixed use of wildlife management 190. The classic study of the number of lynx and snowshoe hares purchased from trappers by the Hudson Bay Company in northern Canada between 1845 and 1935 showed dramatic, closely linked population cycles of these predators and their prey. But this was not a carefully controlled scientific study. The results of this study could have been skewed because: a. there was no control study to show whether the number of hares fluctuated even in the absence of lynx. b. there may have been other predators for the hares in the ecosystem other than lynx. c. Lynx might eat other small prey. d. weather and other environmental conditions might have affected pelt collection. e. all of the above 191. Ecologist Paul Ehrlich likened species in a community to rivets holding together an airplane. To paraphrase, he implied that airplanes can lose some rivets with no ill effects, but may suffer catastrophic failures if one too many are lost. We could expend this analogy to state that some rivets are so crucial that they must be retained for the integrity of the plane. These crucial rivets represent: a. climax species b. keystone species c. pioneer species d. primary producers e. top carnivores 192. When interspecific competition occurs between two species with similar niches, a. both species benefit from the interaction because access to resources is reduced. b. both species are harmed because access to resources is reduced c. one specie is harmed because only one specie can expand its ecological niche. d. neither specie is harmed or benefits from the interaction. e. there is not enough information to tell.

193. Earthworms live in many grass and forest ecosystems and aerate the soil as they burrow. The ingest organic matter and travel between soil horizons. These traits taken collectively refer to the _____ of the earthworm. a. habitat b. community profile c. niche d. ecosystem profile e. resource petition profile 194. Which of the following is NOT an example of two organisms is a parasitic relationship? a. a carnivorous plant and the insect it captures and digests. b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus [the AIDS virus] and an infected human. c. a lamprey eel and the fish whose blood it feeds on. d. a tapeworm and the goat whose digestive tract it lives in. e. a flea and the cat it feeds on. 195. Two species that have a high degree of niche overlap will: a. speciate b. be a predator-prey pair c. interbreed d. compete intensely e. coexist peacefully 196. A certain species of animal represents just 3% of the biomass in its ecosystem. We might classify this as a keystone species if its elimination: a. allowed an even rarer species to increase in numbers and take its place. b. caused 2% of the other species in the community to disappear. c. caused the diversity of the plant community to sharply decrease. d. caused plant biomass to increase 3%. e. had no effect on the community whatsoever. 197. Which of the following is NOT likely to characterize pioneer plant species involved in primary succession?

a. able to tolerate intense sunlight b. able to tolerate low nutrient levels c. produces many small seeds that can travel great distances d. slow-growing, long lived perennial e. small size

[CH8]] 198. The Earth is about _________billion years old. a. 1.6 b. 2.6 c. 3.6 d. 4.6 e. 8.6 199. The lithosphere includes: a. part of the core b. all of the crust c. the entire mantle d. all of the core e. both a and c 200. The high temperatures at the center of the earth are the result of: a. continued spinning due to the orbit created when the solar system originated. b. absorption of solar energy c. radioactive decay d. radio signals e. ultraviolet rays

201. At a hot spot: a. magma rises b. water rises c. earthquakes are rare d. plates are stationary e. magma sinks 202. The theory of plate tectonics states the following: a. Earths asthenosphere is divided into plates, which move. b. Earths mantle is divided into plates, which move. c. Earths lithosphere is divided into plates, which move. d. Earths core is divided into plates, which move. e. The crust of the earth is molten. 203. Volcanoes may be found at or near plate boundaries where _______ is happening. a. subduction b. divergence c. convergence d. seafloor spreading e. all of these are correct. 204. The rock cycle operates in the following order: a. sedimentary metamorphic igneous b. igneous metamorphic sedimentary c. sedimentary igneous metamorphic d. metamorphic igneous sedimentary e. all of these answers are correct. 205. Select the correct rock type connected with its mode of origin. a. igneous liquid magma b. sedimentary exposure to high temperatures and pressures c. metamorphic compression of mud by overlying sediments d. sedimentary compression of magma e. all of the above are correct 206. Metamorphic rocks a. can only be formed from rocks that originate from magmatic melt. b. have been subjected to high heat and pressure. c. can result from exposure to tectonic forces d. include marble and slate e. both b and d 207. The difference between weathering and erosion is that a. weathering is a chemical process; erosion is strictly physical. b. weathering refers to the breakdown of the rock; erosion refers to the removal of the rock from its landscape. c. erosion refers to the breakdown of rock; weathering refers to the removal of the rock from its landscape. d. weathering happens in the tropics; erosion happens in temperate environments. e. there is NO difference between weathering and erosion. 208. Plant roots cause a. only physical weathering b. only chemical weathering c. both physical and chemical weathering d. neither physical or chemical weathering e. only erosion

209. Lichens are important in a. chemical weathering because they produce weak acids. b. chemical weathering only when they are in contact with limestone. c. chemical weathering because they create carbon dioxide. d. physical weathering because they cause landslides e. preventing physical weathering because they cline to plant roots. 210. Which of the following chemical reactions are involved in the creation of acid rain? I. sulfur dioxide and water vapor combine to create sulfuric acid. II. hydrogen and chlorine combine to create hydrochloric acid. III. sulfur and oxygen combine to create sulfur dioxide. a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II e. I and III 211. The least weathered zone in a soil is the a. A-Horizon b. O-Horizon c. E-Horizon d. C-Horizon e. B-Horizon 212. Mineral nutrients are primarily present in the a. A horizon, the zone of Illuviation b. B horizon, the subsoil c. E horizon, leached zone d. C horizon, the parent rock e. B horizon, the topsoil 213. Strip mining a. is a form of subsurface mining in which strips of soil and rock are removed to expose ore. b. is a form of surface mining in which strips of soil and rock are removed to expose ore. c. refers to both surface and subsurface mining. d. is the most dangerous form of mining for miner. e. is not practiced in the U.S. ***214. Environmental problems associated with mining involve a. use of mercury b. damage to streams c. soil erosion d. habitat fragmentation and destruction e. all of these answers are correct 215. Acid mine drainage a. raises the pH of the surrounding water bodies b. may be caused by plants in the mining basin c. lowers the pH of the soil and streams in the are mined d. is only a problem in the northeastern United States e. all of these answers are correct 216. The legislation that mandates that land should be minimally disturbed during the mining process and covered in topsoil and seeded after mining is completed is called the a. Mining Law of 1872 b. General Mining Act c. Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 d. Surface Mining Act of 1987 e. General Surface Mining Act of 1998

[CH 9] 217. Freshwater accounts for _____ percent of total water in the world. a. 1 b. 3 c. 10 d. 20 e. 33 218. Earths freshwater is found in several forms. Which of the following statements about forms of freshwater is correct? a. is below ground as permafrost. b. is groundwater. c. is aboveground in ice and glaciers. d. 1/2 is above and is below ground. e. is groundwater. 219. Use of water from the Ogallala aquifer in the Great Plains region of the United States is not sustainable because a. it is being polluted at a rapid rate by leaking oil. b. it originated during the time when dinosaurs existed. c. it is recharged at a rate that is slower than it is used. d. there is intense competition for water for household, industrial and agricultural use. e. both c and d. 220. *** You have not learned, but you should know [answer in bold]. The worlds three largest rivers are the

a. Yangtze, Congo and Indus b. Yangtze, Amazon and Tigris c. Amazon, Yangtze and Congo d. Amazon, Nile and Hudson e. Euphrates, Amazon and Nile

221. Eutrophic lakes a. have very low productivity as a result of acid rain. b. have very high productivity as a result of high levels of nutrients. c. have low nutrient levels. d. are formed by glaciers. e. usually have absolutely no fish. 222. The effects of dams include a. impediment to fish migration. b. displacement of people. c. reduction of fossil fuel use. d. reduction of seasonal flooding. e. all of these answers are correct. 223. The following scenario describes huge changes in the Aral Sea in Central Asia: a. The former Soviet Union diverted rivers, increasing the water levels and decreasing the salinity on the Aral Sea.

b. China built a dam, which decreased water levels downstream. c. Water was diverted for irrigation, decreasing the water levels and increasing salinity in the

Aral Sea. d. Dust storms were created from sediment on the dried seafloor. e. Both c and d.

224. Reverse osmosis is preferable to distillation as a method of desalination because a. it produces less salty brine which is damaging to wildlife. b. the salt it produces can be deposited safely on land. c. the salt is safely returned to the ocean. d. the equipment is more efficient and often less costly. e. both b and d 225. Of the worlds freshwater, roughly ______% is used for agriculture, ________% is used for industry and _________% is used for household use. a. 10; 20; 70 b. 70; 20; 10 c. 70; 10; 20 d. 40; 20; 40 e. 33; 33; 31 226. Overall, the greatest percentage of household water use in the United States is for a. flushing toilets b. watering lawns c. drinking d. outdoor vegetable gardens e. laundry 227. If a lawn requires about 50L water per square meter per day, how much water is needed in one year to water 20 square meters of this lawn, assuming the rate does not change throughout the year? a. 3,650 b. 36,500 c. 365,000 d. 3,560,000 e. none of the above [CH 10] 228. One example of tragedy of the commons can occur when several farmers share the same pasture for feeding sheep. The root cause of this tragedy is that

a. people are bad b. sheep reproduce too quickly c. the marked cannot support too many farmers d. the value to any farmer of adding one more sheep is far greater than the cost to that farmer

due to the land being communal e. the cost of the sheep is lessened by bulk purchase power

229. If a farmer overgrazes his sheep in a common pasture the end result is more harm than benefit. This example BEST demonstrates a. urban blight b. an environmental externality c. the Hardin effect d. the invisible hand e. free market enterprise 230. One way to mitigate the effects of externalities is to a. create a completely free market b. allow the invisible hand to work c. include negative externalities in the cost of goods and services d. construct highways e. all of the above [CH 12] 231. Reasons for which petroleum is the chosen fuel for transportation in the U.S. include I. Its energy value per unit volume. II. Its ability to quickly start or stop providing energy. III. Its low amount of pollution produced per joule. a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II d. I, II and III

232. In the United States, which sector utilizes the most energy? a. transportation b. industry c. domestic d. exports e. electric generation 234. Why is a gas water heater more energy efficient OVERALL than the electric water heater when the electricity comes from a coal-fired power plant. I. The electric water heater has a lower direct efficiency. II. The energy efficiency of the coal-fired power plant is low III. Natural gas does not need to be transported. a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. II and III only w. I, II and III 235. The energy expenditure value of traveling by cal is 3.6 ML/passenger kilometer. For one person making a trip of 1000 km, if a gallon of gasoline contains 120 MJ, approximately how many gallons of gasoline would be required? a. 3 b. 9 c. 30 d. 60 e. 90 236. The order of grades of coal from the lowest energy content to highest energy content is a. anthracite, lignite, sub-bituminous, bituminous b. lignite, bituminous, sub-bituminous, anthracite c. anthracite, sub-bituminous, bituminous, lignite d. sub-bituminous, bituminous, lignite, anthracite e. lignite, sub-bituminous, anthracite, bituminous 237. The environmental costs associated with the use of coal include all of the following except. a. particulates that are released into the atmosphere when coal is burned. b. degradation to land due to mining techniques. c. the creation of highly radioactive waste. d. trace metals found in coal. e. the transportation of coal from mine to power plant. 238. The primary use of petroleum is for a. gasoline for transportation b. production of kerosene as a fuel source c. extraction of tar and asphalt d. production of petrochemicals needed for industry e. production of plastics [CH 14] 239. Dead zones, such as the one in the Gulf of Mexico that exists off the coast of Louisiana, are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

a. a reduced number of shellfish b. fish die-off events c. low oxygen concentrations in the water d. low nitrogen concentrations e. a reduced number of marine plant species

240. Primary treatment in a sewage treatment plant is designed to a. remove pathogens from wastewater b. remove solids from wastewater c. create sludge for use as a fertilizer d. move water form municipalities to the plant e. recycle water 241. To decrease the likelihood of cultural eutrophication from the effluent released from a water treatment facility, sewage plants may include a

a. secondary treatment of using bacteria to breakdown algae b. secondary treatment of using ozone for disinfection c. secondary treatment of removing nitrogen and phosphorus d. tertiary treatment of removing nitrogen and phosphorus e. tertiary treatment of using ozone for disinfection

242. Which of the following is a possible end result for sludge from a sewage treatment plant? I. Deposited in a landfill II. Incinerated III. Used as a fertilizer a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II only e. I, II and III 243. Mercury is especially dangerous to the general public due to a. its accumulation as it moves up the aquatic food chain b. the incineration of household waste c. the lack of regulation against emissions in the United States d. its effect on the respiratory system of infants e. it occurring naturally in bedrock 244. The resulting acid deposition from SO2 emissions can occur as a. Acidic rain b. acidic snow c. dry acid deposition d. a and b only e. all of the above 245. The pollution of waterways creating conditions in which productivity is decreased and gill of bottom dwelling organisms are clogged is due to a. erosion and sedimentation b. runoff and flooding c. urbanization d. mining dams e. thermal pollution [CH15] 246. Large urban areas that have problems associated with high levels of particulate pollution also have

I. Respiratory disease high above the national average II. Limited visibility haze III. Decreased water quality a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. I and III only e. I, II and III

247. Early air pollution legislation in the United States sought to control all of the following EXCEPT a. NOx emissions b. CO2 emissions c. open burning d. sulfur content in fuel e. emissions from industrial smokestacks

248. Which is INCORRECT regarding SO2? a. it is a respiratory irritant b. it can adversely affect plant tissues c. it only has anthropogenic sources d. it results from the combustion of coal and oil e. it is a corrosive gas 249. Which of the following pollutants would most adversely affect respiratory tracts? a. Mercury b. Lead c. PM2.5 d. PM10 e. CO2 250. Which type of pollution control is the most difficult? a. choosing a fuel with fewer impurities b. including catalytic converter on new automobiles c. removing pollutants after they have been dispersed over a wide area d. burning fuel at lower temperatures e. reducing pollutants after combustion but before release into the atmosphere