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PMP Questions

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1) If a stakeholder has any questions about project deliverables, as the PM, you should direct him to the:a) WBSb) Project planc) Preliminary Scope statementd) None of the above

2) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says that he cannot fulfil the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had signed in the contract. He is referring to the:a) Force majeure clauseb) Fixed price clausec) Contract obligation termsd) None of the above

3) Your vendor has confirmed in writing that he will not be able to provide the products contracted to him, in the time mentioned in the contract. You can terminate the contract and sue for damages. This is a type of:a) Minor breachb) Anticipatory breachc) Material breachd) Fundamental breach 4) As a PM, you manage multiple projects. One of your projects is over budget while the other is under budget. You decide to transfer money from the latter to the former and report both projects as within budget. This is against the PMI code of ethics and is called:a) Unethical managementb) Budget tamperingc) Fraudulent reportingd) Cost leveling5) Your brother can influence bids in the vendor company that has been contracted for your project. You should:a) Disclose the bid price that is most likely to make him winb) Reject other vendors and award him the contractc) Refrain from the decision-making process and make a full disclosure to stakeholders and wait for their decision before you proceedd) Pretend during meetings that you don't know your brother

6) A project you are managing is about to be completed. But there is a minor defect in the work produced by the contractor. You should:a) Neglect the defect if it is trivialb) Ask the contractor to fix according to SOWc) Submit a change requestd) None of the above

7) As a PM, you have identified some low priority risks. You should:a) Neglect them as they will mostly not occurb) Add them to a watch list and add to the risk registerc) Plan detailed response plansd) None of the above

8) One of your team members' A's father was sick when you were in the planning stage of your project. A had informed you that he might have to leave to visit his father if the situation arose. You had planned for this and spoke to the functional manager of your group to provide a back-up resource, B to be used if necessary.Now, A has left to see his father and B is filling in for him. But B is taking more than expected time to get up to speed and this impacts project cost and schedule.

This is an example of a:a) Residual riskb) Secondary riskc) Contingency pland) None of the above

9) To motivate your team, you decided to reward a team member who performed well. This hurt cohesion in the team. You should:a) Reset award criteriab) Modify reward strategy to be win-win for the teamc) Award only two peopled) Declare that there will be no rewards going forward

10) Your project uses a vendor who has completed 50% of the contracted work. You are unsure of how much to pay the vendor. You should refer to the:a) Request for proposalb) Contract c) Response to bidd) Statement of work

11) When estimating time for activities, a PM should:a) Use random guessing and estimate for all activities as there will be changes anywaysb) Involve people who will be doing the work to get estimatesc) Estimate for what the cost will allow and not include buffersd) None of the above

12) When there are people from different countries and cultures in a team, the PM should:a) Neglect the cultural differencesb) Deal with everyone with an iron handc) Recognize that there are cultural differencesd) Mentor each person

13) If your business sponsor has an important but minor change to the scope, and he requests that you make the change without having to process a change request:a) Accomodate the change b) Refuse to make the changec) Sneak the change in when no one is lookingd) Request the client that the change management process has to be followed

14) If a stakeholder directly asks a team member to make changes and the team member accommodates it:a) Admonish the team member during the team meeting so that other team members are also awareb) Inform the stakeholder that he should not talk to your team memberc) Talk to the stakeholder and team member in private, and emphasise gently that the Integrated Change Control process should be followedd) Pretend to not know about the change and let it happen

15) When your client is ready to accept the product your project has produced, you should:a) Refer to the quality plan to see if the product meets specificationsb) Refer to project management planc) Obtain client sign off and follow administrative closure processd) Let go off the project resources and assign them to other projects

16) Appreciating a team member's good work in front of the team results in:a) Jealousy among other team members and should be avoided b) Encouragement for the team member and motivation for other team membersc) Shouldn't be done as it shows preferenced) None of the above

17) As the project manager of an important project, you learnt many helpful tools and tips. What should you do?a) Keep them to yourselfb) Archive your learning in the project folder and share with other PMsc) Sign a non-disclosure agreementd) None of the above

18) You just found out that the company that you were planning to use in your project is known for being late in delivering their products that can lead to losses to the project. You decide to go with a different company to ______ the risk.a) Mitigateb) Rejectc) Transferd) Avoid19) You are the project manager of a project that involves sensitive information. You are inviting bids from vendors for some tasks on this project. Since the winning vendor will have access to the sensitive information, you should:a) Decide to drop the vendor and instead do the tasks using an internal teamb) Swear the vendor to secrecyc) Ask the vendor to sign a non-disclosure agreementd) Threaten to take the vendor to court20) A project is behind schedule. Two senior resources are added to help speeden work. The result is:a) Project will be completed on timeb) Project cost will not increase c) Project may not be completed on time due to increased number of communication channelsd) None of the above

21) Project scope statement is the output of:a) Scope planningb) Scope definitionc) Both a and bd) None of the above

22) Requested changes to scope and recommended corrective action belong to which process:a) Scope verificationb) Scope definitionc) Scope controld) All of the above

23) Scope planning takes place:a) After requirements are gathered b) Early in the projectc) After scope is finalizedd) None of the above

24) Project charter isa) An output of Scope planning b) Input to scope planningc) Created after preliminary project scope statementd) All of the above

25) An example of organizational process asset is:a) Company policy documentb) Organizational culturec) Organization structured) Organization type

26) Qualitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:a) Planningb) Executingc) Monitoringd) Controlling

27) Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:a) Planningb) Executingc) Monitoringd) Controlling

28) Risk register is an output of:a) Risk identificationb) Qualitative risk analysisc) Quantitative risk analysisd) Risk response planning

29) Risk register update is a primary output of:a) Quantitative risk analysis b) Qualiitative risk analysis c) Risk monitoring and controld) All of the above

30) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:a) Risk register updatesb) Recommended corrective actionsc) Recommended preventive actionsd) All of the above

31) Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs: a) Risk register updatesb) Risk management planc) Risk registerd) All of the above

32) A risk is a bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is:a) Always trueb) Always falsec) Sometimes trued) None of the above

33) The triple constraints in project management are:a) Scope, Time, costb) Time, scope, performancec) Scope, Time, pland) Scope, Time, quality

34) Any changes to the project after the plan is prepared:i) Have to be processed according to the Integrated Change Control processii) Have to be assessed for impactiii) Can be done without impact analysis if the impact is zero or minimaliv) Should not be done as they were not in the original plan

a) i, iib) i, ii, iiic) i, ii, ivd) None of the above

35) Schedule development produces the following output:a) Project scheduleb) WBSc) Activity timed) Project plan

36) Critical path is:a) The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activitiesb) Difference between end time and start time of projectc) The longest time it takes to complete all project activitiesd) The shortest time it takes to complete all project activities

37) When there are multiple critical paths in a project:a) The risk is less as it is divided between the pathsb) The risk is more as the risk of delay is morec) Risk depends on how the critical path is calculatedd) There is no risk as the paths cancel it out

38) Dummy activities are used in:a) Activity on arrow diagramb) Activity decompositionc) Activity listd) Activity duration estimates

39) Software Project A took 5 months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will probably take about 5 months to complete. This expert judgment technique is:a) Analogous estimatingb) Critical pathc) Expert estimationd) Compression

40) Crashing:a) Is a schedule compression techniqueb) Increases costc) Is achieved by adding resourcesd) All of the above

41) Fast tracking:a) Is a schedule compression techniqueb) Does sequential activities in parallelc) Increases risk of reworkd) All of the above

42) Quality audit:i) Is a tool in Perform quality assuranceii) Checks the efficiency of the quality processiii) Tries to improve product acceptanceiv) Reduce overall cost of quality

a) i, iii, ivb) None of the abovec) All of the aboved) ii, iii

43) Ishikawa diagrams are also called:a) Fishbone diagramsb) Causal diagramsc) Stick diagramsd) Bone diagrams

44) Some managers believe that people do not work willingly and must be watched and managed continuosly. They are of type:a) Theory Xb) Theory Yc) Theory XYd) Theory V

45) When an individual's lower level needs are met, the next level's needs are his motivation. This forms the basis of:a) Theory Yb) Maslow's hierarchyc) Theory Xd) None of the above

46) Locating all team members in the same location is called:a) War roomb) Collocationc) Teleconferencingd) Telecommuting

47) Noise is:a) Any interference in sending or comprehending a messageb) False informationc) Introduced in electronic signalsd) None of the above

48) A project manager manages a team of 5. The number of communication channels is:a) 15b) 10c) 5d) None of the above

49) Email communication is:a) Formal style, writtenb) Informal style, writtenc) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

50) A technique used to identify root causes of issues is:a) Fish bone diagramb) Quality checkc) Issue listd) Defect review

51) A bar graph that shows resource assignments over time is:a) Resource levelingb) Resource histogramc) Resource chartd) Gantt chart

52) Resource leveling:i) Is the allocation of resources to resolve overallocation issuesii) Helps resolve resource conflictsiii) Can impact cost of projectiv) Can only be done with project management software

a) i, ii, iiib) i, ivc) ii, iii, ivd) iii, iv

53) An activity on the critical path has:a) Non-zero floatb) Negative free floatc) Zero free floatd) None of the above

54) If CPI=1.3, SPI=.8, what's the status of the project?a) Over budget and behind scheduleb) Under budget and behind schedulec) Under budget and ahead of scheduled) Over budget and ahead of schedule

55) Project Scope management plan is an output of:a) Scope planningb) Scope definitionc) Both a and bd) None of the above

56) Earned value=100, Planned value=110, the schedule performance index is:a) 1.1b) 0.91c) -10d) 10

57) Earned value=100, Actual cost=120, the cost performance index is:a) 0.01b) 20c) 0.833d) -20

58) The four stages in team development are:a) Forming, storming, norming, performingb) Forming, storming, norming, reformingc) Forming, norming, reforming, performingd) Planning, forming, storming, performing

59) Theory Y assumes employees:a) Are self-motivatedb) Have to be micro-managedc) Work only for moneyd) Are not ambitious

60) Low-priority risks should be:a) Added to a watch list and the risk register updatedb) Removed from the watch listc) Removed from the risk registerd) Informed to the customer

61) A technique used in Expert Judgment to determine probability of risk is:a) Interviews with expertsb) Risk rankingc) Risk register updatesd) Risk response plan

62) Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to perform:a) Qualitative risk analysisb) Quantitative risk analysisc) Decision tree analysisd) Risk response

63) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:a) Risk registerb) Risk management planc) Cost management pland) All of the above

64) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:a) Organizational process assetsb) Schedule management planc) Cost management pland) All of the above

65) Tools/techniques to perform quantitative risk analysis are:a) Expert judgmentb) Decision tree analysisc) Modelingd) All of the above

66) 'Plan risk responses' process involves:a) Planning to decrease threats to the projectb) Planning to benefit from possible opportunitiesc) Both of the aboved) Only A

67) Examine the statement-"A detailed risk response plan should be prepared no matter how huge or trivial the risk is, irrespective of whether the effort is cost-effective or not, as this is the process." This statement is:a) Always trueb) Always falsec) Sometimes trued) Sometimes false

68) Positive risks are also called:a) Good risksb) Opportunitiesc) Advantagesd) Project plusses

69) The four strategies used to deal with negative threats are:a) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, acceptb) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, rejectc) Accept, transfer, mitigate, rejectd) Accept, analyze, avoid, mitigate

70) Scope verification and Scope control belong to:a) Planning process groupb) Initiating proces groupc) Executing process groupd) Monitoring and Control process group

71) In a fixed price contract, the risk:a) lies more with the vendorb) lies more with the buyerc) is the same for vendor and buyerd) Can't say

72) In a time-materials contract, the risk:a) lies more with the vendorb) lies more with the buyerc) is the same for vendor and buyerd) Can't say

73) Purchasing insurance is a form of ______ risk:a) Avoidingb) Transferringc) Mitigatingd) Working around

74) The only output of the Identify Risks process is:a) Risk analysisb) Risk registerc) Risk monitord) Risk response plan

75) The four strategies used to deal with positive threats are: a) Exploit, share, enhance, acceptb) Exploit, share, enhance, adjustc) Exploit, simulate, enhance, acceptd) Exploit, share, prototype, accept

76) How to define, monitor and control risks in a project is documented in:a) Expert judgement interview resultsb) Risk registerc) Risk management pland) Workshops

77) Tools/techniques used in Plan Procurements process are:a) Make or buy analysisb) Expert judgementc) Contract typesd) All of the above

78) Unclear scope definition in a project using Fixed price contract can lead to losses for:a) the buyerb) the vendorc) both buyer and vendord) Neither as these are sunk costs

79) Request for proposal, Request for Information, Invitation for bid are broadly called:a) Procurement documentsb) Vendor documentsc) Bidding documentsd) Contract documents

80) Create WBS belongs to:a) Initiatingb) Executingc) Closingd) None of the above

81) Closing a Project involves: a) Updating organization process assetsb) Closing contractc) Creating documentation, archives, and lessons learnedd) All of the above

82) Administrative closure is an output of:a) Project Administration processb) Close Project processc) Monitor project processd) Risk management process

83) 'Gold plating' isa) Beating customer expectationsb) Producing excellent deliverablesc) Setting higher than possible expectations that introduce risk to the projectd) All of the above

84) CPPC and fixed-price contracts are used in:a) PO with standard itemb) PO with variable itemc) Request for proposald) Price-free contracts

85) WBS is created in:a) Scope management processb) Risk management processc) Planning processd) Monitor and control process

86) A tool/rechnique used in the Develop Human Resource plan process is:a) Political factorsb) Organization chartc) Personnel policiesd) Interpersonal factors

87) RBS stands for:a) Resource breakdown structureb) Risk breakdown structurec) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

88) Which of the following is true?a) RACI (Responsible-Accountable-Consult-Inform) is a type of RAM (Responsibility Assignment matrix)b) RAM shows the resources' responsibilities on the projectc) RAM and RACI are matrix-based chartsd) All of the above

89) 'Scope' of project is:a) Any work committed to orally with customerb) Only work that has to be completed to successfully finish projectc) Any work that customer requires to be completedd) Only work that can be completed within project duration

90) Tools for Plan Quality are:a) Cost-benefit analysisb) Control chartsc) Benchmarkingd) All of the above

91) Crosby's cost of quality theory of 'zero defects' is based on:a) Prevention b) Correctionc) Conformanced) Fitness for use

92) Juran's fitness for use theory of cost of quality can be summarized as:a) Continuous improvementb) Making a product that meets or exceeds customer expectationsc) Making a product that is easy to used) Making a product with zero defects

93) 'Budget at Completion' is also called:a) Actual costb) Budgeted cost of work performedc) Earned valued) Planned value for the project

94) Which of the following are examples of cost reimbursable contracts:a) Cost plus incentive feeb) Cost plus fixed feec) Cost plus feed) All of the above

95) A critical activity is something that:a) Is crucial for the project to be completed successfullyb) Needs to be signed of by the stakeholderc) An activity on the critical path in the project scheduled) An activity that cannot be substituted by a different activity

96) A dummy activity has:a) Infinite durationb) Zero durationc) No importanced) All of the above

97) Residual risk is a risk:a) Found in reserve analysisb) That remains after all risk responses have been implementedc) That will be eliminated after applying the appropriate risk responsed) None of the above

98) Scope planning and Scope definition belong to:a) Planning process groupb) Initiating proces groupc) Executing process groupd) Monitoring and Control process group

99) A room used for project planning, and where team members work on issue resolution is called:a) Conference roomb) Resolution roomc) War roomd) Video conferencing room

100) 'Estimate to Completion' can be calculated as:a) EAC-ACb) BAC-EACc) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

101) An average PM spends 50% of her time on:a) Meetingsb) Issue resolutionc) Managing stakeholdersd) Risk analysis

102) The cost of a contractor is $25 per hour. Two contractors working for 10 hours will cost $500. This is an example of:a) Analogous estimatingb) Parametric estimatingc) Three-point estimatingd) Bottom-up estimating

103) Using PERT, calculate the time it takes for a task with the following information:Pessimistic time=5 hours, Optimistic time=2 hours, Most likely time=5 hours. The answer is:a) 4.5 hoursb) 3 hoursc) 5 hoursd) 1.5 hours

104) The cost management plan can establish:a) Control thresholdsb) Organizational procedure linksc) Earned value rulesd) All of the above

105) The revenue earned from doing a project is $1000. The costs involved sum to $500. The benefit cost ratio is:a) 2b) 0.5c) 500000d) None of the above

106) If the Benefit cost ratio is > 1, then:a) Costs are greater than benefitsb) Benefits are greater than costsc) Cannot be determinedd) Depends on other factors

107) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Budgeted cost of work scheduled=$2000. The schedule performance index is:a) 0.5b) 2c) 1000d) None of the above

108) Earned value=$2000. Planned value=$2500. The schedule performance index is:a) 0.8b) 1.25c) 500d) None of the above

109) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000. The cost performance index is:a) 0.5b) 2c) 1000d) None of the above

110) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000. The cost variance is:a) -1000b) 2c) 1000d) None of the above

111) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600, the variance can occur again. The estimate at completion is:a) $1000b) $1400c) $800d) None of the above

112) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600, the variance will not occur again. The estimate at completion is:a) $1000b) $1200c) $800d) None of the above113) Phase-end reviews are called:a) Phase exitsb) Stage gatesc) Kill pointsd) All of the above

114) The following is true about risk of failing:a) It is higher in the beginning as uncertainty is high and gets lesser as the project continuesb) It remains the same throughout the projectc) It is lesser in the beginning as uncertainty is high and gets better as the project continuesd) None of the above

115) In a functional organization structure, the PM's authority is:a) Little or noneb) Limitedc) Lowd) Moderate

116) In a strong matrix organization structure, the PM's authority is:a) High to almost totalb) Limitedc) Low to moderated) Moderate to high

117) In a projectized organization structure, the PM's authority is:a) Highb) Limitedc) High to almost totald) Moderate to high

118) In a balanced matrix, the project budget is controlled by:a) Functional managerb) Project managerc) Mixedd) None of the above

119) Deming's cycle is used for continuous improvement of processes. The four-step management method is:a) Plan-Do-Check-Actb) Plan-Act-Check-Doc) Plan-Act-Do-Checkd) None of the above

120) 'Perform quality control' belongs to:a) Monitoring process groupb) Executing process groupc) Controlling process groupd) Monitoring and controlling process group

121) Administer procurements belongs to:a) Initiating process groupb) Executing process groupc) Controlling process groupd) Monitoring and controlling process group

122) Which of these is a reason to start a project:a) Problemb) Marketc) Opportunityd) All of the above

123) Which of the following is true about project charter:a) Authorizes a projectb) Gives project manager authorityc) It is issued by the sponsor with the authority to fundd) All of the above

124) The project charter contains:a) Business needsb) Risksc) Quality pland) None of the above

125) Scope baseline includes:a) WBSb) WBS dictionaryc) Project scope statementd) All of the above

126) Which of the following is true about project closure:a) Contract closure is for each contractb) Contract closure includes product verification and administrative closurec) Administrative closure happens to close the project or each phased) All of the above

127) Administrative closure:a) Happens once to close the project or each project phaseb) Needed to confirm that all deliverables have been providedc) Ensures that official acceptance document has been obtainedd) All of the above

128) Which of the below are project selection methods:a) Cost-benefit analysisb) Payback periodc) Net present valued) All of the above

129) WBS:a) Prevents work from slipping through the cracksb) Is the basis for estimatesc) Provides the team with an understanding of where their pieces fit in the project pland) All of the above

130) Principal sources of project failure:a) Poorly identified customer needsb) Poor planningc) Poor controld) All of the above

131) Most change requests are because of:a) An omission in defining product/project scopeb) A value-adding changec) An external eventd) All of the above

132) Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique:a) Brainstormingb) Risk identificationc) Stakeholder creative communicationd) Powerpoint presentations

133) WBS includes all project work. Which of the following is also true about WBS?a) It doesn't include product work b) It does not include PM workc) Total of work at lowest levels need not always roll up to higher levels as some extra work may be completedd) None of the above

134) Critical chain method and critical path method are tools and techniques used in which process of the Project TIme management area?a) Estimate activity resourcesb) Control schedulec) Develop scheduled) Estimate activity durations

135) Resource leveling is a tool/technique used in which process in Project Time Management overview?a) Develop scheduleb) Control schedulec) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

136) Project Time Management is a process needed to:a) Ensure timely completion of projectb) Track time taken for each activityc) Bill the client for each hour of work doned) None of the above

137) The outputs of 'Activity Definition' and 'Create WBS' respectively are:a) Activities and WBSb) Components and Work piecesc) Schedule activity and deliverabled) None of the above

138) Arrow diagramming method does not use:a) Floatb) Finish to start relationshipc) Lagd) Activities

139) Which of the following is a discretionary dependency for schedule:a) Preferential logicb) Soft logicc) Preferred logicd) All of the above 140) Lead allows _____ of successor activity:a) Accelerationb) Decelerationc) Trackingd) Regression

141) Lag results in _____ of successor activity: a) Accelerationb) Delayc) Trackingd) Regression

142) Contingency reserve is for:a) Known unknownsb) Remaining risk after risk response planningc) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

143) Management reserve is for:a) Unknown unknownsb) Covered by cost budgetc) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

144) Outputs of Monitor and control project work are:a) Recommended corrective actionsb) Recommended preventive actionsc) Requested changesd) All of the above

145) Crashing and Fast tracking are techniques used for:a) Project managementb) Cost reductionc) Schedule compressiond) Schedule estimation

146) Cost baseline is:a) Used to monitor cost performance on the projectb) A time-phased budgetc) Used to measure cost performance on the projectd) All of the above

147) The difference between maximum funding and the end of cost baseline is:a) Management reserveb) Cost baselinec) Cost overrund) None of the above

148) Identifying quality standards relevant to the porject and determing how to satisfy them is:a) Quality planningb) Quality assurancec) Quality controld) Quality management

149) Applying planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that proejct employs all processes needed to meet requirement is:a) Quality planningb) Quality assurancec) Quality controld) Quality management

150) Monitoring specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance is: a) Quality planningb) Quality assurancec) Quality controld) Quality management

151) Choosing a part of a population of interest for inspection is:a) Scatter diagramb) Statistical samplingc) Inspectiond) Defect repair

152) Inspections are also called:a) Product reviewsb) Auditsc) Walkthroughsd) All of the above

153) Staff Management Plan contains:a) Staff acquisitionb) Release criteriac) Training needsd) All of the above

154) Tannenbaum and Schmidt continuum proposes:a) Five stages of team developmentb) Model-tellingc) Offering more freedom as the team maturesd) None of the above

155) Autocratic, consultative, Directing and Facilitating are examples of:a) Leadership stylesb) Team building stylec) Planning styled) None of the above

156) Which of the following can result in conflicts:a) Scheduleb) Project prioritiesc) Resourcesd) All of the above

157) Power that a PM has on the basis of the special skills he possesses is:a) Referentb) Expertc) Rewardd) Penalty

158) A conflict management technique that involves incorporating viewpoints from everyone is?a) Smoothingb) Collaboratingc) Recognizingd) Withdrawal

159) Which is the best technique to resolve conflicts in a team:a) Confrontationb) Accomodationc) Compromised) Smoothing

160) The motivational theory that focuses onteam, lifetime employment and collective decision making is:a) Theory Xb) Theory Yc) Theory Zd) Maslow's hierarchy of needs

161) Expectancy theory is based on motivation in terms of expectations people have about:a) Their ability to perform effectively on the jobb) The rewards they expect if they perform wellc) Satisfaction they will obtain from rewardsd) All of the above

162) In a communication model, the method used to convey the message is:a) Emailb) Mediumc) Languaged) Decoding

163) Notes and memos are examples of communication type:a) Formal writtenb) Informal writtenc) Formal verbald) Informal verbal

164) Some barriers to communication channels are:a) Lack of clear communication channelsb) Physical distancec) Environmental factorsd) All of the above

165) The management style that cultivates team spirit, rewards good work, and encourages team to realize their potential is:a) Facilitatingb) Promotionalc) Conciliatoryd) Authoritarian

166) A management skill that establishes direction, aligns people, motivates and inspires team is:a) Communicatingb) Leadingc) Influencing the organizationd) Problem solving

167) Tools used in risk identification are:a) Delphi techniqueb) Brainstormingc) Interviewingd) All of the above

168) Risk register as an output of risk identification contains:a) Identified risks and responsesb) Risk categoriesc) Root causes of risksd) All of the above

169) Most of the project manager's time is spent on: a) Project Planningb) Communicationc) Risk managementd) Tracking

170) Most of a project's resources are spent on:a) Direct and manage Project execution processb) Project planningc) Quality controld) Risk management

171) Output of Direct and manage project execution process is:a) Project planb) Preliminary scope statementc) Preliminary cost estimated) Deliverables

172) At what stage of your current project should you use the techniques you learnt on your previous projects as PM?a) Executing phaseb) Planning phasec) Throughout the projectd) Monitoring and controlling phase

173) Administrative closure:a) Can be omitted sometimesb) Should always be donec) Is the same as contract closured) None of the above

174) If you are implementing the risk response plan, you are in:a) Planning phaseb) Initiating phasec) Implementation phased) Closing phase

175) Interpersonal skills and Management skills are tools to:a) Manage stakeholder expectationsb) Report performancec) Distribute informationd) Plan communications

176) The tool that assigns a numeric weight, rates sellers based on total weight is:a) Weighting systemb) Independent estimatesc) Screening systemd) Expert judgement

177) Bidder conferences are a tool to:a) Meet with prospective sellers and ensure there is a clear understanding of procurement needsb) Screen contractorsc) Award contracts to the winning bidderd) None of the above

178) You send a formal request to each vendor for a service. This is used as the basis upon which the vendor prepares a bid for the requested service. The formal request you sent is called:a) Contractb) Purchase Orderc) Procurement Document Packaged) None of the above

179) Monitor and control project work is essential toa) Ensure project is being executed to planb) Prepare project planc) Prepare scope statementd) Prepare WBS

180) Correspondence, Payment Schedules and Requests, Seller performance evaluation documentation are examples of:a) Organizational Process Assetsb) Request for proposalc) Project management pland) None of the above

181) Project charteri) Includes preliminary project budget at summary levelii) Is created during the Develop Project Charter processiii) Includes a milestone-level scheduleiv) Includes high level project requirements

a) None of the aboveb) All of the abovec) a, bd) a, b, c

182) A contract can end by:a) Successful performanceb) Mutual agreementc) Breach of contractd) All of the above

183) A procurement audit is:a) An evaluation of vendor's performance on contractb) Evaluation of procurement processc) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

184) A type of 'Breach of Contract' is:a) Materialb) Minorc) Fundamentald) All of the above

185) Project charter is created based on: i) Business needii) Customer requestiii) Market forceiv) Project manager's requirementsa) All of the aboveb) i, ii, iiic) i, iid) ii only

186) With regard to Opportunity cost:a) The smaller the cost, the betterb) The larger the cost, the better'c) It depends on cost of materialsd) It depends on economic conditions

187) Preliminary project scope statement:i) Is final and needs a change request to be changedii) Contains high-level cost estimatesiii) Sets an initial direction for the projectiv) Contains high-level scope estimates

a) All of the aboveb) iii onlyc) iv onlyd) ii, iii, iv

188) The hygiene factors in Herzberg's motivation theory are:a) Pay, Working conditions, Attitude of supervisorb) Pay, Working conditions, Job satisfactionc) Pay, Promotion, Job satisfactiond) Pay, Promotion, Food

189) Variance analysis compares actual results to planned results. This can be done for:a) Costb) Schedulec) Qualityd) All of the above

190) Active listening is:a) Being attentive when the speaker is talkingb) Asking questions when the speaker is not clearc) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

191) The longest path through the network that shows the shortest duration in which the project can be completed is:a) Critical pathb) Project schedulec) Least possible timed) None of the above

192) Who is responsible for identifying and managing risk?a) Project managerb) Team membersc) Project sponsord) Functional manager

193) Pareto principle is also known as:a) 80-20 ruleb) Law of vital fewc) principle of factor sparsityd) All of the above

194) Pareto efficiency states that:a) 80% of effects come from 20% of causesb) 20% of effects come from 80% of causesc) 80% of causes come from 20% of effectsd) 20% of causes come from 20% of effects

195) Regarding control limits, which of the following is true:a) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on one side of the mean but within control limits, the process is out of controlb) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on either side of the mean but within control limits, the process is out of controlc) If all but seven points lie within the control limits, and seven consecutive points are on one side of the mean but within control limits, the process is in controld) None of the above

196) Projects can end due to:a) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Extinctionb) Deletion, Starvation, Integration, Extinctionc) Addition, Starvation, Disassociation, Extinctiond) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Promotion

197) The tools used in Develop Project Plan are:i) Project Management methodologyii) Project Management Information Systemiii) Expert Judgementiv) Project Plan

a) All of the aboveb) None of the abovec) i, ii, iiid) ii, iii, iv

198) Risk mitigation is:a) Preventing the risk from occuringb) Sharing the risk with another person/organizationc) Making someone else responsible for the riskd) Reducing the impact or probability of occurrence of the risk

199) Using which of the below can you predict future performance of team:a) Trend analysisb) EMVc) Control limitsd) Risk analysis

200) Salary of full-time employees and cost of hardware bought specially for your project count as:a) Direct costsb) Indirect costsc) Project costsd) None of the above

201) A Request for Proposal:a) May invite suppliers to submit a proposal for a productb) Indicates what product/service is requiredc) Both a and bd) Neither a nor b

202) Top-down estimating is another name for:a) Analogous estimatingb) Parametric estimatingc) Three-point estimatingd) PERT estimating 203) Payback period is the time it takes to get back money invested in a project. Hence:a) The longer the payback period, the better it is for the projectb) The shorter the payback period, the better it is for the projectc) Not enough information to decided) Depends on the present value of money invested

204) Change control board is:a) Board of directorsb) Group of stakeholders, team leads, executives who decide on which changes to accept/rejectc) Team of project managersd) None of the above

205) Variance/trend analysis is done during:a) Risk monitoring and controlb) Risk responsec) Risk analysisd) Risk mitigation plan

206) Budget at completion=$1000, Earned value=500, Cost performance index=0.5. Estimate to Completion is:a) 1000b) 500c) 2000d) None of the above

Answers

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