Physics, Chemistry & Biology -...
Transcript of Physics, Chemistry & Biology -...
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Sample Paper (Medical) Aakash Talent Quest 2017
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Aakash Talent Quest 2017Aakash Talent Quest 2017Aakash Talent Quest 2017Aakash Talent Quest 2017Aakash Talent Quest 2017(((((for Class XII Studying / Passed Studentsfor Class XII Studying / Passed Studentsfor Class XII Studying / Passed Studentsfor Class XII Studying / Passed Studentsfor Class XII Studying / Passed Students)))))
SECTION-A : PHYSICS
(The questions given in sample paper are indicative of the level and
pattern of questions that will be asked in ATQ 2017)
1. A stone is dropped into lake from a tower 500 m
high. The sound of splash will be heard by a man on
the tower after released approximately (speed of
sound = 330 m/s)
(1) 21 s (2) 10 s
(3) 11.5 s (4) 14 s
2. An aeroplane is moving on a circular path with a
speed 300 km/h. What is the magnitude of change
in velocity in half revolution?
(1) Zero (2) 600 km/h
(3) 300 km/h (4) 300 2 km/h
3. Choose correct statement
(1) Linear momentum is always conserved
(2) An external force is required to keep a body in
motion
(3) Inertia is equal to mass so its unit is kg
(4) Newton’s laws are applicable in inertial frames
4. In the given system, tension (T) in the string is
(assume pulley and string are light)
2 kg
3 kg
TT
(1) 12 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 8 N
5. A bomb of mass 10 kg explodes into two pieces of
masses 4 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of 6 kg mass
is 2 m/s, then kinetic energy of the other mass is
(1) 27 J
(2) 12 J
(3) 9 J
(4) 18 J
6. A sonometer wire is divided into 3 segments. If the
fundamental frequencies of these segments are f1,
f2 and f
3 respectively, then the fundamental frequency
of entire wire will be (when it oscillates in one
segment)
(1)
1 2 3
1 1 1 1
f f f f
(2)2 2 2 2
1 2 3
1 1 1 1
f f f f
(3)1 2 3
1 1 1 1
f f f f
(4)1 2 3
3
f f ff
Space for Rough Work
Aakash Talent Quest 2017 Sample Paper (Medical)
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7. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a
height 6R from earth surface, where R is the radius
of earth. The time period of an other satellite at a
height 2.5R from earth’s surface, is
(1) 12 2 h (2) 3 2 h
(3) 8 2 h (4) 6 2 h
8. Frequency of vibration of a particle in SHM is f.
Frequency of its acceleration is
(1) 2f (2) f
(3)2
f(4) 3f
9. A particle is projected at some angle from vertical
in ground to ground projectile such that its horizontal
range is 4 3 time the height attained by the
projectile, then is
(1) 45° (2) 30°
(3) 90° (4) 60°
10. A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If K.E. of
rotation is 40% of K.E. of translation, then body is
(1) Ring (2) Disc
(3) Solid sphere (4) Hollow sphere
11. A charge Q0 is enclosed by three different surfaces
as shown.
Q0
Surface
Area = 2S
Surface
Area = 3S
Surface
Area = 4S
Q0
Q0
1. 2. 3.
The electric flux coming out from these surfaces are
1,
2,
3 then
(1)1 2 3
(2)1 2 3
(3)1 3
22
(4) 2 3
4
3
12. In the given circuit potential difference between
points A and B is equal to
6 F3 F
6 F3 F A
B
12 V
(1) 4 volt (2) Zero
(3) 6 volt (4) 2 volt
13. Three point charges Q, 6 C and 6 C are kept at
corners of a right angle isosceles triangle as shown
in the figure. If electrical potential energy of the
system is zero, then the value of Q is nearly
Q
r
r6 C6 C
(1) –1.5 C
(2) –2.5 C
(3) –3.5 C
(4) 2.5 C
Space for Rough Work
Sample Paper (Medical) Aakash Talent Quest 2017
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14. The current I in the circuit shown below is
2 A
4 A10 A
8 A I
(1) 22 A
(2) 20 A
(3) 14 A
(4) 16 A
15. A current I is flowing through a uniform circular loop
of radius R as shown in figure. Magnetic field at its
centre O is
150°R
R OI
I
(1)0
3
2
I
R
(2)0
3
I
R
(3)0I
R
(4) Zero
16. An electron moves in a circular orbit with uniform
speed v. It produces magnetic field B at the centre.
The radius of the electronic orbit is proportional to
(1)B
v(2)
v
B
(3)v
B(4)
B
v
17. Magnetic field in a region around a coil changes
according to the graph in figure. The magnitude of
emf induced in the coil is
1 2 3 4 5t (s)
B(mT)
O
(1) Maximum at t = 0.5 s
(2) Maximum at t = 2 s
(3) Maximum at t = 4 s
(4) Equal at t = 0.5 s and t = 4 s
18. For an ideal transformer having NS
/ NP = 50, as
shown in figure, the current in the secondary open
coil is (If current in primary coil is 5 A)
NS
NP
50 Hz
200 V
(1) 100 mA (2) 250 mA
(3) 200 mA (4) Zero
19. For a series LCR circuit having capacitance C = 64 F
and inductor L = 4 H. The value of Q factor is to be
kept 50 then required resistance should be
(1) 50 (2) 5
(3) 7.5 (4) 10
20. The value of shunt which allows only 20% of main
current through a galvanometer of resistance 80 is
(1) 40 (2) 16
(3) 20 (4) 320
Space for Rough Work
Aakash Talent Quest 2017 Sample Paper (Medical)
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21. Consider the following reaction
CH3 — CH = CH
2 + Cl
2
800 K X + HCl
Identify the product X in the given reaction.
(1) CH3CH
2CH
2Cl
(2) CH — CH — CH3 2
Cl
Cl
(3) CH2Cl — CH = CH
2
(4) CH — CH — CH2 2
ClClCl
22. Which of the following will not give a primary amine?
(1) 2Br , KOH
3 2CH CONH
(2) 4LiAlH
3CH CN
(3) 4LiAlH
3CH NC
(4) 4LiAlH
3 2CH CONH
23. Specific rotation of -D-glucose is
(1) –54° (2) –111.9°
(3) +54° (4) +111.9°
24. The most stable free radical is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
CH
SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
25. The major product of the following reaction is
PhONa
dimethyl formamide
F
BrH C3
NO2
(1)
F
H C3
NO2
OPh
(2)
F
H C3
NO2
OPh
(3)
OPh
H C3
NO2
Br
(4)
OPh
H C3
NO2
OPh
26. A compound C3H
6O gives positive iodoform test but
negative silver mirror test. It was reacted with
hydroxylamine to form oxime. Compound must be
(1) CH2=CH–CH
2–OH
(2) CH –C–3
CH3
–
O
–
(3) CH –CH C–3 2
– H
–
O
–
(4)
Space for Rough Work
Sample Paper (Medical) Aakash Talent Quest 2017
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27.
Cl
Br
+ Mg(1eq.)THF
A BCH COOH
3
A and B respectively are
(1)
Cl
MgBr
,
Cl
(2)
Cl
MgBr
,
Cl
COCH3
(3)
MgCl
Br
,
COCH3
Br
(4)
MgCl
Br
,
Br
28. Which of the following will be most readily
dehydrated?
(1)
OH
O
(2)
O
(3)O OH
(4)
O
29. KI in acetone undergoes SN2 reaction with each P,
Q, R and S. The rate of the reaction vary as
(P) H3C – Cl
(Q) Cl
(R)Cl
(S)Cl
O
(1) P > R > Q > S
(2) R > P > S > Q
(3) P > Q > R > S
(4) S > P > R > Q
30. Which of the following is/are polyamide?
(1) Nylon 2, 6
(2) Nylon 6, 6
(3) Proteins
(4) All of these
31. C
R1
R2 Cl
HS 2
N [X]
Compound X is obtained with
(1) Retention of configuration
(2) Inversion of configuration
(3) Racemic mixture
(4) All of these
Space for Rough Work
Aakash Talent Quest 2017 Sample Paper (Medical)
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32. Formation of polyethene from calcium carbide, takes
place as follows
CaC2 + 2H
2O Ca(OH)
2 + C
2H
2
C2H
2 + H
2 C
2H
4
nC2H
4 (CH – CH )
2 2 n––
The mass of CaC2 required to produce 28 kg of
polyethene is
(1) 32 kg (2) 64 kg
(3) 32 g (4) 64 g
33. The radius of second Bohr’s orbit for He+ ion will be
(1) 52.9 pm (2) 26.45 pm
(3) 105.8 pm (4) 211.6 pm
34. Pressure of a mixture of 4 g He and 8 g O2
confined
in a bulb of 10 litres at 27°C is
(1) 3.08 atm
(2) 6.16 atm
(3) 1.54 atm
(4) 2.06 atm
35. The entropy change involved in the isothermal
reversible expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas from
a volume of 10 dm3 at 27°C is to a volume of
100 dm3 is
(1) 42.3 J mol–1K–1
(2) 38.3 J mol–1K–1
(3) 19.15 J mol–1K–1
(4) 57.45 J mol–1K–1
36. Two solutions having pH 2 and 3 are mixed in a ratio
of 2 : 3 by volume. What is the pH of resulting
solution?
(1) 1.6 (2) 2.33
(3) 2.5 (4) 5.8
37. In the balanced chemical reaction
–2 –
4 2 2 2aSO bI cH dI eSO fH O
The values of a, b, c and d are respectively
(1) 1, 2, 4, 1
(2) 1, 1, 2, 4
(3) 1, 1, 2, 1
(4) 1, 2, 3, 4
38. Rate of effusion of LPG (a mixture of n-butane and
propane) is 1.25 times than that of SO3
under similar
conditions of temperature and pressure. Mole fraction
of n-butane in LPG is
(1) 0.25
(2) 0.51
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.85
39. Which statement is correct at Equilibrium?
(1) G = –2.303RT log Kc
(2) G° = –2.303RT log Kc
(3) G = 2.303T log Kc
(4) G° = 2.303T log Kc
40. At 25° C, the equilibrium constants for the reactions
are
3 2 2 12NH (g) N (g) 3H (g); K���⇀
↽���
2 2 3 2
1 3 1N (g) N NH ; K
4 4 2 ���⇀
↽���
Which of the following is correct relation between
K1 and K
2?
(1) K1 = 2
2
1
K(2) K
1 = 4
2
1
K
(3) K1 = K
2
2 (4) K1 = K
2
4
Space for Rough Work
Sample Paper (Medical) Aakash Talent Quest 2017
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41. Which of the following is correct, if IA and IB alleles
are present together in an individual?
(1) Only A type of sugar is present on RBC surface
(2) Only B type of sugar is present on RBC surface
(3) Both A and B type of sugars are present on
RBC surface
(4) No sugar is present on RBC surface
42. A man with blood group AB marries a woman with
blood group B. This couple cannot have a child of
blood group
(1) A (2) B
(3) AB (4) O
43. In case of co-dominance, the F1-progeny
(1) Resembles both parents
(2) Resembles dominant parent only
(3) Resembles recessive parent only
(4) Have an intermediate phenotype
44. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding Erwin Chargaff’s rule?
a. A + G = T + C
b. The value of A+G/T+C varies from species to
species
c. Base ratio of A+T/C+G is less than one in
eukaryotes
d. Deoxy-ribose sugar and phosphate residues
occur in equal number in DNA
(1) Only a, b & c
(2) Only a & d
(3) Only c & d
(4) Only a & c
45. Choose the correct role of iron in the plants
(1) Splitting of water to liberate oxygen during
photosynthesis
(2) Helps in synthesis of coenzyme-A
(3) Helps in the formation of chlorophyll
(4) Helps in the formation of mitotic spindle
46. Select the statement which is incorrect for cells
given below in hypothetical arrangement.
OP = 10
DPD = 7
S = –8
TP = 3
S = –3
= –6w
A
B
C
(1) Cell A receives water from both cells i.e., from C
& B
(2) Cell C has more free water molecules
(3) Water potential of cell A is higher than other two
cells
(4) Water potential of cell A is –7 bars
47. Find out the correct statement
(1) Dark reaction is not directly dependent on light
(2) CO2 is required in all major steps of Calvin or C
2
cycle
(3) Sugarcane is more efficient in CO2 fixation than
maize
(4) Agranal chloroplast is found in mesophyll cell of
C4 plants
SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
Space for Rough Work
Aakash Talent Quest 2017 Sample Paper (Medical)
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48. Which of the respiratory substrate consumes more
O2 for oxidation by releasing less CO
2?
(1) OAA
(2) Malic acid
(3) Palmitic acid
(4) Sucrose
49. The phytohormone which plays major role in
development, maturation and inducing seed
dormancy is
(1) GA
(2) C2H
4
(3) ABA
(4) Cytokinin
50. Nutrient mobilisation in plants and _____ in leaf
senescence are the role of _____
(1) Delay, Auxin
(2) Promotion, GA
(3) Delay, Cytokinin
(4) Promotion, auxin
51. If the gene gun is used to transfer the gene of
interest, the most suitable competent host must be
(1) E. coli
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Arabidopsis thaliana
(4) Caenorhabditis elegans
52. Bt cotton, a transgenic crop is resistant to
(1) Cotton boll worm belonging to order Coleoptera
of insecta
(2) Helicoverpa armigera belonging to order
Lepidoptera of insecta
(3) Army worm of order Diptera of insecta
(4) Cotton boll worm belonging to order
Hymenoptera of Insecta
53. In the accompanying diagram of a human nephron,
the functional parts are labelled as A, B, C, D, E.
A
B
C
D
E
Study the diagram to answer the questions given
P : Active secretion of H+ and K+ into the filtrate,
occurs in which parts of nephron?
Q : Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water is a
function of which part of nephron?
R : Reabsorption of water is maximum in which
segment?
Choose the correct option.
P Q R
(1) B, D C E
(2) A, B, C C E
(3) B, D, E D B
(4) A, D, E E C
54. Select the correct match of hormone listed, its
source and function.
Glucagon -cells ofpancreas
Increases blood glucose levels
Vasopressin
ACTH
LH
Hypothalamus Increases diuresis
Anterior lobe of pituitary
Stimulates synthesis andsecretion ofglucocorticoidsfrom adrenalcortex
Hypothalamus Stimulates gonadal activity
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Hormone Source Function
Space for Rough Work
Sample Paper (Medical) Aakash Talent Quest 2017
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55. By the end of the first trimester, which of the
following has occurred in the foetus?
(1) The first movements of the foetus and the
appearance of hair on the head.
(2) The foetus starts using lungs to breathe.
(3) Organs of foetus have begun to form, the limbs
and external genitalia are well developed
(4) Embryo’s heart is formed and the body is
covered with fine hair
56. Higher number of RBCs in the blood of a mountain
dweller in comparison to a person residing in plains
can be explained by
(1) Lack of pollutants in higher mountainous regions
(2) Less 2O
P in atmospheric air in mountains
stimulates erythropoiesis to supply the required
amount of O2 to tissues
(3) Better nutrition intake of mountain dwellers
(4) Enhanced erythropoiesis in mountain dwellers
due to high exposure to UV rays
57. Anemia in a person indicates the lack of secretion
from
(1) Peptic cells of stomach
(2) Islets of pancreas
(3) Oxyntic cells of stomach
(4) Crypts of the duodenum
58. Find out the incorrect option w.r.t. the first heart
sound.
(1) It is lubb, a low pitch sound
(2) It marks the onset of ventricular systole
(3) Associated with the closure of the tricuspid and
bicuspid valves
(4) It lasts for short duration and can be properly
heard by a stethoscope
59. The lens and cornea do not have blood supply, so
the nutrients are supplied to them by
(1) Retina (2) Aqueous humor
(3) Vitreous humor (4) Blind spot
60. Identify the correct option from the given information:
A. Red muscle fibres have high content of
myoglobin.
B. The white muscle fibres do not get fatigued.
C. Cardiac muscles have long refractory period.
D. Mg2+ dependent ATPase activity is present in
the myosin head.
E. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases the stored
Ca2+, which binds with calcium binding site of
tropomyosin on actin filaments.
(1) A, B, C, D are correct but E is incorrect
(2) B & E are incorrect while A, C & D are correct
(3) A & C are correct statements where as B, D &
E are incorrect
(4) D is the only incorrect statement while A, B, C
& E are the correct statements
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