PPME

laDefending the Defending the New Nation:

Who was the last active Continental Navy officer and the first U.S. Navy commissioned officer?John Barry

Why were the border lakes between the U.S. and Canada of strategic importance during the War of 1812?The Americans planned to win the war by conquering Canada and needed control of the lakes to do so.

Which of the following was NOT an innovation in naval warfare introduced by the U.S. between 1775 and 1815?

Who fought at anchor in Plattsburg Bay to nullify Royal Navy long guns and maximize American carronades, and won the most strategic naval victory of the War of 1812?Thomas Macdonough

During the War for independence, which countries came to the assistance of America with their navies?France, Spain, and the Netherlands

How did the frigate Philadelphia complicate the Navy’s task in the War with Tripoli?The crew was captured after the frigate ran aground in Tripoli Harbor and the Pasha of Tripoli demanded ransom for its three hundred sailors taken as prisoners of war.

In 1794, Congress authorized the president to create a naval force of 6 frigates in response to ____________________.the threat from the Barbary Powers of Africa's Mediterranean coast

Sailing in Distant Waters:

Which of following changes in the naval service did NOT pertain to enlisted Sailors in the era before the Civil War?Establishment of a retirement system

In what years did the Second Seminole War take place?1835-1842

Between the War of 1812 and the Civil War, the Navy had a variety of missions. These included ____________________.

All of these answers are correct

In the years before the Civil War, U.S. Squadrons established a regular presence in ____________________.the Mediterranean, off Africa and South America, in the Pacific, and in Asia

Which of the following tasks did the Navy NOT undertake in the Mexican War?Blockade the coast of Cuba

What tactical advantage did steam power have over sail power in naval warfare?Steam power enabled a warship to operate independent of the wind when engaged in battle.

____________________ designed a steam engine that was 40% more efficient, half the size, and significantly cheaper than standard steam engines.Benjamin Franklin Isherwood

Which war left the U.S. with two seacoasts to defend, and propelled the U.S. into Pacific affairs?The Mexican War

Select True or False: To encourage temperance onboard vessels, in 1831 the Navy allowed Sailors to receive money in lieu of the spirit, or “grog” ration.True

____________________ commanded the South Sea Exploring Expedition from 1838 to 1842. This six-vessel expedition surveyed South Pacific islands, charted continental coastlines, proved Antarctica is a continent, and collected natural history and ethnological specimens that formed the basis of the Smithsonian Institution's collections.Charles Wilkes

Which Antebellum Navy leader earned the title “Pathfinder of the Seas” for his contributions to ocean science?Matthew F. Maury

What was the main advantage of the “bottle-shape” of the Dahlgren gun?It kept the gun lighter by removing metal where it was not needed.

Which of the following accomplishments was NOT Matthew Fontaine Maury’s?Proved Antarctica is a continent.

What was the significance of Matthew C. Perry’s expedition to Japan?The Japanese opened their ports to American ships.

The Civil War and its Aftermath:

What did the Union naval blockade of the Confederacy accomplish?.It captured transport vessels, creating acute supply shortages.

Which of the following best characterizes the Navy between 1866 and 1880?Decreasing in size and deteriorating, with old and outmoded ships.

The Naval War College was established in 1884:To provide officers the opportunity to study naval tactics, strategy, and policy.

What international developments stimulated resurgence of American naval power in the 1880s?European nations competing and building large navies to defend their empires.

______________was in charge of Upper Mississippi River forces that participated in the captures of Fort Henry, Tennessee, Fort Donelson, Tennessee, and Island Number Ten, in the Mississippi River.Andrew Hull Foote

____________ made his first of several expeditions in 1886 that placed him in the vanguard of Arctic explorers.Robert Edwin Peary

What did the Confederate raiders accomplish?They drove the carrying of trade to foreign ships, hurting the U.S. Merchant Marine fleet.

Select True or False: Union forces controlled the western rivers, dividing the Confederacy and stopping Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops, a strategic advantage that resulted in greater mobility for Union troops.True

Select True or False: After the Civil War the U.S. Navy fell into neglect, while navies of other countries modernized. In the 1880's, the U.S. Navy was modernized and joined the ranks of major world powersTrue

In January 1865, the last Confederate port open to blockade-runners fell. Where was this port located?.Wilmington, North Carolina

For what is David W. Taylor known?

Which distinguished Civil War officer commanded the North Atlantic Blockading Squadron and led naval forces in the 1864 and 1865 assaults against Fort Fisher, North Carolina?David D. Porter

What did Union control of the Mississippi River accomplish?It prevented Texas supplies from reaching Confederate troops.

The Navy on a Global Stage:

Select True or False: In 1889, eleven nations had warship fleets larger than that of the United States, but less than two decades later only the British Royal Navy was larger than the U.S. Navy.True

What organization did the Navy establish to institutionalize the contribution of female medical personnel?Navy Nurse Corps

Who was the strategic thinker and Naval War College professor who developed the Theory of Sea Power?Alfred T. Mahan

What two new weapons systems of the early 20th century enabled the Navy to fight over and under the surface of the ocean?The airplane and the submarine

The dawn of undersea warfare dates from 1900 with the launch of the ____________________.USS Holland

As a result of the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922, the United States and the other victorious Allied powers ____________.drastically reduced their battle fleets, hoping to stop the arms race and prevent another global conflict.

WWII in the Atlantic and European Waters:

Select True or False: To man its tens of thousands of naval vessels, aircraft, and shore bases, the Navy enlisted over 3 million Sailors.True

The breakdown of pre-war barriers to the enlistment of African Americans and women was due to wartime necessity and ____________________.the growing American support for social equality

How many Allied merchantmen and warships did German and Italian submarines sink during the war?3000

The cipher machine used by the Germans for radio communication security was called the ____________________.Enigma

So the U.S. and British armed forces could synchronize not only their Atlantic but global operations and speak with one voice about the need for convoy escort vessels, amphibious landing craft, and similar materiel, in 1942 the two nations established an organization named the ______________.Combined Chiefs of Staff

Early in World War II, which country proved especially effective in signals intelligence—the interception, decryption, and reading of enemy radio signals?Great Britain

Significant social changes in the Navy during World War II had the greatest impact on which of the following American minority groups?Women and African Americans

What U.S. Naval leader took steps to standardize anti-submarine training and tactics?Admiral Royal E. Ingersoll

For a year after the United States entered the war, German U-boats successfully operated throughout the ____________________.Atlantic, Caribbean, and Mediterranean

What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats?Jeep carrier

What name was given to the escort carriers used to protect convoys and attack German U-boats?True

WWII in the Pacific:

On what Japanese island did U.S. Marines raise “Old Glory” in February 1945?Iwo Jima

Which battle marked the turning point of the Pacific campaign and was considered the most decisive naval battle of WW II?Midway

Select True or False: Although the Battle of Okinawa was the last major operation of WWII, the U.S. Navy beat their Japanese adversaries with very few casualties.False

What U.S. naval assets became primary striking assets after the morning of Dec 7, 1941?Submarines and aircraft carriers

Select True or False: Improvements in the Navy’s logistical capabilities played a significant role in victories of the Pacific campaign.True

What key technical system helped U.S. naval forces locate and track enemy surface and air naval forces?Radar

August 1942 marked the start of a bloody six-month struggle for control of what island?Guadalcanal

What two naval vessel types did the Japanese NOT destroy during the Pearl Harbor attack?Submarines and aircraft carriers

The Cold War:

What was the first major armed conflict of the Cold War?Korean War

Greater than 95% of supplies and logistical support for troops in Vietnam came from this organization:Military Sealift Command (MSC)

Which fleet improvements were introduced in the Navy in the later Cold War years?Ticonderoga-class cruisers and Los Angeles-class submarines

In what way did the U.S. Navy contribute to the successful resolution of the Cuban Missile Crisis of 1962?

Navy ships blocked the delivery of Soviet missiles to Communist Cuba.

What was the U.S. strategy in the early period of the Cold War for dealing with the Soviet Union and its allies?Containment Strategy

The Navy's Cold War mission was to enforce containment of the USSR and its allies through:Maintenance of sea control in the world's oceansForward deployment of naval forces to the periphery of Communist bloc nationsDeployment at sea of nuclear-armed submarines to deter Soviet nuclear attack

Navy-wide directives, or “Z-grams,” that were issued to improve the life of enlisted Sailors were the inspiration of what Admiral?Admiral Elmo R. Zumwalt, Jr.

At the climax of the Cold War 1989, the SECNAV had generated enough support to build the size of the Navy to almost ____________________ ships.600

Why is the North Vietnamese naval attack on the USS Maddox in August 1964 important?It prompted Congress to pass the Tonkin Gulf resolution, which authorized U.S. military operations in the Vietnam Conflict.

What naval vessel types did the Navy deploy during the Cold War to discourage Soviet nuclear attacks on the United States?Submarines armed with nuclear ballistic missiles

Which attack submarine was lost at sea with her entire crew while returning from operations in the Mediterranean Sea during the Cold War?USS Skorpion

Who were the first African American and female officers promoted to flag rank?Samuel L. Gravely and Alene B. Duerk

The climax of the Cold War was marked by U.S. Naval involvement in conflicts such as ____________________.Naval forces deployed to Grenada and Panama

Littoral Operations:

One of the most significant changes in the Navy in the mid-1990s was a transition from a blue water navy to a navy that would ___________________.project power ashore in the littoral regions of the world

The UN-sponsored intervention in Somalia in the mid-1990s resulted in ___________________.Somalia

What two U.S. ships did Iraqi mines damage in 1991USS Princeton and USS Tripoli

What was the name of the 1987-1988 Persian Gulf operation where U.S. naval units escorted Kuwaiti oil tankers through the Persian Gulf?Operation Earnest Will

What is the name of the conflict in the Persian Gulf during 1987 and 1988 in which U.S. naval forces protected Kuwaiti oil tankers?Tanker War

Which ship was damaged by an Iranian mine and was the catalyst for launching Operation Praying Mantis?USS Samuel B. Roberts

From which African nation did American forces withdraw when the UN-sponsored intervention failed?Somalia

The Persian Gulf War was instrumental in opening up many opportunities for women in the following areas:Combat air squadronsAll major warshipsShore commands

Global War on Terrorism:

Select True or False: The destruction of terrorist cells following 9/11 was primarily confined to the Middle-EastFalse

Al Qaeda had established a training complex in ____________________, from which it supported terrorist activities worldwide.Afghanistan

Select True or False: The United States, United Nations (UN), world governments, and international financial institutions joined to identify and destroy terrorist groups and their sources of funding immediately following 9/11.True

What was the Navy’s primary focus immediately after the 9/11 attacks?Homeland security

Which U.S. led offensive was launched in October 2001 against Al Qaeda and Taliban forces in Afghanistan?Operation Enduring Freedom

Which command delivered large amounts of the tanks, vehicles, and supplies needed for Operation Iraqi Freedom to staging areas in Kuwait?Military Sealift Command

Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched to:Liberate the Iraqi peoplePromote democracy in Iraq

Military Formations:

As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position?Attention

Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?From most senior award to most junior

Sailors are in a _________________, when placed in formation one behind the other?File

Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”?Baron von Steuben

Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?Precision and automatic response

As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors?Prior to the seasonal uniform change

Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies:

What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign country is played?Salute

What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?Staff Sergeant

What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations

At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?At six paces or closest point of approach

The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of _____________.Chief Master Sergeant

What is meant by “under arms”?When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon

What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade?Sergeant Major

What is the definition of “prescribable items”?Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniform at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed

Fleet Response Plan:

When is a CSG considered surge ready?When they have completed integrated phase training

When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable?After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway CIV sustainment phase training and certification of the unit for forward deployed operations

At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is _________________.a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan

Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP?2001 Quadrennial Defense Review

“Presence with a purpose” provides what?Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or on shorter “pulse” employment periods

The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories: ________________________.emergency surge, surge ready, routine deployable, deployed

Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet?Sea Basing

What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within 90 days

The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days?6

Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?Commander, Fleet Forces Command

The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as _______________.homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events, deterrent operations, or prosecution of the Global War on Terrorism

Chief Petty Officer History:

In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command

Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own commandStrengthen chief petty officer standards

According to the 1918 BlueJacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were ________.

Technical expert and example setter

The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the _____.hat device

On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role?The top technical authority and expert within a rating

On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.GMCM Delbert Black

Manpower Management:

TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for ________________.resource sponsors

Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform

Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?Environment in which a command is expected to operate

Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)

In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements

Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and ______________________.personal inventory

TFMMS Micro Manpower Change Application (TMMCA) allows a command to ____________________.initiate AMD change requests

Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________.commands, Sailors

OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ________________________.national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors

The AMD is a single source document that provides ________________.quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements

Naval Customs:

In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence?All the answers are correct

The author of “Anchors Aweigh,” Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmenAll the answers are correct

The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason?Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States

Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)?All answers are correct

Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”?It is played today at many athletic events and parades

Two days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage. These days are ____________________.Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October)

Which of the following statements is true regarding the “Navy Hymn”?All the answers are correct

Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written?To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906.

__________ proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage.Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson

Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle?All the answers are correct

What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway?The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it.

Customs and Traditions:

Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________.Pollywogs

Formal dinners promote ____________________.all the answers are correct

Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________.a violation of SECNAV Instructions

Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude?Golden

Which statement is true concerning morning colors?Honors to foreign ensigns may be rendered by the playing of appropriate foreign national anthems

Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat?Avoid walking on varnished areas

The conduct of a Dining-In is defined by ____________________.OPNAV Instruction 1710.7

The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle ____________________.Blue Nose

What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore?Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914.

Morning and evening colors have been governed by Navy regulations since __________.since the mid 19th century

The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______.the burial at sea

SecNav Instruction 1610.2A concerns ____________.Hazing

The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is ____________________.Mossback

A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor ____________________.should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency

Ship’s Customs and Traditions:

Before commissioning, a ship must ____________________.complete and pass a series of Sea Trials

Today’s “Returning Home Pennant” ____________________.all the answers are correct

What is the tradition of the quarterdeck?All the answers are correct

All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT ____________________.walking on the port side

You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out “Boat ahoy!” and the boat’s coxswain replies, “John Paul Jones!” He is ____________________.announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat

Ships in the U.S. Navy ____________________.are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance

While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) ____________________.All of these answers are correct

All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT ____________________.

the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive

Boat hailing protocols became necessary ____________________.in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required

The Navy’s battle streamers ____________________.span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovospan the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo

On modern ships, the quarterdeck ___________________.is designated by the Commanding Officer

While a ship is at anchor or at a pier, ____________________.the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck

The “Returning Home Pennant” ____________________.is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port

The sloop Concord is notable because ____________________.it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman

Honors and Ceremonies:

Passing honors are ____________________.All the answers are correct

There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are ____________________.Washington’s Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day

At the end of their careers, all Sailors may ____________________.all the answers are correct

Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in ____________________.MILPERSMAN 1800-010

Half-masting the national ensign ____________________.is a symbol of mourning and respect

Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________.in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable

Military Ethics Overview:

Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel.All the answers are correct

Select True or False: The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number.”False

Select True or False: In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations.True

Freedom-based ethics focus on __________________.decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses

Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning,” “truth can not be known,” and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following?Nihilism

An ethical person is __________________.someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live

Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________.Consequentialism

Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want,” “no one can stop me,” and “I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the following?Criminality

Select True or False: Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured.True

Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of __________________.character-based ethics

A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies __________________.a reason-based approach to truth and justice

Ethics in the Profession of Arms:

What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional?The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society.

Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally ____________________.All the answers are correct

Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads?It is the path to becoming a person of character

Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to act ineffectively?Yes

The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are ____________________.All the answers are correct.

The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession.Responsibility

Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals?All of the answers are correct.

“An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor” best defines ____________________.A professional

____________________ is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation.Corporateness

Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral____________________.Effectiveness

Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of one’s knowledge, skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action.Effectiveness

Select True or False: A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good.False

Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong.Reasoning

Ethics and the Warfighter:

Select True or False: The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention.False

Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct?I will not make an attempt to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths?Professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths.

The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for ____________________.Prisoners of war

Select True or False: A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa.False

The Oath of Enlistement is significant in the Profession of Arms because it ____________________.clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment

Just War Tradition:

The proportionality principle of jus in bello requires ____________________.that the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good accomplished by the operation

Select True or False: In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum.

False

The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included ____________________.self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack

The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________.theology, philosophy, and law

The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________.Political leaders

Select True or False: All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions.True

Select True or False: While the moral burden of jus in bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement.True

The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires ____________________.reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good

Select True or False: The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders.False

The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________.help to set the military professional apart

Select True or False: Jus ad bellum and jus in bello govern all aspects of war.True

The two key criteria jus in bello criteria are ____________________.discrimination and proportionality

Select True or False: The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict.False

The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants:Chaplains and medical personnel.

Military Justice System:

Which of the following is true?A general court-martial is composed of a military judge, a defense counsel, a prosecutor and at least five members.

Article 138 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice __________.provides a service member the opportunity to file a complaint of wrongs against his or her commanding officer

The Constitution ______________________.all of the answers are correct

The maximum punishment which may be given at a special court-martial is limited to _______________.one year confinement, three months of hard labor without confinement, forfeitures of two-thirds pay for not more than one year, reduction to paygrade E-1, and bad conduct discharge

Nonjudicial punishment, as provided for by Article 15 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is also known as _____________.Captain’s Mast

A member of a general court-martial _________________.is the military equivalent of a civilian juror

Which of the following is NOT true?Because Congress has the Constitutional authority to regulate the military, the Department of Defense is part of the legislative branch of the federal government

A convening authority is responsible for ___________.All of the answers are correct

Which of the following is true?Congress is limited by the Constitution to enact only those laws that relate to the authority of the federal government.

A service member _____________.does not have the protection of the rules of evidence at Captain’s Mast

Conduct and Government Ethics:

Which of the following would be prohibited?

The commanding officer of a ship is given a pen worth $9.00 by an Ensign (the ship’s communication’s officer) as a Christmas present. Two months later the commanding officer is given a framed picture of the ship worth $7.50 by the Ensign as a birthday present. Two months later, the Ensign gives the commanding officer a stuffed animal for his daughter as an Easter present worth $8.00.

Which statement is NOT true?Each agency within the executive branch of the Federal government has its own, unique ethical code.

Which of the following actions is most likely to be prohibited?The maintenance officer of a F/A 18 squadron is offered $2000.00 to write a magazine article concerning the maintenance scheduling procedures he was introducing into his squadron.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?The Standards of Conduct apply only to Department of Defense civilian employees. Military personnel are governed solely by the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Which of the following statements is NOT true?The Standards of Conduct only prohibit actual abuses.

The Commanding Officer of an aircraft carrier is retiring. Which gift(s), if accepted by the Commanding Officer would most likely NOT be prohibited?One of the carrier’s divisions pitch in $2.00 per sailor and buys the Commanding Officer a framed picture of the ship valued at approximately $90.00. Another division collects $1.00 per sailor and presents the Commanding Officer with a brass bell valued at approximately $75.00. The Chief’s Mess presents the Commanding Officer with a sword valued at approximately $200.00.

Privacy Act:

Select True or False: The Privacy Act provides that citizens are permitted to access records maintained by the government and request amendments to erroneous information that may be contained in those records.True

Select True or False: The person who is the subject of a record which falls under the protection provided by the Privacy Act, has the right to access all records held by the government that pertains to him or her.False

What is a common way for con artists and thieves to obtain someone's personal data?All of the answers are correct

A record is ___________________________________________.any collection, grouping, or item of information about an individual maintained by an agency

The purpose of the Privacy Act is to control the collection, maintenance, and use of personal information, as well as to _____________________________________________ .All of the answers are correct.

The records the Government is not required to release to the requester are referred to as _________________.Exempt.

The release of protected information to a third party, without the consent of the individual of concern, include situations where ____________________________________.the information is needed for use in a census or statistical research

Select True or False: The Privacy Act doesn't permit the subject of the record to access his or her information.False.

Lawful and Unlawful Orders:

A service member is accused of violating a general order issued by the base commander. Which of the following is true?The service member is most likely being prosecuted for violating Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

Which of the following is NOT true?Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, paragraph 1039 provides that flag officers are only required to obey orders from a military police officer if the military police officer is a warrant or commissioned officer.

A commissioned officer may be found guilty violating all of the following except __________.Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice

A Navy LT is accused of willfully disobeying a lawful order given to him by a Marine major. At the time the order was given, the LT had never seen the major before, the major was not in uniform and did not have his military ID with him. The LT did not obey the given order. Which of the following is true?The LT might be not guilty of violating article 90 of the UCMJ if he did not know that the individual giving him the order was a Marine major.

A LT orders a group of enlisted sailors to cease what they are doing in order to help load a truck with supplies so that the supplies can get to the airfield in time to be loaded on a plane headed for Iraq. The sailors inform the LT that their commanding officer (who is also the LT’s commanding officer) had ordered them to finish testing the unit’s radios in preparation for an inspection the following day. The LT then directs the sailors to help with loading the truck and then return to the radios. The sailors then head over to help load the truck. Which of the following statements is true?Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph 1024 requires the LT to immediately report his actions to his commanding officer and explain the necessity of diverting the sailors from the task the commanding officer ordered them to accomplish.

Which of the following statements is true?An order that contradicts an earlier order given by an officer senior to the one giving the contradicting order may be a lawful order.

Which of the following is true?A Seaman that willfully disobeys a lawful order issued by a Third Class Petty Officer may be prosecuted under Article 91 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

What is the proper action for a service member to take when given an order that is obviously illegal?Refuse the order and report to higher authority.

An officer (LT) receives an order from a superior (CDR) which annuls an order received from another superior (CAPT). The LT protests this new order and shows the CDR the orders from the CAPT. The LT even represents the facts in writing to the CDR. The CDR insists that his order be followed. What should the LT do?Follow the order issued by the CDR and report the circumstances of the case to the CAPT.

_______ provides instruction on when a junior service member may issue orders to a military senior.Navy Regulations, Chapter 10, Paragraph1039

Roles, Missions, and Functions of DON:

Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.Title 10, U.S. Code

__________ are those tasks assigned to the unified and specified combatant commanders by the President of the United States or the Secretary of Defense.Missions

Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guard’s reserve component.False.

As defined by Joint Publication 1-02, the primary purpose of an amphibious operation is to:Introduce a land force ashore from ships or craft.

Select True or False: By Congressional statute, the Department of the Navy includes the operating forces of the U.S. Maritime Administration and U.S. Coast Guard, including the U.S. Coast Guard’s reserve component.False.

The list of service-specific “functions” continues to evolve over time. Initially authored in Executive Order 9877, the term “functions” in this context refers to:Those various activities, operations, and capabilities for which the services are responsible.

Which of the following has been assigned the task of managing strategic sea lift in the Joint arena?The U.S. Navy and the U.S. Maritime Administration.

Which service is the only one whose minimum force structure is codified in law?The U.S. Marine Corps

Maritime power projection includes:All of these answers are correct.

The functions specified for the Department of the Navy by Department of Defense directive 5100.1 authorizes the Department of the Navy to develop force structure to accomplish which one(s) of the following?Primary functions.

Currently, ____ contains the service-specific statements that outline the basic purpose of each of the armed forces.Title 10, U.S. Code

The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?Pacific Command

The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander

A carrier strike group ____________.has two chains of command – administrative and operational

The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.(1) the Air Force’s Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navy’s Military Sealift Command and (3) the Army’s Surface Deployment and Distribution Command

Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?The European Command

The National Security Council's members include, by law, _____________.the President, Vice President, Secretary of State and Secretary of Defense

The United States’ two most senior ranking military officers are __________.always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Functional combatant commanders ___________________.are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President

Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense

National Military Organization:

____________ is responsible for developing the National Military Strategy.The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

A carrier strike group ____________.has two chains of command – administrative and operational

Functional combatant commanders ___________________.are responsible directly to the Secretary of Defense and the President

Which of the following geographic combatant command(s) is/are headquartered outside of the United States?The European Command

The component commands of the Transportation Command are __________.(1) the Air Force’s Air Mobility Command, (2) the Navy’s Military Sealift

Command and (3) the Army’s Surface Deployment and Distribution Command

The Chief of Naval Operations ___________.must place his duties as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff ahead of his duties to the Secretary of the Navy as a military service chief

The overseas area where U.S. interests are mostly likely to be directly threatened is the area of responsibility of ______________.the Central Command

The Joint Staff ____________.is responsible only to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

The European Command ___________.has deployed forces outside of its theater in support of Operations Enduring Freedom and Iraqi Freedom

Administratively, the Commandant of the Marine Corps reports to ________.the Secretary of the Navy who reports to the Secretary of Defense

The United States’ two most senior ranking military officers are __________.always the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

The Chief of Naval Operations _________________.remains in the administrative chain of command of a Navy unit assigned to a combatant commander

The Unified Command Plan ________________.establishes the missions, force structures and responsibilities of the combatant commanders

The Defense Intelligence Agency ____________.is designated as a Combat Support Agency and thus has some oversight provided by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

An outbreak of hostilities between India and Pakistan would most likely occur in the area of responsibility of ______________.the Central Command and the Pacific Command

The Commandant of the Coast Guard _______________.is a military service chief but is not a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

The President’s cabinet includes ________________.the Secretary of Defense as a military representative

The commander of which geographic combatant command is responsible for the largest geographic area?Pacific Command

The lead combatant command(s) in planning, directing and executing the Global War on Terrorism is/are _________________.the Special Operations Command

National Security Strategy:

The National Security Strategy states that ___________ is America's most immediate challenge.Terrorism

To complete the task of Expanding the Circle of Development, the United States will ________.

help build stable, prosperous, and peaceful societiesmake foreign assistance more effective

The National Security Strategy’s essential task of global economic growth includes ___________________.

All of the answers are correct

The National Security Strategy states that ___________.globalization has exposed us to many new challengesglobalization presents many opportunities

As addressed in the President's cover letter to the National Security Strategy, ________ must take the lead in order for the world to successfully confront problems like human trafficking and the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.

The United States

The National Security Strategy’s essential task of transforming the nation’s National Security Institutions will require _______________.

reorienting the State Department towards transformational diplomacy which promotes effective democracy and responsible sovereignty

The National Security Strategy states that _____________.

peace and international stability are most reliably built on a foundation of freedom.

The National Security Strategy takes the position that ____________.left unaddressed, regional conflicts can lead to failed states

The current National Security Strategy _____________.builds upon the framework of the last National Security Strategy, updated to take

into account the time that has passed and the events that have occurred

The National Security Strategy points out that _____________.because of the potentially devastating events of an attack with WMD, the United

States will not rule out the use of preemptive force

National Defense Strategy:

The National Defense Strategy deals with ______________.All of the answers are correct

The National Defense Strategy _______________.recognizes that a secure international system requires collective action

The National Defense Strategy’s view of deterrence is ____________.that there needs to be increased emphasis on protecting against attacks

In order to establish favorable security conditions, the United States _______________.All of the answers are correct

Stability operations, as discussed in the National Defense Strategy, __________.include operations ranging from peacekeeping to substantial combat action

When and if actual combat operations are necessary against a hostile force, the National Defense Strategy contemplates the use of all of the following except _____________.

combat operations only when they can be conducted with other nations

National Military Strategy:

The complex battle space used by adversaries to threaten the United States include _______________.


As discussed in the National Military Strategy ________________.an adversary must believe that the United States has the ability to impose severe

consequences in response to hostile or potentially hostile actions for deterrence to be successful

Which of the following statements is not true?Concerning armed conflict, the National Military Strategy is limited to gaining a

decisive victory, post-conflict stability is the role of civilian government agencies and departments.

The non-state actors that menace stability and security may include __________________.

terrorist networks, international criminal organizations, illegal armed groups and individuals

The National Military Strategy is _________________.the highest level guidance document issued by a uniformed military officer

The National Military Strategy provides that the first and foremost military priority is __________________.

the protection of the United States against attack

Which of the following will make the statement not true? The National Military Strategy _______________.states that defending the United States against missile attack is no longer a

priority

The priorities essential to the success of the Armed Forces outlined in the National Military Strategy are: ______________.

winning the War on Terrorism while protecting the United States; (2) enhancing our ability to fight as a joint force; and (3) transforming the Armed Forces by fielding new capabilities and adopting new operational concepts

Rogue states can threaten global and regional stability by ___________.All of the answers are correct

Which of the following is true?The combatant commanders assist the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in

developing the National Military Strategy.

Joint Guidance and Resources:

The ________________ is the overarching description of how the future Joint Force will operate and occupies the highest position in the hierarchy of concepts.

Capstone Concept for Joint Operations

Which of the following is not true?None of the answers are correct

Joint concepts are developed and refined through ____________.Experimentation

________________ provides the unifying framework for the family of joint concepts.The Capstone Concept for Joint Operations

A joint concept is __________________.a visualization of future military operations that describes how a commander

might employ capabilities to achieve desired effects and objectives

The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint

Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow

In order to sustain and increase the qualitative military advantages the United States enjoys today requires ________________.a transformation achieved by combining technology, intellect, and cultural

changes across the joint community

Required capabilities and attributes are identified by __________.Joint Functional Concepts

____________ publications are the top group of joint doctrine documents in the hierarchy of joint publications.

Capstone

A Joint Integrating Concept is __________________.a description of how a Joint Force Commander will integrate capabilities to

generate effects and achieve an objective

At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.

Joint Operations Concepts Development Process

Joint Functional Concepts ________________.receives their operational context for development and experimentation from a

Joint Operating Concept

At the Joint level, the guiding document in synchronizing the effort of joint concept developers to link strategic guidance to the development and employment of future capabilities is the _________________.

Joint Operations Concepts Development Process

The Joint Operations Concepts Development Process________.describes a systematic process that will assist in guiding the creation of a Joint

Force that will succeed in the battle space of tomorrow

A Joint Operating Concept describes how a joint force commander will accomplish a strategic objective ______________.

10-20 years in the future

A Joint Operating Concept __________________.identifies broad principles and essential capabilities

Which of the Joint Concepts has the narrowest focus?Joint Integrating Concept

Sea Power 21:

_____________ is central to the Sea Shield concept.Achieving battle-space superiority in forward theaters

Which of the following is NOT true?ForceNet is the follow-on program to Task Force EXCEL – a fully integrated force

wide network of linked computers.

Which of the following is NOT true?Seapower 21 does not have a focus that includes regional challenges.

Sea Warrior will address the challenges brought on by ________.the reduced crew sizes that are the result of optimal manning policies and new

platforms

The Sea Power 21 fundamental concept that will lead to the acceleration of expeditionary deployments and employment timelines by pre-positioning vital equipment and supplies in-theater is ____________________.

Sea Basing

Which of the following statements is NOT true?ForceNet is the “glue” that binds together Sea Trial, Sea Warrior and Sea

Enterprise.

Which of the following is NOT true?Sea Basing will use the increasing number of overseas bases to expand our

forward presence globally.

Which of the following is NOT considered essential to the Navy’s ability to counter the increased risk to the United States in the future?

None of the answers are correct.

Sea Strike ______________.is the ability to project precise and persistent offensive power from the sea

Sea Power 21 was published by ___________________.The Chief of Naval Operations

The foundation upon which offensive and defensive fires are projected is ____________.

Sea Basing

The Marine Corps tactical aviation integration plan is an example of ___________.Sea Enterprise

Sea Trial is concerned with ______________.the implementation of a continual process of rapid concept and technology

development

Sea Shield will protect U.S. national interests with defensive power based on ____________.

control of the seas, forward presence, and networked intelligence

The American Way of War:

Select True or False: The French and Indian War ended with a British victory over the French at the Battle of Quebec. This led to the “American View” that wars were won by the utilization of conventional armies.

False

Guerilla warfare was not present in the Mexican and Civil Wars, which were fought solely between two conventional armies using conventional tactics.

False. Guerilla warfare was present in both the Mexican War and the Civil War.

Select True or False: In order to patrol the vast American frontier and to protect settlers moving West, a large standing army was maintained by the United States after the Civil War.

False

During the American Revolution, the Continental Army ____________________.was created, in part, to convince potential allies that the United States was a

legitimate nation

Following the end of the First World War, the U.S. _______________.quickly demobilized the vast majority of its large wartime army

The Vietnam War shared what characteristic(s) with the Second Seminole War?All of the answers are correct.

Select True or False: Although regular army forces participated in the hostilities, the Spanish American War was seen as a victory by militia (“volunteer”) forces and proof that the United States didn’t need to maintain a large standing army.

True

One of the reasons for the unwillingness to fund a standing regular army following the American Revolution was ____________________.

the absence of an immediate threat to the new nation

The Second Seminole War _______________.became a stalemate and was abandoned by the United States after declaring

victory

The Naval Way of War:

By establishing control of the sea in the early stages of conflict, the Navy will ____________________.

have strategic and operational freedom of maneuver and assure security for the lines of communication

Select True or False: Historically, the Navy has generally possessed the most complex technology available.

True

All ships are fragile and subject to peril for reasons other than enemy action. If the greatest peril during non-wartime activity is water in the hull, then the second greatest peril is ____________________.

Fire

During non-wartime activity, what can be equally dangerous but less expected in terms of safety of the ship and operating environment?

The attitudes of Naval officers toward their job

Navigation is ____________________.an art of approximation

Select True or False: According to the rule of Naval Warfare the Navy must achieve an absolute control of the sea.

False

In close waters, what Navigational tool will help reduce error and uncertainty of your location to a considerable degree?

GPS

The Navy’s organizational culture comes from ____________________.All of the answers are correct.

In our time, in order to understand how the U.S. Navy responds to new missions, threats, tactics, and technologies, it’s important to know ___________________.

The U.S. Navy’s organizational culture

Organizational culture affects the way the organization ____________________.All of the answers are correct

The Navy’s intent in extending control from the sea to the land is tolimit the enemy’s freedom of action and to make a sea barrier, not an avenue for

maneuver

U.S. Navy ships were initially designed to protect aircraft carrier battle groups against the Russians and, at this time, they ____________________.

have adopted a new technology to a different mission for air-ground support operations

“Put him in the position, let him do his job, and give him hell if he does not perform” is the not-to-centralize philosophy of the U.S. ________________________.

Navy

Theory of War:

An action undertaken by a Navy Seal Team operates at what level of war?It varies depending on the level of the objective achieved or contributed to by the action

The concept of operational level of war developed ____________________.

in order to bridge the gap between strategy and national strategic objectives, and the tactics employed on the battlefield to achieve those objectives

The enemy’s center of gravity ____________________.can change particularly at the operational and tactical level

An enemy’s critical vulnerability ____________________.is a vulnerability that, if exploited, will do the most significant damage to the

enemy’s ability to resist us

The introduction of a new weapon system by the enemy ____________________.may change its center of gravity and may change its critical vulnerability

Actions are defined as strategic, operational or tactical based on ____________________.

the level of the objectives achieved or contributed to by the actions

Which of the following is correct?The principles of war provide a basis for naval doctrine.

Carrier Strike Group and Expeditionary Strike Group commanders generally operate at what level of war?

Tactical

The three components of military art are ____________________.strategy, tactics, and operational art

The enemy’s center of gravity ____________________.can change particularly at the operational and tactical level

Commanders should focus their efforts on ____________________.concentrating strength against some relative enemy weakness

The concept of an operational level of war was first utilized ____________________.by Napoleon with his creation of a more manageable battlefield through the use

of divisions and corps each commanded by a general officer who was well versed in his strategic objectives

Doctrine:

Select True or False: Naval forces are best employed as part of a joint and/or multinational force.

True

Select True or False: Combatant commanders use the UJTL to develop JMETLs.True

Joint doctrine is based on ____________________.current capabilities

Select True or False: Tactics, techniques, and procedures are all non-prescriptive.False

The Navy Warfare Library provides ____________________.all publications on the NWDC SIPRNET site

The Navy's Web-based doctrine development process works through ____________________.

NWDC SIPRNET site

Command and Control:

Feedback is most important to control because ___________________ .It gives commanders information they will need to adapt to changing

circumstances.

Control is the ___________________ .commander’s means of guiding a military operation

Naval commanders exercise TACON over ___________________ .all of the answers are correct

OPCON would be delegated to ___________________ .JTF commanders

Which of the following fit with the analogy between Command and Control and the functioning of the human nervous system?


C² enables the Commander to ___________________ .All of the answers are correct

Combatant Command is exercised by unified or specified commanders through ___________________ .


Which of the following are considered command and control support?The people, facilities and equipment that provide information to commanders.

OPCON and TACON:All of the answers are correct

The C² organization is defined to include ___________________ .All of the answers are correct

Which of the following is not considered Tactical Control or TACON?Organization, logistics and training

Joint Force Maritime component commander:

The JFMCC concept is _______________________ .still under development in terms of specific details, although the broad functions have been finalized

According to the concept, the JFMCC _______________________ .All of the answers are correct

What is the unifying factor in all Joint Maritime Operations?Sea control

Which of the following are typical war fighting functions of the JFMCC?All of the answers are correct

The Joint Force Maritime Component Commander ___________________.Will not be designated if the JFC elects to control maritime operations or relies

upon the Navy service component commander

The goal of the JFMCC doctrine is to:Integrate all Naval assets and capabilities into the Joint Force Commander’s

campaign plan.

The Maritime Task Plan is a web-based data base that is used by the JFMCC to:All of the answers are correct

Ordinarily the JFMCC will be given _____________________ .both OPCON and TACON

Who ordinarily will have functional responsibility for the performance of a JTF's maritime missions?

The JFMCC

The JFMCC’s subordinate commanders include:Both CSG and ESG commanders.

CWC Concept:

Admiral Arleigh Burke said that command by negation was important because:In battle there is too much going on, too fast for one person to manage.

What is the cornerstone tenet of the CWC concept?Command by negation

The common operating picture, or COP, includes ______________.All of the answers are correct

The CWC concept addresses defense against:All of the answers are correct

After the Cold War, the Navy's primary mission:Shifted in orientation to the littorals.

The CWC would be on a carrier or flag-configured amphibious ship because ___________________ .

that is where the needed C2 assets will be

CWC Roles and Responsibilities:

If an alternate CWC is designated, his or her functions would be ______________________ .


Decentralized command is an effective approach because?It helps to prevent the CWC from being overwhelmed by information overload.It enables tactical commanders to take advantage of fast moving opportunities to

achieve mission objectives.

What did Admiral Mustin say about Nelson's plan at Trafalgar?The plan was good, but what was really decisive was that his subordinates

understood the plan and their roles in it.

The functions of a Principal Warfare Commander and a Functional Warfare Commander include ___________________ .


Which of the following are not part of the CWC structure?JTF commanders

Principal Warfare Commanders are never authorized to:Assign missions to other Warfare Commanders.

Principal Warfare Commanders are ___________________ .immediately subordinate to the CWC

What is the role of preplanning of responses in the CWC concept?All of the answers are correct

The CWC will have _____________________ .TACON

TACON over any single asset can be ___________________ .held by only one commander and any given time

JFMCC/CWC Challenges:

What are the challenges to the CWC concept?All of the answers are correct

Many challenges to the CWC concept are rapidly becoming moot due to ___________________.

developments in the multi-mission capability of ship and aircraft platforms, and improvement in satellite communications

Select True or False: The authoritive joint doctrine stresses decentralized planning and centralized execution.

False

The CWC concept formerly promoted a close defensive posture for forces afloat, which means ___________________.


A downside of CWC’s dependency on communications is ______________.all of the answers are correct

According to Robert C. Powers, all of the below mentioned are the subtlest arguments against the CWC concept, except that the ___________________.

CWC creates broad war fighting specialists

Important challenges for CWC include ___________________.All of the answers are correct

According to CWC concept, the distance for all ships of the formation, in relation to the flagship, must be in the radius of ___________________.

20NM

Origins and Development:

Select True or False: In order to effectively defend itself from hostile forces while simultaneously conducting strike warfare in a joint environment, it is necessary for the on scene Naval air commander to operate independent from the Joint Air Component Commander.

False

Strike operations are a component of which navy mission?Projecting power ashore

Select True or False: During Operation Desert Storm, naval aircraft were limited to deep attacks, targeting the Iraqi infrastructure.

False

Select True or False: Strike warfare, as practiced by the Navy during the 1990-91 Gulf War, resulted in the new mission of close-air support being assigned to OV-10 and AH-1 aircraft.

False

Select True or False: The Navy mission of projecting power ashore is a relatively new mission, made possible by the introduction of the Tomahawk Land Attack Missile.

False

Select True or False: The 1990-1 Gulf War validated the Navy's strike warfare reliance on precision guided munitions and as a result nearly no “dumb” bombs were utilized.

False

Select True or False: Amphibious operations are not considered as part of the Navy's power ashore projection mission because the main components of such operations are Marine Corps and/or Army units.

False

Select True or False: While USN strike warfare can project power ashore in a highly effective way, it cannot sustain such operations for an extended period.

False

How do the Navy’s two principal missions influence events on land?Both influence events on land. Sea control indirectly influence events while

power projection ashore directly influences those events.

Select True or False: Strike warfare is focused on those platforms that directly attack targets with ordnance. Thus, aircraft such as the EA-6B Prowlers and E-2C Hawkeye have no role in Sea Strike.

False

CSG:

Select True or False: The Virginia class submarine is an improved version of the Seawolf class. It is just as quiet, but has greater speed, can operate at increased depth and can carry more weapons than the Seawolf class.

False

The Fleet Response Plan’s goal is to ______________.sustain a level of at least six surge-capable CSGs with two additional groups

ready to deploy within three months of an emergency order

Select True or False: All of the ships assigned to a Carrier Strike Group have the capability of keeping up with the carrier when the carrier is operating at its maximum speed.

False

Select True or False: The Fleet Response Plan and Flexible Deployment concepts have yet to be implemented and tested.

False

Which submarine class(es) is/are capable of conducting long range strikes using the Tomahawk missile?

all of the answers are correct

Carrier Strike Groups are employed _____________.All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: Because a Carrier Strike Group is the main element of the Navy’s strike warfare mission, the Carrier Strike Group does not have an organic anti-submarine warfare capability.

False

CV/CVN:

What is the effect of PGMs on aircraft sortie rates?Reduce the number of aircraft required

Flight deck danger can be eliminated by:None of the answers are correct

___________________ converts the sophisticated technological potential of an aircraft carrier into real and useable power.

Human organization

Successful strike warfare depends upon ?All of the answers are correct

Iraqi Freedom strike operations illustrate the CV/CVN’s unique capability to conduct air operations in:

Sandstorms

Multicarrier and night operations do which of the following?Permit 24 hour strike warfare

Which of the following is not a current requirement for continuous maintenance and effectiveness of the CV/CVN force?

Improved ship design

What is the largest and most complex ship in the Navy?Aircraft carrier

CVW:

Composition of the carrier air wing evolved through “punctuated stability”; this refers to?Periods of intense change interspersed with longer periods of relative stability.

The Joint Strike Fighter which will replace the Tomcats and Hornets in some of its versions has all the following advantages except:

ASW capability

What do the Tomcat, Prowler, Viking, Joint Strike Fighter currently have in common?Recent mission changes

Operational planning for an air strike includes all but which of the following:National Command Authority

Reduction of CEPs is due to greater precision afforded by:All of the answers are correct

Match the aircraft with their primary mission.

1. air defense and strike A. F-14 Tomcat

2. ASW, air refueling B. E-2C Hawkeye

3. electronic attack C. EA-6B Prowler

4. early warning D. S-3B Viking

Which of the following carrier air wing missions involve protecting critical areas of the combat zone for the purpose of destroying enemy aircraft before they reach their targets?

Combat air patrol

What is the principal limitation of PGMs?Cost

Attributes of Joint Direct Attack Munitions(JDAM) are?Operates in adverse weatherConverts “dumb” bomb into precision guided weapon

Concept of Operations(CONOPS) for a carrier strike does not include:battle damage assessment

Select the statements that are correct concerning carrier air wings.Air wing composition has evolved substantially since the end of the Cold War.The carrier and the air wing are two complementary components of a single

fighting system.Improved targeting, especially through PGMs, has enhanced the effectiveness of

the carrier air wing.

What single fighting system gives the carrier air wing its phenomenal punch?The embarked air wing

Advantages of PGMs include all but one of the following:reduced costs and maintenance expenses

TLAM:

Which of the following is not a limitation of the Tomahawk missile?

survivability in a high threat environment

Starting from the Joint Force Commander, and the Joint Force Maritime Component Commander and Joint Force Air Component Commander if present, the tasking to launch a Tomahawk missile follows what path?

Naval Component Commander (NCC), TLAM Strike Coordinator (TSC), Launch Area Coordinator (TAC), TLAM firing unit

The Tomahawk Strike Coordinator ____________.is appointed by the Naval Component Commander/Tomahawk Executive Agent

and is responsible for all TLAM strike planning, coordination, and reporting strikes

The All-Up-Round (AUR) includes ___________.either a canister (for surface ships) or a capsule (for submarines) that both

protects the missile during transport and serves as the missile's launch tube

Which of the following is not true?Tomahawk missiles are best used to attack targets in areas where collateral

damage is not a concern

Submarines must launch their VLS Tomahawks ___________.while submerged to avoid damage to the system

Submarines can communicate with surface units _____________.when operating at periscope depth

Submarines have the ability to launch ______________.Tomahawks from torpedo tubes and from vertical launch tubes if so equipped

The _____ assigns targets, numbers of missiles, and time on target so firing units can execute the launch.

Launch Sequence Plan (LSP)

The newest version of the Tomahawk can be ________.reprogrammed in flight to strike any of 15 pre-programmed alternative targetsredirected to any GPS target coordinates using an anti-jam GPS receiver

Surface Warfare:

Which is NOT among the primary roles of the Surface Warfare Commander?Direct submarine operations

The Recognized Maritime Position relies on surveillance by which of the following assets:


Downward trends in worldwide naval ship construction and proliferation of “combat boats” has which of the following effects:

Complicates the area of uncertainty for U.S. forces.

Which of the following missiles are not used primarily in an anti-ship mode?Maverick and Hellfire

Asymmetric threats to the surface fleet do not normally include:Chemical weapons

Anti-ship missiles are the weapons presenting the most serious threat to the task force because they are:


Air Defense:

To fulfill the mission of preventing airborne attack against U.S. naval forces, Air Defense ________ enemy airborne platforms and weapons.


____________________ is the primary mission of air defense.Defense in Depth

Which ships are NOT integrated into the fleet or sector air defense mission?Point defense ships and patrol craft

Non-organic air defense support refers to:All of the answers are correct

Close coordination between the Air Defense Commander and other warfare commanders facilitates:

Optimum use of multi-role aircraft; maintenance and dissemination of accurate surveillance data; and security for departing and landing aircraft.

Post-Cold War trends in air defense threats include:Increased proliferation of weapons and weapons technology, increased speeds

and ranges of weapons and launch platforms, and increased difficulty in engaging and destroying air borne weapons.

Naval Special Warfare:

Which of the following may be attached to a Naval Special Warfare Squadron?All of the answers are correct

Select the statement that is NOT true.Civil Affairs Operations are designed to convey truthful information and

indicators to foreign audiences to influence their actions.

Naval Special Warfare forces personnel assigned outside of the continental United States ____________________.

are under the combatant command of their respective geographic unified commander

Direct Action missions ____________________.involve short-duration strikes and small-scale offensive actions

The current number one priority mission of special warfare forces is ____________________.

Counterterrorism

A clandestine operation ____________________.is one in which emphasis is placed on the concealment of the operation itself

The Rigid-hull Inflatable Boat (RHIB) ____________________.is an 11 meter craft capable of carrying eight SEALs plus its crew

The Dry Dock Shelter allows ____________________.delivery of SEAL Delivery Vehicles (SDVs) and combat rubber raiding craft from

submarines

The Naval Special Warfare Command ____________________.is responsible for providing trained and ready forces to the regional combatant

commanders

A SEAL team is composed of ____________________.a headquarters element and six SEAL platoons

MK-V Special Operations Craft are provided to a NSW Squadron by ____________________.

Special Boat Teams

The Special Operations Craft-Riverine is meant to operate in ____________________.low to medium threat environments

A Naval Special Warfare Squadron ____________________.is formed after SEAL platoons and attachments have completed their core

training requirements

Introduction to Expeditionary Warfare:

The development of the ESG concept adds which of the below improvements to previously deployable forces?


The Commander of the Amphibious Task Force (CATF) is ___________________.All of the answers are correct

The amphibious planning process ___________________.All of the answers are correct

The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?All of the answers are correct

Key aspects of OMFTS include which of the following?All of the answers are correct

Characteristics of amphibious operations include which of the following concepts?All of the answers are correct

The concept known as STOM includes which of the following?All of the answers are correct

Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS) is a Marine concept supporting the Navy’s concept of Forward from the Sea. It accomplishes this by ___________________.


An amphibious force might include which of the following?All of the answers are correct

Naval Logistics:

MSC’s Kilauea Class ammunition ships ____________________.Have no armament

The sustainment element of the logistics process is ____________________.the provision of personnel, logistics, and other support required to maintain

operations

The exterior cleaning of an F/A-18 aircraft is considered ____________________.organizational-level maintenance

Which of the following is NOT true?Depot-level maintenance is generally performed by ship’s company.

The Navy’s two hospital ships ___________________.contain 12 fully-equipped operating rooms each

The Military Sealift Command’s eight fast sealift ships ____________________.can deliver nearly all the equipment needed to outfit a full U.S. Army mechanized

division

The Navy Component of the U.S. Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) is ____________________.

the Military Sealift Command (MSC)

The Military Sealift Command’s Combat Prepositioning Force ____________________.supports Army prepositioning requirements

The Kilauea class T-AEs main mission is to provide underway replenishment of which class of supplies?

Class V

The bulk of the Navy’s combat logistics services to ships at sea is provided by ____________________.

the Naval Fleet Auxiliary Force

The processes used to get materiel, services, and personnel to the supported forces describe which general element of the Navy’s logistics process?

Distribution

Prepositioned equipment—both afloat and ashore—is considered logistics support at the ___________________.

strategic level

The Dry Cargo Office ____________________.handles Department of Defense cargo requirements that cannot be

accommodated by regularly scheduled ocean liner service

Undersea Warfare:

Which of the following is NOT true?While quieter than older diesel submarines, those that are driven by Air

Independent Propulsion systems still must typically snorkel at least once a day to recharge their batteries.

Which of the following is true?Acoustic silencing reduces the probability of a ship being detected by either a

submarine or an acoustic mine.

Which of the following is NOT true?Moored mines are generally banned by the Geneva protocols.

Which of the following is true?Towed passive sonar arrays are useful to surface ships as they can be placed out

of the noise generated by the ship.

The ASW warfare commander’s call sign under the Navy’s Composite Warfare Commander concept is ___________________.

AX

Magnetic Anomaly Detectors ___________________.detect submarines by detecting the anomaly in the earth’s magnetic field caused

by the submarine’

Which of the following is NOT true?The subsets of Undersea Warfare are offensive submarine operations and

defensive submarine operations.

When installed in a SSN-688 class submarine, the Near-term Reconnaissance System (NMRS) vehicle ___________________.

is launched and recovered through a torpedo tube

The two concepts that ASW forces employ to ensure coordination with friendly submarines are ___________________.

prevention of mutual interference and water space management

Which of the following is true?Pressure influence mines are actuated by pressure changes caused by a passing

vessel.

The two broad categories of submarine detections are ___________________.Acoustic and non-acoustic

Which of the following is NOT true?

U.S. acoustic mine sweeping is limited to that performed by surface ship platforms.

Which of the following is NOT true?At then end of its preset battery life, sonobuoys are retrieved so that recorded

information can be downloaded for analysis.

The AN/SLQ-48 Mine Neutralization System ___________________.features a self-propelled, remotely-controlled Mine Neutralization Vehicle

Fundamentals of Joint Warfare:

Select True or False: Combatant commanders should ensure that their unified action synchronizes and/or integrates joint and single-service operations with the actions of supporting combatant commands, other military forces during multinational operations, and nonmilitary and other federal government agencies.

True

Which Fundamental of Joint Warfare best reflects the statement; “Cooperation among the combatant commanders and their supporting joint force and component commanders is crucial?”

Unity of Effort

On what basis can joint forces be established? (Select the best answer.)Geographic or functional

Which of the following levels of authority is NOT a command relationship?Administrative Control (ADCON)

The Combatant Commander’s campaign is based on which of the following?All of the answers are correct

Which command is NOT a functional combatant command?U.S. Southern Command

The term joint forces includes which of the following commands?All of the answers are correct

Which of the following statements best describes a Unified Command?A command with broad continuing missions under a single commander

composed of forces from two or more military departments.

Which of the following statements does NOT reflect how unified direction is normally accomplished?

By direct operational involvement by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Which of the following provides the commander the ability to regulate forces and functions and provides the commander a means to measure, report, and correct performance?

Control

Which of the following would be an example of a sub-unified command?U.S. Forces Korea

Fundamentals of Information Operations:

Which of the following statements is NOT true?Psychological Operations are those operations that convey truthful information

to both domestic and foreign audiences.

The Combatant Commanders’ plans for Defense Support to Public Diplomacy are approved by ________________.

the Office of the Secretary of Defense

Which of the following statements is NOT true?Information Operations is only concerned with information collected, processed

and disseminated through networked computer systems operated by an adversary.

Which of the following statements is true?The three major subdivisions of Electronic Warfare are: electronic attack,

electronic protection, and electronic warfare support.

The psychological, cultural, behavioral, and other human attributes that influence decision making, the flow of information, and the interpretation of information by individuals or groups at any level in a state or organization are properties associated with which dimension of the information environment?

Cognitive

Which of the following statements is NOT true?Military Deception operations should be planned and executed independently of

Operations Security actions.

Information Operations' core capabilities include all of the following except ______________.

prisoner of war interrogation

Department of Defense policy describes “information superiority” as:the operational advantage gained by the ability to collect, process, and

disseminate an uninterrupted flow of information while exploiting or denying an adversary’s ability to do the same.

Which of the following statements is true?Computer Network Exploitation is concerned with gathering data from target or

adversary automated information systems or networks.

Actions taken through the use of computer networks to gather data from target or adversary automated information systems or networks are a part of ___________________.

computer network exploitation

Information Operations are generally the responsibility of ______________.the J-3 (Operations)

The United States Army:

Decisive counterattack is a defensive mission for which one of the following?The Mechanized Infantry Division

The key difference between the airborne division and the light infantry division is:Airborne has the ability to conduct forcible entry operations; light infantry does

not.

The U.S. Army’s ___________________ provides combatant commanders with a broad range of land power options to shape the security environment.

strategic responsiveness

The ___________________ is the largest division in the U.S. Army.Mechanized Infantry Division

What are the “hidden” transport costs of moving the Air Assault Division?Square footage requirements are almost equal to that of the Mechanized Division.

Which U.S. Army aircraft has the mission of providing air assault, general support, aeromedical evacuation, command and control, and special operations support to combat, stability, and support operations?

UH-60L Blackhawk

Select True or False: Strategic airlift is always more advantageous than sealift.

False

Select True or False: The ability to conduct sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict is a key differentiator between the U.S. Army and the U.S. Marine Corps.

True

Which one of the following is NOT a U.S. Army core competency?Sea-based operations

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the U.S. Army Reserve Component?The Army Reserve Component does not provide the majority of personnel or

equipment for any primary U.S. Army mission area.

The Air Assault Division is considered:All of the answers are correct.

Heavy divisions offer exceptional:Tactical mobility.

A ___________________ consists of multiple small groups of soldiers organized to maneuver and fire.

Platoon

Select True or False: The Joint Force Land Component Commander has the ability to exercise command and control over all land forces, and may be an allied or coalition commander.

True

US Air Force:

Select True or False: USAF CSAR missions are normally conducted by specially-trained Special Operations personnel.

False

The U.S. Air Force global strike mission is performed by which one of the following aircraft:

B-2

Which aircraft is the newest, most flexible aircraft capable of rapid strategic delivery of troops and cargo, as well as tactical airlift and air drop?

C-17 Globemaster III

Which aircraft is considered the USAF’s front-line ground-attack aircraft providing critical close air support to friendly forces on the ground?

A-10

Which one(s) of the following USAF assets provide(s) accurate location and time reference in support of strategic, operational, and tactical operations:

Select all

___________________ allows the U.S. Air Force to deliver desired effects with minimal risk and collateral damage.

Precision engagement

___________________ is defined as military action carried out against an enemy’s center of gravity or other vital targets.

Strategic attack

Which U.S. Air Force aircraft detects, identifies, and geolocates signals throughout the electromagnetic spectrum?

RC-135 V/W Rivet Joint

The U.S. Air Force capability of ___________________ allows the Air Force to sustain flexible and efficient combat operations.

Agile combat support

Which U.S. Air Force function is considered the most major contribution to joint operations?

Air refueling

The C-5, C-17 Globemaster III, and the C-141 Starlifter are partners in the Air Mobility Command’s __________.

Strategic airlift concept

The U.S. Air Force tenet of the ___________________ of overwhelming power at the decisive time and place is one of the most constant and important trends found throughout military history.

Concentration

Missions such as attacks on launch facilities and the jamming of satellite link frequencies are operations achieved by this U.S. Air Force function:

Counterspace

Select True or False: Strategic air attack is not determined by the weapons or delivery systems used.

True

Introduction to the United States Marine Corp:

Select True or False: The U.S. Marine Corps and the U.S. Army are the only forces who sizes are set by law?

False

Which one of the following is the smallest permanently existing MAGTF?MEU

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a MAGTF?Requires pre-existing infrastructure to execute missions

Select True or False: The Maritime Prepositioning Force (MPF) currently possesses a forcible entry capability and therefore can offload equipment and supplies in a hostile environment.

False

Which one(s) of the following make up the 4th Marine Expeditionary Brigade?All of the answers are correct

An integrated organization of air, ground, and logistics forces is a(n):MAGTF

Which one of the following supporting operational concepts is defined as “rapid employment of the MAGTF by air or surface means to objectives in the littorals and beyond”?

Ship-to-object maneuver

The primary function of this helicopter is the transportation of heavy equipment and supplies during the ship-to-shore movement of an amphibious assault, and during subsequent operations ashore:

CH-53 E Super Stallion

Which event marked the beginning of large-scale U.S. Marine Corps involvement in Viet Nam?

The landing of the 9th MEB at Da Nang.

Select True or False: U.S. Marine Corps doctrine and concept of operations are based on the principle of “Maneuver Warfare.”

True

The Navy-Marine Corps team is a(n) ______________________ designed for ___________________.

expeditionary force; overseas deployment

List the strategic concepts governing the use of military force in the execution of the National Military Strategy.

Strategic agility, overseas presence, power projection, decisive force

Operational Maneuver from the Sea (OMFTS):All of the answers are correct

Which of the following is/are not considered part of the “operating forces” of the U.S. Marine Corps available to the combatant commanders?

The Supporting Forces

Which one(s) of the following is/are capabilities of a MEU (SOC)?All of the answers are correct

US Coast Guard:

Can the USCG be considered a redundant, non-complementary resource supporting the National Military Strategy?

No

Which one of the following is NOT a USCG capability offered to the combatant commander?

Forcible entry from the sea

Which one(s) of the following is/are unique to the USCG?All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: Article 14, USC 1 states that the USCG is a branch of military service at all times.

True

Which aircraft is the U.S. Coast Guard’s primary short-range helicopter for SAR and surveillance?

HH-65A Dolphin

The present day U.S. Coast Guard can trace its roots back to:Select all

Which aircraft is the only armed aircraft in the USCG inventory?MH-68 Shark

Which of the following is not true regarding current and future U.S. Coast Guard operations?

The non-DOD budget nature of the USCG allows for greater funding and flexibility than the other military services.

Select True or False: With regards to domestic coastal sea control, the Coast Guard Area Commander reports directly to the respective Navy Fleet Commander.

True

In accordance with 14 USC 2, which service “...shall enforce or assist all applicable federal laws on and under the high seas and waters subject to the U.S. jurisdiction”?

The U.S. Coast Guard at all times

Special Operations Forces:

The development of joint special operations tactics is a responsibility of ____________________.

the Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)

A battalion of the Army's 75th Ranger Regiment is forward deployed to Hawaii. This battalion is most likely under the command of ____________________.

a geographic combatant commander

Fire support for Special Operations Forces can be provided by ____________________.

AC-130 aircraft

Direct Action missions ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Which of the following statements is/are true?All of the answers are correct

A Joint Special Operations Task Force ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Special operations in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance is a part of which Special Operations core task?

Special Reconnaissance

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) controls promotions of those officer and enlisted personnel that are attached to Special Operations Forces units.

The Air Force Special Operations unit that would most likely be tasked to assist a foreign nation in organizing and training its military and paramilitary forces to combat internal subversion is ____________________.

the 6th Special Operations Squadron

U.S. Special Operations Command's Unconventional Warfare core task may include all of the following EXCEPT ____________________.

assisting a foreign government in organizing and training its military units to combat an internal insurgency

A characteristic of a clandestine operation is ____________________.that it is conducted in such a way to assure its concealment from adversaries

Which of the following statements is NOT true?U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) is subordinate to the geographic

combatant commanders in waging the global war on terrorism.

Which of the following statements is/are true?Army Civil Affairs units are provided to combatant commanders around the world

by the U.S. Army Special Operations Command.

Which of the following statements is/are true?All of the answers are correct

Homeland Security/Homeland Defense:

Select True or False: The purpose of the National Strategy for Homeland Security is to mobilize and organize our Nation to secure the U.S. homeland from terrorist attacks.

True

Which of following is a primary mission for U.S. Armed Forces with respect to Homeland Defense?


Which of following is a strategic objective of the National Strategy for Homeland Security?


The alignment of all Federal government maritime security programs and initiatives into a comprehensive and cohesive national effort involving appropriate Federal, State, local and private sector entities is called __________?

the National Strategy for Maritime Security

What legislation strictly limits U.S. armed forces involvement in law enforcement activities in the United States?

Posse Comitatus Act of 1878

The National Strategy for Maritime Security states that maritime security can best be achieved by ___________________.

blending public and private maritime security measures

Irregular Warfare:

Counter-terrorism (CT) operations are ___________________.measures taken to preempt terrorism

In addressing the underlying conditions that terrorists seek to exploit, it is important to remember that ___________________.

promoting social and political development may indirectly counter some conditions that foster terrorism

Insurgent groups can be differentiated from purely terrorist organizations by which of the following?

The desire of insurgent groups to control a particular area.

By definition, a nuclear weapon is ___________________ .a complete assembly capable of producing an intended nuclear reaction and

release of energy

Our national strategy to stop terrorist attacks against the United States includes which of the following?

All of the answers are correct.

Defending U.S. interests at home and abroad would naturally include which of the following?


Included within the definition of Irregular Warfare would be the following mission area(s):


Political Structure:

Select True or False: A democratic society runs the risk of over-reacting or under-reacting in the foreign policy arena because experts are not the sole arbitrators of what course of action to pursue.

True

Select True or False: The results gathered from significant research shows that elections have a significant impact on the peacefulness of a democracy’s foreign policy toward other democracies.

False

The fact that the world’s leading democracies share common moral values guides them to cooperate with each other to maintain world peace.

Not true under all circumstances.

Select True or False: The United States experiences a change in its domestic structure each time a new president is sworn into office.

False

Select True or False: In a uni-polar international system, the prospects of a world war are remote compared to a multi-polar international system.

True

In a multi-polar international system _____________.the capabilities of the great powers are more diffused than in a bi-polar

international systemthere is a higher probability of a great power conflict leading to general war than

in a bi-polar international system

Select True or False: One reason for the continued existence of NATO after the decline of its major security threat is that its member states believe there is an economic benefit to be had from continued cooperation.

True

Select True or False: The transformation of the United States from colonial status to independent country is an example of a change in domestic structure.

True

During the Cold War, the world was a(n) _____________ international system.bi-polar

Prior to World War II, the world was a(n) ___________ international system.multi-polar

Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior:

Select True or False: Political culture can be described as the personality of a collectivity because the study of political culture focuses on behavior patterns and dispositions of a group of persons.

False

Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon feel that political culture can effectively explain the propensity of a society toward democracy or authoritarianism.

False

Select True or False: The narrowness of a political culture may place limits on the behavior and action of a political leader.

True

The political culture of a collectivity living within a state __________.is shaped by the totality of all life’s influences on multiple generations

Select True or False: The breadth of American political culture can accommodate leaders with a variety of personality types.

True

Select True or False: Political culture may explain why the people of a state may prefer a leader with a quiet, reserved personality over one with a gregarious personality.

True

Select True or False: In order to identify the underlying assumptions within a culture, controlled experiments that can illuminate the unconscious assumptions of its members can be useful.

True

Select True or False: Elkins and Simeon’s position is that an examination of institutional causal factors to explain a political action should be undertaken before an examination of political culture causal factors.

True

Select True or False: By understanding a collectivity’s political culture, it is possible to determine the personality of a person belonging to that collectivity.

False

Select True or False: Political culture helps explain, but is not the only explanation, of why states and individuals interact the way they do in international affairs.

True

Political culture is not found in collectivities such as ____________.None of the answers are correct

According to Elkins and Simeon, all of the following except _____ are factors that may contribute to the creation of a political culture that could have a significant impact on political action.

whether the group lives in a democratic or authoritarian state

Democracy and Nationalism:

Select True or False: Freedoms allow people to openly express their long suppressed hatred and nationalistic feelings.

True

Select True or False: Nationalist conflicts are happening only during violent regime transitions.

False

Nationalism could provoke conflict during the process of democratization because ______________________________.


The trends which are supposed to stimulate the democratization process are all of the below, except ________________________.

Ethno nationalism

After World War II, the purpose for the wave of forced democratization upon Axis powers was to _________________________________.


The political system which aims to protect a nation's distinct culture, history and traditions, expresses the doctrine of _________________.

Nationalism

Select True or False: According to Snider, the transition toward democracy is always awakening nationalist desires.

True

Select True or False: Democracy cannot be accompanied by international and inter-ethnic violence.

False

The Future of Democracy and Democratization:

________________ gives a gloomy appraisal of the future of democracy.Samuel Huntington

The Optimistic Scenario of democracy’s future _______________.believes that democratization in the East will lead to the integration of the Eastern

economies with those of the West

Select True or False: According to the Optimistic Scenario of democracy's future, the twenty first century may be the century of “collectivism”.

False

Francis Fukuyama believes that _____________________________.The liberal democracy provides the only real alternative for societies seeking a

prosperous and secure future

Which of the following is not true?Because liberal democracies operate under the theory of “majority rule”, the

rights of minorities are often unprotected.

Economic factors which weighed heavily against the process of democratization are all of the following, except ____________________.

Low debt.

Since 1974, how many countries made some progress toward democratic rule?Over eighty.

The Pessimistic Scenario of democracy’s future ________________.sees transnational corporations becoming a greater source of order within the

international community

George Sorensen depicts the future of democracy, providing __________________________.A Balanced Perspective

The major contender to the liberal democracy, on an ideological level, in the post Cold War world is __________________.Islam

Latin America and the United States:

In the new millennium, the United States has committed several billion dollars to assist which country on its war on drugs?Columbia

In the aftermath of September 11, 2001, the United States has focused on countering __________________ throughout the world, including Latin America.Terrorism

During the Cold War, the U.S. foreign policy goal was to___________________________________.contain Communism across the globe, and Soviet expansionism in particular

Select True or False: During the Cold War, the most important goal for the United States in Latin America was support for democracy.False

In 1994,The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) joined the economies of the _________________________________.United States, Canada and Mexico

The Good Neighbor Policy is associated with which U.S. president?Franklin Roosevelt

Latin Americans __________________________ the Good Neighbor Policy.Welcomed

Which corollary to the Monroe Doctrine claimed that the United States had the right and moral duty to exercise international police power in the Americas?Roosevelt corollary

How did Latin America respond to the Monroe Doctrine?Latin Americans resented the Monroe Doctrine

The United States gained nearly half of the territory of what country in Latin America from 1845 to 1853?Mexico

After the Cold War, U.S. policy toward Latin America was focused on _____________________________.supporting democracy

During the Cold War, the United States intervened militarily in Central America and the Caribbean primarily to ____________________.contain Communism

Politics in Latin America:

Which of the following countries in Latin America did not become democratic after 1978?Cuba

During the first half of the 20th Century a period of growing authoritarianism in Latin America was the result of _______________________.the Great Depression

Select True or False: Latin America was more prosperous in the 1990s than in the 1980s.False

Which institution in Latin America played a primary role in the 19th Century in filling the vacuum of power created by independence?The military

Most of the military regimes in Latin America were ______________.friendly toward the United States

What historical event led to greater political polarization in Latin America?The Cuban Revolution led by Fidel Castro

The "Washington Consensus" called for all of the below, except for __________________.free transportation for the poor

Political polarization in Latin America took place in _________.1959

The Balance of Power in the Southern Cone of Latin America:

Select True or False: The threat of conflict between Argentina and Brazil is presently at the highest level its ever been.False

In 1978, Argentina considered a war against ____________.Chile

Geopolitics is __________________________.the study of the relationship between geography and power politics

The two nonfounding members of the Common Market of the South are _________________.Chile and Bolivia

The Southern Cone of Latin America is composed of Argentina, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay, and _____________________.Chile

In 2004, in order to expand economic ties, MERCOSUR members signed an accord with ___________________.The EU

Select True or False: Today, there is virtually no threat of military conflict between any countries in the Southern Cone.True

Select True or False: In the late 1970s, Argentina, Brazil, Chile, and Paraguay all became democratic countries.False

Today, the Common Market of the South, also known as MERCOSUR (Spanish) or MERCOSUL (Portuguese) includes 6 Latin American countries, except _____________________.Venezuela and Peru

The creation of Uruguay was the result of a longstanding rivalry between _____________________.Argentina and Brazil

Latin American Militaries:

Which of the following statements is true?The military is widely respected in Chile.

According to most observers, South America has been ________________________________ since at least the mid-1990s.a Zone of Peace

What region of the world has been considered a “Zone of Peace”?South America

Which of the following organizations generally discourage military expenditures?All of the answers are correct

Which of the following countries in South America has the biggest military expenditures per year?Brazil

The United States: _______________________________________.All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: Brazil, which accounts for approximately half of the military expenditures in Latin America, is the only country in its region that has a military capable of major expeditionary operations.False

The only country in Latin America that has dramatically increased its military expenditures is ________________________.Columbia

Some view ____________________ as a model for other Latin American militaries.Costa Rica

The primary role of the militaries of Chile and Brazil is that of ______________________.Defense

Historical Framework:

What event caused the Allied European Powers (primarily Britain and France) to divide the Middle East and take territory away from the Ottoman Empire?The Ottoman Empire's support for Germany during World War I

The victory of the European combined forces against the Turkish invading army in the battle at Vienna in 1683 _______________________.all of the answers are correct

Napoleon's occupation of Egypt is significant for which of the following reasons?All of the answers are correct

The Sykes-Picot Agreement provides that _____________________.All of the answers are correct

In the Balfour Declaration, Britain declared _______________________.its support for a Jewish national home in Palestine

The collapse of which empire resulted in today's configuration of the Middle East map?

The Ottoman Empire

How did modern Turkey emerge from the Ottoman Empire?The Turkish forces seized control over most of what is today Turkey by defeating the occupying allied armies

The kingdom of Iraq was created in ___________.1920

What part of the Ottoman Empire became autonomous following the Russo-Turkish war in 1829?Serbia

Following the ________________________ , the Ottoman Empire was abolished and British mandated territories were formalized.Treaty of Sevres

Which goal did Britain not have for the partition of the Middle East following World War I?To promote settlements of the British citizens in the Middle East on its mandated territories

Arab-Israeli Conflict:

Select True or False: The United States government strongly supported the partition of Palestine.False

Select True or False: Following the 1973 war against Israel, Syria and Egypt regained their control over the Golan Heights and Suez Canal.False

During the June 1967 Six Day War, Israel ___________________________occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank

The first direct negotiations between Israelis and PLO took place in ___________________.Oslo, in 1992

The Arab League and Palestinian institutions __________________.rejected the partition plan

The Israelis occupied the Golan Heights, Gaza, and the West Bank following the __________________________.

Six Day War in 1967

Select True or False: The progress of implementing the Oslo Accords was interrupted by the assassination of Israeli Prime Minister Rabin by a Jewish extremist on November 4, 1995.True

The first country which recognized Israel as an independent Jewish state on May 14, 1948, was ________________.the United States

Following the Camp David Accords _________________________.Israeli withdrew from the Sinai

The movement of the Palestinian refugees into the West Bank, Jordan, and the Gaza Strip, in 1947-1948, was a result of the ________________________________.All of the answers are correct

In 1947, the UN General Assembly opted to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states with Jerusalem ______________________.to become an International Zone

On November 22, 1967, the UN issued Resolution 242 calling upon ______________________________.Israel to withdraw from territories occupied in the recent conflict

What is the Bush administration's attitude toward the Security Barrier Israel is constructing on the West Bank?It acquiesced to construction of the wall

United States Security Strategy and Policy:

The leading power in the Middle East after the World War II was __________________.Great Britain

In August of 1945, the Saudi’s gave the United States permission to start building ____________________________.An Air base

During the 1990’s, the U.S. policy goal in the Middle East and the Persian Gulf region was to _____________________________________________.All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: The U.S.-led coalition enjoyed considerable support in the Middle East for the liberation of Iraq from the oppressive regime of Saddam Hussein.False

In the 1950s, the United States supported Saudi Arabia by ____________________________.All of the answers are correct

The Baghdad pact created by Britain, Iraq, Turkey, Iran, and Pakistan served as _______________________________________.A defense alliance against the Soviet Union

May 1945, the Azerbaijan crisis _______________________________.All of the answers are correct

What does Operation Earnest Will stand for?The U.S. escorting Kuwait's oil tankers through the Gulf from 1987 to 1988

The Azerbaijan crisis demonstrated ______________________________.The importance of the Persian Gulf and the Middle East as a potential battleground in the emerging contest with the Soviet Union

In 1953, after a coup d’Etat backed by Britain and the United States, _________________________________________.All of the answers are correct

The Early Years of the People’s Republic of China:

Since 1981, PRC was in possession of ____________________.intercontinental ballistic missiles

Why is China increasingly important today?China's economic, political, and military power is rising

During the Korean War (1950-1953) the U.S. and UN forces had to retreat from the northern part of the Korean peninsula as a result of ____________________________.the sudden intervention of thousands of Chinese forces

In 1949 and in early 1950s, the PRC established a close relationship with __________________.Stalinist USSR

How was the PRC created?

Armies led by Mao Zedong defeated the Republican Chinese government under Chiang Kai-Shek

After being defeated by the Chinese People's Liberation Army (PLA) in 1949, the ROC armies retreated to ____________________.the island of Taiwan

Select True or False: Following the Sino-Soviet Treaty of 1950, the PRC became part of the Soviet Bloc.True

By placing the U.S. Seventh Fleet in the Taiwan Strait, President Truman helped to stop __________________________.All of the answers are correct

How did Chinese Communist forces gain strength during World War II?The Japanese invasion of China gave them a chance to rebuild

Select True or False: According to the Sino-Soviet Security Treaty the USSR had an obligation to Beijing to provide military aid if PRC was attacked by Japan.False

In what year did the PRC explode its first hydrogen bomb?1967

What was the major goal of the CCP in organizing people into work units?All of the answers are correct

China: Alone and Joining the World:

President Nixon went to China because ____________________he thought relations with Beijing would be useful against the USSR and in Vietnam

In the 1950 and 60s, the U.S. policy of “containing” China included ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Deng Xiaoping's reforms ____________________.legitimized private sector in the economy and opened China to foreign investment and trade

Deng Xiaoping's reforms stressed ____________________.

the expending the role of international trade and investment in China's development

The Tiananmen demonstrations ____________________.All of the answers are correct

At the end of the 1950's and in the beginning of 1960s, the hallmark of Chinese policies was ____________________.to promote self-reliance

In the 1960's, China pursued policies of “self-reliance” because ____________________.in the face of an American economic embargo and Soviet pressure, it had no other choice

The Great Leap Forward ____________________.resulted in three years of famine and the deaths of millions of people

China's break from the USSR meant that ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Mao launched the Cultural Revolution in the late 1960s ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: By the end of the1960's, China continued to regard the U.S. as its main adversary.False

South Asia Before Independence:

The Indian national Congress Party and the Muslim League ____________________.Demanded the British leave India

The dominant religions in the South Asian Region include all of the below except:Christianity

What was the name of the explorer who led the first Europeans to India in the late 15th century?Vasco Da Gama

Before 1947, the British colonial empire in South Asia consisted of the present states: Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, Afghanistan and all of the below, except ________________________.Burma

The first Europeans to arrive in India were the ____________________.Portuguese

Why was 1857 a landmark year in South Asian history?Indian Sepoys participated in the first armed mutiny against the British authority.

Select True or False: In Pakistani society the moderates as well as the religious hardliners have traditionally supported organizations such as the Taliban and an Al-Qaeda.False

Since Muslims made up only twenty five percent of the population of South Asia, their leaders ____________________.Called for partition after British leave

Independence and the Partition of the Indian Subcontinent:

The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India ____________________.All of the answers are correct.

________________ pushed hard for the partition of British India into one country populated mostly by Muslims and one country populated mostly by non-Muslims.The Muslim League

Domestic opposition in Pakistan to the U.S.-led war against terrorism is due to ____________________.Traditional support for the Taliban by some Pakistani fundamentalist groups

The India-Pakistan conflict is based upon ____________________ issues.All of the answers are correct

The Mohajirs were ____________________.The Muslims who left India for Pakistan and were treated as outsiders

Select True or False: After the partition of British India until present, there have been no major clashes between Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs.False

The riots in Calcutta on August 16, 1946, also known as “Direct Action day,” were provoked by ____________________.Muslims who were pushing hard for the partition of British India into two nations

The First Kashmir War (January 1948-January 1, 1949), between Pakistan and India, ended as a result of ____________________.The United Nations resolution to cease all hostilities

Why did Muslim leaders of colonial India seek the establishment of an independent state of their own?Muslim leaders felt that in a Hindu-majority, post-independent India, Muslims minorities would be denied full rights.

Select True or False: India and Pakistan, agreed to distribute equally all assets of Colonial India, including the military assets.False

The Line of Control in Kashmir (under the Simla Agreement July, 1972) between Pakistan and India ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Kashmir is a mountainous region known for its ____________________.Climate, beauty, and natural environment

The United Nations has maintained a presence in the disputed area since 1949, and their mission is to ____________________.Observe

South Asia and the Outside World:

The cultural behavior associated with ____________________ is a major cause of current religious intolerance and terrorism in South Asia.Jihad

What events contributed to India's decision to turn to Russia for aid in 1971?All of the answers are correct

What prompted Washington to remove or waive all proliferation and democracy related restrictions on U.S. aid to Pakistan in 2001?Following the 9/11 terrorist attack, the Musharraf government severed all ties with the Taliban and joined the U.S.-led anti-terrorism campaign as a front-line state

Select True or False: In January 2004, Pakistan became a member of NATO.False

Select True or False: After the Cold War and the fall of Communism in the Soviet Union, military and economic cooperation between Russia and India continued to develop.

True

During the Cold War the United States and India ____________________.Had convergent interests on many issues

Select True or False: During the presidency of Bill Clinton in the 1990’s, the relationship between the U.S. and Pakistan improved greatly.False

Select True or False: During the Cold War, the United States was trying to prevent India from achieving self-sufficiency and attempted to make it dependant on U.S. markets.False

During the Cold War India had a policy of ____________________.Non-alignment

India-Pakistan Military Competition:

Select True or False: Since 1947, the Kashmir region has been the cause of four India-Pakistan wars.False

After the withdrawal of British colonial rule, the partition of the Indian subcontinent in 1947 was justified on the grounds of ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Sectarian violence in Pakistan is basically between ____________________.Shias and Sunnis

Kashmir ____________________.All of the answers are correct

In May 2001, after Islamabad conducted five nuclear tests of its own ____________________.All of the answers are correct

The part of Kashmir region controlled by India is known as ______________________.Jammu Kashmir

The “Third Option” stands for ____________________.Kashmiri independence

In 2002, an all-out India-Pakistan war was averted because ____________________.

The intervention by the United States and the restrained attitude of the leaders of both countries helped to resolve this conflict

Under the British partition plan, Kashmir _________________.would be free to accede to either India or Pakistan

Select True or False: The United Nations has maintained an observatory presence in the disputed area since December 1971.False

Which of the following statements is true? Pakistan claims that Kashmir should have become part of Pakistan in 1947 due to the region’s demographics.

The dominant religion of the disputed area of Kashmir is ____________________.Islam

The so-called “Smiling Buddha” represents ____________________.The first nuclear explosive test detonated by India in 1974

European Civilization:

Select True or False: In 8th Century A.D. the Greco-Roman-Christian civilization on the territories of the former Roman Empire was replaced by the Arab-Muslim civilization.False

Due to collapse of the ____________________,the face of Europe radically changed, as a result of the First World War.German, Russian, Ottoman and Austria-Hungarian empires

After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, the Roman traditions, cultural and linguistic influences continue to thrive in Italy, Southern France and Spain but almost completely disappeared in the_________________ parts of the former empire. North-Western

The Triple Entente was a coalition of Britain, France and Russia against Germany and ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: In 2002, a new single European currency, the “EURO,” was introduced to all of EU member countries.False

Select True or False: The confrontation between Germany and the USSR created an alliance between the Communist dictatorship and the Western democracies.True

In the 1920s and 1930s, the rise of ____________________ threatened most European nations.All of the answers are correct

By 1871, the process of unification in the form of one nation-state was complete for several European nations except for the_______________.Serbs

The Protestant movements took place in Europe as a result of a popular dissatisfaction with the ____________________.Catholic Church

In the history of Western Europe, “The Hundred Year War” (1337-1453) was a long struggle between ____________________. England and France

During the Early Middle Ages, in the 8th and 9th centuries, Western Europe was going through a time commonly known as ______________. Dark Ages

The imperial authority as absolute and divine, over the centuries, was deeply implanted and remains even today part of the cultures of the______________________ peoples.Balkan and Russian

Some believe that ____________________ is emerging as one of the America’s major competitors.Europe

The purpose of the U.S. Marshall Plan for Europe was to ____________________.All of the answers are correct

The idea of imperial authority as absolute and divinely instituted originated from ____________________.Byzantine

Select True or False: Throughout the Middle Ages, the Muslim world served as a protective barrier between Western Europe and Byzantine Empire.False

The most populated, largely urbanized and heavily industrialized continent on earth is ____________________.Europe

Introduction to Planning:

When the President or Secretary of Defense makes the decision to take military action related to a crisis, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff will issue a(n) ____________________ to implement the approved military course of actionExecute Order

Contingency planning focuses on ___________________.potential or anticipated emergencies that would likely involve U.S. military forces

A Marine Expeditionary Unit (MEU) commanded by a Marine Colonel is given the objective of securing a inland airbase. In order to divert enemy forces, two Carrier Strike Groups commanded by a Navy Rear Admiral are assigned to execute air strikes as required by the MEU. The MEU commander sends the Admiral copies of his plans and a list of targets he needs to be attacked prior to his assault on the airbase. Which is most likely the supported commander for this operation?The Colonel commanding the MEU.

An Operation Order (OPORD) is ____________________.a directive to subordinate commanders for the purpose of effecting the coordinating execution of an operation

Which of the following is correct?A commander may be a supporting commander for one operation while being a supported commander for another.

A concept plan (CONPLAN) ____________________.is an abbreviated Operation Plan (OPLAN) that would require considerable expansion or alteration to convert it into an OPLAN

Which situations are not appropriate subjects for contingency planning?None of the answers are correct

A(n) ___________________ provides essential planning guidance and directs the initiation of execution planning after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action.Alert Order

Which of the following is correct?In the Crisis Action Planning process, an Alert Order is generally issued after the President or Secretary of Defense approves a military course of action.

Joint strategic planning ____________________.

All the answers are correct

Which of the following statements is NOT true?Crisis Action Planning only takes place when a situation develops that will require U.S. military combat operations as a response.

The Role of Intelligence:

Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?All the answers are correct

What is the primary difference between Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) for conventional war vice for Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW)?The focus

The battlespace environment is best described as _____________________.the geographic dimensions of land, air, sea, and space that encompass the operations area and the nonphysical dimensions that may extend well beyond the designated operational area

Which step of the IPB process seeks to go beyond the battlespace awareness in order to help the JFC attain battlespace knowledge?Determine adversary potential COAs.

Gathering information of potential intelligence value from sources such as newspapers, television broadcasts and the internet is a part of which intelligence discipline?Open-source Intelligence

Select True or False: Although the four steps in the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) process remain the same across the spectrum of conflict, they may be compacted or expanded as time permits.True

Which statement does NOT reflect Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) focus?Highlights the COA the enemy will pursue

Select True or False: An effective method for evaluating adversary capabilities is to review them in light of U.S. doctrine.False

The primary purpose of the Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is to ____________________.

support the commander’s planning and decision making by identifying, assessing and estimating the adversary

Which of the following could result from the failure to accurately evaluate the adversary?All the answers are correct

Select True or False: The Intelligence Preparation of the Battlespace (IPB) is conducted exclusively prior to an operation to support the commander’s planning effort.False

Determining the intention of allies and potential coalition partners is a focus of intellegence at what level of war?Strategic level

Navy Planning Process:

Which statement best states what a good Course of Action provides to the operation?All the answers are correct

The Navy Planning Process is conducted at what level (s) of command?All the answers are correct

The Intelligence of the Battlespace process assists in identifying facts and assumptions about ____________________ and ____________________.the battlespace environment; the adversary

Which statement is correct when discussing the Navy Planning Process?A logical decision process that helps focus the commander and staff

Select True or False: Once a wargame has begun, a commander may change an existing Course of Action.True

Select True or False: The Navy Planning Process is a rigid step-by-step process that, if followed, will lead the staff to a decision.False

Law of the Sea and Airspace:

Beyond the outer boundary of the Exclusive Economic Zone begin the high seas, which _______________.All the answers are correct

References regarding the law of the sea include which of the following?All the answers are correct

Why does the “law of the sea and airspace” matter?All the answers are correct

National waters are subject to the territorial sovereignty of coastal nations and include which of the following?All the answers are correct

Select True or False: According to UNCLOS, territorial seas extend to a maximum breadth of 12 nautical miles and may be temporarily closed (with the exception of international straits) by a coastal nation for security purposes.True

Historic bays are __________.Exempt from normal rules.

Scope:

Select True or False: The Department of Defense, Combatant Commanders and the Navy have issued directives that state that the armed forces of the United States will, unless otherwise directed by competent authorities, comply with the principles and spirit of the Law Of Armed Conflict during armed conflict but not during operations that do not involve armed conflict.False

Given that it has been determined that the al-Qaida and Taliban members captured in Afghanistan should be classified as unlawful combatants, which of the following statements is true?The U.S. is not required to afford these people the same treatment afforded POWs under the Geneva Conventions, but will do so as a matter of U.S. domestic policy.

Select True or False: The Geneva Conventions of 1949, which govern many aspects of military operations, are similar to the Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC), in that they apply to all nations.false

Select True or False: U.S. policy views much of the language of the Geneva Conventions as a minimum concerning the conduct of hostilities and the care of victims of armed conflict.FALSE

If a signatory nation to the Geneva Convention is engaged in armed conflict with a non-signatory nation ____________________.the LOAC is applicable to both nations, while the terms of the Geneva Convention bind only the signatory nation

The Law Of Armed Conflict (LOAC) is ____________________.a generally accepted body of international law

U.S. policy views the terms of the Geneva Conventions as ____________________.a minimum standard

Select True or False: The United States’ policy is to broadly apply the LOAC when conducting military operations so that it may more easily punish its enemies after the cessation of hostilities.False

Principles:

In attacking a legitimate military objective, ____________________.incidental consequences must not be excessive when balanced against the anticipated concrete and direct military advantage to be gained from the attack

Military medical officers, if captured ____________________.are not considered prisoners of war, but may be retained in prisoner of war camps to provide medical services to POWs

Feigning surrender in order to determine the location of enemy ground forces is an acceptable tactic.False. Such tactics are considered perfidy and are considered war crimes.

Once a civilian object has been occupied and misused by the enemy’s forces during an armed engagement, ____________________.while a legitimate military object at the time of occupation and misuse, its status must be continually verified to ensure it does not return to civilian object status

Journalists that are embedded within military units engaged in armed conflict ____________________.may not be targeted, but are to be afforded POW status if captured

Select True or False: Because every weapon system acquired and deployed by the U.S. military undergoes a review to ensure its legality under LOAC, there is no need for a service member to worry that its use would violate LOAC.

False

Select True or False: It is possible for a person (such as a reservist) to be classified simultaneously as both a civilian and a combatant.False

General Principles:

Judge advocates are ____________________.used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to assist planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)

U.S. policy is that during military operations short of armed conflict, U.S. forces ____________________.shall apply the spirit and intent of LOAC

Select True or False: Well developed Rules of Engagement need not to be developed in light of the nation’s political goals.False

Select True or False: Rule of Engagement (ROE) only delineate the circumstances and limitations under which U.S. forces will continue combat engagement as only the nation’s civilian leaders may initiate a combat engagement.False

Select True or False: U.S. civilian leaders are not involved in the development of Rules of Engagement (ROE) other than approving the ROE as presented to them by the military establishment.False

The Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission must ____________________.allow forces the ability to defend themselves and accomplish the mission

Select True or False: Political leaders generally want to ensure the Rules of Engagement (ROE) for any given mission protect U.S. nationals and their property.True

Judge advocates are involved in the Rules of Engagement (ROE) development in order to ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: Rules of Engagement (ROE) must allow operational planners and tactical level operators enough leeway to effectively accomplish their assigned missions.True

Judge advocates are ____________________.used to assist in Rules of Engagement (ROE) training for the forces that will execute the mission and to assist planners and operators as they develop or request mission specific Rules of Engagement (ROE)

The three major components of Rules of Engagement (ROE) are ____________________.political, military and legal

Select True or False: Domestic and international public support of a military action is a factor to be considered when developing Rules of Engagement (ROE).True

SROE:

Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) do not apply to U.S. forces supporting law enforcement agencies conducting special event security within the U.S. if the suspected threat is a terrorist group based in a foreign country.False

Select True or False: The unclassified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) can serve as a coordination tool with U.S. allies for the development of combined or multinational ROE.True

Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not require proportionality in the use of force in self-defense as to do so would restrict a commander's inherent right and obligation of self-defense.False

Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) do not include the destruction of a hostile force under actions permitted in self-defense.False

Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are applicable during peacetime.True

U.S. Rules of Engagement are considered permissive because they ____________________.provide commanders with the flexibility to act quickly and decisively without repetitively requesting permission to take certain actions

Select True or False: The guidance concerning the inherent right of self-defense provided by the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) are only applicable to U.S. forces operating in areas outside of U.S. territorial jurisdiction.False

Select True or False: The goals of U.S. national security policy include maintaining a stable international environment consistent with U.S. national interests.True

When U.S. forces are operating in Puerto Rico, they are governed by ____________________.the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) as Puerto Rico is within the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S. and the U.S. Standard Rules of Engagement (SROE) if responding to a military attack

In its guidance concerning self-defense measures, the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) ____________________.permit the pursuit of a hostile force if the force remains an imminent threat

Select True or False: The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to U.S. forces during military attacks against the United States.True

The U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) apply to all U.S. forces during military operations ____________________.occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the U.S.

Self Defense:

Select True or False: A commander’s inherent authority and obligation to use all necessary means available and to take all appropriate actions in self-defense is limited to the self-defense of the commander’s own unit.False

A civilian may exhibit hostile intent sufficient to meet the necessity requirement for the use of force in self-defense.If his or her actions demonstrates the threat of the imminent use of force.

The use of an attack to disable or destroy a threatening force ____________________.

is authorized when such action is the only prudent means by which a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent can be prevented or terminated

When involved in a situation that authorizes the use of force in self-defense, the commander ____________________.should give the threatening force a warning and give it the opportunity to withdraw or cease threatening actions if time and circumstances permit

Select True or False: As a form of self-defense, the use of riot control agents is always authorized.False

Who may authorize U.S. forces to protect U.S. nationals and property from attack?All of the answers are correct

Select True or False: The concept of hostile intent permits U.S. forces to defend themselves before they are attacked.True

Select True or False: Preparation to use force may satisfy the imminent threat requirement for self-defense.True

Mission Accomplishment:

In selecting the course of action (COA) to be used to accomplish an assigned mission ____________________.the Rules of Engagement required to support each COA need to be considered

In any type of planning, the ____________________ assumes the role of the principal assistant to staff director for operations in developing and integrating Rules of Engagement (ROE) into operational planning.Staff Judge Advocate

Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are ____________________.All of the answers are correct

____________________.all factor into the development of mission-specific Rules of Engagement (ROE).Political, military and legal objectives

Select True or False: The classified portion of the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) contains combat Rules of Engagement (ROE) tailored to various missions that a U.S. could be assigned to perform.

False

Supplemental Rules of Engagement (ROE) ____________________.augment the U.S. Standing Rules of Engagement (SROE) and theater-specific ROE, if any and should be constantly reviewed by commanders to ensure they are sufficient to successfully accomplish the mission

The Operation Order (OPORD) that is promulgated by the commander of an assigned mission should/may include all of the following except ___________.requests for supplemental measures

Commanders who have been delegated the responsibility to draft Theater-Specific Rules of Engagement are required to ____________________.constantly review them and modify as necessary

Select True or False: Supplemental Measures concerning mission accomplishment and Rules of Engagement may define certain permissible targets.True

Rules of Engagement (ROE) are permissive ____________________.but may impose restrictions on the use of certain weapons and/or tactics

Rules of Engagement (ROE) development ____________________.is parallel and collaborative with operations planning and require extensive coordination

RUF:

Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force only apply to operations conducted inside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States.False

Select True or False: The Rules for the Use of Force may govern U.S. forces overseas when they are protecting vital government assets.True

Select True or False: Operations that would be governed by the Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) would include disaster relief response.True

Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States in support of another agency (for example the U.S. Coast Guard) may operate under that agency’s Rules for the Use of Force (RUF).True

Select True or False: When operating in support of other government agencies, U.S. military forces always operate under Rules for the Use of Force developed specifically for that operation.False

Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to U.S. Naval Ships while in foreign ports.True

Select True or False: U.S. forces operating within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States may operate under Rules for the Use of Force (RUF) that are developed specifically for the mission they are assigned.True

Select True or False: Rules for the Use of Force apply to protecting U.S. Naval Ships in international watersTrue

Military Space Mission Areas:

Select True or False: A fundamental requirement for the U.S. military to implement Information Superiority is effective use of space assets.True

Space capabilities__________________________:All the answers are correct

Space Systems are shared and interconnected systems of computers, communications, people, and other support structures thatInclude command and control, tactical, intelligence, and commercial communications systems used to transmit DOD dataServe DOD information needs

Select True or False: Currently, space force application assets are operating in spaceFalse

Select True or False: Space support operations consist of operations that launch, deploy, augment, maintain, sustain, replenish, deorbit, and recover space forces, including the command and control network configuration for space operations.True

Select True or False: Space force application operations consist of attacks against terrestrial-based targets carried out by military weapons systems operating in or through space.True

Select True or False: Space control operations provide freedom of action in space for friendly forces while, when directed, denying it to an adversary, and include the broad aspect of protection of U.S. and U.S. allied space systems and negation of enemy adversary space systems.True

The force enhancement function concerned with providing timely detection and warning of ballistic missile launch and nuclear detonation is: _________________________.Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment

The military space mission area concerned with launch, replenishment of spares, and orbital control is __________________.Space support

The four military space mission areas are _______________________.Space Control, Space Support, Force Application, and Force Enhancement

The space force enhancement function concerned with providing data on meteorological, oceanographic, and space environmental factors that might affect operations in other battlespace dimensions is _______________.Environmental monitoring

The following functions are three of the five functions assigned to the Space Force Enhancement mission area: __________________________.Communications; Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment; Environmental Monitoring

Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.True

Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance:

Select True or False: Space capabilities and their effects touch every facet of our combat operations.All the answers are correct

Select True or False: Surveillance from space infers that a single satellite or “system” must be continuously collecting.False

The most significant advantage of a space-based Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance sensor is __________________________.the ability to provide continuous and focused coverage

Select True or False: Satellite systems may be affected by a variety of atmospheric disturbances which affect the ability of imaging systems to detect adversary activity, missile launches, and battle damage.True

Select True or False: Single low and medium earth orbiting systems or architectures that provide limited numbers of low or medium orbital systems are well suited to the reconnaissance mission.True

ISR support:All the answers are correct

In Operation Iraqi Freedom, space-based ISR:Was a central factor in assuring rapid military success.

Integrated tactical warning and Attack Assessment:

Select True or False: Space-Based Infrared System (SBIRS) will combine scanning with staring sensors to provide continuous tracks of tactical missiles.True

Select True or False: DSP detected Iraqi Scud missile launches during Desert Storm.True

Select True or False: Space systems provide warning of ballistic missile launches. Voice and data warning information is immediately relayed to the warfighter in near real time to support tactical decision making to counter the threat.True

The SBIRS ground architecture______________________.All the answers are correct

Select True or False: Defense Support Program is well suited to dealing with the diverse threats of the post-communist era.False

Select True or False: The Defense Support Program (DSP) constellation of geosynchronous early-warning satellites is a quintessential Cold War system which was

originally conceived to provide warning of strategic-missile launches against the United States and its allies.True

Theater Ballistic Missile Detection and Warning _____________________.All the answers are correct

Select True or False: The ground-control element of SBIRS satellites became operational in 2001, fully replacing the old DSP ground architecture the following year. As a result, tactical users got more mileage out of DSP satellites in Iraqi Freedom than they did in the earlier Persian Gulf War.True

Theater missile warning data is:Gathered by ground stations, then processed and disseminated over communications networks, including space assets.

Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Attack Assessment" is defined as _______________________.the evaluation of information to determine the nature and objective of an attack

Within the term Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment (ITW/AA), the definition of "Tactical Warning" is defined as _______________________.a specific threat event that is occurring

Select True or False: U.S. exchanges missile detection and warning information with its allies and coalition partners.True

Environmental Monitoring:

Weather affects ________________________.All the answers are correct

____________ support from space is needed for weather forecasts and operational planning.Meteorological and Oceanographic

Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features can be used by the commander to _________________.avoid submarine or maritime mine threatsconcentrate forces in an area where an adversary is most likely to be operating

Weather satellites have a limited multi-spectral capability, typically gathering data in _____ spectral bands.All the answers are correct

Select True or False: Space weather can degrade or disrupt various forms of communications.True

Knowledge of the location and characteristics of oceanographic features such as _______ are critical for undersea warfare operations.All the answers are correct

Communications:

Heavy solar activity ___________________________.can disrupt satellite communications for short periods of time, causing communications outages in extreme cases

Select True or False: SATCOM in the Ku- and Ka- bands, as well as EHF systems, are particularly affected by rain (the higher the frequency, the greater the effect). Rain not only degrades the signal but, if heavy enough, can cause a complete outage.True

Wideband satellite communications support ________________.All the answers are correct

Significant advantages of satellite communication systems over terrestrial communication systems are _________________________.global coverage, security, flexibility

Military units must be able to communicate over long distances with:All the answers are correct

Select True or False: Requirements for SATCOM service worldwide significantly exceed the capacity of current MILSATCOM systems.True

Select True or False: Protected satellite communications permits the use of smaller antennas that increase its mobility, enabling wider use of submarine, airborne, and other mobile terminals.True

Position, Timing, Velocity and Navigation:

Select True or False: The use of nulling antennas/ filters, and the correct placement of GPS receivers on various platforms all improve jamming resistance.True

NAVSTAR GPS provides the primary space-based source for U.S. and allied:All the answers are correct

Although the presence of the highly accurate navigational information from the Global Positioning System constellation is exploitable by adversary forces, it is unlikely the Global Positioning System signal will be interdicted to interrupt the signal availability to adversary forces because ________________.signal interruption will affect the tremendous civil dependence upon Global Positioning System

GPS navigation signals are affected by ionospheric scintillation. Scintillation is a local effect that has daily and seasonal variations. The effects are worse at ________ and will usually taper off by _______.local sunset / local midnight

Benefits to Naval forces from GPS include:All the answers are correct

Global Positioning System is the fundamental system that allows all U.S. forces to establish a _______________, where all forces are geographically referenced correctly and precisely synchronized operations are possible.Common grid

Use of hand-held receivers diminishes capabilities. Units relying on hand-held GPS receivers in areas of ______may have diminished GPS capabilities.dense vegetation or steep terrain

Data and Information:

Select True or False: The concept of operations and commander's intent should convey only a general idea or mental image of the operation and the desired outcome. Details will always come later.False

Information systems consist of _____________________.entire infrastructure, organization, personnel, and components that collect, process, store, transmit, display, disseminate, and act on information

The higher you are in the chain of command, the more you rely on _________________.Information systems

The commander may "pull" or extract information in a C² architecture for the following reason.Situational awareness among subordinate commanders

All are true statements about information EXCEPT ___________.information is deemed more reliable if it comes from an officer

Information is used to help create an understanding of the situation as the basis for making a decision. This image-building information will contain _____________ .status and disposition of our own forces

_____________ is the lifeblood of any C² system.Information

New information that conflicts with our existing image requires us either to __________.validate the image or revise it

Select True or False: Secondhand information normally elicits the same natural intuitive evaluation of reliability.False

Decisions should be based on ___________.Information

C2:

_________________ drive(s) the command and control process.Information

In addition to mission responsibility, with respect to personnel, Command includes the authority and responsibility for:health & welfaredisciplinemorale

Feedback is a vital element of control; it gives the commander a way to:Monitor eventsAdapt to changing circumstancesAdjust the allocation of resources

The naval commander monitors and guides the actions of his forces through ____________________.a command and control system

Select True or False: Command is defined as the authority that a commander in the armed forces lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.True

Select True or False: C² refers both to the process and to the system by which the commander decides what must be done and by how he sees that his decisions are carried out.True

Select True or False: Effective training, education, and doctrine will make it more likely that subordinates will take the proper action in combat. This is control before the action but nonetheless is still control.True

While the conscious brain (the commander) sets overall goals and direction, it is the subconscious brain (______________________) that monitors and regulates most actions.subordinate commanders and forces

Decision Making:

Select True or False: Although the decision and execution cycle is focused on the operational commander, all phases of the cycle are active at each echelon of command.True

Select True or False: During the action phase, the commander monitors/observes the execution of operations and gauges the results. This is intended merely to gauge results. It is important not to reinitiate the decision cycle based upon post action phase observations.False

Orientation is the key to our entire decision cycle, because it influences the way we _______, _________ , and _________ .observe / decide / act

Deriving knowledge from a common tactical picture results in _______________.situational awareness

_______________ is a continuous, cyclical process by which a commander makes decisions and exercises authority over subordinate commanders in accomplishing an assigned mission.C2

After the commander derives his understanding (orientation) of the battlespace, his next step is to ___________ on a course of action and develop a plan.Decide

Forcenet:

Select True or False: In a world of complex interrelationships, where a single shot can have global ramifications, naval professionals must share databases with government agencies and nongovernmental organizations.True

By fully leveraging the power of information, U.S. and coalition forces will gain the knowledge needed to dominate the tempo of operations by:Enhancing deterrenceControlling crisesSustaining warfighting superiority

The Navy's success in Operation Enduring Freedom in Afghanistan can be attributed to unprecedented tactical flexibility made possible by:Coordination over secure data links and voice circuitsPrecision-guided munitions made effective by these systemsAdvanced sensing and targeting systems in the air and on the ground

____________________ uses integrated information to identify and neutralize threats, locate and destroy anti-access challenges and intercept missiles.Sea shield

____________________ draws on comprehensive data to sustain critical functions afloat.Sea Basing

Select True or False: Investment in intra-theatre capabilities will enable the development of high endurance organic communication hubs that enhance and extend intra-theatre networking.True

Seapower 21:

Sea Power 21 divides the Navy’s roles and missions into three fundamental concepts:Sea Basing – Projecting joint operational independenceSea Strike – Projecting precise and persistent offensive powerSea Shield – Projecting global defensive assurance

Select True or False: SeaPower 21 sets the stage for minimal increases in naval precision, reach, and connectivity. Joint operations, though important, will come secondary to blue water capabilities and a shore based support infrastructure. Innovative concepts and technologies that integrate sea, land, air, space, and cyberspace will be incorporated if, and when, the need arises.False

Select True or False: SeaPower 21 represents a clear vision of the Navy’s part in future joint warfighting in an unpredictable strategic environment typified by regional and transnational threats.True

Select True or False: A major premise of SeaPower 21 is that we will continue the evolution of U.S. naval power from the blue-water, war-at-sea focus to an emphasis of “From the Sea” and “Forward from the Sea,” strategy.True

Identify the elements of FORCEnet.Sea Trial, Sea Warrior, Sea Enterprise

The SeaPower 21 concept is enabled by _________ and that, in turn, is enabled by ___________ .FORCEnet, information technology

Force Multiplication: Sensors Throughout Military History:

Which of the following sensor types uses sound to detect a target?Sonar

Infrared systems are best used to detect ____________________.a warm object against a relatively cool background

Night vision goggles “see” in the dark by using ____________________.ambient light

Infrared-based detection, tracking and guidance systems are used in which weapon?AIM-9 Sidewinder missile

Select True or False: The AIM-9 Sidewinder missile has proven to be a disappointment as its limited success has not justified its high cost.False

Improving our ability to survey the environment improves our capacity to ____________________.defend against attackseize the initiative

The Global Positioning System has allowed its users to ____________________.All of the answers are correct

Although first patented in 1904, radar wasn’t very militarily useful until ____________________.World War II

Which type of sensor system received increased military interest as a result of German submarine activity during World War I?Sonar

How do Sensor Systems Work?:

A sensor with a linear transfer function is one that ___________.has an output that is directly proportional to input over its entire range

If system “A” has an antenna gain of 1 and system “B” has an antenna gain of 4, which statement is not true?System B’s signal’s power per unit area is one fourth that of system A’s signal.

A bistatic sensor is defined as a sensor system having __________.a transmitter in one location and the receiver in another

Which is not typically considered a component of a sensor system?Warhead

Which statement is true?Sensitivity of a sensor is the change in output of the sensor per unit change in the parameter being measured.

Refraction refers to ______________.the redirection of a signal wave due to changes in the properties of the medium the signal is traveling through

Interference may be ___________.

constructive and destructive

Spectroscopy is used to determine __________.what wavelengths are coming off a target

Understanding the Frequency Spectrum:

The speed of sound through water changes with ____________________.water temperature

A hull-mounted sonar transmits a 3 KHz acoustic signal into fresh water at 20 degrees C. What is the wavelength of the signal?.5m

Select True or False: The appropriate sensor size for a 10 KHz acoustic signal in sea water at 20 degrees C would be the same for underwater and above water platforms.False

Select True or False: The elasticity of sea water is the same as that of fresh water.False

Select True or False: For a given frequency, a larger sensor can receive more effectively than a smaller oneFalse

Select True or False: Sensor size is proportional to wavelength.True

What is the most appropriate platform for an acoustic sensor operating at 20 Hz?Surface ship

What is an alternative way of writing 7.4 x 108 Hz?740 MHz

Gamma rays are a good example of ____________________.high frequency and low wavelength

Select True or False: The terms standard industry, standard international, and standard military are synonymous when referring to frequency band designations.False

Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems:

Biological weapons detectors are currently deployed aboard ________.None of the answers are correct

Select True or False: The military fields and continues to use systems that may be generations behind the civilian state of the art in order to avoid being forced to utilize unreliable assets.True

The operator of a radar that is the victim of cover pulse jamming will observe ____________________.multiple false targets at various distances and bearings as well as the true target

Increased sensor computing power and speed will contribute to making our combat ability more efficient, more cost effective and safer by ________________.All the answers are correct

Of the various optical sensors, those with the greatest promise of increased abilities in the future include ________________.unmanned aerial vehicles

Electronic Warfare sensors alone may not be the optimum method to identify actual threats to its platform because ____________.many nations utilize commercial radar on their naval ships which may lead to misidentification

Select True or False: In order to increase the efficiency of the detection-to-engagement sequence, one can never have too much sensor provided information. The more information that can be collected, the easier the human decision making process is in a tense, stressful environment.False

Erratic environmental conditions can adversely affect all sensors except ____________.None of the answers are correct

Information-dense wave packets are used to defeat which kind of jamming?Cover pulse jamming

A major disadvantage of using submarine based active sonar is __________.that it may give away the presence of the submarine utilizing the active sonar

The sending out of electromagnetic pulses identical to a target's radar at unexpected times is used in __________.cover pulse jamming

___________ is one of the current challenges to increasing our ability to avoid being detected by an infrared sensor.How to increase a platform’s ability to cool and diffuse exhaust gases

Maintaining Technical Superiority:

Select True or False: All officers that have been involved in Navy program management are barred from working for defense contractors after retirement because to do so would be a conflict of interest.False

Navy officers that directly contribute to Navy program management are typically ___________________.All the answers are correct

___________________ control(s) large scope programs not falling within the scope of a Systems Command.Program Executive Offices

Unmanned autonomous sensor carrying vehicles are being developed in order to ___________________.increase personnel safety

Select True or False: Because of the rapid increase of computing power, and every indication that such increases will continue at least for at least the next 10 years, there is no longer the danger of what is commonly referred to as information overload.False

Select True or False: The Navy's development of new technologies is managed completely by Department of the Navy civilian personnel.False

Computer for the Warfighter:

Select True or False: Embedded microprocessors are tailored to limited applications.True

The compiler converts ____________________.high level code into assembly language code

Select True or False: One of the keys to effective personal computer use is to isolate the user from high level programming language and hardware.

False

Select True or False: The microprocessors in personal computers are called limited purpose microprocessors.False

Select True or False: Access times for non-volatile memory tend to be slower than for volatile memory.True

The assembler converts ____________________.assembly language code into binary data

Select True or False: The volatile memory in a computer is used for the boot-up process.False

The types of memory/storage in a computer, listed in order from fastest to slowest access are ____________________.register, cache, RAM, mass storage

What are the four subsystems that make up a computer system’s hardware?Microprocessor, memory, mass storage, input/output devices

The group of logic devices that can perform mathematical operations on data in the microprocessor’s registers is called the ____________________.arithmetic logic unit

What controls the switching of states in the control unit?Clock

____________________ is the process by which excess RAM is temporarily stored in mass storage.Virtual memory

____________________ is the most complicated of the resource management functions.Processor management

Stealth Technology:

To determine the RCS of a cylinder, the key consideration is ____________________.polarization of the cylinder

A B-52 bomber is not considered an example of low-observable technology because of ____________________.large RCS and IR signature

Select True or False: Since a jumbo jet liner is much larger than a pickup truck, its RCS should be much larger.False

Select True or False: Non-imaging sensor systems can establish the presence of a target, but cannot provide information regarding movement.False

Methods used to reduce RCS include ____________________.avoiding large, flat surfaces and using radar absorbing material

Stealth technology reduces radar signatures by ____________________.complex tradeoffs which eliminate or reduce returns to all enemy sensor systems

Select True or False: Scattering, which occurs when an electromagnetic wave encounters a physical object, is the dispersal of particle beams of radiation into a range of directions.True

Select True or False: At changing higher frequencies, the RCS of a sphere changes dramatically.False

A critical capability of sensor systems is to ____________________.distinguish specific target electronic signatures from background data

Select True or False: Stealth technology helps to prevent detection, but once detected a stealth platform can easily be tracked and targeted.False

Electro-Optic Technology:

Most passive emissions occur in which portion of the spectrum?IR

The amount of energy in an electromagnetic wave is ____________________.proportional to the frequency

Select True or False: Laser designators work by providing the sensor a good overall image of the target, from which the attacking force can decide precisely where to engage the target.False

Select True or False: The goal of precision guided munitions is to steer the ordnance so that the reflected spot on the target is centered on the detector.True

Select True or False: Most objects emit electromagnetic radiation.False

____________________ is an example of long range application of passive emission detection.Thermal imaging

The use of laser designators has the disadvantage of ____________________.placing the designating force at risk of detection

The accuracy of a typical laser designator is approximately ____________________.5m

An example of long wavelength, low frequency is ____________________.AM radio waves

The optical spectrum consists of ____________________.IR, visible and UV

Select True or False: Laser guided munitions work best in environments with good visual conditions.True

Radar:

Select True or False: Larger targets exhibit “up Doppler” while smaller targets have “down Doppler.”False

Blind speeds are a problem with ____________________.pulse Doppler

How long will it take a radar signal to travel to and from a target 90 KM from the radar?0.6 milliseconds

Select True or False: Continuous wave radar uses Doppler shift to determine target size.False

Select True or False: Radar analyzes a returned signal to determine properties of the object from which the signal reflected.True

Select True or False: A phased array antenna forms a transmitter beam by using small antennas arranged in rectangular or circular arrays.True

Pulse radar is effective at ____________________.determining a target’s relative velocity

Select True or False: Radial speed is the speed at which a target is moving toward or away from a radar.True

Select True or False: A continuous wave radar returned from a moving object will be the same frequency as the transmitted energy.False

What is the maximum unambiguous range of a radar with a PRF of 5 KHz?30 km

A continuous wave radar receiver consists of ____________________.mixer, amplifier, and discriminator

____________________ radar creates a synthetic antenna as big as the distance covered by the target.Inverse synthetic aperture

PPME

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