PMI PMI-100 Exam Questions & Answers · 2019-10-25 · PMI PMI-100 Exam Questions & Answers Exam...

PMI PMI-100 Exam Questions & Answers

Number: PMI-100Passing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 35.2

http://www.gratisexam.com/

PMI PMI-100 Exam Questions & Answers

Exam Name: CAPM (Certified Associate in Project Management) Exam

For Full Set of Questions please visit: http://www.passguide.com/PMI-100.html

Passguide

QUESTION 1On what is project baseline development established?

A. Approved product requirementsB. Estimated project cost and scheduleC. Actual project cost and scheduleD. Revised project cost and schedule

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangiblecomponents of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A. Work breakdown structureB. Organizational breakdown structureC. Resource breakdown structureD. Bill of materials

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3What is the definition of project plan execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities.B. Performing the activities included in the plan.C. Developing and maintaining the plan.D. Execution of deliverables.



QUESTION 4Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. ProductB. Cost benefitC. StakeholderD. Research

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 5Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timelymanner.What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysisB. Trend analysisC. Project recordsD. Performance reviews



QUESTION 6Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improvingor deteriorating?


A. Control chartB. Earned valueC. VarianceD. Trend

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 7You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective andcurrent?

A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.B. Identify quality project standards.C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards

D. Complete the quality control checklist.



QUESTION 8During what process is the quality policy determined?

A. InitiatingB. ExecutingC. PlanningD. Controlling



QUESTION 9What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

A. Responsibility assignment matrixB. Work breakdown structure updateC. Project network diagramD. Mandatory dependencies list



QUESTION 10Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?

A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.C. Approval of the scope statement.D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.



QUESTION 11Which of the following is an example of contract administration?

A. Negotiating the contractB. Authorizing contractor workC. Developing the statement of workD. Establishing evaluation criteria



QUESTION 12A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As of today, theactual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.What is the cost variance?

A. -$700B. -$200C. +$200D. +$500



QUESTION 13How is quality control performed?

A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining

corrective actions as needed.C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance

to quality standards.



QUESTION 14As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total projectcost.You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?

A. BACB. EACC. ETC

D. WBS



QUESTION 15How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A. EV less ACB. AC less PVC. EV less PVD. AC less EV



QUESTION 16Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will beperforming them?

A. Project sponsor and project managerB. Project sponsor and functional managerC. Project manager and project teamD. Project team and functional manager



QUESTION 17Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meetits requirements?

A. Perform Quality ControlB. Quality PolicyC. Perform Quality AssuranceD. Quality Planning



QUESTION 18Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A. Cost ControlB. Quality PlanningC. Quantitative Risk AnalysisD. Cost Budgeting



QUESTION 19Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

A. Organizational process assetsB. Resource availabilityC. Change control processD. Team performance assessment



QUESTION 20What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A. ParetoB. IshikawaC. Shewart-DemingD. Delphi



QUESTION 21While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay theproduct delivery.What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A. Utilize the change control process.B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.C. Leave the defect in and work around it.D. Fast-track the remaining development.



QUESTION 22Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

A. Expert JudgmentB. Project Management MethodologyC. Project Management InformationD. Project Selection Methods



QUESTION 23Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through projectclosure?

A. Resource levelingB. Parametric measuringC. Pareto chartD. Earned value



QUESTION 24An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

A. Organizational StructureB. Organizational Process AssetsC. Organizational MatrixD. Organizational Breakdown Structures



QUESTION 25The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.B. Document the characteristics of the product.C. Describe the project in great detail.D. Formally authorize the project.



QUESTION 26What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellersB. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resourcesC. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management effortsD. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources



QUESTION 27Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A. Cost-Benefit AnalysisB. Variance AnalysisC. Reserve AnalysisD. Stakeholder Analysis



QUESTION 28Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?

A. WBSB. CPIC. OBSD. BOM



QUESTION 29Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

A. Project Quality PlanB. Project Schedule NetworkC. Project Management SoftwareD. Project Scope Management Plan



QUESTION 30Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?

A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown StructureB. Activity list and Arrow DiagramC. Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process AssetsD. Project Management Plan and Resource Availability



QUESTION 31Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project TimeManagement process?

A. Schedule ControlB. Activity DefinitionC. Schedule DevelopmentD. Activity Resource Estimating



QUESTION 32Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management process?

A. Activity SequencingB. Activity Resource EstimatingC. Schedule DevelopmentD. Schedule Control



QUESTION 33Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

A. Critical pathB. Rolling WaveC. PDMD. Parametric



QUESTION 34Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

A. Analogous EstimatingB. Expert JudgmentC. Optimistic EstimatesD. Reserve Analysis



QUESTION 35Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculationhas been completed and resources availability is critical?

A. Applying calendarsB. Resource LevelingC. Resource PlanningD. Resource Conflict Management



QUESTION 36Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any

performance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizationsB. Schedule baselinesC. Performance measurementsD. Change requests



QUESTION 37Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

A. Performance MeasureB. Baseline ScheduleC. Schedule ComparisonD. Variance Analysis



QUESTION 38Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Cost ControlB. Cost BudgetingC. Cost EstimatingD. Cost Planning



QUESTION 39Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert JudgmentB. Project Management SoftwareC. Vendor Bid AnalysisD. Reserve Analysis



QUESTION 40The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion ofWeek 16 of the project, the following information is collected:- Actual cost = $50,000- Plan cost = $45,000- Earned value = $40,000What is the cost performance index?

A. 0.80B. 0.89C. 1.13D. 1.25



QUESTION 41The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A. 1.33B. 2.00C. 0.75D. 0.5



QUESTION 42At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A. PositiveB. ZeroC. NegativeD. Greater than one



QUESTION 43Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

A. EVB. SPIC. PVD. ETC



QUESTION 44Based on the following metrics:EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV?

A. -$8,000B. -$2,000C. $2,000D. $8,000



QUESTION 45What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. Cost right at the estimated valueB. Cost under the estimated valueC. Cost right at the actual valueD. Cost over the estimated value



QUESTION 46Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

A. Schedule AnalysisB. Checklist AnalysisC. Assumption AnalysisD. Cost-Benefit Analysis



QUESTION 47Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A. Cause and effect diagramB. Control ChartC. FlowchartD. Histogram



QUESTION 48Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A. Cause and effect diagramB. Control ChartsC. Pareto ChartD. Histogram



QUESTION 49Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle?

A. Ishikawa diagramB. Control ChartC. Run ChartD. Pareto Chart



QUESTION 50Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A. Team performance assessmentB. Roles and responsibilitiesC. Staffing management plan

D. Enterprise environmental factors



QUESTION 51Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Risk registerB. Risk data quality assessmentC. Risk categorizationD. Risk urgency



QUESTION 52Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?

A. BrainstormingB. Strategies for OpportunitiesC. Decision Tree AnalysisD. Risk Data Quality Assessment



QUESTION 53Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on projectobjectives?

A. ExploitB. ShareC. EnhanceD. Transfer



QUESTION 54

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A. MitigateB. TransferC. ExploitD. Avoid



QUESTION 55A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?

A. Plan contractingB. Request seller responsesC. Select sellersD. Plan purchase and acquisition



QUESTION 56Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materialsB. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-priceC. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysisD. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive



QUESTION 57Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

A. Contract planB. Procurement planC. Closure processD. Procurement audits



QUESTION 58Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.D. The product is needed in 250 days.



QUESTION 59A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packagesB. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project

objectives, organization opportunity assessmentC. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectivesD. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects



QUESTION 60Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"?

A. Changing project specifications continuouslyB. Elaborate tracking of the project progressC. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control systemD. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses



QUESTION 61What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tiedto the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives.

B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's businessobjectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handleany personnel and payroll issues.

D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of thework packages.



QUESTION 62A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level?

A. MethodologyB. StandardsC. ConstraintsD. Interdependencies



QUESTION 63Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projectsof design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.Resource B's role is that of a:

A. Project managerB. Portfolio managerC. Work breakdown managerD. Program manager



QUESTION 64Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?

A. RepetitiveB. UniqueC. No outcomeD. Permanent

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 65Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called:

A. process groups.B. phase gates.C. knowledge areas.D. project phases.



QUESTION 66Which of the following is the definition of a project?

A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or productB. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or resultC. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputsD. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs



QUESTION 67The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a:

A. guide to project management processes, tools and techniques.B. methodology for managing projects.C. guide for project, portfolio and program management.D. standard for project, portfolio and program management.



QUESTION 68Which of the following is a Process Group?

A. Scoping

B. BudgetingC. ClosingD. Quality



QUESTION 69In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A. FunctionalB. ProjectizedC. MatrixD. Balanced



QUESTION 70Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes asproject time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.



QUESTION 71Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control.Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A. Complete project phaseB. Project lifeC. The project life cycleD. Project cycle



QUESTION 72In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A. Functional managerB. Project managerC. Program managerD. Project management office



QUESTION 73At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest

A. Final phase of the projectB. Start of the projectC. End of the projectD. Midpoint of the project



QUESTION 74When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?

A. At the start of the projectB. At the end of the projectC. During executionD. Stakeholders have constant influence



QUESTION 75Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project and ensuringits success?

A. Stakeholder managementB. Monitoring and controllingC. Project governance

D. Project management methodology



QUESTION 76Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered either oneafter the other or at the same time.Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product when productrequirements are subject to rapid change?

A. Sequencing the delivery phases one after the otherB. Overlapping the delivery phasesC. Delivering the products iterativelyD. Delivering all of the product at the same time



QUESTION 77In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource availability?

A. FunctionalB. WeakC. BalancedD. Strong



QUESTION 78Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?

A. SponsorB. Portfolio managerC. Program managerD. Project manager



QUESTION 79In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project?

A. FunctionalB. Strong matrixC. Balanced matrixD. Projectized



QUESTION 80What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships?

A. Sequential, Overlapping, Non-overlappingB. Sequential, Iterative, OverlappingC. Sequential, Non-overlapping, IterativeD. Iterative, Overlapping, Non-overlapping



QUESTION 81Which is a true statement regarding project governance?

A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.B. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.C. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.D. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.



QUESTION 82A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?

A. Weak matrixB. FunctionalC. Balanced matrixD. Projectized

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 83Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?

A. Requested changesB. Approved preventive actionC. Work performance informationD. Implemented defect repair



QUESTION 84Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A. Project stakeholdersB. Project sponsor and project stakeholderC. Project manager and project teamD. Project manager and project sponsor



QUESTION 85A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?

A. Project manager is appointedB. Stakeholders approve the projectC. Project charter is approvedD. Project sponsor approves the project



QUESTION 86How is the process of collecting requirements defined?

A. Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives

B. Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectivesC. Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectivesD. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives



QUESTION 87Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?

A. Project risk managementB. Project scope managementC. Project time managementD. Project integration management



QUESTION 88Which process group can be performed outside the project's scope of control?

A. PlanningB. Monitoring and ControlC. ClosingD. Initiating



QUESTION 89The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?

A. Develop Project Management PlanB. Develop ScheduleC. Identify StakeholdersD. Determine Budget



QUESTION 90Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?

A. Develop Project Management PlanB. Identify StakeholdersC. Plan CommunicationsD. Collect Requirements



QUESTION 91Which of the following is defined by a project's life cycle and varies by application area?

A. ProductB. Product-oriented processesC. Project management process groupsD. Project-oriented processes



QUESTION 92How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?

A. 5B. 8C. 9D. 12



QUESTION 93Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not explicitly listed asinputs in the process specifications?

A. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factorsB. Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge baseC. Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factorsD. Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors



QUESTION 94Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?

A. PlanningB. ExecutingC. Monitoring and ControlD. Closing



QUESTION 95A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of themanagement process groups to formally complete the project?

A. ClosingB. ExecutingC. Monitoring and ControllingD. Planning



QUESTION 96Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project wasundertaken to achieve?

A. InitiatingB. ExecutingC. PlanningD. Monitoring and Controlling



QUESTION 97How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?

A. 5B. 9C. 10D. 12



QUESTION 98The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?

A. Plan QualityB. Perform Quality AssuranceC. Perform Quality ControlD. Identify Stakeholders



QUESTION 99Which process group establishes the total scope of a project?

A. InitiatingB. PlanningC. Monitoring and ControllingD. Executing



QUESTION 100Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?

A. Project teamB. Project managerC. Project management officeD. Customer or sponsor



QUESTION 101Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?

A. Project Integration ManagementB. Project Time ManagementC. Project Procurement ManagementD. Project Human Resource Management



QUESTION 102Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

A. Product scope descriptionB. Project charterC. Preliminary project scope statementD. Communications management plan



QUESTION 103What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project'sscope is managed?

A. Organizational process assetsB. Enterprise environmental factorsC. Project management processesD. Project scope management plan



QUESTION 104Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?

A. Approved corrective actionsB. Approved contract documentationC. Work performance information

D. Rejected change requests



QUESTION 105Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBSdictionary?

A. Scope planB. Product scopeC. Scope management planD. Scope baseline



QUESTION 106What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work ofthe project?

A. Build vs. buyB. Expert judgmentC. Alternatives identificationD. Product analysis



QUESTION 107The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A. Schedule management planB. Project management planC. Quality management planD. Resource management plan



QUESTION 108What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)



QUESTION 109What causes replanning of the project scope?

A. Requested changesB. Project scope statement changesC. Variance analysisD. Approved change requests



QUESTION 110Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

A. WBS directoryB. Activity listC. WBSD. Project schedule



QUESTION 111What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the projectobjectives and create the required deliverables?

A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)B. Work Performance InformationC. Work PackageD. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Correct Answer: D



QUESTION 112What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

A. Project boundariesB. Project constraintsC. Project assumptionsD. Project objectives



QUESTION 113What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and productacceptance criteria?

A. DecompositionB. BenchmarkingC. InspectionD. Checklist analysis



QUESTION 114Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Project document updatesB. Project management planC. Scope baselineD. Product analysis



QUESTION 115What is an output of Control Scope?

A. Accepted deliverables

B. Work performance measurementsC. Requirements documentationD. Work performance information



QUESTION 116The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?

A. Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activitiesB. Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable componentsC. Relate the work packages to the performing organizational unitsD. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed



QUESTION 117A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is a method thatcan be used to reach a group decision?

A. Expert judgmentB. MajorityC. SWOT analysisD. Brainstorming



QUESTION 118Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following?

A. Define Scope and Define ActivitiesB. Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity ResourcesC. Create WBS and Define ActivitiesD. Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration



QUESTION 119Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process?

A. Group decision making techniquesB. Project management information systemC. Alternative identificationD. Communication requirement analysis



QUESTION 120Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?

A. Stakeholder registerB. Requirements documentationC. PrototypesD. Organizational process assets



QUESTION 121The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following processes?

A. Plan QualityB. Collect RequirementsC. Define ScopeD. Perform Quality Control



QUESTION 122Which is an input to the Collect Requirements process?

A. Requirement documentationB. Organizational process assetsC. Requirements management planD. Stakeholder register



QUESTION 123Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?

A. Requirements traceability matrixB. Scope management planC. Project charterD. Work breakdown structure



QUESTION 124Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?

A. Delphi techniqueB. UnanimityC. ObservationD. Presentation technique



QUESTION 125Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?

A. Collect RequirementsB. Plan CommunicationsC. Develop Project TeamD. Report Performance



QUESTION 126Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope?

A. Product analysis

B. Ishikawa diagramC. InspectionD. Requirements traceability matrix



QUESTION 127Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes?

A. Create WBSB. Define ScopeC. Control ScopeD. Verify Scope



QUESTION 128What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliablyestimated and managed?

A. Work productB. Work packageC. Project deliverableD. Scope baseline



QUESTION 129Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories?

A. Project and ProductB. Staffing and BudgetC. Stakeholder and CustomerD. Business and Technical



QUESTION 130Plurality is a type of which of the following?

A. Group creativity techniquesB. Group decision making techniquesC. Facilitated workshopsD. Prototypes



QUESTION 131Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.B. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.C. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay.D. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available.



QUESTION 132Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have beendone sequentially?

A. CrashingB. Fast trackingC. Leads and lags adjustmentD. Parallel task development



QUESTION 133Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A. Human resource planningB. Fast trackingC. Critical chain methodD. Rolling wave planning



QUESTION 134Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A. Critical path methodB. Variance analysisC. Schedule compressionD. Schedule comparison bar charts



QUESTION 135What is the minimum a project schedule must include?

A. Variance analysisB. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activityC. A critical path diagramD. Critical chain analysis



QUESTION 136What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expectedperformance?

A. Cost aggregationB. Trend analysisC. ForecastingD. Variance analysis



QUESTION 137Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)? EV = $500

PV= $750AC= $1000BAC= $1200

A. 0.67B. 1.50C. 0.75D. 0.50



QUESTION 138Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?

A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databasesB. Marketplace conditions and company structureC. Commercial databases and company structureD. Existing human resources and market place conditions



QUESTION 139Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Cost baselineB. Cost forecastingC. Cost varianceD. Cost budgeting



QUESTION 140What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000PV = $50,000AC = $80,000EV = $40,000

A. 1.00B. 0.40C. 0.50

D. 0.80



QUESTION 141The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost performance index of 1.1 forthe project.What is the actual status of this project?

A. Behind schedule and over budgetB. Behind schedule and under budgetC. Ahead of schedule and under budgetD. Ahead of schedule and over budget



QUESTION 142EAC (estimate at complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus an ETC (estimate tocomplete) the remaining work.Which of the following is a valid formula for calculating EAC?

A. EAC = AC + [(BAC-EV) / (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI)]B. EAC = BAC - ACC. EAC = 1 - CPID. EAC = EV + [1 - (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) / BAC]



QUESTION 143Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance?

A. EV/PVB. PV/EVC. EV-PVD. PV-EV



QUESTION 144Which tool and technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculateestimates?

A. Analogous estimatingB. Three-point estimatesC. Parametric estimatingD. Bottom-up estimating



QUESTION 145Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?

A. EV-ACB. AC-EVC. AC+EVD. AC/EV



QUESTION 146Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT? CO = $7,000CM = $10,500CP = $11,000

A. $ 4,750B. $ 9,500C. $10,000D. $11,500



QUESTION 147What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best case scenario of $115,and a worst case scenario of $165?

A. $115B. $138

C. $140D. $165



QUESTION 148What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. More work was completed than plannedB. Less work was completed than plannedC. Cost overrun for completed work has occurredD. Cost underrun for completed work has occurred



QUESTION 149Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:

A. funding limit reconciliationB. scope baselineC. activity cost estimates.D. cost baseline.



QUESTION 150What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?

A. Under budget and ahead of scheduleB. Over budget and behind scheduleC. Over budget and ahead of scheduleD. Under budget and behind schedule



QUESTION 151If the earned value (EV) is $1000, actual cost (AC) is $800, and planned value (PV) is $1500, what would bethe cost performance index (CPI)?

A. 0.66B. 0.8C. 1.25D. 1.5



QUESTION 152Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of whatprocess?

A. Perform Quality ControlB. Perform Quality AssuranceC. Quality PlanningD. Performance Reporting



QUESTION 153Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures?

A. Scope auditsB. Scope reviewsC. Quality auditsD. Control chart



QUESTION 154What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chartB. FlowchartC. Run chartD. Pareto chart



QUESTION 155Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of otherprojects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A. HistogramB. Quality auditsC. BenchmarkingD. Performance measurement analysis



QUESTION 156In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A. Scope ManagementB. Time ManagementC. Communications ManagementD. Quality Management



QUESTION 157What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality metricsB. Less reworkC. Quality control measurementsD. Benchmarking



QUESTION 158What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of aproduct or process under development or in production?

A. Failure modes and effects analysisB. Design of experimentsC. Quality checklistD. Risk analysis



QUESTION 159What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technicalcharacteristics?

A. ScopeB. QualityC. SpecificationD. Grade



QUESTION 160Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance?

A. Profitability and impact matrixB. Expert judgmentC. BenchmarkingD. Risk categorization



QUESTION 161Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?

A. Actions, decision points, and process driversB. Activities, decision points, and the order of processingC. Activities, process drivers, and the order of processingD. Actions, decision points, and activities



QUESTION 162Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change requests,corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions?

A. Quality checklistsB. Quality metricsC. Quality auditsD. Process analysis



QUESTION 163Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle?

A. Pareto chartB. Cause and effect diagramsC. Control chartsD. Flowcharting



QUESTION 164What is a cost of nonconformance?

A. ReworkB. InspectionsC. TrainingD. Testing



QUESTION 165What is included in a control chart?

A. BaselineB. Planned value

C. Upper specification limitD. Expenditure



QUESTION 166What tool and technique includes all costs incurred over the life of a product by investment in preventingnonconformance to requirements?

A. Cost of qualityB. Measure of designC. Statistical controlD. Systematic analysis



QUESTION 167In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entireprocess, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1. For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:

A. is under control.B. is out of control.C. has an increasing trend.D. has a decreasing trend.



QUESTION 168In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables?

A. Fishbone diagramB. Control chartC. Run chartD. Scatter diagram



QUESTION 169A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under which category doesthis cost fall?

A. AppraisalB. Internal failureC. External failureD. Prevention



QUESTION 170Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

A. To identify quality requirements of the projectB. To identify ineffective processes and eliminate themC. To assess performance and recommend necessary changesD. To ensure quality standards are used



QUESTION 171What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesivenessB. Ground rules for interactionC. Enhanced resource availabilityD. Functional managers become more involved.



QUESTION 172Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

A. NegotiationB. Roles and responsibilitiesC. Recognition and rewardsD. Prizing and promoting



QUESTION 173When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?

A. Clear role definitionB. NegotiationC. Risk response planningD. Team member replacement



QUESTION 174Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approachB. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approachC. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approachD. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach



QUESTION 175What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chartB. Reporting flow diagramC. Project organization chartD. Project team structure diagram



QUESTION 176Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsiblefor managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

A. Functional managerB. Project managerC. Functional manager supported by the project managerD. Project management office



QUESTION 177What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A. Organizational chartB. Organizational theoryC. Organizational structureD. Organizational behavior



QUESTION 178In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the project and theirformal roles and responsibilities?

A. FormingB. StormingC. NormingD. Performing



QUESTION 179Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?

A. CollaboratingB. Issue logC. LeadershipD. Motivation



QUESTION 180Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areasof difference?

A. Withdrawing/AvoidingB. ForcingC. CollaboratingD. Smoothing/Accommodating



QUESTION 181In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues smoothly andeffectively?

A. NormingB. FormingC. StormingD. Performing



QUESTION 182The resource calendars document is an output of which process?

A. Estimate Activity ResourcesB. Acquire Project TeamC. Develop ScheduleD. Develop Project Team



QUESTION 183In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together, develop trust, andadjust to the work habits and behavior?

A. Norming

B. FormingC. StormingD. Performing



QUESTION 184Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project team is in whichof the following stages of team development?

A. StormingB. FormingC. NormingD. Performing



QUESTION 185Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to enhance theirability to perform as a team is called which of the following?

A. Team trainingB. Co-locationC. Team locationD. Organization training



QUESTION 186Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following conflictmanagement techniques?

A. SmoothingB. CompromisingC. AvoidingD. Forcing



QUESTION 187Which knowledge area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation,collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A. Project Integration ManagementB. Project Communications ManagementC. Project Information Management System (PIMS)D. Project Scope Management



QUESTION 188Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A. Contract managementB. Performance reportingC. Project status reportsD. Information distribution



QUESTION 189Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates areall outputs of which process?

A. Risk response planningB. Risk monitoring and controlC. Performance reportingD. Manage stakeholders



QUESTION 190Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A. An organizational chart

B. Glossary of common terminologyC. Organizational process assetsD. Enterprise environmental factors



QUESTION 191Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection,distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A. Project Risk ManagementB. Project Integration ManagementC. Project Communications ManagementD. Project Quality Management



QUESTION 192Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are alloutputs of which project management process?

A. Risk response planningB. Manage stakeholdersC. Scope definitionD. Performance reporting



QUESTION 193What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

A. Expert judgmentB. Project management methodologyC. Stakeholder analysisD. Status review meetings



QUESTION 194What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A. 7B. 8C. 14D. 16



QUESTION 195What information does the stakeholder register contain?

A. Communication modelB. Identification informationC. Communication methodD. Identification plan



QUESTION 196Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and relates it to the purpose of the project?

A. Requirements, influence, and functional departmentB. Interest, requirements, and functional roleC. Requirements, expectations, and influenceD. Interest, expectations, and influence



QUESTION 197Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations process?

A. Issue logB. Change registerC. Stakeholder registerD. Interpersonal skills



QUESTION 198When using the Delphi technique for gathering information, what forecasting method is being used?

A. Time series methodB. Casual methodC. Econometric methodD. Judgmental method



QUESTION 199Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?

A. PushB. DecodeC. PullD. Duration



QUESTION 200Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?

A. Project management planB. Report performanceC. Communications requirements analysisD. Communication methods



QUESTION 201A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product according tospecifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month.

Which tool or technique is used in this case?

A. Expert judgmentB. Quality assuranceC. Quality controlD. Variance analysis



QUESTION 202There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor.How many communication channels are there?

A. 21B. 28C. 36D. 42




QUESTION 203ABC project is at risk for failing to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder issues.Team member morale is low.Who is primarily responsible for the project being at risk?

A. Team members who have low moraleB. Sponsor who is not actively supporting the projectC. Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectationsD. Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations



QUESTION 204When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most effectively?

A. PushB. InteractiveC. ParallelD. Pull



QUESTION 205What are assigned risk ratings based upon?

A. Root cause analysisB. Assessed probability and impactC. Expert judgmentD. Risk Identification



QUESTION 206Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action byassessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Qualitative risk analysisB. Quantitative risk analysisC. Risk management planningD. Risk response planning



QUESTION 207Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near termaction?

A. Probability and impact matrixB. Contingency analysis reportC. Risk urgency assessmentD. Rolling wave plan

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 208Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?

A. Sensitivity analysisB. Probability and impact matrixC. Risk data quality assessmentD. Risk categorization



QUESTION 209When does risk monitoring and control occur?

A. At project initiationB. During work performance analysisC. Throughout the life of the projectD. At project milestones



QUESTION 210A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

A. Risk monitoring and controllingB. Risk response planningC. Qualitative risk analysisD. Quantitative risk analysis



QUESTION 211Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk'sprobabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B. Risk probability and impactC. Qualitative risk analysisD. Risk response planning



QUESTION 212What is one of the objectives of project risk management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.D. Removal of project risk.



QUESTION 213Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A. MitigateB. TransferC. ShareD. Avoid



QUESTION 214Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A. TransferenceB. AvoidanceC. ExploringD. Mitigation



QUESTION 215What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A. Expert judgmentB. Risk registryC. Risk response planningD. Interviewing



QUESTION 216What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A. Procurement management planB. Evaluation criteriaC. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)



QUESTION 217Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A. Purchase requisitionB. Purchase orderC. Verbal agreementD. Request for quote



QUESTION 218Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?

A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellersB. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule controlC. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellersD. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 219Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements Process?

A. Risk assessment analysisB. Make or buy analysisC. Contract value analysisD. Cost impact analysis



QUESTION 220A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplestform of what type of contract?

A. Cost-reimbursableB. Time and materialC. Fixed price or lump-sumD. Cost-plus-fixed-fee



QUESTION 221What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

A. Procurement documentsB. Expert judgmentC. Bidder conferencesD. Contract types



QUESTION 222A contract change control system defines which of the following?

A. Process by which the procurement is being satisfied

B. Process by which the procurement can be modifiedC. Process by which the procurement can be obtainedD. Process by which the procurement can be disposed



QUESTION 223In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work andreceives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives as set forth in the contract?

A. Cost-plus-fixed-feeB. Cost-plus-incentive-feeC. Firm-fixed-priceD. Fixed-price-incentive-fee



QUESTION 224Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement?

A. Executive managementB. Project membersC. Project managerD. Contract administrator



QUESTION 225In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional costs above the price ceilingbecomes the responsibility of the performing organization?

A. Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP)B. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF)C. Cost-Reimbursable ContractsD. Time and Materials Contracts (T&M)



QUESTION 226The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A. contract type.B. sponsors.C. project manager.D. stakeholders.



QUESTION 227Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total priceplus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.For which type of contract have they subscribed?

A. Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)B. Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)C. Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)D. Time and material contracts (T&M)



QUESTION 228Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement ManagementProcess?

A. Plan ProcurementsB. Conduct ProcurementsC. Administer ProcurementsD. Close Procurements



QUESTION 229Which project management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement requirements andthat the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract?

A. Plan Procurements

B. Perform Quality AssuranceC. Administer ProcurementsD. Conduct Procurements



QUESTION 230Which contract type is typically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period ofyears?

A. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF)B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA)C. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contracts (CPFF)D. Time and Material contracts (T&M)



QUESTION 231The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the followingprocesses?

A. Develop Project CharterB. Develop Project Management PlanC. Direct and Manage Project ExecutionD. Monitor and Control Project Work



QUESTION 232Final product transition is an output of which process?

A. Direct and Manage Project ExecutionB. Close Project or PhaseC. Perform Integrated Change ControlD. Monitor and Control Project Work



QUESTION 233Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally manage approvedchanges and baselines within a project?

A. Project management information systemB. Configuration management systemC. Change control boardD. Project management plan



QUESTION 234The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project?

A. Procurement management planB. Project management planC. Project scope documentD. Project charter



QUESTION 235Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board?

A. Describes how changes are managed.B. Approves or rejects change requests.C. Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change.D. Describes how changes are documented.



QUESTION 236Which document is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project?

A. Project charterB. ContractC. Business case

D. Project statement of work



QUESTION 237Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the projectmanagement plan are part of which process?

A. Monitor and Control Project WorkB. Direct and Manage Project ExecutionC. Monitor and Control RiskD. Perform Integrated Change Control



QUESTION 238Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders' needs and expectations?

A. Project charterB. Project management planC. Project statement of workD. Project scope statement



QUESTION 239The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following processes?

A. Perform Integrated Change ControlB. Monitor and Control Project WorkC. Develop Project Management PlanD. Direct and Manage Project Execution



QUESTION 240

Who authorizes a project?

A. SponsorB. Project managerC. Project teamD. Buyer



QUESTION 241Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process?

A. Perform Integrated Change ControlB. Direct and Manage Project ExecutionC. Monitor and Control RisksD. Monitor and Control Project Work



QUESTION 242A business case is an input to which of the following processes?

A. Collect RequirementsB. Define ScopeC. Develop Project CharterD. Develop Project Management Plan



QUESTION 243What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved?

A. Functional requirementB. Status reportC. Customer needD. Defect repair



QUESTION 244The Project Integration Management knowledge area includes which of the following set of processes?

A. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Perform Integrated Change ControlB. Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or PhaseC. Develop Project Charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate CostsD. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Develop Project Management Plan



QUESTION 245What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project closure?

A. Customer acceptanceB. Statement of workC. Product reportD. User manual



QUESTION 246Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?

A. Parametric estimatingB. Monte Carlo analysisC. Top-down estimatingD. Bottom-up estimating



QUESTION 247Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule activities?

A. Schedule developmentB. Activity sequencingC. Create WBS

D. Applying leads and lags



QUESTION 248What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, whilework in the future is planned at a higher level?

A. Finish-to-start planningB. Rolling wave planningC. Short term planningD. Dependency determination



QUESTION 249When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A. Before constraints have been identifiedB. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path methodC. After it has been analyzed by the critical path methodD. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path



QUESTION 250Which is the duration of the project?

A. 63B. 65C. 66D. 70



QUESTION 251

Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities?

A. DecompositionB. Project management softwareC. Applying lead and lagsD. Expert judgment



QUESTION 252What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight,and complexity from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure fora future project?

A. Bottom-up estimatingB. Analogous estimatingC. Parametric estimatingD. Three-point estimates



QUESTION 253Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and the project's critical path scheduleactivities with activity date information?

A. Schedule tableB. Schedule network diagramC. Bar chartD. Milestone chart



QUESTION 254Which is the total float for the activity G?

A. 0B. 3C. 5D. 10



QUESTION 255Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method?

A. End-to-endB. Finish-to-endC. Start-to-endD. Start-to-start



QUESTION 256In the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely estimate for an activity to complete is 100 days, theoptimistic estimate is 60 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 200 days, what is the expected duration in whichthe activity will be completed?

A. 90 daysB. 100 daysC. 110 daysD. 660 days



QUESTION 257Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration?

A. Three-point estimatingB. Organizational process assetC. Analogous estimatingD. Reserve analysis



QUESTION 258What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparison with other cost estimate techniques?

A. Uses contingency reservesB. Less costly and time consumingC. Can be applied to segments of workD. More accurate



QUESTION 259Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process?

A. Alternative analysisB. Bottom-up estimatingC. Resource breakdown structureD. Enterprise environmental factors



QUESTION 260In the precedence diagramming method, which of the following is a logical relationship for the activities?

A. Finish-to-startB. Applying leads and lagsC. Activity-on-nodeD. Dependency determination



QUESTION 261During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include?

A. Activity name, dependencies, assumptionsB. Activity ID, WBS ID, activity nameC. Activity ID, assumptions, constraintsD. Activity name, WBS ID, activity description



QUESTION 262Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process?

A. Rolling wave planningB. Dependency determinationC. Schedule network templateD. Applying leads and lags



QUESTION 263Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule?

A. What-if scenario analysisB. BenchmarkingC. Variance analysisD. SWOT analysis



QUESTION 264Rolling wave planning is used as a tool and a technique in which of the following processes?

A. Estimate Activity DurationsB. Define ActivitiesC. Develop ScheduleD. Sequence Activities



QUESTION 265Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AONor another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships. What is the critical path duration for thegiven schedule network?

A. 22B. 23

C. 24D. 25



QUESTION 266Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AONor another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.What is the total float on path BEG?

A. 0B. 1C. 2D. 3



QUESTION 267If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned Value (EV)?

A. $0.2B. $5C. $44D. $66



QUESTION 268What is the status of a project if the Cost Performance Index is 1.25 and the Schedule Performance Index is0.75?

A. Under budget and behind scheduleB. Over budget and ahead of scheduleC. Under budget and ahead of scheduleD. Over budget and behind schedule



QUESTION 269CORRECT TEXTWhich of the following will be required to perform simulation for schedule risk analysis?

A. Answer. Activity list and activity attributesB. Answer. Schedule network diagram and duration estimatesC. Answer: Schedule data and activity resource requirementsD. Answer. Milestone list and resource breakdown structure



QUESTION 270The risk register contains which of the following?

A. Identified risks and potential responsesB. Identified risks and updates to scope baselineC. Risk management planD. Risk related contract decisions



QUESTION 271Which of the following is an input to identify risk?

A. Organizational process assetsB. Scope management planC. Communication management planD. Expert judgment



QUESTION 272Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project?

A. Expected monetary value analysisB. Sensitivity analysisC. Modeling and simulation

D. Expert judgment



QUESTION 273Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?

A. Identify RisksB. Monitor and Control RisksC. Plan Risk ManagementD. Plan Risk Responses



QUESTION 274Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes?

A. Monitor and Control RisksB. Qualitative Risk AnalysisC. Quantitative Risk AnalysisD. Plan Risk Responses



QUESTION 275What is risk tolerance?

A. Ability to manage risksB. Willingness to accept varying degrees of risksC. Ability to mitigate risksD. Willingness to develop a risk management plan



QUESTION 276Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:

A. probability distribution.B. decision tree diagram.C. sensitivity analysis.D. modeling and simulation.



QUESTION 277Which of the following is a strategy for positive risks?

A. AvoidB. TransferC. AcceptD. Mitigate



QUESTION 278An Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used for which of the following?

A. Identifying causes of risksB. Identifying frequency of occurrence of risksC. Developing a resource planD. Developing schedule



QUESTION 279Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as a tool and technique?

A. Quantitative risk analysisB. Qualitative risk analysisC. Perform quality assuranceD. Perform quality control



QUESTION 280What should a project manager do with low-priority risks?

A. Ignore low-priority risksB. Monitor periodically with other low-priority risksC. Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risksD. Increase the contingency reserve



QUESTION 281Which of the following is a technique for Identify Risks?

A. Risk categorizationB. SWOT analysisC. Risk register categorizationD. Risk probability and impact assessment



QUESTION 282The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new risk has beenidentified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur. This is an example of which type of riskresponse strategy?

A. MitigateB. AcceptC. AvoidD. Transfer



QUESTION 283The project team reviews identified risks and the risk response strategy. For one of the risks, the team realizesthat the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk. This new risk is which of the followingtypes of risk?

A. Secondary

B. PrimaryC. ResidualD. Tertiary



QUESTION 284What is the first step in preparing the risk register?

A. Qualitative risk analysisB. Quantitative risk analysisC. Risk response planningD. Risk identification



QUESTION 285What is Project Portfolio Management?

A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing,

staffing, executing and controlling.C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and

meet strategic business objectives.



QUESTION 286When is a project finished?

A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsorB. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closureC. When the project objectives have been metD. After resources have been released



QUESTION 287Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management knowledgearea?

A. Time managementB. Cost managementC. Scope managementD. Human resources management



QUESTION 288What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systemsB. Constrained by limited resourcesC. RepetitivenessD. Uniqueness



QUESTION 289What are the components of the "triple constraint"?

A. Scope, time, requirementsB. Resources, time, costC. Scope, management, costD. Scope, time, cost



QUESTION 290Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project managerB. Constantly evolvingC. The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project



QUESTION 291What do composite organizations involve?

A. Functional and project managersB. Functional managers onlyC. Project managers onlyD. Technical managers and project managers



QUESTION 292Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A. Staffing level is highest at the start.B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.



QUESTION 293What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A. IncreasesB. DecreasesC. Stays the same.D. Has no bearing.



QUESTION 294To which process is work performance information an input?

A. Contract administrationB. Direction and management of project executionC. Create WBSD. Qualitative risk analysis



QUESTION 295Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?

A. Project calendarB. Communication management planC. Requested changesD. Communication requirement plan



QUESTION 296Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service or other result that isintended to satisfy those requirements?

A. Develop project management planB. Develop project charterC. Develop preliminary project scope statementD. Scope planning



QUESTION 297Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A. Monitoring & ControllingB. ExecutingC. PlanningD. Initiating



QUESTION 298What process determines which risks might affect the project?

A. Qualitative risk analysisB. Identify RisksC. Plan Risk ManagementD. Quantitative risk analysis



QUESTION 299Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

A. Develop preliminary project scope statement.B. Close Project or Phase.C. Develop project charter.D. Create WBS.



QUESTION 300Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is knownas what?

A. Project management information systemB. Work performance informationC. Work breakdown structureD. Variance analysis



QUESTION 301Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?

A. Work performance informationB. Project management information system (PMIS)

C. Activity duration estimatesD. Scheduled network analysis



QUESTION 302Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

A. Performance reportB. Work breakdown structureC. Requested changesD. Project scope statement



QUESTION 303When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?

A. When the project is initiated.B. As an output of the scope verification process.C. When the project is closing.D. In the contract closure process.



QUESTION 304During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A. Quality controlB. Scope verificationC. Scope controlD. Close project



QUESTION 305The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A. Alternatives identificationB. Scope decompositionC. Expert judgmentD. Product analysis



QUESTION 306What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A. Risk registerB. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)C. Risk management planD. Risk category



QUESTION 307Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?

A. Templates, forms and standardsB. Change requestsC. Stakeholder analysisD. Project assumptions



QUESTION 308What is the total float of the critical path?

A. Can be any numberB. Zero or positiveC. Zero or negativeD. Depends on the calendar

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 309Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?

A. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - DB. Begin - A - B - C - D - E - EndC. Begin - A - B - D - E - End A - C - DD. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - C



QUESTION 310Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?

A. Network reserve analysisB. Critical chain methodC. Lead and lag adjustmentD. Critical path method



QUESTION 311Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changingproject scope.Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.B. The critical path will have positive total float.C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.



QUESTION 312Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating thecosts of the current project?

A. AnalogousB. ParametricC. Bottom-upD. Top-down



QUESTION 313Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work-days.What should be your concern?

A. There is a cost under run.B. There is a cost overrun.C. May not meet deadline.D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.



QUESTION 314Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work breakdown structureB. Network diagramsC. Staffing management planD. Responsibility matrix



QUESTION 315When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A. When the project uses capital expenditures.B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources.C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses.D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal.



QUESTION 316Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identifiedrisks?

A. Risk identificationB. Qualitative risk analysisC. Risk management planningD. Quantitative risk analysis



QUESTION 317In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A. Qualitative risk analysisB. Risk monitoring and controlC. Monitor and control project workD. Risk response planning



QUESTION 318A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?

A. Resource planB. Project management planC. Cost control planD. Expected monetary value plan



QUESTION 319A contract cannot contain _____________.

A. Illegal activitiesB. deadline for the completion of the workC. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights

D. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 320Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?

A. Scope StatementB. Quality PlanC. WBSD. Development Plan



QUESTION 321You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one vendorbecause it doesn't have the manufacturing capability.This is an example of which selection tool?

A. Weighting systemB. Screening systemC. Seller rating systemD. Expert judgment



QUESTION 322______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

A. Control Scope systemB. VeiirV ScopeC. Scope CharterD. Scope Management plan



QUESTION 323Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent furtheroccurrence?

A. Root cause analysisB. Quality auditsC. Project auditsD. Risk audits



QUESTION 324Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?

A. Rough order of magnitudeB. Budget estimateC. WBS estimateD. Definitive estimate



QUESTION 325Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?

A. Project ManagerB. SponsorC. Team LeadD. Management



QUESTION 326What is a corrective action?

A. An action that brings future project events Into alignment with the project planB. An action to correct something in the projectC. An action to prevent something in the projectD. Corrective action is not related to project

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 327Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.

A. True, real, or certainB. True, real, or uncertainC. RealD. Verbal



QUESTION 328A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.

A. Project archivesB. IndexC. sowD. Project History



QUESTION 329You are managing a project that will implement a new Insurance software package. Two project team membershave difficulty working together. They come to you, for help resolving the issues. You immediately set up ameeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting you and the functional manager discuss theissues and agree on a solution. What type of organizational structure you are working in?

A. FunctionalB. Balanced matrixC. PiojectizedD. Strong Matrix



QUESTION 330You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM failing to live up to the

CAPM Code.What you should do?

A. You can gather as much information as you can before proceedingB. Confront the person immediatelyC. Ignore the rumoursD. ^ass the rumours along



QUESTION 331Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?

A. The project managerB. The project sponsorC. The Team leadD. The nianagement



QUESTION 332In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team.

A. InternalB. ExternalC. OutsideD. Assigned



QUESTION 333Project Quality Management includes:

A. Customer satisfactionB. Prevention over inspectionC. Continuous improvementD. Al1 of the above

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 334You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000 and is expected tolast 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule.What is the BAC?

A. $-00,000B. $200,00C. $50,000D. None of the above



QUESTION 335A Risk Register is a part of the ________.

A. Project Scope StatementB. Project Management planC. Project Scheduling planD. Project Charter



QUESTION 336A Risk Register is a part of the ________.

A. Project Scope StatementB. Project Management planC. Project Scheduling planD. Project Charter



QUESTION 337Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?

A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)



QUESTION 338Create Procurement document is done in _______.




QUESTION 339Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of____________.

A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a projectB. Integral parts of the SOWC. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitmentD. Project selection methods



QUESTION 340Most change requests are a result of _______.

A. Value added change (enhancements)B. Schedule constraintsC. Regulatory constraintsD. Improvement to the project scope



QUESTION 341Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?

A. Project teamB. Project managerC. QA managerD. Validation engineer



QUESTION 342The end of the project comes after which of the following?

A. Project charterB. F'na' deliverableC. ScheduleD. QA activities are done



QUESTION 343The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the following bestdescribes product description?

A. The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project customerB. The product description defines the contracted workC. The product description defines the requirements for the contract workD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 344During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another way tocomplete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for thecustomer.This is an example of _______.

A. Alternative identificationB. "'s^ assessment

C. Alternative selectionD. Product analysis



QUESTION 345What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

A. Project taskB. w°rl< packageC. sowD. None



QUESTION 346Administrative Closure should occur ___________.

A. At the end of each phase of the projectB. At the end of the whole projectC. At the end of 50% of the projectD. At the end of 100% of the project



QUESTION 347In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?

A. During the initiation stageB. During the planning stageC. After approval of budgetD. After the project is proven feasible



QUESTION 348Who gives project acceptance?

A. SponsorB. CustomerC. Project ManagerD. Team Lead



QUESTION 349A requirement document is an input of __________ process?

A. Collect RequirementsB. Define ScopeC. Integrated Change ControlD. Monitor and Control Project Work



QUESTION 350Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?

A. Direct ar|d IndirectB. Tactical and StrategicC. Management and ProjectD. 0n|y Tactical



QUESTION 351Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?

A. Requirements document created in collect requirements processB. Project files from previous projectsC. Project CharterD. Al1 of the above


Explanation


QUESTION 352Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a project?

A. RACI mAl,xB. sowC. Staffing management planD. CPI



QUESTION 353_________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.

A. ISOB. CAPMC. pMID. iscn



QUESTION 354The work breakdown structure is ________.

A. Used to break down the project into manageable piecesB. Set and does not change throughout the projectC. Needed as part of the project charterD. [Needed as part of the project scope statement



QUESTION 355If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?

A. The project is running ahead of the scheduleB. The project is running behind of the schedule

C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 unitsD. None



QUESTION 356You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have assigned theresources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of your decisions.Which type of organizational structure are you working in?

A. Pi'ojectizedB. Strong MatrixC. Weak MatrixD. Functional



QUESTION 357At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?

A. The beginning of the projectB. ^ust before the end of the projectC. QA PhaseD. Execution phase



QUESTION 358From whom do you need to gain the formal acceptance at project closure?

A. The customerB. The qualify directorC. Project management officeD. Project manager



QUESTION 359Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?

A. Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total.B. Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.C. Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.D. Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.



QUESTION 360Which is not part of Project Plan?

A. Project Scope Management PlanB. Schedule Management PlanC. Cost Management PlanD. Project Charter



QUESTION 361Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution and Controlphase?

A. Information managementB. Maintain scope statementC. Maintain CharterD. Maintain Closing document



QUESTION 362Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined bymultiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?

A. Parametric estimatingB. Funding limit reconciliationC. Reserves analysis

D. None of the above



QUESTION 363You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal).RFP (Request for proposal) is done in _______.




QUESTION 364Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning?

A. Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goalsB. Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goalsC. Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and fundedD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 365The Ishikawa diagram, Pareto chart, control charts, and statistical sampling are examples of ________.

A. Quality assuranceB. Quality controlC. Quality rulesD. CMM



QUESTION 366

Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?

A. AcceptanceB. shaieC. MitigateD. Transfer



QUESTION 367Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?

A. Project justificationB. Project productC. Project manager authorityD. Project objective



QUESTION 368What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5 to10?

A. 35B. 5C. 15D. 75



QUESTION 369Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.

A. Initiation ProcessB. Project closer ProcessC. Estimation ProcessD. Closing process

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 370You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project__________.

A. Has ended before its stated objectiveB. s st'" cunning but missing resourcesC. Will be closed due to lack of resourcesD. None of the above



QUESTION 371When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates for the activitiesthat comprise each phase.What type of estimation method are you using?

A. Parametric estimatingB. Bottom-up estimatingC. Top-down estimatingD. Analogous estimating



QUESTION 372Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?

A. Project ManagerB. Team LeaderC. SponsorD. Project Team



QUESTION 373Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality?

A. Project managerB. QA managerC. Project plannerD. Team 'ead



QUESTION 374Assumptions in the project plan should be _________.

A. Written downB. UnderstandableC. Not understandableD. No need to write



QUESTION 375Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?

A. Project sponsorB. Project teamC. Project managerD. Senior Management



QUESTION 376Which of the following statement is true about project charter?

A. Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholdersB. Announces who is the project engineerC. Tells the newspapers and media when the project will endD. Announces who is the project sponsor



QUESTION 377Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?

A. Project management planB. Contract documentationC. DeliverablesD. WBS



QUESTION 378Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?

A. CompromiseB. SmoothingC. FoimalD. Coercive



QUESTION 379__________ is providing detailed plans for tasks that are about to start in the near future using the most currentinformation and revisiting future activities when they near their starting dates.

A. Rolling wave planningB. Progressive elaborationC. Milestone detail planningD. Expert judgment



QUESTION 380Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?

A. Updating risk registerB. Determining risk roles and responsibilitiesC. Identifying risk categoriesD. Developing a risk management plan



QUESTION 381PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ______ relationship.

A. Buyer or sellerB. Vendor or sellerC. PurchasingD. Sellino-



QUESTION 382Administrative closure is the process that ________.

A. Closes all activities pertaining to a specific projectB. Collects user acceptance of the project product or serviceC. Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and servicesD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 383You are project manager of a project, which of the following is not your responsibility?

A. Quality in the organizationB. Acquiring HR resources for the project teamC. Overall responsibility for risk on the projectD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 384Project success can be achieved only if:

A. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.B. The project sponsor leads the initiatives.C. The project manager is an expert in managing resources.D. Team members like project manager.



QUESTION 385You are project manager of a project and as part of the team acquisition process; you hire a new employee andassigns him to your project team.According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what needs level he most likely is at?

A. Social needB. Physical needC. Safety and securityD. Security



QUESTION 386Which one of the following is not an output of contract closure?

A. c'ose contractsB. Lessons learned documentationC. Deliverable acceptanceD. Scope statement



QUESTION 387The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.

A. Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the projectB. Announce project risksC. Not consider risks affecting the companyD. Announce project deliverables



QUESTION 388ISO Stands for __________.

A. International Organization for StandardizationB. International Standardized OrganizationC. 'n Standardized OrganizationD. Indiana Standardized Organization



QUESTION 389The project baseline is _______.

A. Original plans plus the approved changesB. Important in the project initiation phaseC. Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilizationD. Original plans and the approved major changes



QUESTION 390Which of the following is not a form a leadership power?

A. CompromiseB. SmoothingC. FoimalD. Coercive



QUESTION 391___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results neededfrom outside the project team to perform the work.

A. Procurement ManagementB. Planning Management

C. Scope ManagementD. Control Management



QUESTION 392You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope, what you do withthe old original scope?

A. Save the old versionsB. No need to save old versionC. Scrap the old versionD. Old version is not required



QUESTION 393Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project?

A. Quality baselineB. Quality management planC. Process improvement planD. QA checklist



QUESTION 394Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed toby the stakeholders.

A. Project ManagerB. SponsorC. Team LeadD. Management



QUESTION 395Which of the following is an output of Verify Scope?

A. Formal acceptanceB. WBS templateC. sow acceptanceD. Rework



QUESTION 396Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.

A. Work Breakdown StructureB. sowC. Project CharterD. Project Scope Statement



QUESTION 397How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?

A. 10B. 12C. 4D. 5



QUESTION 398Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking costs of resources?

A. Work breakdown structureB. P'sk breakdown structureC. Organizational breakdown structureD. Resource breakdown structure



QUESTION 399If a project with a CPI of 0.8, what you tell?

A. The project is consuming more resources than anticipated.B. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.C. The project is falling behind.D. The project is running ahead of schedule.



QUESTION 400Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?

A. Control ScopeB. Manage project teamC. Quality controlD. Manage Scope statement



QUESTION 401_______ is the road map for the execution of the project.

A. Project planB. sowC. WBSD. Strategic planning



QUESTION 402You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members thatexceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the chance to earn cash reward can mostaccurately be explained by which theory

A. Hierarchy of needsB. Expectancy theoryC. Achievement theoryD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 403Which of the following are input of close project process?

A. Project management planB. Contract documentationC. DeliverablesD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 404The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

A. Assign the project manager to the projectB. Formally describe the projectC. Produce the project charterD. Formally authorize the project



QUESTION 405Which document formally authorizes a project?

A. The project charterB. Project scope statementC. The P'oject contractD. Project closing document



QUESTION 406Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.

A. Has become part of the business processesB. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the clientC. Will be closed due to lack of resourcesD. None of the above



QUESTION 407The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

A. Assign the project manager to the projectB. Formally describe the projectC. Produce the project charterD. Formally authorize the project



QUESTION 408Who is responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood?

A. Project ManagerB. SenderC. Project coordinatorD. Sponsor



QUESTION 409_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.

A. Cost plus incentive feeB. F'xed P|iceC. Time and materialD. "'s^ 's nc* 'elated to price




A. 10B. 12C. 4D. 5



QUESTION 411Acceptance of the product should be ________.

A. FormalB. ConsistentC. PersonalD. Verbal



QUESTION 412You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units.How can you tell when you are done?

A. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimaterequired resources and duration.

B. Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep the WBSbalanced.

C. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one DAY.D. Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one WEEK.



QUESTION 413If a project with a SPI of 0.8, what you tell?

A. The project is running ahead of the scheduleB. The project is running behind of the scheduleC. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 unitsD. None




A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipatedB. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.C. The project is falling behind.D. The project is running ahead of schedule.



QUESTION 415What are the inputs for Initiation process?

A. Product description and Strategic planB. Selection criteriaC. Historical informationD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 416Which of the following are parts of project scope management?

A. Verify ScopeB. Collect RequirementsC. Control ScopeD. Al1 of the above


Explanation


QUESTION 417Project scope is _____________.

A. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or serviceB. The work that must NOT be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functionsC. Part °ftne project charterD. Part of sow



QUESTION 418You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5years in production. At the end of the five years the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000.Using straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?

A. $600B. $1200C. $3000D. Zero



QUESTION 419Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

A. Executive CommunicationB. Risk ManagementC. Quality ManagementD. Scope Statement



QUESTION 420Stakeholder influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.

A. Beginning

B. ClosingC. ControllingD. Executing



QUESTION 421Which of the following is not part of project scope management?

A. Verify ScopeB. Collect RequirementsC. Create WBSD. None of the above



QUESTION 422You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within one year.This is an example of which of the following?

A. ScheduleB. AssumptionC. ConstraintD. Planning process



QUESTION 423The project management plan:

A. Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiatedB. Steps needed to complete a project taskC. Prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the projectD. Includes project charter



QUESTION 424Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?

A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)B. Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)



QUESTION 425What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

A. CPFB. CPFFC. CPIFD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 426Information should be communicated to __________.

A. Everyone in the communication planB. Everyone on the teamC. SponsorD. Team 'eacl



QUESTION 427You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode.This means that your project __________.

A. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the clientB. Will be closed due to lack of resourcesC. Resources are being assigned to other areas of the businessD. None of the above



QUESTION 428You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all of the costs involvedwith an upcoming project. Rather, this CAPM is constructing a WBS that does not include all the tasksnecessary to get the project done.What you should do?

A. Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the projectB. Confront the other project manager immediatelyC. Mail t0 PMI headquartersD. Ignore it



QUESTION 429Which document formally authorizes a project?

A. The project charterB. Project scope statementC. The P'oject contractD. Project closing document



QUESTION 430You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after thecontract is signed is ___________.

A. Bad practiceB. Unprofessional practiceC. Bacl f°r both tne buyer and sellerD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 431In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team.

A. InternalB. ExternalC. OutsideD. Assigned



QUESTION 432Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable componentsto __________.

A. Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimatesB. Define a baseline for performance measurement and controlC. Facilitate clear responsibility assignmentsD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 433Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics andfeatures of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.

A. Progressive elaborationB. Stake holder's reviewC. p'an project life cycleD. Fast backing



QUESTION 434You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and DefineScope.What should you do next?

A. Create WBSB. Vei*<fy Scope

C. Value analysisD. Control Scope



QUESTION 435Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?

A. Collect RequirementsB. Develop the project charterC. Develop the project statement of workD. Develop project closing document



QUESTION 436You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Define Activities, activity resourcesestimating, and Estimate Activity Durations processes.Which process have you left out?

A. Control ScheduleB. Create WBSC. Sequence ActivitiesD. Operations



QUESTION 437Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?

A. Earn Value AnalysisB. Scope BaselineC. P'sk RegisterD. Human Resource Plan



QUESTION 438Which of the following is NOT input of Identify Risks?

A. Project CharterB. Stakeholder RegisterC. Pis'* Management PlanD. Activity Cost Estimates



QUESTION 439You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and DefineScope.What should you do next?

A. Create WBSB. Vei*<fy ScopeC. Value analysisD. Control Scope



QUESTION 440If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible.Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?

A. Historical informationB. WBSC. Business plansD. RBS



QUESTION 441Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?

A. Monitor implementation of approved changesB. Validate deliverables

C. Staff, train, and manage the project teamD. Manage cisks and implement risk responses



QUESTION 442You are the project manager and you have created a contract for your customer.The contract must have ________.

A. Offer and considerationB. Start date and acceptance of start dateC. Signatures and the stamp of a notary publicD. Signatures of all stakeholders




A. The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipatedB. The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.C. The project is falling behind.D. The project is running ahead of schedule.



QUESTION 444Which is the most risky phase of a project?

A. PlanningB. ClosingC. ExecutionD. Control



QUESTION 445Lessons learned session should be held at what point in a project?

A. At the project conclusionB. At key milestonesC. When risk events occurD. When sponsor want



QUESTION 446What are the outputs of Initiation process?

A. Project charter and PM assignedB. ConstraintsC. AssumptionsD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 447Which process group is for detailed resource assignments and responsibilities?

A. Human resources management planB. Project charterC. AplanD. Project management plan



QUESTION 448You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working from US andsome are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than $12 million. Because of the global concerns,the final budget must be in U.S. dollars.This is an example of which of the following?

A. InternationalizationB. Budget constraintC. Management constraint

D. Quality constraint



QUESTION 449You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done project costand time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet therequirements like (wooden coated).This is an example of which of the following?

A. RiskB. AssumptionC. ConstraintD. Budget



QUESTION 450When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to predict estimate.What type of estimation method are you using?

A. Parametric estimatingB. Bottom-up estimatingC. Top-down estimatingD. Analogous estimating



QUESTION 451Purchasing insurance is an example of __________.

A. TransferB. AcceptancesC. MitigationD. Contingency



QUESTION 452How many communication channels exist in a team of 10 members?

A. 45B. 10C. 30D. 20



QUESTION 453The primary output of the project closing process ____________.

A. To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closingB. Lessons learnedC. To get customer and sponsor approvalD. Milestone list



QUESTION 454Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (finish-to-start, finish-to-finish,start-to-start, and start-to-finish)?

A. Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)B. Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)C. Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)D. Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)



QUESTION 455Which of the following best describes project scope?

A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functionsB. The description of the project deliverablesC. The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assign

resources to the tasks

D. The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project



QUESTION 456In which phase you define the final deliverable?

A. ClosingB. ExecutionC. PlanningD. Initiation



QUESTION 457The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is called ___________.

A. Project time managementB. Control ScheduleC. Monitoring and controllingD. Al1 of the above



QUESTION 458Your project team is composed of team members in three countries plus a contractor team in a fourth country.What tool would optimize communication?

A. Extranet-based electronic document repositoryB. Manual filing systemC. War loomD. Verbal



QUESTION 459

Conformance to specifications document is one description of _________.

A. QualityB. ScopeC. IntegrationD. Procurement



QUESTION 460Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase.This process is known as ________.

A. Verify ScopeB. Quality AssuranceC. Quality ControlD. Quality Measurement


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

QUESTION 461_________ is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.

A. Cost plus incentive feeB. F'xed P|iceC. Time and materialD. None



QUESTION 462You are the project manager of a project and the project is a month into the executing phase. There are somecliques forming among the team members.Which leadership style you follow for best outcome?

A. SupportingB. DelegatingC. CoachingD. Directing



QUESTION 463When the version control numbers should change?

A. Any change occursB. Major changes are madeC. Any change related to scope onlyD. Only if minor changes are made




A. 45B. 12C. 10D. 5



QUESTION 465Market conditions are a part of ________.

A. Enterprise environmental factorsB. Project management concernsC. Organizational process assetsD. Cost factor



QUESTION 466Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examplesof:

A. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a projectB. Integral parts of the SOWC. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitmentD. Project selection methods



QUESTION 467Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. PBSB. Project Scope statementC. WBS TemplateD. Constraints



QUESTION 468The buyer and seller are bound by the ________.

A. ContractB. ResponsibilitiesC. WBSD. Identification



QUESTION 469Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:

A. Contract change control systemB. Contract negotiationC. Payment systemD. Performance rating



QUESTION 470Which describes how cost variances will be managed?

A. Cost management planB. Cost baselineC. Cost estimateD. Chart of accounts



QUESTION 471A _______ is a series of actions bringing about a result.

A. Project planB. ProcessC. ScheduleD. Flowchart



QUESTION 472A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:

A. Develop Project Management Plan processB. Control Costs processC. Determine Budget processD. Estimate Costs process



QUESTION 473__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model

A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modellingD. Bottom up estimating



QUESTION 474Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:

A. Develop ScheduleB. Estimate Activity DurationsC. Estimate Activity ResourcesD. Sequence Activities



QUESTION 475Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.

A. Generally AccurateB. Generally less accurateC. Bottom-up estimatingD. None



QUESTION 476With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively.The mean is _____.

A. 30.0B. 22.5C. 25.0D. 27.5



QUESTION 477You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000.

Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?

A. $600B. $1200C. $3000D. $100



QUESTION 478Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?

A. Formal acceptanceB. WBStemplateC. SOW acceptanceD. Rework



QUESTION 479What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities?

A. Resource planningB. Estimate CostsC. Determine BudgetD. Control Costs



QUESTION 480Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

A. Gantt chartB. Milestone chartC. fishbone diagramD. network diagram



QUESTION 481A Change Control Board should be _______?

A. flexibleB. Include the project managerC. appropriate authorityD. al1 of the above



QUESTION 482Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect projectobjectives.

A. Likely eventsB. Complex activitiesC. Complex schedulesD. Uncertain occurrences



QUESTION 483Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?

A. Contract negotiationB. Weighting systemC. Payment systemD. Screening system



QUESTION 484Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or service

A. Project scopeB. Project verification

C. Project controlD. Product scope



QUESTION 485A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be _____.

A. Statistically dependentB. Variance distributedC. Statistically independentD. Deterministic



QUESTION 486Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?

A. Management Contingency ReserveB. Management OverheadsC. Project Management PlaningD. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve



QUESTION 487In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:

A. FunctionalB. Weak matrixC. PiojectizedD. Dedicated project team



QUESTION 488Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?

A. Unknown UnknownsB. Project BudgetC. Known UnknownsD. Amount of work completed



QUESTION 489What is the purpose of the WBS?

A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.C. To show the organizational structure of a program.D. all of the above



QUESTION 490A Project Scope Management includes :

A. InitiationB. Project Plan ExecutionC. Overall Change ControlD. Report Performance



QUESTION 491At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?

A. Initial stageB. Closing stageC. Execution stageD. None of the above

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 492An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists between two activitiesis called:

A. A milestoneB. A hammockC. A dummy activityD. a and c



QUESTION 493A change requests can occur due to:

A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.D. all of the above



QUESTION 494Another term for top down estimating is:.

A. Analogous estimatingB. Life-cycle costingC. Parametric modelingD. Bottom up estimating



QUESTION 495A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:

A. Estimate Activity Durations

B. Estimate Activity ResourcesC. Sequence ActivitiesD. Define Activities



QUESTION 496The scope management provides:

A. A basis for future decisions about the project.B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.D. All of the above.



QUESTION 497A project plan is:

A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply

organizational resources to project activities.C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplieD. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.



QUESTION 498Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :

A. Start-to-FinishB. Finish-to-StartC. Start-to-StartD. Finish-to-Finish



QUESTION 499When should a project manager be assigned to a project?

A. As early in the project as feasible.B. Preferably before much project planning has been done.C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution.D. All of the above.



QUESTION 500Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process?

A. Product analysisB. Expert JudgmentC. Alternative IdentificationD. All of the above



QUESTION 501Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenlyacross all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent$120,000 of the project budget.What is your COST Variance percentage in this case?

A. -50%B. 50%C. 40%D. 20%



QUESTION 502Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?

A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nearscompletion.

B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.

C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project.D. a and b



QUESTION 503A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project.This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:

A. HierarchalB. AuthoritarianC. CharismaticD. Associative



QUESTION 504Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan?

A. Stakeholder requirementsB. Project performanceC. Control ScheduleD. Project controls



QUESTION 505Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:

A. Sequence ActivitiesB. Develop ScheduleC. Define ActivitiesD. Estimate Activity Durations



QUESTION 506Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the Develop HumanResource Plan process?

A. Risk Management activitiesB. Activity Resource requirementsC. Budget Control activitiesD. Quality Assurance activities



QUESTION 507In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

A. Projectized organizationB. Balanced Matrix organizationC. Strong MatrixD. Weak Matrix organization



QUESTION 508In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

A. Projectized organizationB. Balanced Matrix organizationC. Strong MatrixD. Weak Matrix organization



QUESTION 509A Trend Analysis is best described as:

A. Examining project performance over timeB. Calculating Earned ValueC. Calculating Cost VarianceD. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time



QUESTION 510To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks , you must do :

A. An analysis of the critical pathB. A forwards passC. A backwards passD. a and g



QUESTION 511Which is not included in Performance improvements :

A. Improvements in amount of overtime workedB. Improvements in individual skillsC. Improvements in team behavioursD. Improvements in team capabilities



QUESTION 512Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERTweighted average?

A. 6B. 4C. 6.3D. 6.1



QUESTION 513A scope management plan In which of the following scope management processes is the scope managementplan prepared?

A. InitiationB. Collect RequirementsC. Define ScopeD. Verify Scope



QUESTION 514Project scope is:

A. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.D. a and b



QUESTION 515The planning processes are:

A. Define Scope, Resource planning, Estimate Costs, Schedule development. Define ActivitiesB. Inputs, Control, Status reports, Risk managementC. Planning, Resource planning, Quality assurance, Risk controlD. Define Scope, Team development, Control Schedule, Budget control, Contract administration



QUESTION 516A Resource Leveling is a technique for:

A. Develop ScheduleB. Estimate Activity DurationsC. Estimate Activity ResourcesD. Sequence Activities



QUESTION 517A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is:

A. IdentificationB. SolicitationC. QuantificationD. Response Development



QUESTION 518An example of a project is:

A. Billing customersB. Managing an organizationC. Constructing a buildingD. Providing technical support




PMI PMI-100 Exam Questions & Answers · 2019-10-25 · PMI PMI-100 Exam Questions & Answers Exam...

Documents

Transcript of PMI PMI-100 Exam Questions & Answers · 2019-10-25 · PMI PMI-100 Exam Questions & Answers Exam...