PCP IIT-JEE | NEET | NTSE | OLYMPIADS | KVPY

Class : V/L IIT-JEE | NEET | NTSE | OLYMPIADS | KVPYPCP, S ik ar 1

01. Ants move in a line because of their sense of:-

(1) Sight (2) Smell

(3) Taste (4) Hearing

02. Ants leave behind a ___________ when they move:-

(1) Water (2) Smell

(3) Blood (4) None of these

03. Dogs mark their areas by

(1) Urinating

(2) Barking

(3) Urinating and barking

(4) None of these

04. How many types of snakes are poisonous in India?

(1) 6 types (2) 4 types

(3) 8 types (4) All of these

05. ‘Naag Gumphan’ designs are used in the Rangoli and

embroidery in the State of:-

(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) UP

(3) Gujarat (4) Kerala

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The Question Booklet consists of 100 Questions, each of them is of 4 Marks. The maximum Marks are 400.

Subject wise division of 100 Questions are as follows : Science-20, Maths-20, Mat-20, English-20 & SST-20.

Candidates will be awarded 4 Marks for indicated correct response of each question.

One mark will be deducted for incorrect response of each question.

The duration of the exam is 2 Hours.

01. -

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

02.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

03.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

04.

(1) 6 (2) 4

(3) 8 (4)

05. ‘ ’

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


06. What is the name of ‘Aampapad’ in Andhra?

(1) MamidiTandra (2) Amavat

(3) Aam roti (4) All the above

07. Why do we keep food and vegetables in refrigerator?

(1) To keep them fresh

(2) To make them crisp

(3) To make them more tasteful

(4) None of these

08. Why should we not eat junk food?

(1) Good for health

(2) Not good for health

(3) Give us energy

(4) All of these

09. Name the seeds which disperse by water.

(1) Lotus (2) Rose

(3) Marigold (4) All

10. Identify the name of an insectivorous plant.

(1) Zenia (2) Cactus

(3) Money plant (4) Pitcher plant

11. Three percent of all the world’s water is?

(1) Salt water (2) Unreachable

(3) Ice (4) Fresh water

12. Artificial lakes were made in earlier times in order to

save ______ water.

(1) Ground water (2) Rain water

(3) Fresh water (4) Drinking water

13. When is the best time of day to water your lawn?

(1) Early morning or late evening

(2) In the afternoon

(3) All day long

(4) None of these

14. The quantity of salt dissolved per litre of water in the

Dead sea is:

(1) 300 grams

(2) 400 grams

(3) 200 grams

(4) 500 grams

06.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

07.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

08.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

09.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

10.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

11.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

12.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

13.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14.

(1) 300

(2) 400

(3) 200

(4) 500


15. Which of these ways to wash the car saves the most

water?

(1) Wash it in the driveway with the garden hose

(2) Drive it into the lake

(3) Take it through a car wash that recycles water

(4) None of these

16. The figure given below shows food substances.

Which of the following vitamins is present in the given

substances?

(1) Vitamin E (2) Vitamin D

(3) Vitamin K (4) Vitamin C

17. Where is Golconda Fort situated?

(1) Hydrabad (2) Madras

(3) Mumbai (4) Gujarat

18. Are Present Inside

(1) Leaves (2) Fruit

(3) Flowers (4) Roots

19. During Germination The Seedling Gets Food From.

(1) Seed Coat (2) Seed Hole

(3) Cotyledons (4) Embryo

20. Are ______ Thing

(1) Living (2) Non -Living

(3) Neither 1 And 2 (4) Both 1 And 2

15.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16.

(1) E (2) D

(3) K (4) C

17.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

18.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

19.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

20.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 1 2


21. If 1 kg of sugar cost 40 rupees, the cost of 1

22

is:

(1) 40 Rupees (2) 80 Rupees

(3) 100 Rupees (4) 120 Rupees

22. When fresh fish is dried it becomes 1

3of its weight. Wee

dry 6kg fresh fish to get _____ kg dried fish.

(1) 1 kg (2) 2 kg

(3) 3 kg (4) 4 kg

23. An obtuse angle is ______than a right angle.

(1) Smaller (2) Greater

(3) Equal to (4) None of these

24. What kind of angle is made by minute and hour hands at

10 o'clock?

(1) Acute angle (2) Obtuse angle

(3) Right angle (4) Reflex angle

25. The area of a square is 36 sq. cm, find its perimeter?

(1) 24 cm (2) 12 cm

(3) 36 cm (4) None of these

26. A triangle of half of the rectangle. Area of the retangle

is 20 square cm and then find the area of the triangles?

(1) 20 sq cm (2) 10 sq cm

(3) 5 sq cm (4) None of these

27. 20 paise is __________ part of a rupee

(1) 1

5(2)

1

4

(3) 1

2(4)

1

3

28. Which of the following fractions are in lowest form?

(1) 5

10(2)

1

2

(3) 10

15(4)

13

26

21. 1 kg 1

22

:

(1) 40 (2) 80

(3) 100 (4) 120

22.1

3

:

(1) 1 kg (2) 2 kg

(3) 3 kg (4) 4 kg

23. ______

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

24.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

25. ?

(1) 24 cm (2) 12 cm

(3) 36 cm (4)

26.

(1) 20 cm2 (2) 10 cm2

(3) 5 cm2 (4)

27.

(1) 1

5(2)

1

4

(3) 1

2(4)

1

3

28. ?

(1) 5

10(2)

1

2

(3) 10

15(4)

13

26


29. Half of half is ______:

(1) 1

2(2)

1

4

(3) 1

8(4) 1

30. How many lines of symmetry does a rectangle have?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) Infinite

31. The highest common factor of 22 and 33 is ___.

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 11 (4) 1

32. The ___________ of two or more give numbers is the

lowest of their common multiples.

(1) LCM (2) HCF

(3) Prime factorisation (4) None of these

33. The smallest composite odd number is ________:

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 9

34. Look at the following pattern and write the next step?

12 × 2 + 3 = 27

12 × 3 + 3 = 39

12 × 4 + 3 = 51

(1) 12 × 5 + 3 = 63 (2) 12 × 6 + 3 = 785

(3) 12 × 7 + 3 = 87 (4) 12 × 3 + 3 = 39

35. Find the odd one out

(1) 120 (2) 121

(3) 123 (4) 129

36. Fill in the blanks : 34 × _____ = 23 × 34

(1) 23 (2) 34

(3) 1 (4) None of these

37. Fractions which represent equal values are called :

(1) Proper fractions (2) Impreoper fractions

(3) Equivalent fractions (4) None of these

38. What should be subtracted from the greatest 7 digit num-

ber to get 65, 43, 210?

(1) 12, 34, 567 (2) 99, 99, 999

(3) 12,34,560 (4) 36,56,789

29. ______:

(1) 1

2(2)

1

4

(3) 1

8(4) 1

30. ?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4)

31. ___.

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 11 (4) 1

32.

(1) LCM (2) HCF

(3) (4)

33. ________:

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 9

34.

12 × 2 + 3 = 27

12 × 3 + 3 = 39

12 × 4 + 3 = 51

(1) 12 × 5 + 3 = 63 (2) 12 × 6 + 3 = 785

(3) 12 × 7 + 3 = 87 (4) 12 × 3 + 3 = 39

35.

(1) 120 (2) 121

(3) 123 (4) 129

36. : 34 × _____ = 23 × 34

(1) 23 (2) 34

(3) 1 (4)

37. :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

38. 65, 43,

210 ?

(1) 12, 34, 567 (2) 99, 99, 999

(3) 12,34,560 (4) 36,56,789


39. To get a quotient of 700 and a remainder 48 what num-

ber should be divided by 100?

(1) 748 (2) 70,048

(3) 70,000 (4) 7,048

40. Which is the odd one in following:

(1) 37 (2) 47

(3) 57 (4) 97

39.

(1) 748 (2) 70,048

(3) 70,000 (4) 7,048

40.

(1) 37 (2) 47

(3) 57 (4) 97


41. 24, 60, 120, 210, ?

(1) 300 (2) 336

(3) 420 (4) 525

42. 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?

(1) 58965 (2) 65423

(3) 89654 (4) 96542

43. 20, 20, 19, 16, 17, 13, 14, 11, ?, ?

(1) 10, 10 (2) 10, 11

(3) 13, 14 (4) 13, 16

44. AJS, GPY, ? , SBK, YHQ

(1) DMV (2) MVE

(3) OUA (4) QZI

45. AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL

(1) FMI (2) GMJ

(3) GLJ (4) HLK

46. PERPENDICULAR, ERPENDICULA,

RPENDICUL, PENDICU ?

(1) PENDICUL (2) PENDIC

(3) ENDIC (4) ENDICU

47. In numbers 5 8 1 3 2 7 6 4, how many digits are such

which are at the same distance from for the beginning

as if arranged in descending order ?

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) One (4) None

48. A B Z Y C D X W E F V U G H T S I J R Q

K L P O M N

Observe the letter series and observe letter which is at

the central place of letters which is at 8th place from the

left and at 13,h place from right, find the serial number

of that letter from left?

(1) 13 (2) 14

(3) 16 (4) 11

41. 24, 60, 120, 210, ?

(1) 300 (2) 336

(3) 420 (4) 525

42. 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423, ?

(1) 58965 (2) 65423

(3) 89654 (4) 96542

43. 20, 20, 19, 16, 17, 13, 14, 11, ?, ?

(1) 10, 10 (2) 10, 11

(3) 13, 14 (4) 13, 16

44. AJS, GPY, ? , SBK, YHQ

(1) DMV (2) MVE

(3) OUA (4) QZI

45. AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL

(1) FMI (2) GMJ

(3) GLJ (4) HLK

46. PERPENDICULAR, ERPENDICULA,

RPENDICUL, PENDICU ?

(1) PENDICUL (2) PENDIC

(3) ENDIC (4) ENDICU

47. 5 8 1 3 2 7 6 4

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) One (4) None

48. A B Z Y C D X W E F V U G H T S I J R Q

K L P O M N

8

(1) 13 (2) 14

(3) 16 (4) 11


49. If the following, four words are arranged in alphabetical

order, which word will come third.

(1) False (2) Fool

(3) Follow (4) Faith

50. If � stands for -, � stands for +, + stands for � and -

stand for � , which one of the following equations is

correct ?

(1) 610205515 ��

(2) 8653108 ��

(3) 15312326 ��

(4) 10310573 ��

51. Which one of the four interchanges in signs and numbers

would make the given equation correct ?

3 + 5 - 2 = 4

(1) + and -, 2 and 3 (2) + and -, 2 and 5

(3) + and -, 3 and 5 (4) None of these

52. If A means -, B means � , C means + and D means � ,

then

? 2 D 12A 24 C 3 B 15 �

(1) 34 (2) 2

(3) 5/9 (4) None of these

53. If a is coded as 3, b is coded as 5 than what will be the

code for j.

(1) 23 (2) 21

(3) 24 (4) 26

54. If in a certain code MICHAEL is coded as JGBHBGO,

in this code AMERICA will be written as :

(1) XKDRJEC (2) XKDRKED

(3) XKDRJED (4) XKERJED

55. If CRICKETER is coded as DQJBLDUDS, PLAYER

will be coded as:

(1) QMBZFA (2) OMZZDS

(3) QKBXFQ (4) QKBZDS

49.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

50. � -, � +, + �

(1) 610205515 ��

(2) 8653108 ��

(3) 15312326 ��

(4) 10310573 ��

51.

3 + 5 - 2 = 4

(1) + -, 2 and 3 (2) + -, 2 and 5

(3) + -, 3 and 5 (4)

52. A -, B ÷, C + D

�

? 2 D 12A 24 C 3 B 15 �

(1) 34 (2) 2

(3) 5/9 (4)

53. a 3 b 5

j

(1) 23 (2) 21

(3) 24 (4) 26

54. MICHAEL JGBHBGO

AMERICA

:

(1) XKDRJEC (2) XKDRKED

(3) XKDRJED (4) XKERJED

55. CRICKETER DQJBLDUDS

PLAYER

(1) QMBZFA (2) OMZZDS

(3) QKBXFQ (4) QKBZDS


Directions : Each of the following questions con-

tains certain information regarding the movement of a

person from a certain point to his destination or relating

to the position of a group of persons. Study the informa-

tion carefully and tick the right option out of (1) to (4)

56. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he turns to

South and walks 5 km. Again he turns to East and walks

2 km, after this he turns to North and walks 9 km. Now,

how far is he from his starting point?

(1) 3 km (2) 4 km

(3) 5 km (4) 7 km

57. Amit walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned

to his left and walked 20 metres. He then turned to his

left and walked 25 metres. He turned to his right and

walked 15 metres. At what distance is he from the

starting point and in which direction?

(1) 35 metres East (2) 35 metres North

(3) 40 metres East (4) 60 metres East

58. From his house, Julia went 15 kms to the North. Then

she turned West and covered 10 kms. Then, she turned

South and covered 5 kms. Finally, turning to East, she

covered 10 kms. In which direction is she from her

house?

(1) East (2) West

(3) North (4) South

Direction : Following questions consists of a pair of

letter-groups that have a certain relationship to each other,

followed by four other pairs of letter-groups given as

alternatives. Select the pair in which the letter-groups are

similarly related as in the given pair.

59. CEH : IKN

(1) ACD : FHJ (2) CDF : IJK

(3) EFH : KMN (4) OQT : UWZ

60. Which of the following pairs is the same as AZ, EV, GT

and DW ?

(1) un (2) WZ

(3) HS (4) BW

(1) to (4)

56. 1

5

2

9

(1) 3 km (2) 4 km

(3) 5 km (4) 7 km

57. 25

20

25 15

(1) 35 (2) 35

(3) 40 (4) 60

58. 15

10

5

10

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

:

59. CEH : IKN

(1) ACD : FHJ (2) CDF : IJK

(3) EFH : KMN (4) OQT : UWZ

60. AZ, EV, GT DW

?

(1) un (2) WZ

(3) HS (4) BW


Bees are insects. to the flowers! Bees can have three col-

ors. They can be yellow, red, and orange. All bees are

black in some places. Bees have three main parts. They

have a head. They have a body. And, they have a stinger.

The stinger is used to defend against enemies. They also

have six legs. They use their legs to stand and climb. They

also use their legs to eat and collect pollen. Bees live in

many places. They live in Africa, Australia, Asia, Europe,

North America, South America. The only continent that

bees do not live on is Antarctica! I understand why they

don’t live in Antarctica. It’s too cold! Most of the time, bees

are nice to humans. If you do not bother them, they will not

bother you. Have fun watching the bees this summer!

Answer the following questions -

61. What are bees?

(1) Mammals (2) Birds

(3) Reptiles (4) Insects

62. How do bees fly?

(1) They use their legs (2) They use their head

(3) They use their wings (4) None of the above

63. How many legs do bees have?

(1) Two (2) Four

(3) Six (4) Eight

64. What is the stinger used for?

(1) To eat food (2) To defend against enemies

(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of the above

65. Where do bees live?

(1) North America (2) Asia

(3) Antarctica (4) Both 1 and 2

Choose correct Homophones.(Q 66 to 70)

66. In the forest, you might see a grizzly __________.

(1) Bear (2) Bare

(3) Barer (4) Bariest

67. Don't get too close to the bear, it might ________ you!

(1) Byte (2) Bite

(3) Bytes (4) Beats

68. I can see my house from ______.

(1) hear (2) here

(3) hearer (4) hearest

69. I feel ____________.

(1) week (2) weak

(3) Weaker (4) Weakest

70. I didn't ____ what she said.

(1) hear (2) here

(3) heares (4) none

Choose correct Adjectives and Adverbs. (Q 71 to 75)

71. She played _____.

(1) beautiful (2) beautifuly

(3) beautifully (4) beautifuliest

72. The TV's far too ____.

(1) louding (2) loudly

(3) Loud (4) Louder

73. She speaks so very ____.

(1) quickier (2) quick

(3) Quicker (4) Quicked

74. She's a ____learner.

(1) quick (2) quickly

(3) Quicker (4) Quicked

75. I know them quite ____.

(1) Beautiful (2) well

(3) Worst (4) Fair

Choose correct Prepositions.(Q 76 to 80)

76. Nafeesa is afraid_____ spiders.

(1) from (2) in

(3) about (4) of

77. I am worried_____ the exam.

(1) in (2) about

(3) on (4) of

78. He looks upset, I think he took the criticism_____ heart.

(1) to (2) about

(3) in (4) of

79. I am envious_____ them.

(1) of (2) about

(3) in (4) on

80. She suffers_____ a heart disease.

(1) about (2) in

(3) from (4) on


81. Holiest place skin Saudi Arabia is.........

(1) Mecca (2) Qutb Minar

(3) Red Fort (4) Jama Masjid

82. ...........is an important commercial city and port of Saudi

Arabia

(1) Riyadh (2) Jeddah

(3) Matadi (4) Medina

83. The climate of Saudi Arabia is......

(1) hot and wet (2) cold and dry

(3) hot and dry (4) none of these

84. Place close to the pole have a......... temperature.

(1) humid (2) cold

(3) hot (4) temperate

85. The temperature of the place..........with hight above the

sea level.

(1) increases (2) decreases

(3) both 1 and 2 (4) none of these

86. The average weather taken over a long period of time

is........

(1) atmosphere (2) climate

(3) season (4) none of these

87. The Earth is divided into.......... zones.

(1) two (2) three

(3) four (4) five

88. The torrid zone lies on........

(1) only north of the equator

(2) only south of the equator

(3) either side of the equator

(4) none of these

89. Wind generally blow from area of......

(1) Low pressure to high pressure

(2) Low pressure to moderate pressure

(3) High pressure to low pressure

(4) High pressure to moderate pressure

81.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

82.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

83.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

84.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

85.

(1) (2)

(3) 1 2 (4)

86.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

87.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

88.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

89.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


90. DCR stands for.....

(1) Democratic Republic of Congo

(2) Democratic Relation of country

(3) both 1 and 2

(4) none of these

91. Maps are important tools that help us to

(1) Type of vegetation of different place

(2) Area of different place

(3) Find the locations of different place

(4) Type of soil of different place

92. The person who makes maps is called

(1) Photographer (2) Cartographer

(3) Cinematographer (4) Sketch-graphic

93. Which of the following is not shown on a relief or physi-

cal map?

(1) Mountains (2) Rivers

(3) Crops (4) Valleys

94. GPS stands for.........

(1) Globe Position System

(2) Global Positioning System

(3) Geological Position System

(4) Geographical Positioning System

95. The globe can be moved around axis form

(1) North to south (2) West to east

(3) East to west (4) South to north

96. Crust is....... km thick under the ocean.

(1) 3 (2) 5

(3) 7 (4) 9

97. Neil Armstrong belonged to.......

(1) Africa (2) Australia

(3) America (4) none of these

98. There are........... planets in the solar system.

(1) Eight (2) Nine

(3) Ten (4) none of these

99. Which one of the following maps shows a very large

area with less details?

(1) Large scale (2) Thematic

(3) Physical (4) Small scale

100. Which one of the following is not an example of a map?

(1) Thematic (2) Physical

(3) Political (4) Statement

90. DCR

(1)

(2)

(3) 1 2

(4)

91.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

92.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

93.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

94. GPS

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

95.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

96.

(1) 3 (2) 5

(3) 7 (4) 9

97.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

98.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

99.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

100.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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