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DGPD 721 Year II - Semester I - 2001 Name: No.

FINAL EXAMINATION

Directions: Choose the one best answer for each of the following questions and blacken the corresponding space on the answer sheet provided.

Answer every question, there is no penalty for guessing.

1. The anterior configuration of the primary arch persists into adulthood.

(a) true b. false

Circumference of the primary arches has a tendency to shorten during the primary dentition stage as a result of:

a. presence of a neonatal tooth (^> dental caries developing on proximal surfaces of the primary molar

c. a thumb-sucking habit d. a flush terminal plane

3. Interdental spacing is that spacing in the primary dentition which is usually , but not always, found mesial to the maxillary primary cuspid.

a. true (Gp false

4. When the proximal portion of a Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar extends rather deeply gingivally, a satisfactory gingival seat may not be obtained because the:

Q£) enamel rods in the gingival third of the primary first molars extend gingivally. b. buccal and lingual surfaces of primary molars converge occlusally. c. proximal contact of primary molars is broad and flat d. primary teeth have a marked cervical construction e. roots of primary molars are more divergent than roots of permanent molars.

5. The resistance form of a cavity preparation is that form which:

1. protects against fracture of the restorative material by forces of mastication 2. protects against fracture of the remaining tooth structure by forces of mastication 3. prevents dislodgment of the restoration by externally applied forces TM

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4. extends into pits and fissures to make enamel more resistant to active caries

6> b. c. d.

1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 3 1,2, 3 and 4

6. The proximal walls of a Class II cavity preparation in the primary molar:

1. are mostly tapered like an inlay 2. have rounded gingival line angles 3. have minimal extension of margins into a clean area because of a broad contact area 4. meet the external surface of the tooth at the right angle

a. b.

KS> d.

1 and 2 1,2, and 3 2, 3, and 4 1,2, 3, and 4

7. The axial wall in a Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar:

1. is parallel to the external surface buccolingually 2. is convex buccolingually 3. is concave buccolingually 4. is parallel to the long axis occluso-gingivally

a. 1 and 2 b. 1,2 and 3 c. 2, 3, and 4

(?T) 1, 2, and 4

8. When comparing cavity preparations for primary and permanent teeth, the primary tooth requires a smaller, shallower, narrower preparation than the permanent tooth because the primary tooth:

1. is smaller in size 2. occlusal table is more constricted 3. pulp horns tent to extend more into cusps 4. contact areas are more flattened.

a. 1 and 2 b. 1,3, and 4 c. 2, 3, and 4 TM

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*~ 1,2, 3, and 4 0 9. The occlusal reduction on the stainless steel crown preparation should:

a. have 1-3 mm clearance when the teeth are in occlusion ^ p have 1 mm clearance when the teeth are in occlusion c. have 1 mm clearance when the jaws are in rest position d. be 3 - 4 mm from the crest of the gingival tissue

10. The axiopulpal line angle in a Class II preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar is usually rounded to:

a. increase the access area for the finishing of the cervical seat b. increase the resistance form in an area vulnerable to fracture c. increase visibility for applying the matrix band

(a?) reduce the concentration of stress

11. One of the following is not an objective of the Pediatric Dentisry Class II amalgam preparation:

a. an isthmus of approximately 1/4 intercuspal width b. a flat pulpal floor 0.5 mm into dentin c. a subgingival, flat gingival floor

(^P a gingival floor channel

12. The placing of in the buccal proximal wall of a mesio-occlusal cavity preparation

in a maxillary second primary molar is necessary so the wall is placed at 90° to the external

surface of the tooth, and so the is improved.

a. retention form; finish of the enamel wall (B) a reverse curve; resistance form c. outline form; removal of caries d. resistance form; retention form

13. The pulp horns most likely to be exposed accidentally in the preparation of a Class II cavity in

the maxillary second primary molar are the:

a. mesio-lingual and disto-lingual Q5) mesio-buccal and mesio-lingual TM

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c. disto-buccal and disto-lingual d. mesio-buccal and disto-buccal

14. Before applying a rubber dam clamp to a tooth, you should make sure it:

a. fits fiT) has a ligature tied to it

c. is comfortable d. has 4 point contact

15. To use a rubber dam most effectively, for preparing a molar filling, isolate:

a. only the tooth on which you are working b. tooth behind and in front on which you are working c. the quadrant

rfF\ last molar to cuspid

16 The holes in the rubber dam are punched:

a. random b. in a precise manner c. the hole for the most posterior tooth furthest from the line dividing the dam into the

upper and lower parts and the hole for the anterior tooth closest to a line dividing the ^^^ dam into the right and left sides (37) one mm. apart

17. Amalgam restorations are retained in a dental cavity preparation by:

a. cement or varnish (TJ^ convergent walls

c. divergent walls d. expansion of the alloy e. all of the above

18. The arch perimeter of the maxillary arch in children is usually:

C i ) slightly more than the mandibular arch b. 4 - 8 mm greater than the mandibular arch c. approximately the same as the mandibular arch TM

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d. has no correlation with mandibular arch perimeter

19. The most important determining factor in the placement of a space maintainer after the premature loss of a deciduous molar is:

a. whether the loss occurs in the maxilla or mandible b. the chronological age of the patient

(?&) the amount of bone covering the corresponding permanent tooth d. all of the above e. none of the above

20. Perimeter of the arch is the most important of the dental arch dimensions and usually with age.

a. increases £fT) decreases

c. remains constant

21. The most frequent space maintainer placed to preserve arch space is when the is lost prematurely.

Q2) primary second molar b. primary first molar c. primary cuspid d. primary incisor

22. If a child age 10 loses an upper central incisor in an accident, and it is not able to be replanted, a

space maintainer must be placed

a. because of esthetic considerations b. mesial vector of forces will tend to close the space c. for a few years until a permanent anterior bridge may be placed,

( e p all of these e. none of these

23. Before extraction of bicuspids is considered in a mixed dentition child with crowded arches, the

dentist should:

\a) measure arch perimeter carefully TM

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b. get a second opinion c. plan the orthodontic therapy d. trace a headfilm

24. You are in the process of finishing restorative care for a 10 years old child. The mother asks

you to examine the occlusion specifically to determine if all bicuspids will have adequate space

to erupt. You would use:

(a) Moyers Predictive Analysis o. radiographic measurements of the widths of the unerupted teeth c. combination analysis method d. 20 - 23 rule e. a and b f. all of the above

25. A Class II cavity preparation in a primary molar for dental amalgam restoration will not require a

gingival bevel, because the enamel rods in the area incline

A. facially. B. lingually. C. gingivally.

Q5p occlusally. E. vertically.

26. The thickness of coronal dentin in primary teeth, compared with that in corresponding permanent teeth, is approximately

A. one-fourth. B. one-third.

QT>ne-half. D. equal

27. Which of the following eruption sequences is most commonly found in the primary dentition?

A. Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, first molar, and second molar (B?)Central incisor, lateral incisor, first molar, canine, and second molar C^ First molar, central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, and second molar D. First molar, central incisor, lateral incisor, second molar, and canine

TM

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28. An 8-year-old child with normal tooth calcification and eruption has a primary mandibular second

molar extracted. The resulting space should be

(1p maintained until the premolar root is 2/3 developed. b. closed slightly to accommodate the smaller premolar. c. ignored, because the second premolar will erupt in a short time. d. left untreated, because the difference in size between the primary molar and premolar

will compensate for any drifting that might occur.

29. A mixed dentition analysis determines

a. inter canine width. b. skeletal growth pattern. c. discrepancies in jaw size. d. size of permanent incisors.

(jlT) space available versus space required.

30. Space closure is least likely to occur after loss of which of the following teeth?

a. Primary mandibular canines b. Primary mandibular second molars c. Primary maxillary first molars

^3£> Primary maxillary central incisors e. Permanent maxillary central incisors

31. A disadvantage of a removable space maintainer is that it

a. cannot be made esthetic. b. is difficult to keep clean. c. will not maintain vertical dimension,

(c?!") may not be worn by the patient.

32. Following extraction of a primary mandibular second molar in a 3 1/2-year-old child, the treatment of choice is to

a. place a removable appliance to replace the extracted tooth. b. allow the permanent first molar to erupt and then maintain space for the premolar.

Q ^ > place a fixed appliance to guide the eruption of the permanent first molar. <T place a removable appliance to replace the extracted tooth and prevent elongation of

the opposing primary molar.

33. When primary mandibular right first and second molars are lost in an 8-year-old patient, space

is best maintained by constructing and placing TM

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a. multiple space maintainers. b. bands on the remaining teeth. c. a functional removable appliance.

^cT) a bilateral nonfunctional space maintainer.

34. Premature exfoliation of a primary canine may indicate

a. an arch length excess. <3D a deficiency in the perimeter of the arch.

c. a skeletal malocclusion. d. None of the above.

35. On a lower distal shoe space maintainer, the shoe or spur fits into the gingiva

a. anywhere. (T5̂ > adjacent to the mesial surface of the unerupted molar.

c. adjacent to the lingual surface of the unerupted molar. d. None of the above.

36. The combined widths of the MANDIBULAR primary canine, first and second primary molars per quadrant is greater than the combined widths of their permanent successors. This dimensional difference is:

a. 0.7 mm b. 1.2 mm

<^a> 1.7 mm d. 2.2 mm

37. Unlike gold and temporary metal crowns, a stainless steel crown can be fitted to an undercut

because:

1. it is retained by friction 2. it is somewhat elastic 3. its marginal circumference is smaller than that of the tooth crown

r i Q 1 only & 2 only c. all of above d. 3 only

38. The taper placed during the circumferential reduction for the stainless steel crown preparation should be: TM

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<CH> 5-10 degrees b. 10-20 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 40 degrees

39. In festooning a chrome steel crown, special attention must be paid to the greater length necessary in the region of the mesiobuccal bulge in the:

a. mandibular permanent molar b. maxillary primary second molar c. mandibular primary second molar

j ± maxillary permanent first molar fej mandibular primary first molar

40. Usually, the first step in preparing a primary molar for a chrome steel crown is the:

( § / occlusal reduction b. proximal reduction c. buccal and lingual reduction d. rounding the proximal line angles e. caries removal

41. After a pulpectomy has been performed on a primary molar, the tooth should be restored with:

^ ) a stainless steel crown a. silver amalgam c. reinforced zinc oxide eugenol d. any of the above

42. In restoring a primary molar tooth with a Class II lesion, proper contact areas are important to:

1. aid in digestion 2. maintain arch perimeter 3 aesthetics 4. the strength of the restoration

a. 1 and 2 rtTS 2 and 4 TM

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c. 1 and 3

d. 1,2 and 3

43. Stainless steel crowns are usually used to restore primary molars affected by:

1. amelogenesis imperfecta 2. dentinogenesis imperfecta 3. ectodermal dysplasia ap 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3

44. Space closure following the premature loss of a primary tooth occurs most frequently in the area of the

^ ) primary second molar b. primary first molar c. primary canines d. primary lateral incisors

45. Following the loss of a mandibular permanent first molar, one could expect which of the following changes to occur in that quadrant over a period of time?

<ta) distal drift of the second premolar and mesial drift of the second molar b. mesial drift of both the second premolar and permanent second molar c. no premolar movement but the second molar will drift

46. On an average, the leeway space is in the upper arch and in the lower arch.

a. b.

5> r.

5.6 mm; 1.5 mm; 1.8 mm; 4.2 mm;

3.2 mm 3.9 mm 3.4 mm 1.9 mm

47. Which of the following statements regarding the Moyer's Mixed Dentition Analysis is FALSE?

a. You may use it to evaluate both the maxillary and mandibular/ arches b. You will need to have at least the four permanent lower incisors erupted c. You may make your evaluation in the mouth as well as on diagnostic casts

(^a\) You will need a set of periapical radiographs that have been taken with a meticulous ^-s technique

TM

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48. There is a precise permanent tooth size correlation between the:

1. lower incisors and lower posterior teeth 2. lower incisors and upper posterior teeth 3. upper incisors and upper posterior teeth

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1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 2 and 3 d. 1,2 and 3

49. A 9 year-old child loses a lower 2nd mandibular primary molar. You should

a. observe (j^> place a band and loop space maintainer c. place a Nance appliance d. start ortho treatment

50. A 4 year-old child loses a primary mandibular 2nd molar. You should

a. place a unilateral spacer (B>> place a distal shoe spacer c. place a lingual arch d. place a Nance appliance

51. In doing a Nance mixed dentition analysis for a 7 year old child the space needed is determined by measuring

a. the sum of the M-D width of the teeth in the arch @D the sum of the M-D width of the permanent teeth in the arch plus the M-D width of the

unerupted bicuspids and cuspids c. the width of the teeth

52. You have a 9 year-old child in your chair with Class I molar relation but crowded lower anteriors

(about 2 mm). Best treatment to relieve crowding would be

extract cuspids observe

c. place lingual arch to preserve leeway space d. place lingual arch, extract primary teeth

TM

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53. You have a 5 year-old child that has rampant caries. The restoration of choice is

a. amalgams (cT) stainless steel crowns b. composites cT extraction

TM

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